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ICSM Year 6 > Medicine - Endocrinology > Flashcards

Medicine - Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosis of type 2 diabetes?

A 
Either symptoms + 1 pos test result or no symptoms + 2 pos test results
Pos test thresholds: 
- Fasting glucose >7.0
- OGTT >11.1
- Random glucose >11.1 
- HbA1c > 6.5%/ 48mmol/L
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2
Q

What are the test ranges for impaired gluose tolerance and impaired fasting glucose?

A

IGT: OGTT/random = 7.8-11.1; HbA1c = 42-47

IFG = 6.1-7.0

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3
Q

What is the classic triad of symptoms of type 2 diabetes?

A

Polydipsia
Polyuria
Fatigue

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4
Q

Recall 2 possible consequences of diabetic neuropathy and drugs that can be used to manage each of these possibiities

A
  1. Vagal neuropathy –> gastroparesis: domperidone/ metoclopramide
  2. Neuropathic pain: amitryptiline, duloxetine, gabapentin, pregabalin
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5
Q

Summarise the pathogenesis of diabetic foot

A
  1. Peripheral arterial disease reduces O2 delivery –> intermittent claudication
  2. Neuropathy –> loss of sensation, eventually Charcot’s foot
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6
Q

What is Charcot’s foot?

A

Rare consequence of T2DM in which foot becomes rocker-bottomed

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7
Q

Recall some ways in which diabetic foot can be screened for, and the frequency with which these tests should be done

A

Screening should be done annually
Test for ischaemia: palpate the dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulse
Test for neuropathy with 10g monofilament test

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8
Q

How should diabetic nephropathy be screened for?

A

Yearly albumin:creatinine ratio

Microalbuminuria is the first sign of diabetic nephropathy

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9
Q

What is the best management for diabetic nephropathy?

A

ACE inhibitors

However, these are toxic in AKI so eGFR needs to be monitored

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10
Q

How big a drop in eGFR would warrant stopping an ACE inhibitor in a diabetic patient?

A

> 20%

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11
Q

Why is an initial drop in eGFR expected when starting patients on an ACE inhibitor?

A

Dilate the efferent arteriole

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12
Q

Recall 3 things that may cause a falsely high HbA1c

A

Alcoholism
B12 deficiency
Iron deficiency anaemia

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13
Q

What is the BM target for T1DM patients who are monitoring BMs throughout the day?

A

Waking target: 5-7mmol/L

Rest of the day: 4-7mmol/L

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14
Q

Recall the names of 2 long-acting insulins

A

Lantus

Glargine

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15
Q

When are BD mixed regimens of insulin given?

A

Breakfast and dinner

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16
Q

Name a diabetes prevention programme

A

DESMOND

Diabetes education + self-management: ongoing and newly diagnosed

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17
Q

Recall some possible risk-factor modifying therapies that can be used in diabetes mellitus

A

Aspirin 75mg OD
Atorvastatin 20mg OD
Antihypertensives

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18
Q

What is the maximum dose of metformin?

A

2g/day

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19
Q

Recall 4 important side effects of metformin

A

Appetite suppression
B12 deficiency (due to reduced absorption)
Lactate acidosis
GI upset

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20
Q

How can you manage GI upset that is due to metformin?

A

Change immediate release to a modified release mechanism

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21
Q

When should dual therapy be considered in type 2 diabetes?

A

If HbA1c >58/ 7.5%

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22
Q

What are the options for dual therapy for type 2 diabetes?

A

Metformin + 1 of:

  • Sulphonylurea
  • Thiazolidinediones
  • Gliptins
  • SGLT2 inhibitors
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23
Q

Recall 2 examples of sulphonylureas

A

Glibenclamide

Gliclazide

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24
Q

Recall an example of a thiazolidinedione

A

Pioglitazone

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25
Q

Recall an example of a gliptin drug

A

Sitagliptin

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26
Q

What is the mechanism of action of gliptins?

A

DPP4 inhibitors

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27
Q

Recall an example of a SGLT2 inhibitor

A

Empagliflozin

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28
Q

Recall 2 important side effects of sulphonylureas

A

Weight gain

Hypoglycaemia

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29
Q

What sort of diabetes drug is MODY most sensitive to?

A

Sulphonylureas

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30
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of MODY?

A

Autosomal dominant

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31
Q

MODY must be diagnosed before what age?

