Medicine 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Causes of macrocytic anemia?

A

Megaloblastic:
B12 and folate deficiency
Non-megaloblastic: Alcoholism, hypothyroid, liver disease, some drugs

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2
Q

20s female presents with 10 days of aching in her hands (MCP, PIP, wrist) and knees. She has some mild patchy redness on her skin with mild diarrhea. No fever or lymphadenopathy. Joints are tender. What are the likely elevated antibodies?

A

Anti-parvovirus B19 IgM antibodies. Parvo presents as an RH-like disease with a rash (slapped cheek or erythema infectiosum). Typical polyarticular, symmetric arthritis develops with the rash and other viral Sx (diarrhea).

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3
Q

What parasite results in hydatid cysts in the liver (or lung) and how is it spread?

A

Echinococcus granulosus spread via dog feces. It is a tapeworm endemic to rural developing countries. The presentation is often with one large cyst in the liver on US and smaller “daughter cysts”, which are septations of the original large cyst. IgG serology is best testing. Albendazole is Rx in smaller cysts. Surgery if big.

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4
Q

Contaminated pork consumption can lead to infxn with?

A

Taenia solium. This is Tx via human to human contact (feces). This disease is called cysticercosis and usually affects the brain (Sz) or cerebral ventricular system (intracranial HTN). Liver cysts uncommon.

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5
Q

What is the most common cause of constrictive pericarditis in developing countries?

A

Tuberculosis in Africa, India, and China. In first-world countries, viruses, cardiac surgery, and chest radiation are more common causes.

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6
Q

Lack of what vitamin leads to sideroblastic anemia due to impaired protoporphyrin synthesis?

A

Pyridoxine (B6). Often, two groups of microcytic RBCs can be demonstrated on microscopy (hypochromic and normochromic RBC populations). Increased serum iron concentration and decreased total iron binding capacity helps to differentiate it from iron-deficiency anemia.

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7
Q

Autoantibodies to voltage-gated calcium channels in presynaptic nerves at NMJ. Dx?

A

Lambert-Eaton. Associated with small cell lung cancers. The loss of Ca++ influx leads to loss of presynaptic release of ACh and proximal muscle weakness with depressed DTRs.

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8
Q

In a person receiving solid organ transplantation, what opportunistic infxn is likely to cause systemic illness involving multiple organ systems (pneumonitis, hepatitis, gastroenteritis)?

A

CMV. In the absence of prophylaxis, this should be looked for if they have pneumonitis, GI symptoms, and LFTs are elevated. It can cause breathing issues, but if lung issues are present in the absence of liver/GI symptoms then more likely to be PCP.

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9
Q

Pt has recurrent syncopal episodes. What are some ways by which these episodes can be averted?

A

Physical counterpressure maneuvers. These maneuvers involve tensing muscles (legs, hands, arms, etc.) to maintain venous return and CO, sometimes aborting syncopal episodes.

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10
Q

What methods reduce confounding bias effects in studies?

A

Early in design stage of study: matching, restriction, randomization
Analysis stage: stratified analysis, statistical remodeling

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11
Q

A female has dysphagia, regurgitation, and pain that radiates to her back from the chest. She notices these episodes occur when she is upset or emotional. Dx?

A

Esophageal spasm. Monometry establishes a Dx, but episodes like this that occur with emotional distress are typical of esophageal spasm.

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12
Q

55yo female presents with pain, itching, and red streaks on her arm. Similar symptoms had resolved weeks ago on her chest. She is a smoker of 30 years and drinks some alcohol. She has mild epigastric tenderness. Tender, erythematous, palpable cord-like veins on the left arm and upper chest are present. Dx?

A

Trousseau’s syndrome. It is a hypercoagulability disorder associated with an occult visceral malignancy (pancreas usually, stomach, lung or prostate also) where recurrent migratory superficial thrombophlebitis occur at unusual sites.

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13
Q

A young female from China presents with dyspnea, nocturnal cough, and hemoptysis. Dx?

A

Rheumatic mitral stenosis. Increased left atrial pressures lead to pulmonary congestion. Dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and hemoptysis can result. A fib can also occur leading to stroke.

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14
Q

40s male presents with changes in personality. Coworkers note that he also seems to have a tic of some sort. He is withdrawn and depressed. MRI of the head shows enlarged lateral ventricles. Dx?

