Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between moderate sedation and deep sedation

A

Moderate sedation allows purposeful responses to verbal or tactile stimulation with adequate spontaneous ventilation and no airway intervention, while deep sedation requires repeated or painful stimulation for a response, and airway intervention may be needed due to inadequate spontaneous ventilation. CV are maintained in both.

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2
Q

ASA Classifications

A

Class I: A healthy patient
Class II: mild systemic disease WITHOUT functional limitations
– Ex: current smoker, social alcohol drinker, pregnancy, obesity (BMI 30–40), well-controlled DM/HTN, mild lung disease.
* Class III: severe systemic disease that limits activity but is not incapacitating
– Ex: poorly controlled DM/HTN,COPD, morbid obesity (BMI ≥40), active hepatitis, ESRD with dialysis, history (>3 months) of MI, CVA, TIA, or CAD/ stents.
Class IV: severe systemic disease with constant threat to life.
– Ex: recent (< 3 months) MI, CVA,TIA, or CAD/stents, ongoing cardiac ischemia.
Class V: moribund patient who is not expected to survive without operation.
* Class VI: declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes.

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3
Q

BMI scales

A
  • BMI Scale (m/kg2):
  • Normal: 18.5–24.9
  • Overweight: 25–29.9
  • Obese: 30–39.9 ASA II
  • Morbidly obese:
    40–49.9 ASA III
  • Super obese: >50
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4
Q

Describe your airway examination?

A

I perform a head & neck exam, TMJ exam, I would measure thyromental distance , neck circumference , neck mobility, mandible size and position, MIO, intraoral and dental exam, mallampati score & tongue and tonsil sizes and I auscultate the heart and lungs.

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5
Q

Mallampati Score

A

Class I: soft palate, uvula, tonsillar pillars, and fauces are visible.
– Class II: superior 2/3 of uvula and soft palate are visible.
– Class III: <1/3rd of uvula and soft palate are visible.
– Class IV: soft palate not visible.

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6
Q

Describe the thyromental Distance?

A

The distance between the top of the thyroid cartilage and the menton of the mandible. It is an indicator of the ability to displace the tongue during direct laryngoscopy. A distance of <6.5 cm (three finger breadths) may indicate difficulty with intubation.

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7
Q

Describe the Neck Circumference?

A

if greater than 43 cm (17 inches), associated with difficulty for intubation, more predictive than BMI.

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8
Q

What Cormack-Lehane classification?

A

The Cormack-Lehane classification is used to describe the view of the vocal cords during laryngoscopy and assess airway difficulty.

Grade I:
Full view of the vocal cords.
Easiest for intubation.

Grade II:
Partial view of the vocal cords.
May require adjustments for intubation.

Grade III:
Only the epiglottis is visible.
Intubation is challenging;

Grade IV:
Neither the vocal cords nor the epiglottis are visible.
Intubation is very difficult;

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9
Q

What is the Fishbaugh classification for tonsillar hypertrophy?

A

Fishbaugh Classification for Tonsillar Hypertrophy is a system used to grade the size of the tonsils based on their relation to the space between the tonsillar pillars.

Grade 0:
Tonsils are absent (e.g., post-tonsillectomy).

Grade 1:
Tonsils occupy less than 25% of the oropharyngeal width.

Grade 2:
Tonsils occupy 25%–50% of the oropharyngeal width.

Grade 3:
Tonsils occupy 50%–75% of the oropharyngeal width.

Grade 4:
Tonsils occupy 75%–100% of the oropharyngeal width, often touching at the midline (“kissing tonsils”).

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10
Q

Describe the differences between adult and pediatric airway?

A
  • Pediatric airway is smaller. Uncuffed ET size = age in years/4 +4
  • Large occiput
  • Large tongue and smaller mouth
  • Obligatory nose breather
  • Large tonsils and adenoids
  • Larynx is higher and more anterior. At the level 2-3 cervical vertebrae, adult 6-7
  • Epiglottis is floppy and project posteriorly.
  • Cricoid rings are narrowest point of airway.
  • Length of the trachea is smaller.
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11
Q

How do you determine the appropriate size and depth of an endotracheal tube (ETT) in pediatric patients, and what anatomical differences influence the choice of cuffed versus uncuffed tubes?

A
  • Children younger than 8 have an anatomical narrowing at the cricoid ring that provides a natural “cuff.”
  • Children who are 8 and older can tolerate a cuffed tube more easily.
  • A cuffed tube is commonly used because of high volume/low pressure.

Several formulas are available:

1- Uncuffed tracheal tube size: [age (in years)/4]+4 = internal diameter (in millimeters).

2- Cuffed tracheal tube size: [age (in years)/4]+3 = internal diameter (in millimeters).

3- Depth of insertion: [age (in years)/2]+12 = depth of insertion (in centimeters).

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12
Q

What is Down syndrome?