A

25

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32
Q

What is the best investigation to confirm the diagnosis of MODY?

A

C peptides

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33
Q

What is the most common type of MODY, and which gene mutation causes it?

A

MODY 3

Mutated HNF-1 alpha

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34
Q

What is LADA?

A

Latent autoimmune diabetes in adults

Late onset T1DM in 20-50yo, no family history

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35
Q

What are the 2 best investigations for confirming the diagnosis of LADA?

A 
GAD Abs 
C peptide (will be low)
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36
Q

What 3 things are required to diagnosis DKA?

A

Diabetes, Ketones, Acidosis
Diabetes - BM >11.1
Ketones - >3
Acidosis - pH <7.3

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37
Q

Recall 4 common causes of DKA

A

Missed insulin
Trauma
Infection
EtOH

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38
Q

What 3 investigations are most useful for assessing the extent of the damage done by a DKA acutely?

A

ABG
ECG
U&Es

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39
Q

Recall the 5 main principles of managing DKA acutely

A
  1. Fluids
  2. Insulin
  3. Potassium (run KCl in NaCL bag)
  4. 10% dextrose (when BM < 15)
  5. VTE prophylaxis (very dehydrated)
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40
Q

What dose of insulin should be started in DKA vs HHS?

A

DKA: 0.1U/kg/hr
HHS: 0.5U/kg/hr

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41
Q

Recall the 3 biochemical criteria used to diagnose HHS

A

pH >7.3
Osmolarity >320mmol/L
BM >30

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42
Q

Over what time period does HHS develop?

A

Over a few days

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43
Q

Recall the 3 components of HHS management

A
  1. Fluids
  2. Monitoring (ensure Na+ is not corrected too quickly)
  3. Insulin
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44
Q

Recall 2 differentials for someone whose TFTs show low TSH and low T4

A

Secondary hypothyroidism

Sick euthyroid

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45
Q

Recall the Thy classification

A

Thy 1 = unsatisfactory sample (1c = cyst)
Thy 2 = benign
Thy 3 = atypia of undetermined significance
Thy 4 = Suspicious of malignancy
Thy 5 = malignancy

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46
Q

What classification system is used to classify thyroid nodules?

A

Thy classification

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47
Q

What are the 4 histological types of thyroid cancer

A

Anaplastic
Medullary
Papillary
Follicular

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48
Q

Which type of thyroid cancer is associated with a raised calcitonin?

A

Medullary

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49
Q

Recall 2 differentials for low uptake hyperthyroidism

A

Sub-acute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis

Postpartum thyroiditis

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50
Q

Recall 3 differentials for high uptake hyperthyroidism

A

Grave’s disease
Toxic multinodular goitre
Single toxic adenoma

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51
Q

Recall 4 signs of thyroid eye disease

A 
Mnemonic = PECS 

Proptosis 
Extra-ocular muscle pathology 
Corneal involvement 
Sight loss due to optic nerve involvement
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52
Q

Why might eye movement be restricted in thyroid eye disease?

A

Rectus thickening restricts movement

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53
Q

What is the best preventative measure to prevent Grave’s disease?

A

Stop smoking

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54
Q

Which subtypes of MEN are associated with medullary thyroid cancer?

A

2A and 2B

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55
Q

Recall the management of Grave’s disease

A

1st line:

  • Propranolol (NOT bisoprolol)
  • Anti-thyroid drug eg carbimazole or propylthiouracil OR
  • If unlikely to respond to ATDs, radioiodine (I-131)
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56
Q

Recall 2 possible side effects of radioiodine

A

Hypothyroidism

Thyroid storm

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57
Q

Recall how a patient should be prepared for thyroidectomy

A
  1. Need to be euthyroid on medication
  2. Laryngoscopy to check vocal cords
  3. Either thionamides or propranolol
    Stop thionamides (PTU) 10 days before surgery as it increases vascularity
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58
Q

Recall some symptoms of a thyroid storm

A 
Hyperthermia 
Tachycardia 
Jaundice
Altered mental state
Cardiac (AF/high-output CF)
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59
Q

How should a thyroid storm be managed?

A

IV propranolol –> Thionamides (PTU)

Hydrocortisone –> iodine

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60
Q

What is the most common cause of primary hypothyroidism in the UK?

