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ICSM Year 6 + edits > Medicine - Infectious disease > Flashcards

Medicine - Infectious disease Flashcards

1
Q

Which hepatitis viruses can be faeco-orally transmitted?

A

fAEco-oral
Hep A
Hep E

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2
Q

What is the triad of symptoms seen in acute viral hepatitis?

A

Jaundice
RUQ pain
Fever
nb. Is same as Charcot’s triad for cholangitis

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3
Q

Which type of hepatitis is associated with polyarteritis nodosa?

A

Hep B

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4
Q

How is Hep B transmitted?

A

Vertically, sex, blood products

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5
Q

Recall the HBV antibodies that will be positive in current, past and vaccinated Hep B

A

Current: sAg, cAb
Past: cAb, sAb
Vaccinated: sAb

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6
Q

Which hepatitis viruses are associated with hepatocellular carcinoma?

A

HBV and HCV

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7
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of hep D infection?

A

Fulminant acute hepatitis

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8
Q

What is the most common form of hepatitis virus in the UK?

A

Hep E

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9
Q

What is the standard pulmonary TB therapy?

A

Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrizinamide and ethambutol for 2 months
then
Rifampicin and isoniazid for 4 more months

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10
Q

Recall the side effects of each TB medication

A 
ONLY 
rifampicin --> Orange secretions 
isoniazid --> Neuropathy (peripheral) 
pyrizinamide --> Liver (hepatotoxicity) 
ethambutol --> eYes (visual disturbance)
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11
Q

Which of the TB drugs is a CYP450 inducer?

A

Rifampicin

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12
Q

What are the classical symptoms of primary syphillis?

A

Painless ulcer and painless lymphadenopathy

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13
Q

What are the classical symptoms of lymphgranuloma venereum?

A

Painless ulcer and painFUL lymphadenopathy

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14
Q

What is the causative organism in lymphgranuloma venereum?

A

C trachomatis

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15
Q

What are the typical symptoms of chancroid?

A

Painful ulcer and painful lymphadenopathy

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16
Q

What is the causative organism in chancroid?

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

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17
Q

Which 2 streptococcal species are alpha haemolytic?

A

Strep pneumoniae

Strep viridans

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18
Q

Recall 5 conditions that are most commonly caused by Strep pyogenes (GAS)

A 
Erysipelas
Impetigo 
Cellulitis 
T2 necrotising fasciitis 
Pharyngitis/tonsilitis
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19
Q

Recall 2 haematological abnormalities that are seen in malaria

A

Thrombocytopaenia

Anaemia

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20
Q

How should malaria be investigated?

A

3 thick and think blood films

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21
Q

What drug is used as malaria prophylaxis?

A

Quinine

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22
Q

What is the first line treatment for falciparum malaria?

A

IV artesunate

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23
Q

Recall 4 possible complications of typhoid fever

A

GI perforation
Myocarditis
Hepatitis
Nephritis

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24
Q

What are the key signs and symptoms of typhoid?