A

Trisomy 21, genetic condition caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 which affects the development of the body and brain.

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13
Q

What are some features of down syndrom?

A
  • Intellectual disability
  • Cardiac conditions: atrioventricular septal defect, patent ductus arteriosus, and tetralogy of Fallot.
  • Dentofacial deformities: Flattened face, small head, short neck , slanting eyelid , macroglossia , short hand, small ear.
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14
Q

What is Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) and what are the components?

A

Congenital heart defect affect blood flow and oxygenation.
It includes four main structural heart abnormalities:

1- Pulmonary stenosis
2- Right ventricular hypertrophy
3- Overriding aorta
4- Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

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15
Q

How do you work up down syndrom patient prior sedation.

A
  • Communicate with the cardioligiest
  • Ideally treat the patient in the hospital.
  • Obtain CBC, BMP, EKG and Echo
  • If the patient uncooperative premedicate with:

Oral Midazolam (Versed):
Dose:0.5 mg/kg(maximum 20 mg) given20–45 minutesprior to anesthesia.
Can be mixed with syrup or juice

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16
Q

Your patient is extremely anxious and combative, refusing IV placement. What premedication options can you consider to manage the situation effectively?

A

1- Oral Midazolam (Versed):
Dose:0.5 mg/kg(maximum 20 mg) given20–45 minutesprior to anesthesia.
Can be mixed with syrup or juice

2- IM Ketamin Dart 4mg/kg
onset of action is typically 2–4 minutes.

3- Intramuscular Ketamine Combination:
Dose:1.5 mg/kg ketamine
+0.1mg glycopyrrolate(to reduce secretions) +0.1 mg/kg midazolam.
Total IM dose should not exceed3 ccin the anterolateral thigh.
Follow with IV midazolam for anxiolysis and to minimize ketamine-related emergence delirium.

4- Oral Clonidine:
α2-agonist causing sedation, anxiolysis, and analgesia.
Dose based on weight:
≤50 lbs:0.1 mg (1 tablet).
51–75 lbs:1.5 tablets (0.15 mg).
75 lbs:2 tablets (0.2 mg).

Crush tablets and administer in-office under monitoring.

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17
Q

What is Sickle Cell Anemia (SCA) ?

A
  • Autosomal recessive disorder causes the body to produce abnormal shape of RBC which fails to deliver O2 to the tissue.

Cause: mutation where valine is substituted for glutamic acid

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18
Q

What are some clinical finding of Sickle Cell Anemia (SCA) ?

A
  • Key pathologic processes in SCA: severe hemolytic anemia and vasoocclusive crises
  • Atrophy of lingual papilla
  • Pallor and yellowish of oral mucosa
  • Delay teeth eruption
  • Delay wound healing.
  • Acute chest pain
  • Necrosis of hand and foot
  • Increase risk of bacterial infections due to loss of functioning spleen tissue (Pneumococcal, Meningiococcal)
  • Pain crises
  • Stroke and splenic sequestration
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19
Q

How do you work up SCA/what is the anesthesia and surgical consideration?

A
  • Communicate with hematologiest, check how sever is the disease.
  • CBC: anemia , platelet and elevated WBC
  • BMP: (creatinine, BUN) and electrolytes.
  • LFt and PT/INR
  • Medical clearance
  • Consider Prophylactic Antibiotics
  • Avoid Hypoxia and Hypercapnia
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20
Q

How is SCA managed?

A
  • Fluid hydration
  • Pain management (PO or IV)
  • adequate oxygenation. Oxygen therapy (O2 < 92%)
  • Minimize blood loss
  • Steroids.

-Treatment:
- Hydroxyurea 15mg/kg/day for 12 weeks (increases HbF which prevents sickling)
- Bone marrow transplant.
- folic acid (↑ RBC)

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21
Q

SCA facts

A

Sickling is exacerbated by:
* Acidosis, hypoxia, dehydration, cold, and hypercarbia * Pain, and infection
Chronic anemia with Hct= 19-24
* * *
Shortened life span of RBCs
* Normal = 120 days
* Sickle Cell trait = 29 days
* Sickle Cell Dz = 17 days

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22
Q

Everything went well, the patient with SCA is in the recovery area and suddenly started to have severe chest pain, what is going on and how you are going to manage it?

A

Acute Chest Syndrome
Wheezing or cough, tachypnea
New infiltrate on chest X-ray
Chest pain, temp >38.5C,
Cause: Most are Fat emboli, Infectious or a Combination.

Treatment:
● Supportive: O2, fluid, abx,
● Transfusions,
● Bronchodilators and possibly NO (vasodilator, ↓ adhesion).
● It is the second-most common complication and it accounts for about 25% of deaths in patients with SCD, majority of cases present with vaso-occlusive crisis then they develop ACS.