A

Hashimoto’s

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61
Q

What is Riedel’s thyroiditis

A

Hypothyroidism caused by chronic inflammatory thyroid gland fibrosis

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62
Q

Recall 2 drugs that can cause hypothyroidism

A

Lithium

Amiodarone

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63
Q

What is the starting dose of levothyroxine?

A

50-100mcg

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64
Q

How long after starting levothyroxine should the TFTs be checked?

A

8-12 weeks

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65
Q

Recall 2 medications that interact with levothyroxine

A

Iron

CaCO3

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66
Q

Recall 4 features of myxoedema coma

A

Hypothermia
Hyporeflexia
Bradycardia
Seizures

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67
Q

How should myxoedema coma be managed?

A

IV thyroxine
IV hydrocortisome
IV fluids

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68
Q

What are the most common causes of Addison’s disease?

A

In the UK: autoimmune adrenal failure

Worldwide: TB

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69
Q

Recall 2 ways that Addison’s/adrenal failure can be investigated for

A
  1. 9am cortisol

2. Short synACTHen test

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70
Q

Recall 3 possible cause of an Addisonian crisis (different from Addison’s disease)

A
  1. Adrenal haemorrhage (Waterhouse-Friderichson syndrome from meningococcaemia)
  2. Steroid withdrawal
  3. Sepsis/ surgery causing an acute exacerbation of chronic insufficiency (autoimmune/ TB)
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71
Q

How should an Addisonian crisis be managed?

A

Immediately:

  • IM hydrocortisone 100mg STAT
  • IV fluid bolus with glucose

Continuing management:

  • IV fluids
  • IV/IM hydrocortisone
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72
Q

What is the most common cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Glucocorticoid therapy

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73
Q

What are some differentials for ACTH-dependent Cushing’s?

A

Cushing’s disease (80% pituitary tumour)

Ectopic ACTH production

74
Q

What are the possible causes of pseudo-Cushing’s?

A

Alcoholism or severe depression

75
Q

How can Cushing’s and pseudo-Cushing’s be differentiated?

A

Both will give a positive LDDST and 24hr free urinary cortisol
Can tell the difference between them with insulin stress test

76
Q

Recall 2 screening tests for Cushing’s

A
  1. 11pm salivary cortisol (if low the cause is NOT Cushing’s)
  2. LDDST
77
Q

How can the cause of Cushing’s syndrome be confirmed?

A

Inferior petrosal sinus sampling

Catheter is fed into the jugular vein

78
Q

What is Nelson’s syndrome?

A

Possible complication of adrenalectomy

Removal of adrenal gland –> pituitary enlargement and very high ACTH

79
Q

What is the most common electrolyte disturbance in Conn’s syndrome?

A

Hypokalaemia

80
Q

What is the best initial investigation in suspected Conn’ syndrome?

A

Aldosterone: renin ratio

81
Q

What are the best tests to determine the cause of hyperaldosteronism?

A

HR-CT and adrenal vein sampling

82
Q

What are the possible causes of hyperaldosteronism?

A
  1. Conn’s syndrome

2. Renal artery stenosis

83
Q

What will be the aldosterone: renin ration in Conn’s syndrome vs renal artery stenosis?

A

Conn’s: high

Renal artery stenosis: normal

84
Q

What medications can be used to manage hyperaldosteronism?

A

Spironolactone and epleronone

85
Q

What test can be used to diagnose diabetes insipidus?

A

Water deprivation test

86
Q

Recall 2 possible renal and 2 non-renal causes of hypernatraemia

A

Renal: osmotic diuresis (T2DM) or diabetes insipidus

Non-renal: GI losses or sweat losses of water

87
Q

What is the possible complication of correcting hypernatraemia too quickly?

A

Cerebral oedema

88
Q

What is the possible complication of correcting hyponatraemia too quickly?

A

Central pontine myelinolysis

89
Q

In which patients is a urine sodium measurement not reliable?

