meds Flashcards

1
Q

morphine

A

opioid analgesic; acts on opioid receptor in CNS; class II; CI: pregnancy, respiratory disorders; monitor Q30 minutes for CNS depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

naloxone

A

narcan; opioid antagonist - binds to receptors; ADE: tachycardia, dysrhythmias, BP changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

general anesthetics

A

loss of pain perception, loss of consciousness, amnesia; risk of CNS depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

local anesthetic

A

“-caine”, lidocaine, procaine; inhibits conduction of action potentials across nerve fibers by blocking NA+ channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Ibuprofen

A

advil; NSAID; anti-inflammatory; can cause stomach problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

acetaminophen

A

tylenol; non-opioid centrally acting analgesic; exact MOA unknown, not anti inflammatory; CI: alcoholism, hepatic/renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

acetaminophen antidote

A

acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

aminoglycoside prototype

A

gentamicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

gentamicin

A

aminoglycoside: powerful antibiotic; against gram(-) bacilli; inhibits protein synthesis; IV, IM, PO, topical; ADE: ototoxic (tinnitus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

fluoroquinolone prototype

A

ciprofloxacin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ciprofloxacin

A

fluoroquinolone gram (-) broad spectrum synthetic; treat UTI; interfere w/ DNA replication; ADE: insomnia, depression; PO/IV; D-D: iron salts, antacids, NSAIDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

penicillin - amoxicillin

A

broad spectrum **gram (+) **antibiotic; inhibit cell wall building; NVD; D-D: tetracyclines, IV aminoglycosides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole drug name

A

bactrim

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

bactrim

A

sulfonamide; trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole; broad spectrum gram (+) or (-); inhibit folic acid synthesis; NVD; teratogenic; CI: thiazide diuretics; intensifies warfarin/phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Lincosamide and macrolide suffix

A

-mycin; both are similar but differ chemically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

vancomycin

A

lincosamide; gram(+) antibiotic - interfere w/ protein synthesis; PO; C. difficile pseudomembranous colitis treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

albuterol

A

short acting beta 2 agonist (SABA); stimulates beta 2 receptors in lungs; inhaler-rescue/quick relief; dilates bronchi, increases rate+depth of respirations; sympathetic NS effects: insomnia, tremor, restlessness. rebound bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

diphenhydramine class

A

antihistamines (benadryl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

antihistamines

A

ex. diphenhydramine (benadryl); directly compete with histamine for receptor sites; manage seasonal allergic rhinitis (hay fever), allergic reactions, motion sickness, sleep disorders, paradoxical effect in kids-hyperactivity
properties: antihistaminic, anticholinergic, sedative, antipruritic (anti-itch)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

antitussive prototypes

A

dextromethorphan (robitussin), Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

antitussives

A

codeine, dextromethorphan (robitussin); CNS effect: suppress cough reflex by direct action on the medullary cough center in the brain; CI: head injury, cough needed to ensure airway (asthma, emphysema, COPD); can cause drowsiness and CNS depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

codeine

A

antitussive narcotic opiate (schedule III) – moderate abuse potential; can cause sedation and drowsiness / CNS depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

decongestants

A

usually adrenergics/sympathomimetics (mimic the sympathetic NS); dec. secretions via vasoconstriction; can be oral, topical nasal spray, or topical nasal steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

pseudoephedrine (sudafed)

A

oral decongestant; adrenergic; dec. nasal congestion and earache pain; caution w/: cardiac pt., HTN, hyperthyroid, combo w/ other adrenergics; limit use for 3-5 days - monitor for rebound (congestion comes back after discontinued use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

phenylephrine (coricidin)

A

OTC topical nasal decongestant spray; immediate onset of action with local effect (better for cardiac pt.); caution in: cardiac pt., HTN, hyperthyroid, glaucoma (inc. pressure); assess adrenergic effects; monitor for rebound, limit use 3-5 days; watch for nasal ulceration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

fluticasone (flonase)

A

nasal steroid decongestant; anti-inflammatory effect; decreases systemic allergy symptoms; takes weeks to see full effect (take everyday); monitor for candida infection; avoid airborne illness exposure (inflammatory response decreased)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

bronchodilators - anticholinergics

A

blocks action of ACh to prevent bronchoconstriction and dilate airways; useful for pt. who can’t tolerate B2 agonists but not as effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ipratropium (atrovent)

A

short acting anticholinergic bronchodilator - for acute asthma episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

tiotropium (spiriva)

A

long acting anticholinergic bronchodilator; take everyday - not for acute episodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

xanthines

A

theophylline; cause smooth muscle relaxation in respiratory tract; treat asthma and COPD; reduces bronchial edema; narrow margin of safety (not used as much); avoid caffeine; monitor for tachycardia and seizures; must be used regularly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

inhaled corticosteriods

A

reduces inflammation; combined with bronchodilator (give bronchodilator first); rinse mouth after use (prevent fungal infection); inhaling doesn’t produce systemic effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

inhaled corticosteroid examples

A

budesonide (pulmicort turbuhaler), fluticasone (flovent), beclomethasone (beclovent, vanceril)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

lispro (humalog)