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23
Q

Transfusion reaction

A

Cross-agglutination of blood by antibodies in plasma

S/S: fever, ↓ BP, sweats/chills,
hives, anaphylaxis/dyspnea, vomiting, flank pain, headache

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24
Q

Treatment of transfusion reaction

A
  • Maintain BP & Renal perfusion
  • IV fluids: NS, strict i/o’s
  • Consult nephrology
  • if no diuretic response ~ 2-3h,
    assume ATN(acute tubular necrosis) , don’t give more IVF
  • Diurese w/ Lasix 40-80mg
    (+2mg/kg) > 100 cc urine/h
  • Dialyze, watch electrolyes, give
    benadryl
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25
Q

What is Leukemia?

A
  • Leukemia:
    Increase lifespan of myeloid or lymphoid cells.
  • Pathogenesis: Block in stem cells differentiation
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26
Q

What is AML?

A

AML:
- Increase number of immature myeloid cells.
- Occur in adult, more men
- Risk factor: Down syndrome, radiation, cisplatin and carboplatin
- Fatigue , dyspnea , dizziness, weight loss , fever, infection, gingivitis , easy bleeding.
- Work up: CBC (low wbc, anemia and thrombocytopenia), BMP, coagulation labs PT/PTT/INR

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27
Q

What is CML

A

-Malignant myeloproliferative disorder associated with Philadelphia chromosome.
- common in adult > 60 M
- CBC shows wbc between 50,000-200,000
- Tx: Tyrosin kinase inhibitor , chemo and bone marrow transplant

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28
Q

What is ALL?

A
  • Malignancy by proliferation of immature lymphoid cells
  • More common in children 80% and 20% in adult
  • Fatigue , pallor , lymphadenopathy , mouth ulceration, oral bleeding and numb chin syndrome which is numbness along mental nerve distribution.
  • Work up requires a CT of neck, chest, abdomen, and pelvis. CT/MRI head for those with neurological symptoms.
  • They have anemia, thrombocytopenia, low and high WBC
  • More responsive to treatment.
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29
Q

Define Schizophrenia?

A
  • Psychiatric disorder characterized by chronic and recurrent psychosis.
  • Positive symptoms:
  • Hallucination, delusion, disorganized thought
  • Negative symptoms:
  • Apathy, flat affect, Aloofness
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30
Q

How Schizophrenia treated?

A
  • First generation dopamine receptor blockade: works also on serotonin type 2 (5-HT2), alpha-1, histaminic
    - Chlorpromazine
    - Haloperidol Haldol.
    - Fluphenazine
    - Perphenazine
  • Second generation D2 blockade :
    - Seroquel
    - clozapine (agranulocytosis low level of WBC require serial CBC ), side effect hypotension , weight gain , glucose intolerance.
  • Side effect both drugs:
    1- Tremor
    2- Tardive dyskinesia (involuntary movement of perioral region and extremity)
    3- Prolonged QT interval = can cause cardiac arrest
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31
Q

How would you evaluate Schizophrenia patient prior sedation?

A
  • CBC (clozapine can cause (agranulocytos)
  • BMP
  • EKG to assess the QT interval = high risk of ventricular dysrthymia.
  • Assess for substance abuse (50% of schizophrenic pts have substance abuse)
  • Avoid ketamine = can worse the hallucination
  • Obtain appropriate level of sedation.
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32
Q

Define Hemophilia A?

A

Hemophilia A: 80% common
- X linked recessive bleeding disorder characterized by congenital deficiency of factor VIII.
- M>F
- Dx:
- Genetic testing
- family hx
- PTT prolonged, PT is normal, platelet is normal
- Hem A factor 8 activity is below 40%

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33
Q

Define Hemophilia B?

A

Hemophilia B: 20% common
- X linked recessive bleeding disorder characterized by congenital deficiency of factor IX.
- M>F
- Genetic testing
- family hx
- PTT prolonged, PT is normal, platelet is normal
- Hem B factor 9 activity is below 40%

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34
Q

What is the classification of hemophilia A & B?

A

Classification of hemophilia A & B:
- Mild disease: factor level greater than 5-40%
- Moderate disease: factor activity 1-5%
- Sever: factor level below 1%

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35
Q

What are the Symptoms of hemophilia A & B?

A
  • Spontaneous bleeding
  • Prolong bleeding.
  • Gingival bleeding.
  • Hemarthrosis
  • Intracranial hemorrhage
  • GI bleeding
  • Muscle bleeding
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36
Q

How would you evaluate Hem A, B patients prior surgery?

A
  • I will contact the hematologist to discuss and get more details about the severity of the condition and to appropriately co-manage the patient.
  • Obtain labs CBC, BMP, PT, PTT and coagus
  • Avoid NSAID and aspirin.
  • I will give recombinant factor concentrates of factor VIII or IX.
  • Goal is to raise the levels 80–100% prior to surgery and maintain 50% 1–2 weeks postoperatively. The factor should be giving 20-minute prior surgery due to short half-life.
  • I will use hemostatic adjunct
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37
Q

What are some hemostatic adjunct can be use with hem A,b pts?