A

Those on diuretics

90
Q

Recall some drugs that can cause SIADH

A 
SSRIs and TCAs
Carbemazapine 
Sulphonylureas (eg gliclazide) 
PPIs (omeprazole/ lanzoprazole) 
Opiates
91
Q

Recall 2 causes of pseudohyponatraemia

A

Hyperlipidaemia

Hyperproteinaemia

92
Q

Recall 2 drugs that can be used to treat SIADH

A

Demeocycline

Vaptans (eg tolvaptan)

93
Q

Recall 3 classes of drugs that could cause hyperkalaemia

A

ARBs
ACE inhibitors
Aldosterone antagonists

94
Q

Recall one antibiotic that can cause hyperkalaemia

A

Tacrolimus - it can reduce K+ excretion

95
Q

Which type of renal tubular acisosis can cause hyperkalaemia

96
Q

Recall the management of hyperkalaemia

A 
10mls 10% calcium gluconate 
120mls 20% dextrose
Maybe:  
10U insulin 
nebulised salbutamol 
If really bad: 
Calcium risonium
97
Q

For each of the following endocrine conditions, say whether they can cause hypo or hyperkalaemia:

  • Addisson’s
  • Conn’s
  • Cushing’s
A

Adisson’s: Causes hyperkalaemia
Conn’s: Causes hypokalaemia
Cushing’s: Causes hypokalaemia

98
Q

Which types of renal tubular acidosis can cause hypokalaemia (rarely)?

A

Types 1 and 2

99
Q

Which hormone will likely be high in renal artery stenosis?

100
Q

Describe the symptoms of hyper vs hypoclacaemia

A

Hypercalcaemia: bones, stones, abdominal groans, psychiatric moans

Hypocalcaemia: paraesthesia, muscle cramps, long QT

101
Q

What is a ‘pepperpot skull?

A

Radiological sign: Multiple tiny well-defined lucencies in the calvaria (top part of the skull) caused by resorption of trabecular bone in hyperparathyroidism

102
Q

How should hypercalcaemia be managed?

A

IV fluids –> bisphosphonates

103
Q

Recall the progression of multiple myeloma

A

(1) MGUS
(2) Smouldering myeloma
(3) Multiple myeloma
(4) B cell leukaemia

104
Q

At what point in the myeloma progression does a patient get the symptoms of CRAB?

A

Not until it gets to multiple myeloma

105
Q

What is the limit for monoclonal serum protein in MGUS?

A

Must be <30g/L

106
Q

What is the limit for bone marrow plasma cells in MGUS?

107
Q

Which type of immunoglobin will be high in myeloma?

A

IgG or IgA

If Waldenstrom’s - IgM

108
Q

What is the most useful form of imaging in myeloma?

A

Whole body low dose CT

109
Q

Which CD markers are positive in immunotyping in myeloma?

A

CD38
CD138
CD56/58

110
Q

What is the pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome?

A

Refeeding –> rise in insulin –> intracellular shift in phosphate –> hypophosphataemia

111
Q

What are some symptoms of the refeeding syndrome?

A 
Rhabdomyolysis 
Low RR
Arrhythmia 
Shock
Seizures
Coma
112
Q

What is fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

Idiopathic, non-atherosclerotic, non-inflammatory disorder of arteries
2 subtypes:
- Renal artery
- Cervical artery

113
Q

What are the symptoms of fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

Renal artery FMD: resistant hypertension

Cervical artery FMD: chronic migraines

114
Q

What is the best investigation for assessing fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

Catheter angiography

115
Q

What is the mainstay of management of fibromuscular dysplasia?

A

Stop smoking
Anti-platelets (clopidogrel)
Anti-hypertension (ACEi or ARB)
Surgery (surgical stenting)

116
Q

Recall some causes of vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Autoimmunity
Atrophic gastritis
Gastrectomy
Malnutrition

117
Q

Recall 2 drugs that can treat vitamin B12 deficiency

A

Cyanocobalamin IM

Hydroxocobalamin IM

118
Q

Recall some causes of hypomagnesaemia

A 
Diuretics/ PPIs
Diarrhoea 
TPN
EtOH
Gitelman's/Barter's
Hypokalaemia, hypocalcaemia
119
Q

What are the symptoms of hypomagnesaemia most similar to?

A

Hypocalcaemia

120
Q

What are the ECG features of hypomagnesaemia most similar to?

A

Hypokalaemia

121
Q

What is the threshold for giving IV magnesium sulphate as a Mg replacement, rather than just PO tablets?

A

Mg <0.4mmol/L

122
Q

How should suspected SIADH be investigated?

A
  1. Serum corrected calcium - must exclude hypercalcaemia secondary to hyperPTHism
  2. Water deprivation test
123
Q

What is the mechanism of hyponatraemia development in SIADH?

A

Increased water absorption in the collecting duct

124
Q

What would be the main abnormality on TFTs in thyrotoxic crisis?

A

Marked elevation of free T4

125
Q

What change in vision is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm?