A

Huntington’s chorea. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is characteristic and can lead to lateral ventricle enlargement.

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15
Q

The presence of a systolic-diastolic abdominal bruit has high specificity for?

A

Renovascular HTN. It has low indication for AAA.

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16
Q

Female has sensory change across the dorsal foot and lateral shin. She has impaired ankle dorsiflexion and great toe extension with preserved plantar flexion and reflexes. Dx?

A

Common fibular neuropathy. Usually the result of leg immobilization, leg crossing, or protracted squatting. Unilateral foot drop with impaired ankle dorsiflexion (walking on heels) and preserved plantar flexion (walking on toes) are typical.

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17
Q

Drug of choice for treating chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

A

5HT3 serotonin receptor antagonists.

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18
Q

Best test for suspected ankylosing spondylitis?

A

X-ray of the SI joints can show sacroiliitis

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19
Q

What is the gold standard for acute angle-closure glaucoma?

A

Gonioscopy (slit lamp view of the angle) is the gold standard. Ocular tonometry is helpful if gonioscopy is unavailable.

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20
Q

When do symptoms for IgA nephropathy occur vs postinfectious glomerulonephritis?

A

IgA neph: Usually occurs within 5 days of URI (synpharyngitic). Recurrent gross hematuria results.
Postinfectious glomeruloneph: Usually 10-21 days after URI (post-pharyngitic). Gross hematuria. Low C3 complement.

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21
Q

A woman with DMII and osteomyelitis due to a foot wound would likely have infxn with what kind of bacteria?

A

Polymicrobial (+, -, and anaerobes). Osteomyelitis is often due to contiguous spread.

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22
Q

What is the duration of effect of “bath salts”?

A

Duration of effects can be days or weeks even, vs other drugs that last hours. Typical symptoms include agitation, combativeness, psychosis, delerium, myoclonus, and Sz.

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23
Q

40s male develops CP and diaphoresis in a meeting. He loses consciousness and is given CPR by coworkers. He regains consciousness in 60 seconds. He has DMII, HTN, and high lipids. ECG shows STEMI in V1-V3. What’s the most likely mechanism for his syncope/arrest?

A

Reentrant ventricular arrhythmia (like V.fib) are the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest in the immediate post-infarction period in acute MI. R. sided MI can cause AV conduction blocks, especially those with inferior MI, but it is transient and resolves after reperfusion therapy (thrombolytics).

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24
Q

What medication is approved for use in ALS patients?

A

Riluzole, a glutamate inhibitor, may prolong survival and the time to tracheostomy.

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25
Q

Pt. presents with vague abdominal pain, bluish discoloration to her right great tue and all the toes in her left foot. She has a lacy appearing rash on her legs also. Her Cr is 2.3mg/dL (1.1 on admission). ECG shows NSR with Q waves in anterior leads. Dx?

A

Atheroembolism (cholesterol embolism). This is a complication of cardiac catheterization and some other vascular procedures. Blue toe syndrome and livedo reticularis (lacy/reticular rash) are typical symptoms. Intestinal, cerebral, kidney ischemia are common. Hollenhorst plaques (cholesterol in retina) are present on fundoscopy.

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26
Q

Pulmonary emboli most likely originate from?

A

Proximal thigh (iliac, femoral, popliteal veins). These veins are the source of >90% of acute PEs. DVT in the distal leg or calf are less likely to embolize and more likely to resolve spontaneously.

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27
Q

Electrical alternans is fairly specific for what cardiac emergency?

A

Pericardial effusion leading to cardiac tamponade. This presents as varying QRS complex amplitudes.

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28
Q

A 52yo man presents to the office with polyuria and polydipsia. He has some weight loss despite no appetite changes. His dad has HTN and DMII. Nonfasting glucose is 280. What is likely to be elevated in this Pt?

A

Insulin levels. Insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes can lead to normal or high insulin levels. Remember that DKA occurs in DM1, while HHNK occurs in DM2.

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29
Q

Xray findings in gallstone ileus?

A

Dilated bowel loops with air in the biliary tree (pneumobilia) due to a biliary-enteric fistula with the small bowel. The sphincter of Oddi would likely prevent air movement into the biliary tree otherwise.

30
Q

Typical findings in gallstone ileus?

A

Hyperactive bowel sounds, dilated bowels, intermittent/”tumbling” obstrxn with diffuse abd. pain and vomiting until complete obstrxn occurs when lodged in terminal ileum.