A
  • Tranexamic acid:
    Antifibrinolytic agent, inhibits conversion of plasminogen into plasmin.
    Dosage:
  • 25mg/kg PO qid
  • 5% mouth wash with 10ml
  • 10mg/kg IV. All for 5-7 days.
  • Amicar:
    Antifibrinolytic agent, inhibits conversion of plasminogen into plasmin
  • Dosage:
  • 6g PO QID, can be giving preop 5g 30-minute prior
  • Desmopressin:
    Synthetic analog vasopressin Causes release of stored vWF and factor 8 from endothelial cells.
  • Dosgae:
  • IV 0.3 μg/kg over 20 minutes.
  • Intranasal 150 μg spray to each nostril. Monitor free water intake as there is a risk of hyponatremia and seizures.
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38
Q

Define vWD?

A
  • Congenital platelet bleeding disorder due to a deficiency or dysfunction of von Willebrand factor (vWF).
  • vWF is responsible for mediating platelet adhesion and prevent factor 8 degradation.
  • Can be inheritance or acquired due to autoimmune disorders such as SLE OR hypothyroidism.
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39
Q

What are the types of vWD and describe the symptoms?

A

1- Partial quantitative, most common. AD 85%
2- Partial qualitative, 2A, 2B, 2N,2M. AD 15%
3- Total quantitative autosomal recessive

  • Symptoms:
  • mucous membrane bleeding
  • Gingiva bleeding.
  • Menorrhagia.
  • Epistaxis.
  • GI bleeding.
  • Type III can result in more severe symptoms including joint bleeding.
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40
Q

What you expect to see in vWD labs?

A
  • CBC, PT, PTT are normal.
  • Factor 8 decrease
  • vWF antigen decrease.
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41
Q

What is the treatment of vWD?

A

- Type 1:
- Desmopressin (DDAVP)
Synthetic analog vasopressin Causes release of stored vWF and factor 8 from endothelial cells.
- Dosgae:
- IV 0.3 μg/kg over 20 minutes.
- Intranasal 150 μg spray to each nostril. Monitor free water intake as there is a risk of hyponatremia and seizures.

- Type 2 and 3:

  • Cryoprecipitate can be used to treat all types of vWD.
  • Is portion of the plasma that Contains Factors 8, 9, vWF, fibrinogen, and fibronectin.
  • Peds 1-2 unit per 10kg
  • adult 1 unit per 10kg.
  • Both will increase the fibrinogen 100mg/dl
  • Humate-P (vWF/Factor VIII) concentrate: It is a blood clotting factor replacement therapy used in the treatment of hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease. Loading dose 40-60 IU/kg then taper the dose.
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42
Q

What is lymphoma?

A

Malignancy of lymphocyte that arise usually in lymph node.

  • Two main types:
  • Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)
  • Non Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)
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43
Q

Define Hodgkin lymphoma (HL)?

A
  • Malignancy of lymphocyte that arise in lymph node.
  • Present as painless lymphadenopathy usually supraclavicular 75% in the neck
  • Spleen involved in 20%
  • Male age 15-35 years

**- B symptoms: **
- Night sweats, fever and weight loss

  • Characterized by the presence of Reed- Sternberg malignant cells that are seen on histopathology (binucleated cells with owl eye nuclei).

-Work up:
-Biopsy
- CT and PET scan for staging
- CBC, BMP to look for anemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, and hypoalbuminemia.

**-Tx: **
- Radiation 20G
- chemotherapy (bleomycin…)

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44
Q

What is albumin?

A
  • Albumin is protein produced by the liver and is a major component of blood plasma.

Normal value 3.5 to 5.0 g/dL.

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45
Q

Define Non- Hodgkin lymphoma?

A
  • Malignant lymphoproliferative lesions that are not Hodgkin lymphoma.
  • 85% are of B cell origin.
  • Express CD20 marker
  • B symptoms: night sweats, fever and weight loss
  • Virus may play role: EBV (Burkitt’s lymphoma, HIV and Hep B)
  • Can also see extranodal involvement – bone marrow, lungs, liver, bone.
  • Work up:
  • Biopsy, CT and PET scan for staging, CBC, BMP to look for anemia, leukocytosis, thrombocytosis, and hypoalbuminemia.
  • Tx:
  • Radiation 20G
  • chemotherapy (Rituximab anti CD20…)
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46
Q

Define Multiple Myeloma?

A
  • Malignant of plasma cells causing osteolytic lesion, hypercalcemia, osteopenia and pathologic fracture.
  • Affect more male, 60-70.