A

Fever
Bradycardia
Anorexia
Diarrhoea OR constipation

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25
What is Sphygmothermic dissociation / Faget’s sign?
Unusual pairing of fever and bradycardia that can be seen in typhoid fever
26
What is the 1st line treatment for typhoid fever?
IV ceftriaxone
27
Recall 3 abnormalities on an FBC in degue fever
Low WCC low plts low Hb
28
What are the key signs and symptoms of dengue fever?
Headache (retro-orbital) Sunburn-like rash High fever and myalgia
29
What is the most helpful intervention in dengue haemorrhagic fever?
Fluid resuscitation
30
What is the gold-standard investigation for dengue fever?
PCR viral antigen | Serology IgM
31
What is the causative pathogen in Q fever?
Coxiella burnetti
32
What is the typical natural history of Lyme disease?
Rash --> malaise, carditis, meningitis --> CNS signs
33
What is the proper term for sleeping sickness?
Trypanosoma
34
How long after primary infection does seroconversion occur in HIV?
3-12 weeks
35
How long after exposure can you do an HIV test?
At 4 weeks offer a test, if negative offer a repeat test at 12w as 99% of people will have antibodies at 12w
36
Recall some ways you can differentiate between toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma
Toxoplasmosis: multiple lesions, ring enhancement | CNS lymphoma: single lesion, homogeous enhancement
37
What 2 drugs are used to treat CNS toxoplasmosis?
Sulfadiazine | Pyrimethamine
38
What is the investigation of choice for encephalitis?
CT (oedematous brain)
39
Recall 2 investigations that can be used for cryptococcus
CSF: india ink test positive CT: cerebral oedema, meningeal enhancement
40
How should meningococcal sepsis patients be treated if they are penicillin-allergic?
Ceftriaxone
41
In HIV+ patients, when should PCP prophylaxis begin?
When CD4 <200
42
What extra piece of information do you always need to interpret CSF results following an LP?
Plasma glucose
43
What is the most common complication of bacterial meningitis?
Sensorineural deafness
44
What is the antibiotic of choice for bacterial meningitis in hospital (if the organism has not yet been isolated)?
IV ceftriaxone
45
What antibiotic is used as chemoprophylaxis of meningococcal sepsis for close contacts of people with meningococcal disease?
Rifampicin (or ciprofloxacin as alternative)
46
Which form of HSV typically causes meningitis vs encephalitis?
``` Meningitis = HSV2 Enephalitis = HSV1 ```
47
What is the likely cause of meningitis if the patient has a swollen face?
Mumps - as this is likely due to parotitis
48
Which antibiotic is known to have an antabuse effect?
Metronidazole
49
In what 2 ways should vancomycin be monitored?
1. Check trough levels, aim for 15-20 | 2. Monitor renal function
50
What are the 3 components of the qSOFA score, and what is it used for?
GCS <15 SBP <100 RR >22 Used to judge likellihood of someone needing ITU (eg in sepsis)
51
What is the most common pathogen to infect a central line?
Staph epidermidis
52
What is the most important initial step in managing necrotising fasciitis?
Debridement of affected tissues
53
Following rabies exposure, what should be done?
Give rabies immunoglobulin + full course of vaccination
54
Which antibiotics are used to treat legionella pneumonia?
Macrolides eg clarithromycin
55
What is the post-exposure prophylaxis for Hep B in a person who has had a full course of Hep B vaccination and was a known responder?
Vaccine booster dose
56
When should antibiotics be given for an animal bite, and which antibiotics should be chosen?
Give abx when: - A human bite that has drawn blood or broken the skin in a high-risk individual - A cat bite that has drawn blood or appears to be deep - A dog bite that has caused considerable tissue damage or is contaminated Abx = Co-amoxiclav
57
How should a tick bite be treated?
If asymptomatic - reassure and safety net | If symptomatic for Lyme disease --> single dose of doxycycline
58
If a patient is penicillin-allergic, what other class of antibiotic should you avoid giving?
Cephalosporins (due to cross reactivity)
59
Which population group is most at risk of leptospirosis?
Sewage workers (due to exposure to rat urine)
60
If discitis is due to staphylococcus, what extra investigation must be done?
Echo to look for endocarditis
61
What is the investigation of choice for genital herpes?
NAAT
62
How should toxoplasmosis be managed?
Immunocompetent patients: no treatment | Immunocompromised patients: pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