31
Q

Female presents with decreased libido. On exam she has rugated/moist vagina. She is on HRT after total hysterectomy and bilateral oophorectomy. What is the cause of her issue?

A

Decreased androgens.

32
Q

60s male presents with difficulty walking and vertigo. The palate is weak on the right and he has ptosis and a small pupil on the right. He has sensory changes over the right face and decreased sensation on the right face and left extremities. Where is the stroke?

A

Right vertebral. Vertebral or basilar strokes present with ipsilateral ataxia, diplopia, dysphagia, dysarthria, and vertigo. Contralateral homonymous hemianopsia occurs with basilar-PCA lesions.

33
Q

Anterior cerebral artery stroke presentation?

A

Contralateral lower extremity and face hemiparesis.

34
Q

Middle cerebral artery stroke presentation?

A

Aphasia and contralateral hemiparesis.

35
Q

Lacunar lesions in the internal capsule presentation?

A

Pure motor hemiparesis, sensation intact

36
Q

Lacunar lesions in the pons presentation?

A

Dysarthria and clumsy hand

37
Q

Lacunar lesions in the thalamus presentation?

A

Pure sensory deficit

38
Q

First step in managing severe hyperkalemia?

A

IV Calcium gluconate is the first step. Then glucose/insulin and bicarbonate. Kayexalate causes a shift of K+ in the colon preventing reabsorption.

39
Q

What is the most rapid and effective way to Rx elevated K+?

A

Hemodialysis. Reserved for intractable hyperkalemia or those with renal failure.

40
Q

What is the classic sign in constrictive pericarditis?

A

Kussmaul sign. This is a paradoxical rise in JVD with inspiration.

41
Q

What is the classic sign in cardiac tamponade?

A

Pulsus paradoxus. Drop of BP by ≥10 points with inspiration.

42
Q

30s man presents to the ED with HA and fever for 3 weeks. He has IV drug use Hx. No other Hx. His opening pressure is high, glucose low, and protein in the CSF is high. What is the likely condition?

A

Cryptococcal meningitis. Rx involves amphoteracin B and flucytosine followed by fluconazole for consolidation. If this were bacterial meningitis, the onset would be more acute. Cryptococcus is a slower, subacute infxn onset, probably due to the fact that it is a fungus.

43
Q

A female presenting with pain in her back for several months has an Xray that shows lytic lesions in the vertebrae and hip. She has weight loss and fatigue as well as hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency and a protein gap in her plasma. Likely Dx?

A

Multiple myeloma. Without a prior Hx of cancer (breast or otherwise) and the lytic lesions in her spine and hip bone with hypercalcemia and renal insufficiency, she likely has MM. The protein gap depicts an elevation of nonalbumin protein in the serum and can be seen with monoclonal gammopathies (Waldenstrom, etc.). Rouleaux formation is classic due to elevated serum protein.

44
Q

Most appropriate first step in management for septic arthritis?

A

Joint aspiration (arthrocentesis). Also, do not delay ABx and treat empirically despite a negative gram stain.

45
Q

Pathophysiology of hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

Mother produces antibodies against baby’s blood antigens. Mom is either Rh negative or A (against baby B) B (against baby A) or O (against baby A or B). Usually, jaundice is mild, but Rh incompatability against big D antigen is usually the worst presentation.

46
Q

Lactose intolerance leads to what kind of diarrhea?

A

Osmotic diarrhea. Lactose breakdown in the gut causes shift of fluid into intestine and diarrhea. Elevated stool osmotic gradient is typical.

47
Q

A patient with chronic diarrhea after multiple abdominal surgeries has what kind of diarrhea most likely?

A

Secretory diarrhea. Presents with chronic watery diarrhea that occurs even during fasting or sleep due to disruption of luminal ion channels. High stool volumes (>1L/day) and a decreased stool osmolarity gap is typical.

48
Q

Small cell carcinoma associated paraneoplastic diseases?

A

Cushings (ACTH)
SIADH
Lambert-eaton

49
Q

Adenocarcinoma associated paraneoplastic diseases?

A

None. It is associated with hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy, however.

50
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma associated paraneoplastic diseases?

A

PTrH (hypercalcemia)

51
Q

Initial medication in hypertensive crisis?