Clinical presentation:
- Jaw lesion in 30%
- bone pain
- Hypercalcemia
- Anemia
- Petechiae due to platelet dysfunction
- Amyloidosis in soft tissue
- Renal failure from Bence-Jones protein (Amyloid is nephrotoxic)

  • Radiograph:
    Punched out radiolucency without sclerotic border in skull
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47
Q

How would you work up patient with MM?

A
  • Clinical exam
  • Protein electrophoresis to detect monoclonal protein
  • serum and urine M protein
  • bone marrow biopsy
  • CBC, anemia , platelet dysfunc
  • BMP
  • CT and PET scan
  • Peripheral smear shows Rouleaux formation (stacked RBCs resembling coins)
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48
Q

How would you manage patient with MM?

A
  • CBC, BMP , coagus and type and screen
  • Consult hematologist.
  • Transfuse if necessary.
  • Maximize hydration.
  • Pre and post op abx
  • Avoid steroid, can precipitate tumor lysis.
  • Consider risk of MRONJ , avoid IAN if bleeding concerns.
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49
Q

What is Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)

A

Neuromuscular disease caused by mutation of dystrophin gene leads to progressive necrosis of the muscle fiber.

Epidemiology: 1 in 3,600 boys.

Onset: Early childhood with motor delays, learning disabilities, attention issues.

Progression: Wheelchair-bound; life expectancy ~20 years (respiratory failure, heart failure, arrhythmias, pneumonia).

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50
Q

What is clinical presentation of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy (DMD)

A

Muscle: Calf/tongue pseudohypertrophy, long bone fractures, kyphoscoliosis (↓ respiratory function).

Weakness of Pharyngeal muscles causing aspiration, nasal regurgitation, nasal speech.

Cardiac:
Mitral valve regurgitation tachycardia (tall R wave)
arrhythmias.

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51
Q

How DMD diagnosed?

A

Labs:
↑ Serum CK.
EMG: Myopathic pattern.
Biopsy: Muscle atrophy and hypertrophy.
DNA: Dystrophin gene mutation.

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52
Q

How do you manage DMD?

A

Pre-op:
- Steroid supplementation
- assess for ACE inhibitors, beta blockers, digoxin (toxicity: N/V, visual changes).

Pre-op Workup: EKG, echo, chest X-ray.

Anesthesia:
- TIVA preferred; avoid volatile agents (risk: malignant hyperthermia).
- No succinylcholine (risk: rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalemia).
- Use desflurane if needed.
- NPO: Longer duration (gastroparesis).
- Pre-induction: H2 agonist + metoclopramide.
- Avoid narcotics
- monitor TMJ subluxation,
- ↓ pulmonary reserve → ICU post-op if required.

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53
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

Autoimmune disorder features by autoantibodies affecting postsynaptic neuromuscular nicotinic ACH receptor

It is characterized by weakness and fatigue of the skeletal muscles with improvement with rest.

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54
Q

Clinical features of MG

A
  • Fatigue of voluntary muscles most commonly eyelid ptosis
  • Generalized weakness
  • Thymoma in 15% of patients
  • Slow speech, jaw claudication, swallowing difficulty
  • Respiratory weakness
  • Peek sign: patient closes eyes and after a short time scleral show begins due to orbicularis oculi weakness.
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55
Q

Diagnosis of MG

A
  • Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody test is the confirmatory diagnostic test of choice.
  • Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) test. Patient is injected with anticholinesterase with improved strength.
  • Treatment:
  • Pyridostigmine (anticholinesterase) first line of treatment.
  • IV immunoglobulin
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56
Q

Work up and anesthesia concerns in MG?

A
  • Consider reduced or avoidance of sedatives or opioids in those with reduced respiratory reserve.
  • Short-acting opioids such as remifentanil are preferred.
  • Warn patient of possible need for prolonged ventilatory support.
  • Usually resistant to succinylcholine and sensitive to non-depolarizing muscle relaxants.
  • Rapid sequence intubation, succinylcholine should be adjusted to 1.5–2 mg/kg
  • Nitrous oxide is safe.
  • Avoid aminoglycosides (e.g., gentamycin) as they are known to impair neuromuscular transmission. Erythromycin, azithromycin, fluoroquinolones, and tetracycline have reports of increased myasthenic weakness.
  • Inhalational agents such as sevoflurane, isoflurane, and halothane are known to reduce neuromuscular transmission and may be exacerbated in the myasthenic patient.
  • Reports of adverse effects with ketamine and etomidate.
  • Propofol is safe in these patients.
  • Controversial on reversal of neuromuscular blockage due to concern postoperative weakness due to cholinergic crisis or inadequate muscular transmission.
  • Cholinergic crisis, excess of acetylcholine. Normally due to administration of excess anticholinesterase drugs resulting in involuntary twitches and fasciculation and muscle weakness.
  • Differentiate from myasthenic crisis by administration of the edrophonium test. In myasthenic crisis, pupils will be dilated as well.
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57
Q

Multiple Sclerosis ?