63
Which tropical disease can cause lactose intolerance?
Giardia
64
What is the first line treatment for amoebiasis?
Metronidazole
65
What is the most common cause of traveller's diarrhoea?
E coli
66
Which organism causes gas gangrene?
Clostridium perfringens
67
What is the antibiotic regime of choice in neutropenic sepsis?
IV Tazocin
68
What should be conducted at time of HIV diagnosis?
Full STI, Hep C & TB screen
69
What CD4 count is required for AIDS?
CD4 < 200cells/ml
70
What are the HIV complications by CD4 count?
500 - hodgkin's, cervical cancer 400 - TB, Oropharyngeal candida, seborrhoeic dermatitis, fungal infections (lymphadenopathy, sweats) 300 - oral hairy leukoplakia, shingles, pneumocystis pneumonia, persistent herpes complex - non hodgkin's, weight loss 200 - oesophageal candida, cerebral toxoplasmosis, cryptococcal meningitis, cryptosporidiosis, kaposi's sarcoma, diarrhoea, wasting 100 - primary cerebral lymphoma, cmv infection, atypical mycobacterial infection - dementia
71
Type of virus HIV is?
retrovirus HIV 1 = common HIV 2 = west africa
72
Papilloedema, meningism, neurological signs in the context of HIV
Cryptococcal meningitis serum cryptococcal antigen (CrAg) rasied opening pressure on LP
73
Acute worsening of infection after starting ART
Immune Reconstitution Inflammatory Syndrome (IRIS) - worsening of infection
74
What drugs are given to treat HIV?
2 NRTI + one more agent
75
Side effects of ART
Hypersensitivity Lipodystrophy Lipoatrophy T2DM Hyperlipidaemia
76
HIV: reduced visual acuity and perivascular infilitrates
CMV retintis
77
HIV: odonophagia and white mucoasl plaques at endoscopy
Oesophageal candidiasis
78
HIV: Violaceous plaques and HHV8
Kaposi's sarcoma
79
First line Ix for HIV
HIV antibodies + p24 antigen - repeat to confirm if +ve in 12 weeks and commence AV therapy - repeat in 12 weeks if -ve
80
What causes Syphilis?
Treponema pallidum
81
Why CSF and CXR in syphilis?
csf - neurosyphilis - csf vdrl CxR - aortic aneurysm / calcification
82
What are the signs of neurosyphilis?
visual disturbance, tabes dorsalis, gneral paresis
83
How is neurosyphilis treated?
IV aqueous Benzylpenicillin
84
How is latent +ve and -ve syphilis treated?
IM benzathine benzylpenicillin (+ve) - once -ve = three doses over two weeks
85
What is a Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?
acute febrile illness within 24 hrs of starting syphilis treatment | acute fever, headache, myalgia
86
How does syphilis present under microscopy?
Coiled spirochaete bacterium with corkscrew appearance and motility | only use if lesion present, if not then do trep serology - check HIV
87
Treatment for CNS involvement with TB
12 months (extra 4 month now 10) + 4-8 weeks po steroids
88
What patients with TB should be managed by a MDT
HIV Diabetes CKD 4-5 Severe Liver Disease Pregnancy
89
Patients with latent TB should be tested for what?
HIV, Hep B/C
90
If latent TB comes back +ve after IGRA
3 months R/I or 6 months I/P
91
CSF low glucose, high protein and lymphocytes
TB Meningitis
92
First line for active TB
CXR & Sputum
93
What type of organism is C.difficile
Gram +ve spore forming anaerobic bacillus
94
What are the main drugs C.Difficile is associated with?
Cephalosporins Quinolones Penicillins
95
RF for C.Difficile
Older age 65 AB treatment & PPI Prolonged hospitalisation previous history
96
When is relapse defined?
<12 weeks
97
How are mild - moderate C.Difficle treated?
mild - supportive + PO Vancomycin 10-14 days moderate - 3-5 stools - fidaxomicin if vanco fails - relapse
98
What are associated features of Severe and life threatening C.Difficile?
Severe - AKi, Temp >38.5, severe colitis, WBC >15 LT - Colitis, HTN, Ileus, Toxic Megacolon
99
How is LT C.Difficile treated?
PO / NG Vancomycin (PR if Ileus) + IV Metronidazole + Surgery
100
Poly-arthralgia, conjunctivitis, mucosal ulcers
Reactive arthritis
101
Chronic abdo pain, altered bowel habit with no identifiable cause
Post-infectious IBS
102
Do you need to wait to treat c.difficile if clinically suspected?
No
103
Incubation periods for all types of Malaria?
Falciparum - 12-14 Vivax & Ovale - 14, could occur months after due to hypzonite reactivation Malariae = 18 days - low grade fever for yrs tho
104
Sign of severe Malaria
Hyperparasitaemia > 10%
105
List some complications of Malaria
CNS - low glucose csf, cerebral oedema liver - jaundice Haem - bleeding, DIC Pulmonary oedema, ARDS Shock
106
What organism causes Dengue? Incubation period?