A

rapid acting insulin

34
Q

regular insulin (novolin R)

A

short acting insulin

35
Q

lantus

A

long acting insulin

36
Q

NPH insulin (novolin N)

A

intermediate acting insulin

37
Q

levothyroxine (synthroid)

A

replacement therapy in hypothyroidism; increases the metabolic rate of body tissues; excreted in bile; iron and Ca dec. absorption (take 1st thing in morning); ADE: symptoms of hyperthyroidism

38
Q

prednisone

A

corticosteroid used to used to increase blood glucose levels and reduce insulin sensitivity, as replacement therapy for adrenal insufficiency, treatment of allergic and inflammatory disorders (rheumatoid arthritis); can mask hypoglycemia, prolonged use inc. osteoporosis risk

39
Q

antacids

A

neutralize stomach acid; promote gastric mucosal defense mechanisms; don’t stop overproduction of acid; can interfere with other oral drug absorption - take meds 1-2 hours apart from antacid; can mask other issues

40
Q

antacid examples

A

aluminum salts, magnesium salts, calcium salts, sodium bicarbonate

41
Q

docusate (colace)

A

stool softener/lubricant laxative; used for short term relief of constipation, prevent straining, and evacuate bowels for procedure; not absorbed systemically - excreted in the feces

42
Q

famotidine (pepcid)

A

H2 antagonist, antiulcer; blocks histamine on the H2 receptor sites of the parietal cells causing dec. gastric acid secretion; take 30 mins before eating; limit use to 8 weeks or 2 week OTC use

43
Q

laxative MOAs

A

chemical stimulant, bulk stimulant, osmotic stimulant, lubricants

44
Q

chemical stimulant laxatives

A

ex. bisacodyl (ducolax); stimulation beginning at small intestine to increase motility through intestine by irritating nerve plexus; caution in cardiac disease due to stimulation of vagus nerve

45
Q

bulk stimulant laxatives

A

ex. polyethylene glycol (miralax); causes the fecal matter to increase in bulk and distend bowel to initiate reflex bowel activity; prefered for long term use

46
Q

osmotic stimulant laxatives

A

ex. magnesium citrate; increase osmotic pull of fluid into the GI tract to inc. pressure and stimulate intestinal motility; caution in cardiac disease - fluid and electrolyte imbalance/dehydration; not absorbed systemically

47
Q

lubricant laxatives

A

ex. docusate (colace), mineral oil; promotes mixture of fats and water in stool, softens stool; can take 1-3 days to work; CI: appendicitis, colitis, diverticulitis

48
Q

laxative nursing considerations

A

obtain history of symptoms, elimination patterns, and allergies; assess f/e; hold for nausea, vomiting, or abd. pain; encourage high fiber diet and fluid intake; long term use can dec. bowel tone and cause dependency; swallow tablets whole (not crushed) with glass of water

49
Q

proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)

A

omeprazole (prilosec); anti ulcer; inhibits proton pump activity in gastric parietal cells to suppress gastric acid secretion; long term use inc. risk for osteopenia and interfere w/ B12 absorption; inc. c. diff risk

50
Q

tamsulosin (flowmax)

A

a1-adrenergic blocking agent; treat benign prostate hyperplasia; blocks alpha receptors in prostate - smooth muscle relaxation - inc. urine flow; start dose low and work up; take 30 mins after same meal each day

51
Q

antiemetic

A

ondansetron (zofran); serotonin type 3 receptor antagonist; blocks serotonin receptors in CNS and GI tract - reduced vomiting sensation; monitor HR and rhythm; PO, IV, PR (rectally)

52
Q

seizure medications

A

inc. GABA to reduce neuronal excitability; stabilize the nerve membrane; block channels in cell membrane or altering receptor sites; depress abnormal neuronal discharges; goal: reduce seizure frequency to live a normal life

53
Q

barbiturates (phenobarbital)

A

antiseizure; used for tonic clonic and acute episodic seizures caused by status epilepticus; reduces seizures w/o sedation; stabilizes nerve membrane to reduce excitability; ADE: ataxia(poor coordination), mood changes, hypoTN, dependence

54
Q

benzodiazepines (diazepam)

A

antiseizure; used for absence seizures; stabilize nerve membrane from hyperexcitability; ADE: sedation, drowsiness, dependence

55
Q

SSRIs

A

ex. fluoxetine (prozac); most prescribed antidepressants; only affects serotonin; 2-3 weeks for full effect; use for depression, anxiety, social phobia, OCD, ADE: serotonin syndrome (agitation, insomnia, confusion, tachycardia, HTN, dilated pupils, twitching, muscle ridgitity

56
Q

anticholinergics

A

ex. atropine, benztropine; block parasympathetic NS (muscarinic receptors); inc. sympathetic symptoms; used in parkinson’s treatment, bradycardia, intestinal hypermotility

57
Q

levodopa

A

inc. dopamine synthesis for treatment of parkinsons

58
Q

carbidopa

A

enhances levodopa action (dopamine synthesis) in treatment of parkinson’s

59
Q

anti anxiety meds

A

SSRIs, benzodiazepines (diazepam/valium, lorazepam/ativan, xanax)