A

Demyelinating disease of the central nervous system (CNS) marked by relapses, followed by periods of remission.

Pathogenesis – demyelination in the periventricular areas of the brain.

Symptoms:
visual disturbances, gait disturbances, ascending paresis

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58
Q

What is the surgical/anesthesia concerns for pts with MS

A
  • Rule out cardiovascular or respiratory issues in those MS with advance disease.
  • Surgical stresses can exacerbate the symptoms.
  • Provide adequate anxiolysis and pain management to avoid exacerbations.
  • No elective surgery during periods of relapse.
  • The informed consent discussion should include the possibility of worsening MS symptoms.
  • Consider stress-dosing the patient who is on long-term steroids.
  • Patients taking interferon should have a CBC to exclude anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia.
  • Avoid succinylcholine in patients with paralysis or paresis because of the potential for hyperkalemia.
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59
Q

COPD

A

Irreversible disease that causes airway obstruction by either chronic bronchitis and/or emphysema.

  • Risk factors include smoking (most common), respiratory infection, occupational exposure.
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60
Q

What are the sign and symptoms of COPD?

A

wheezing
chronic cough
productive cough
hyperinflation of chest
hypertrophy of the accessory muscles
weight loss
fatigue
dyspnea on exertion
pulmonary hypertension leading to neck vein distention and peripheral edema.

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61
Q

Classification of COPD

A

COPD patients typically exhibit hypercarbia and hypoxemia. Advanced disease can lead to pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale.

I Mild:
FEV1 > 80%
Short acting bronchodilator

II Moderate:
FEV1 > 50-79%
Long acting bronchodilator

III Sever:
FEV1 > 30-49%
Inhaled steroid

IV very sever:
FEV1 < 30%
Oxygen, pulmonary rehab

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62
Q

Chronic bronchitis (“blue bloaters”)

Emphysema

A

* Chronic bronchitis (“blue bloaters”):
chronic hypersecretion of mucus in the bronchi resulting in airway obstruction.
* Emphysema (“pink puffers”) enlargement of the airway due to destruction of the airway walls leading to loss of elasticity/recoil of the bronchioles.

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63
Q

Diagnosis of COPD

A
  • Pulmonary function tests including spirometry
  • Bronchitis diagnosis is based on a history of a productive cough for at least 2 consecutive years.
  • Chest radiographs look for lung nodules, bullae, hyperinflated lungs, masses, or fibrotic changes.
  • Blood labs may show hypercarbia, polycythemia and leukopenia.
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64
Q

What is the surgical/anesthesia concerns/management for pts with COPD

A
  • Consult with a pulmonologist and optimize prior surgery.
  • Smoking cessation for 6 weeks
  • EKG to rule out right-sided heart disease and ischemic heart disease.
  • Chest X-ray warranted if concern for respiratory infection or occult malignancy.
  • No sedation because patients have limited ability to tolerate hypoventilation as they have a diminished response to hypercarbia.
  • Presence of extensive bullae translates to a higher risk pneumothorax.
  • Delay surgery if any signs of active infection purulent sputum, or worsening cough.
  • Nitrous oxide has the potential to expand and possible rupture pulmonary bullae.
  • Consider β-2 agonist and an antimuscarinic (e.g., robinul) to increase airway patency.
  • Maintain oxygen saturation between 88% and 92%.
  • Opioids diminish the respiratory drive and predispose the patient to apnea (use opioids judiciously).
  • Local anesthesia is preferred.
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65
Q

Eating Disorders

A

Psychiatric disorder characterized by abnormal eating habits with psychological implications and excessive concern about body weight.

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66
Q

Bulimia Nervosa

A

Binge eating disorder followed by purging at least once a week for 3 months.
Patients have strong negative views on their personal shape and weight

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67
Q

Anorexia Nervosa

A

Eating disorder characterized by intentional restricted caloric intake leading to low body weight BMI (less than 18.5 kg/m2)

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68
Q

Signs/Symptoms of patients with eating disorders.

A
  • Low body mass index.
  • Dehydration.
  • Delayed gastric emptying.
  • Resting bradycardia.
  • Hypertrophic salivary glands.
  • Hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hyponatremia, and hypoproteinemia.
  • Amenorrhea and atrophy of breasts in females.
  • Seizures.
  • Hypothermia.
  • Anxiety.
  • Dry skin (normally scaly, yellow, and erythematous patches) and hair loss (alopecia).
  • Lethargy.
  • Hypokalemic hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis may occur secondary to excessive vomiting.
  • Russell sign – callus on dorsal surface of index and long finger due to induced vomiting (seen in bulimia).
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69
Q

You are sedating patient with eating disorders, what is your anesthesia concerns?

A
  • Fluid rehydration – patients are commonly dehydrated leading to hypotension.
  • EKG – preoperative EKG should be monitored for Bradycardia, dysrhythmias including PVCs, T wave inversions, and heart blocks.
  • CBC – review white blood cell, platelet, and preoperative hemoglobin. This may be severely reduced due to malnutrition.