Aedes aegypti 3-14 days
107
Main test for Infectious mononucleosis
monospot test
108
Main sign of rocky mountain spotted fever
tick bite - treat with doxycycline
109
General malaise, relative bradycardia, rose spots
Salmonella typhi
110
Bulls eye rash
Erythema chronicum migrans Lyme disease
111
Main signs and investigations for cryptococcal meningitis + treatment
high opening pressure with CNS signs India ink stain Amphotercin B + Flucytosine
112
Main investigation finding of TB Meningitis
High lymphocyte count, high protein and low glucose
113
Sign of brain imaging for progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy
demyelination, no mass effect and no contrast enhancement on MRI | treat with ART
114
CXR signs of PJP
diffuse bilteral interstitial infiltrates | treat with trimethoprim + sulfamethoxazole
115
Main complication of ETEC
reactive arthritis
116
Campylobacter complications
bacteraemia colitis reactive arthritis GBS GI perforation | azithromycin in severe
117
How is Shigella treated
fluoroquinolones
118
How is salmonella treated?
Ciprofloxacin
119
How is Giardia treated?
Tinidazole
120
What is a Treponema Pallidum specific test?
TP - EIA
121
Causes of false +ve non-treponemal tests
Pregnancy SLE, anti-phospholipid TB Leprosy Malaria HIV | how if -ve with +ve speific test = successfully treated syphilis
122
What AB can be used to treat MRSA?
Vancomycin Teicoplanin Linezolid
123
Organisms that cause post splenectomy sepsis
Strep Pneumoniae Haemophilus Influenzae Meingococci treat with vaccines + PenV 500mg or Amox 250mg | decrease phagocutosis and complement activation
124
Flaccid paralysis, complex ophtalmoplegia, IVDU
Botulism | c. botulinum - antitoxin
125
Chlamydia treatment
7d - Doxycycline Macrolides secondary - pregnant = first
126
Adverse effects of Metronidazole
Disulfiram reaction with alcohol Increases the anticoagulant effect of warfarin
127
Dysentery, liver abscesses, colonic abscesses, inflammatory masses in colon
Entamoeba histolytica | trophozoites, oral metronidazole + luminal agent diloxanide furoate
128
What is the organism for Bacterial Vaginalis?
Gardnerella vaginalis use clinda if metronidazole cannot be used | oral met 5 - 7 days for treatment, alkaline, stippled, whiff
129
Causes of acute food poisoning
staph (severe, short incubation), bacillus (rice), clostridium perfringens
130
How is legionella pneumophilia best diagnosed
Urinary antigen | questions hint at air conditioning or foreign holidays
131
Features of legionella
dry cough relative bradycardia confusion lymphopaenia hyponatraemia deranged liver function tests pleural effusion: seen in around 30% of patients
132
CXR signs of legionella
mid to lower zone predominance of patchy consolidation
133
How is legionella treated?
Erythromycin / clarithromycin
134
Gold standard investigation for TB
sputum culture | NAAT = rapid diagnosis but less sensitive
135
What decreases the sensitivity of sputum smear in TB
decreased in individuals with HIV | 50 to 20%
136
What is a classical finding of reactivated TB
upper lobe cavitation
137
What does mantoux test? What causes false negatives?
latent Tb FN: miliary TB sarcoidosis HIV lymphoma very young age (e.g. < 6 months)
138
Uti in third trimester
7 days amoxicillin / cefalexin
139
Adverse effects of tetracycline
discolouration of teeth photosensitivity angioedema black hairy tongue
140
When is staph the most common cause of pneumonia
After the influenza infection
141
what is a specific feature of pneumococcal pneumonia
herpes labialis | cold sores
142
Name local complications to gonorrhoea
urethral strictures, epididymitis, inferility
143
Treatment order for gonorrhoea
IM ceftriaxone 1g oral ciprofloxacin 500mg needle phobic: - oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g
144
Key features of DGI
tenosynovitis migratory polyarthritis dermatitis
145
What organism is associated with oral herpes
HSV-1
146
What is a calcified ghon complex a sign of?
Latent TB
147
RF for developing active TB from latent TB
silicosis chronic renal failure HIV positive solid organ transplantation with immunosuppression intravenous drug use haematological malignancy anti-TNF treatment previous gastrectomy
148
First line for borrelia burgdorferi Ix
ELISA
149
How to treat tic bites
remove it is using fine-tipped tweezers, grasping the tick as close to the skin as possible and pulling upwards firmly. The area should be washed following
150
Causes of viral meningitis