A

Bitemporal hemianopia

126
Q

What change in vision is caused by a lesion in the optic tract?

A

Homonymous hemianopia

127
Q

What change in vision is caused by a lesion in the optic radiation?

A

Superior quandrantopia

128
Q

Give some examples of causes of metabolic acidosis with increased anion gap

A

DKA is a big one

Also: lactate acidosis, uraemia secondary to renal failure and salicylate/biguianide poisoning

129
Q

In DKA, for how long should insulin infusion be continued before switching to SC insulin?

A

Until blood ketones <0.3mmol/L

130
Q

How frequently should potassium be monitored in the acute setting of DKA being treated with an insulin infusion?

131
Q

How should a known type 1 diabetic patient’s insulin be managed when they are in DKA and require an insulin infusion?

A

Long acting basal insulin should be continued alongside the infusion as this simplifies the change from infusion to SC insulin in due course

132
Q

Recall 4 side effects of carbimazole

A

Maculopapular rash
Bone marrow suppression leading to agranulocytosis
Pruritis
Jaundice

133
Q

How should primary hyperaldosteronism due to BL adrenal hypertrophy be managed?

A

Spironolactone

134
Q

What is the first drug to give in phaeochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine

135
Q

How should once daily insulin regimes be managed pre-operatively?

A

Reduced dose insulin on the day of the op and the day before

136
Q

Why might someone get hyponatraemia post-SAH?

A

SAH can lead to SIADH

137
Q

What is the best test for diagnosing phaeochromocytoma?

A

Plasma and serum catecholamines

138
Q

How can a splenectomy affect blood sugar levels?

A

Can give a falsely high reading due to the increased life span of RBCs

139
Q

What is the immediate management of pituitary apoplexy?

A

IV hydrocortisone

140
Q

What is the treatment for malignant hyperthermia?

A

IV dantrolene

141
Q

Where are ischaemic and neuropathic ulcers typically found?

A

Ischaemic = usually on toes, distally
Neuropathic = usually on the base of the foot

142
Q

How should Charcot’s foot be managed?

A
  • Rule out infection (cellulitis) and give Abx if unsure
  • If acute, treat as a fracture so no weight-bearing and use a boot or cast
  • XR to check for signs of gas gangrene/osteomyelitis
143
Q

What temperature difference between feet would indicate a neuropathy?

A

> 2 degrees

144
Q

What are normal and abnormal doppler sounds for the lower limb?

A

Bi/triphasic = normal
Monophonic or bruit sounds = abnormal

145
Q

What is the management of thyroid cancer?

A
  • Thyroidectomy
  • Radioactive iodine ablation (treatment dose) - to kill any remaining cells
  • Replace thyroxine to a supraphysiological level so that the brain does not signal to the thyroid gland to start producing thyroxine as this could stimulate cancer cells
146
Q

What is the TSH target with supraphysiological thyroxine replacement?

147
Q

When would a radioiodine challenge be indicated following thyroid cancer treatment?

A

If thyroglobulin or TSH levels began to rise (no uptake should be seen)

148
Q

What is the management of an adrenal adenoma dependent on the size?

A
  • <4cm - usually watch and wait with interval scanning
  • 4-6cm - possible risk of malignancy, usually removed
  • > 6cm - increased malignancy risk, definitely remove
149
Q

What thionamides are used in each part of pregnancy?

A
  • PTH in 1st trimester
  • Carbimazole in 2nd and 3rd trimester
150
Q

Why is carbimazole not recommended in the first trimester of pregnancy?

A

Small chance of a skin reaction

151
Q

What would be the result of a low and high dose dexamethasone test in Cushing’s disease?

A

Low dose - not suppressed
High dose - suppressed

152
Q

What is a common derangement in blood results as a result of glucocorticoid treatment?

A

Neutrophilia

153
Q

Over-replacement of thyroxine increases the risk of what?

A

Osteoporosis

154
Q

When should diabetics have empagaflozin/SGLT2 inhibitors added to their regime?

A

Current NICE advice is that patients with type 2 diabetes who are at high risk of developing cardiovascular disease, those who do develop cardiovascular disease, and those with chronic heart failure, should receive an SGLT2 inhibitor.

155
Q

What adverse side effect are SGLT2 inhibitors linked to aside from increased incidence of UTIs?

A

Fournier’s gangrene

156
Q

What is Fournier’s gangrene?