BMP: evaluate for hydration based on BUN/creatinine ratio elevation. Rule out unsafe levels of electrolytes

LFTs – hypoproteinemia and reduced liver function may make patients more susceptible to bleeding and may decrease wound healing.

NPO period – increase of NPO time due to delay in gastric emptying.

Slowly titrate medications because these patients have amplified response to the medication due to low body fat level and low protein plasma which increase bioavailability

Patients may require an extended time to emerge from anesthesia

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70
Q

What are the physiological changes that occurs during pregnancy?

A
  • Cardiovascular: Increase HR, CO by 30%, benign systolic murmur S3 d/t relative anemia, DVT 2/2 uterine compression of inferior vena cava.
  • Hematology: Hemodilution anemia, hypercoagulable state risk for PE&DVT, leukocytosis, suppression of immune system due to decrease chemotaxis.
  • Respiratory: decrease residual volume, decrease FRC, respiratory alkalosis 2/2 increase in minute ventilation and rapid desaturation.
  • Genitourinary: increase GFR, renal blood flow, Cr, bladder capacity decreases due to pressure which increase risk of UTI due to stasis, decrease lower esophageal sphincter tone, increase gastric pressure heart burn and reflux and hypoglycemia.
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71
Q

Oral manifestation in pregnant patients?

A

Chronic gingivitis, 5% develop pyogenic granuloma.

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72
Q

Definition of preeclampsia, eclampsia

A
  • Preeclampsia:
    Abnormal placental implantation results in hypertension and proteinuria that occurs after 20 weeks of gestation.
  • Eclampsia: Form of severe preeclampsia characterized by seizures or coma.
  • HELLP Syndrome: Syndrome characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelet counts.
  • Gestational Hypertension Elevated blood pressure without proteinuria. SBP ≥140 mm Hg and/ or DBP ≥90 mm Hg
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73
Q

Do not use during pregnancy

A
  • Aspirin: Cause intrauterine growth restriction and intra cranial brain bleeds.
  • NSAID: Avoid third trimester, may close PDA.
  • Gentamicin: ototoxicity in fetus.
  • Tetracycline: Cause tooth staining and decrease bone development.
  • Benzodiazepine and barbiturates: risk for fetal craniofacial anomalies, cleft lip/palate
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74
Q

How would you manage pregnant patient?

A
  • No elective care in the first trimester, urgent treatment only.
  • Second trimester is the safest and most ideal.
  • If the patient develop supine hypotension roll the patient to the left side. This occurs secondary to compression of the inferior vena cava.
  • Patients are more prone to emesis due to relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter and longer gastric emptying times.
  • Pregnant patients are more sensitive to local anesthesia and have reduce onset time.
  • Consultation with the patient’s obstetrician should be considered to determine the need for intraoperative fetal monitoring.
  • Perioperative antibiotics may be indicated in the setting of gestational diabetes and reduced immune capability.
  • N2O is controversial, as evidence of use without scavenging unit in dental assistants has shown increase in spontaneous abortion.
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75
Q

What is the risk of fetus exposure to radiation? Can the pregnant patient get pano, ICAT?

A

Yes, pano , ICAT and PA are ok

It is estimated that a radiation dose of >10 Gy (5 Gy first trimester) can cause congenital fetal anomalies.

  • A standard full mouth series, orthopantogram, or cone beam radiation exposure to the fetus is estimated 0.01-0.00001 Gy.
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76
Q

What is the Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR)?

A

The Pregnancy and Lactation Labeling Rule (PLLR) replaces the old FDA pregnancy letter categories (A, B, C, D, X)

Provides risk summary, clinical considerations, and data on medication use during pregnancy.

  • P1/L1, safest, data available
  • P2/L2, safe, limited data
  • P3/L3, probably safe, no data
  • P4/L, probably hazardous, human trials suggest risk
  • P5/L, hazardous, major risk likely to exceed benefits
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77
Q

What about IV Sedation for pregnant patients?

A

“The effects of catecholamine surge with resulting impaired uteroplacental perfusion are dangerous to fetus.”
Do not sedate pregnant patients!

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78
Q

Bone Morphogenetic Protein and 5FU in pregnancy

A

BMP: Concerns include carcinogenicity and teratogenic effects

5FU:
- Use in 1st trimester can cause congenital abnormalities and miscarriage
- Use during 2nd and 3rd trimester can cause growth restriction and stillbirth.

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79
Q

Inpatient Perioperative Management for pregnant patients.