non-polio enteroviruses e.g. coxsackie virus, echovirus mumps herpes simplex virus (HSV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes zoster viruses HIV measles
151
key findings of viral meningitis on LP
lymphocytes normal glucose raised wbC normal protein
152
What are the features of yellow fever?
sudden onset high fever, rigors, nausea and vomiting bradycardia jaundice haematemesis oligouria councilman bodies - inclusion bodies - hepatocytes
153
Features seen in behcet disease
oral ulcer, genital, uveitis VTE
154
Features of bacterial meningitis
cloudy low glucose high protein raised wcc
155
atypical lymphocytes on blood film
infectious mononucleosis
156
Complications of Hep B infection
chronic hepatitis (5-10%). 'Ground-glass' hepatocytes may be seen on light microscopy fulminant liver failure (1%) hepatocellular carcinoma glomerulonephritis polyarteritis nodosa cryoglobulinaemia
157
main treatment for hep B
pegylated interferon alpha
158
Features of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
prolonged and gradual onset disease flu-like precede a dry cough bilateral consolidation
159
Complications of Mycoplasma pneumoniae
cold agglutins (IgM): may cause an haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopenia erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome and other immune-mediated neurological diseases bullous myringitis: painful vesicles on the tympanic membrane pericarditis/myocarditis gastrointestinal: hepatitis, pancreatitis renal: acute glomerulonephritis
160
Ix for Mycoplasma pneumoniae
serology +ve cold agglutination - smear show red blood cell agglutination | treat with doxy / macrolide
161
Ongoing diarrhoea, lethargy, bloating, flatulence, steatorrhoea, weight loss with recent travel
giardiasis | metronidazole treatment
162
Indications for delayed lumbar puncture
signs of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash severe respiratory/cardiac compromise significant bleeding risk signs of raised intracranial pressure focal neurological signs papilloedema continuous or uncontrolled seizures GCS ≤ 12
163
why is dexamethasone given with treatment of meningitis
improves outcomes by reducing neurological sequelae
164
If above 50 what ABs should be given for bacterial meningitis
cefotaxime + amoxicillin | gentamicin if listeria
165
Young adult with sore throat, fever, lethargy, cervical lymphadenopathy persisting > 1 week
Infectious mononucleosis
166
acute pyelonephritis treatment
broad spec cephalosporin + quinolone
167
Risk factors for Invasive aspergillosis
HIV, leukaemia, BS antibiotics
168
Who should be vaccinated for Hep A
* people travelling to or going to reside in areas of high or intermediate prevalence, if aged > 1 year old * people with chronic liver disease * patients with haemophilia * men who have sex with men * injecting drug users * individuals at occupational risk: laboratory worker; staff of large residential institutions; sewage workers; people who work with primates
169
What are genital warts and how are they treated?
Small fleshy protuberances pigmented topical podophyllum imiquimod second line | caused by HPV 6 & 11
170
What bacteria has the shortest incubation period
Bacillus Staph aureus
171
How is Jarisch_herxheimer reaction treated
supportively - IV paracetemol
172
Drug to treat patient with pencillin allergy that gets cellulitis
erythromycin
173
Indications to send urine culture in non pregnant women
aged 65< visible or non visible haematuria | only 3 day course of Ab
174
What is the alternative for doxycycline in CT treatment with a pregnant lady
azithromycin | risk of dental discolouration and enamel hypoplasia
175
Flagellated protozoa name and treatment
trichomonas vaginalis metronidazole
176
What condition does self limiting toxo mimic
infectious mononucleosis
177
What are common side effects of amoxicillin
diarrhoea and nausea
178
what is this?
Kaposi's sarcoma
179
alternative to lumber puncture on diagnosing meningitis
whole blood pcr and blood cultures
180
Features of cholra and mx
Profuse rice water diarrhoea dehydration hypoglycaemia | oral rehydration therapy and doxy / cipro
181
cellulitis near the eye treatment
amoxicillin + clavulanic acid aka co-amoxiclav
182
Patients with uncertain tetanus vaccine should get what
Vaccine + Ig (if severe wound or > 6 hrs) | if more than 10 yrs ago just vaccine, if high risk add Ig
183
Post treatment for UTI in pregnancy what should be done
Urine culture | risk of pyelonephritis
184
Target shaped lesion in lung
Aspergilloma
185