A

Nitroprusside (if not pregnant, otherwise hydralazine).

52
Q

MC cancer of the lower lip in vermillion zone?

A

Squamous cancer.

53
Q

Classic histology of BCC of skin?

A

Spindle cells surrounded by palisaded basal cells.

54
Q

Typical location of BCC on face?

A

Upper lip and face rather than lower lip.

55
Q

Drugs that commonly cause pancreatitis?

A

Diuretics (Lasix, HCTZ)
IBD drugs (5-ASA)
Azathioprine
ABx (metronodazole, tetracycline)

56
Q

Findings in CBC in spherocytosis?

A
  • Anemia with reticulocytosis
  • Low mean corpuscular volume
  • Increased mean corpuscular Hgb concentration
57
Q

A 40s male presents unconscious with pH 7.2, CO2 30, HCO3 12. What is the next step in Dx of his acid-base status?

A

Calculate plasma anion gap. AG = Na - (HCO3 + Cl). 6-12 is normal.

58
Q

What is the normal anion gap?

A

6-12mEq/L

59
Q

Increased anion gap interpretation and differential?

A

Non-chloride acids are present that narrows Dx to:

  • methanol
  • uremia
  • ketoacidosis (DKA starvation, or alcoholism)
  • ethylene glycol
  • salicylates
60
Q

Man with heaviness and fatigue in the left arm with exertion and episodes of dizziness presents to the ED. He has an S4 heart sound. No sensory loss or weakness is noted. A bruit is present under the left clavicle. Dx?

A

Subclavian artery occlusion causing subclavian steal syndrome. Reversal of flow from the ipsilateral vertebral artery results and can lead to upper extremity ischemia or vertebrobasilar insufficiency that are worsened by upper extremity exercise.

61
Q

A patient presents with intermittent fever, fatigue, and a new holosystolic murmur with positive blood cultures. Dx?

A

Infective endocarditis. Usually start empirically on Vancomycin to cover MSSA, strep, and enterococci after doing cultures.

62
Q

Man with infective endocarditis and positive viridans culture is being treated with Vancomycin empirically. The culture comes back with PCN sensitivity. . Next step?

A

Give either IV PCN G or IV ceftriaxone for 4 weeks.

63
Q

Man returning from a trip to Mexico 1 month ago presents with myositis, splinter hemorrhages and periorbital edema. CBC shows eosinophilia and leukocytosis. He has elevated CK. He notes he had abd. pain right after coming home. Dx?

A

Trichinellosis or trichinosis. A parasitic infxn caused by roundworms. Ingestion of undercooked pork usually leads to infxn. Early stages lead to abd pain, with NVD, but after a week myositis (elevated CK), fever, splinter hemorrhage, and edema develop.

64
Q

HOCM murmur?

A

Systolic ejection murmur radiating to carotids (AS-like)

65
Q

Pulmonary HTN assoc with what physical finding?

A

Right vent heave

66
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension in systemic sclerosis is due to?

A

Hyperplasia of the intimal smooth muscle layer of the pulmonary arteries leads to increased PVR. Lung parenchyma is unaffected (no infiltrate on Xray and normal FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio on PFT).

67
Q

Interstitial lung disease can lead to right sided HF how?

A

Pulmonary arterial hypertension. This can occur in systemic sclerosis, however, in PAH due to interstitial lung disesae, PFTs demonstrate restrictive patterning with FEV1<80% of predicted and low FVC.

68
Q

What testing differentiates ILD from PAH caused HF?

A

Interstitial lung disease has restrictive lung pattern and opacities on Xray. Isolated PAH does not.

69
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension in systemic sclerosis is due to?

A

Hyperplasia of the intimal smooth muscle layer of the pulmonary arteries leads to increased PVR. Lung parenchyma is unaffected (no infiltrate on Xray and normal FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio on PFT).

70
Q

Interstitial lung disease can lead to right sided HF how?

A

Pulmonary arterial hypertension. This can occur in systemic sclerosis, however, in PAH due to interstitial lung disesae, PFTs demonstrate restrictive patterning with FEV1<80% of predicted and low FVC.

71
Q

What testing differentiates ILD from PAH caused HF?

A

Interstitial lung disease has restrictive lung pattern and opacities on Xray. Alveolar spaces are filled with fibroblasts. Isolated PAH does not have these signs and has arterial intimal hyperplasia.