A
  • A fulminant form of infective necrotising fasciitis affecting the genitalia and/or perineum
  • Most common in diabetic and immune compromised patients
  • Due to the rapid progression of this condition, it can often cause multiple organ failure and death due to sepsis
157
Q

What is the Mx of Fournier’s gangrene?

A

Early surgical debridement and Abx

158
Q

What is the HbA1c target for a patient on a sulphonylurea?

A

53mmol

This target is based on a balance between reducing the risk of microvascular complications while also minimising the risk of hypoglycaemia, which in turn can lead to falls, cognitive impairment, and cardiovascular events.

159
Q

What are the main side effects of sulpgonylureas?

A
  • Weight gain - avoid in obese diabetics
  • Hypoglycaemic episodes
160
Q

What Ix should be done for suspected acromegaly?

A
  • First line - IGF-1 levels
  • If raised, OGTT and serial GH levels
  • Pituitary MRI can then be done to determine cause of acromegaly
161
Q

What are the BP targets for diabetics?

A

T2DM blood pressure targets are the same as non-T2DM.
If < 80 years:
* Clinic reading: < 140 / 90
* ABPM / HBPM: < 135 / 85

162
Q

What is the Mx of Addisonian crisis?

A

IV hydrocortisone (fludrocortisone is not required in the acute setting)

163
Q

What are the targets for treatment of DKA?

A

The recommended targets of treatment are:
* Reduction of blood ketone concentration by 0.5 mmol/L/hour
* Increase the venous bicarbonate by 3.0 mmol/L/hour
* Reduce capillary blood glucose by 3 mmol/L/hour
* Maintain potassium between 4.0 and 5.5 mmol/L

164
Q

When should you wait an hour before starting the fixed rate insulin in DKA Mx?

A

With children - as there is some evidence it reduces the risk of cerebral oedema

There is no need to delay insulin treatment in adults.

165
Q

What is the most common cause of hypothyroidism worldwide?

A

Iodine deficiency

166
Q

Where is iodine deficiency particularly common?

A

Asia and Africa, especially in mountainous regions

167
Q

How is diabetic neuropathy tested?

A

10g monofilament test

168
Q

What would the typical TFT results be in sick euthyroid syndrome?

A

TsH - normal
Free T3/4 - low
On the background of an acute illness

169
Q

What is a common side effect of spironolactone in men?

A

Gynaecomastia

170
Q

When would SGLT2 monotherapy be appropriate?

A

If metformin is contraindicated + patient has a risk of CVD, established CVD or chronic heart failure → SGLT-2 monotherapy

171
Q

What is the immediate Mx of changes in vision on a background of thyroid disease?

A

Urgent ophthalmology review (as you are worried about thyroid eye disease)

172
Q

What is the management of a fracture in a post-menopausal woman?

A

Bisphosphonates + calcium supplements

NO need for a DEXA scan prior to starting

173
Q

What type of condition can cause a falsely low HbA1c reading?

A

Haemoglobinopathies/sickle cell disease - due to reduced RBC lifespan

174
Q

What are some symptoms of gastroparesis?

A
  • Erratic blood glucose control
  • Early satiety
  • Bloating
  • Nausea and vomiting
175
Q

What is the treatment of hypoglycaemia if the patient is conscious/has a safe swallow?

A

10-20g glucose gel, repeated after 15 minutes if blood glucose levels do not improve, for up to 3 treatments in total.

176
Q

Alongside steroids, what else should patients with Addison’s disease be prescribed?

A

Hydrocortisone injection kit

177
Q

What is meant by thyroid acropachy?

A

Soft tissue swelling underneath the nail bed which can look similar to clubbing

178
Q

What are the typical TFT results in subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

TSH - raised
T4/3 - normal

179
Q

How should subclinical hypothyroidism treated?

A

Treatment is dependent on age and TSH levels

TSH is > 10mU/L - consider offering levothyroxine if the TSH level is > 10 mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart

TSH is between 5.5 - 10mU/L + if < 65 years, consider offering a 6-month trial of levothyroxine if:
* The TSH level is 5.5 - 10mU/L on 2 separate occasions 3 months apart AND
* There are symptoms of hypothyroidism

In older people (especially those aged over 80 years) follow a ‘watch and wait’ strategy is often used

If asymptomatic people, observe and repeat thyroid function in 6 months

ICSM Year 6 (21 decks)

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