Which patients should be avoided with dexamethasone in Meingitis treatment?
septic meningococcal post surgery immunocompromised
186
Asymptomatic BV
No treatment | unless pregnant - oral metronidazole
187
What is atypical pneumonia treated with
Clarithromycin
188
What should be added to treat pneumonia if secondary to influenza
flucloxacillin
189
HIV, diarrhoea, Ziehl-Neelsen stain showing protozoa
Cryptosporidium parvum
190
If a gram +ve organism coccus is resistant to penicillin what is it
MRSA | vanco, teico, linezolid
191
How does diptheria present
* recent visitors to Eastern Europe/Russia/Asia * sore throat with a 'diphtheric membrane' - grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall * bulky cervical lymphadenopathy * may result in a 'bull neck' appearanace * neuritis e.g. cranial nerves * heart block | IM pen / dip anti-toxin
192
Best way to assess response for treatment to Hep C
Viral Load / HCV RNA level
193
What is a common complication of administering rapid intravenous infusion vancomycin
red man syndrome - vanco activates mast cells | stop, then re start at slower rate
194
Renal transplant + infection
CMV pneumonitis
195
What test for any mycobacteria
Acid fast bacilli
196
6 - 60 yrs bacterial meningitis causes
NM Strep Pneumoniae
197
HIV, diarrhoea, Ziehl-Neelsen stain showing protozoa
Cryptosporidium Parvum
198
Main affects of chronic chagas disease
myocarditis leading to dilated cardiomyopathy GI features - megaoesophagus, megacolon | treat complications and azole
199
Persistent PUO and lymphadenopathy with high WCC
lymphoma | lymph node biopsy
200
Sinusitis treatment
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
201
Acute prostatitis treatment
14 day of ciprofloxacin
202
Live attenuated vaccines
BCG MMR oral polio yellow fever oral typhoid
203
what is the incubation period of yellow fever
7 to 21 days
204
how many ulcers does chancroid present with
single | if multiple with same symptoms think genital ulcers
205
Which Hepatitis out of A and B has the shorter incubation period?
A - 15 to 50 days B much longer
206
Lab features of pseudomonas aeruginosa
Gram-negative rod non-lactose fermenting oxidase positive
207
Late onset HAP should be treated how?
piperacillin with tazobactam OR a broad-spectrum cephalosporin (e.g. ceftazidime) OR a quinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
208
Severe campylobacter infection should be treated with what
clarithromycin - macrolide
209
Negative non-treponemal test + positive treponemal test
Successfully treated syphilis
210
Positive non-treponemal test + negative treponemal test
consistent with a false-positive syphilis result e.g. due to pregnancy or SLE
211
Patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose < 10 years ago
no vaccine nor tetanus immunoglobulin is required, regardless of the wound severity
212
Patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose > 10 years ago
if tetanus prone wound: reinforcing dose of vaccine high-risk wounds (e.g. compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue): reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin
213
How does pseudomonas present as a wound infection?
wet with a pale green slough over it and smells damp and offensive
214
Adverse effects of trimethoprim
myelosuppression rise in creatinine, inhibits tubular secretion, blocks ENaC channel in distal nephron - hyperkalaemic distal TA
215
Extensive otitis externa treatment
Flucloxacillin
216
Fever on alternating days
Malaria
217
Mechanism of ritonavir
protease inhibitor navir - navir tease a pro | zidovudine = NRTI, raltegravir = integrase inhibitor
218
large, keratinised genital wart treatment
cryotherapy | multiple = topical podophyllum
219
Long incubation period with dysentery
Amoebiasis | oral metronidazole
220
BCG in children protects against what
TB meningitis
221
Spinal epidural abscess Ix
full spine MRI to check for skip lesions
222
Most common cause of dysphagia and odynophagia with HIV disease
Oesophageal candidiasis
223
Signs of leptospirosis
commonly preceded by flu-like symptoms, associated with subconjunctival suffusion and is a cause of hepatorenal failure | flood, sewage based areas
224
Signs of chronic schisto
frequency, haematuria, bladder calcification
225
What is the normal dose of metronidazole for BV
400mg bd for 7 days
226
Treatment for erysipelas
flucloxacillin
227
Most common pathogen during anal sex
Hepatitis A

ICSM Year 6 + edits (28 decks)

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