60
Q

centrally acting muscle relaxant

A

baclofen; acts on CNS to interfere with reflexes causing contractions; alleviate s/s of spasticity, used in spinal cord conditions

61
Q

direct acting muscle skeletal muscle relaxant

A

dantrolene; treat spasticity directly affecting peripheral muscle contraction; interferes with release of calcium from muscle tubules - prevents fibers from contracting; CI: spasticity affecting upright position

62
Q

phenazopyridine (pyridium)

A

analgesic to relieve pain due to UTI; can turn urine orange/red; only take for up to 2 days, after meals; stops spasm from UTI

63
Q

treatment of BPH

A

tamsulosin hydrochloride (flomax) and finasteride (propecia, proscar)

64
Q

finasteride (propecia, proscar)

A

5-a reductase inhibitor; treatment of BPH; blocks conversion of testosterone to DHT - shrinks prostate; ADE: impotence, dec. libido, gynecomastia

65
Q

ferrous sulfate

A

iron supplement; treatment of iron deficiency anemia; ADE: constipation, staining of teeth; antacids and tetracycline inhibits absorption; ascorbic acid increases absorption

66
Q

cyanocobalamin

A

vitamin B12 IM injection; treatment of megaloblastic pernicious anemia

67
Q

epoetin alfa (epogen)

A

erythropoiesis stimulating agent; treat anemia of chronic kidney disease (lack of erythropoietin); stimulates bone marrow to make RBCs; ADE: bone pain, HTN, edema, HA; CI: uncontrolled HTN

68
Q

lisinopril

A

angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor; inhibits RAAS system/ conversion of angiotensin I -> II; dec. BP and vasoconstriction; used to treat HTN and HF; ADE: hypoTN, angioedema, hyperkalemia

69
Q

lostartan

A

angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB); treat HTN; blocks angiotensin II receptors in smooth muscle and adrenal cortex; blocks release of aldosterone to prevent peripheral vasoconstriction; ADE: angioedema, hyperkalemia, renal failure

70
Q

beta blockers

A

inhibit beta 1 receptors in SNS - blocks norepinephrine and epinephrine; used for stable angina pectoris, HTN, HF, cardiac dysrhythmias, performance anxiety; ADE: bradycardia, bronchoconstriction, reduced CO, HF

can be cardio selective or non-selective

suffix: “-lol”

71
Q

cardio selective beta blockers

A

metoprolol, atenolol; only block B1 receptors in the heart; slows cardiac activity

72
Q

non-selective beta blockers

A

propranolol (inderal), carvedilol; block both B1 and B2 receptors; caution in diabetes (can mask blood sugar)

73
Q

calcium channel blockers

A

blocks movement of Ca - less nerve impulses - vasodilation, slowing of HR (chronotropic), condiction (dromotropic), and contractility (ionotropic); lowers HR and BP - dec. workload of heart

can be dihydropyridines or non-dihydropyridines

74
Q

dihydropyridine CCBs

A

amlodipine, nifedipine; act only on arterial smooth muscle, not on myocardium; vasodilation; used for angina and HTN

75
Q

non-dihydropyridine CCBs

A

verapamil, diltiazem; affect arterial smooth muscle and cardiac calcium channel; used for stable angina pectoris, HTN, very rapid HR, and dysrhythmias; ADE: bradycardia and heart block

76
Q

nitroglycerine

A

venous vasodilator; reduces venous return, reduces preload; use for HTN, HF, MI, angina pectoris; ADE: postural hypoTN, reflex tachycardia, HA; combine with diuretic to avoid blood vol. inc.

77
Q

digoxin

A

cardiac glycoside; decreases conduction through AV node, inc. vagal tone, dec. HR; used for HF, a. fib, a. flutter, atrial tachycardia; narrow therapeutic range; decreases morbidity but not mortality

78
Q

warfarin (coumadin)

A

suppresses extrinsic clotting factor; PO; inhibits clotting factor synthesis (does not get rid of already existing clotting factors); 2-5 days for full effect (overlap with heparin); lots of interactions (avoid OTC and herbal); used to prevent DVT and pulmonary emboli, thrombus in heart valves and A. fib.; off label used to reduce TIAs and recurrent MI; inc. bleeding risk

monitor PT and INR

antidote/reversal: vitamin K

79
Q

baclofen (Gablofen)

A

centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxer; work in the CNS to interfere with the reflexes that are causing the muscle spasm; not metabolized; Treatment of muscle spasticity associated with neuromuscular diseases such as multiple sclerosis, muscle rigidity, and spinal cord injuries

80
Q

colchicine (Colcrys)

A

gout treatment; rapid symptoms relief within 12 hours; can cause GI distress; long term use may cause Rhabdomyolysis

81
Q

alendronate (fosamax)

A

bisphosphonate; anti-osteopenic; treatment and prevention of osteoporosis by slowing bone resorption; stay upright for 30 mins after taking to reduce esophageal erosion risk; take first thing 30 mins before food or other meds

82
Q

additional osteoporosis treatment

A

calcium and vitamin D (inc. dietary absorption of Ca