A
  • OB consult
  • Consider fetal monitoring:
  • Fetal monitoring monitors heart rate and uterine tone to avoid uteroplacental insufficiency.
  • Left lateral position using bump under right hip
  • Moves uterus off inferior vena cava and aorta
  • Position slowly (changes in maternal position can have profound hemodynamic effects)
    . Rapid sequence induction and extubate fully awake d/t risk of aspiration
  • Avoid hypotension, hypoxia, hypercarbia, hypoglycemia and hypothermia
  • If these factors are controlled, there is no increased risk of fetal anomalies, miscarriage, or preterm labor.
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80
Q

What is Chronic renal disease (CRD)?

A

Long-term kidney damage to the glomerulus or tubules, leading to irreversible complications over months to years.

CRD occurs when the GFR is reduced to 50 mL/ min.

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81
Q

What is the manifestation of CRD?

A

Cardiovascular: dyslipidemia, CHF, left ventricular hypertrophy, HTN.

Anemia, platelet dysfunction

GI issues nausea and vomiting, risk of aspiration

Risk of infection due to impaired phagocytosis , neutrophil

Acid base disturbance and hyperkalemia.

Oral manifestation: halitosis, stomatitis, gingival bleeding, osteolytic changes

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82
Q

What is your CKD work up prior sedation?

A

CBC: Anemia , platelet dysfunction
BMP: check the electrolyte and Hyperkalemia
EKG, Echo

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83
Q

What is your anesthesia concerns for CKD patients?

A
  • DC diuretics, ARB and ACE the day of surgery
  • antiemetic due to risk of aspiration
  • Avoid sevo, has compound A
  • Avoid Succ cause hyperkalemia
  • Avoid NSAID
  • consider abx prophy.
  • Propofol is safe – metabolize by liver.
  • Fentanyl is safe = lipid soluble
  • Benzo uses with caution.
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84
Q

What is the stages of CRD

A

Stage I : slight renal damage GFR>90
Stage 2 : mild damage GFR 60-89
Stage 3 : Moderate damage 30-59
Stage 4 : Sever damage 15-29
Stage 5 : ESRD GFR <15

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85
Q

What is Sevofluorane?

A

fluorinated volatile anesthetic agent with a low blood/gas partition coefficient, therefore a rapid onset and recovery from anesthesia. The MAC is 1.71.

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86
Q

What is MAC, pertaining to volatile anesthetics?

A

The concentration of an inhaled anesthetic, at 1ATM, that prevents skeletal muscle movement in response to a painful stimulus (skin incision) in 50% of patients. A MAC of 1.3 prevents movement in approximately 95% of individuals undergoing surgery.

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87
Q

During the case, the anesthetist complains of increasing airway pressures. What could be the cause?

A

Circuit or ETT obstruction (kinking), airway secretions or mucous plugging, bronchospasm.

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88
Q

How should potential bronchospasm be treated intraoperatively, in intubated patient?

A

1- Suction ETT and trachea with suction catheter.
2- Albuterol MDI 8-10 puffs into endotracheal tube on inspiration, through chamber, or a 60cc syringe connected to the anesthesia circuit close to the ETT.
3- If this doesn’t work, then epinephrine 0.3mg SC.

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89
Q

Near the end of the case, the anesthetist is now complaining that the ETCO2 is abnormally high, and non-responsive to increasing the ventilatory rate. The patient has also become mildly tachycardic. The CRNA asks you what you think is going on?

A

Malignant Hyperthermia.

  • Hypermetabolic state that occurs on exposure to volatile anesthetics agents (except nitrous oxide) and succinylcholine. Due to a genetic mutation in the ryanodine receptor
  • lowers the threshold of calcium release channel activation. Elevated calcium levels lead to sustained muscle contraction.

- Testing includes:
1- caffeine-halothane contracture test
2- muscle biopsy
3- RYR1 gene testing.

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90
Q

How do you recognize and treat Malignant Hyperthermia?

A
  • History (and family history)
  • 70% of MH-susceptible patients have increases of resting concentrations of creatine kinase.
  • The earliest clinical signs of MH include unexplained sustained elevation in ETCO2
  • Tachycardia.
  • Arterial hypoxemia
  • Metabolic and respiratory acidosis
  • Increase in body temperature (late finding).
  • Dysrhythmias, peaked T waves on EKG due to hyperkalemia
  • Masseter spasm
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91
Q

How do you treat MM

A
  • Activate EMS
  • Stopping the triggering agent
  • Changing the anesthesia circuit
  • Hyperventilating with 100% O2
  • IV fluids to maintain urine output to 2 mL/ kg/h.
  • Administering 2.5mg/kg Dantrolene Sodium IVP and repeat every 10-15 minutes as needed (up to 10mg/kg)
  • Initiate active cooling (cold IV saline
  • Gastric lavage with cold saline
  • Diuresis 1 mg/kg IV.
  • Correct metabolic acidosis with sodium bicarbonate 1–2 mEq/kg IV as guided by arterial pH
  • Hyperkalemia treated with calcium chloride 5–10 mg/kg IV or regular insulin 0.15 U/kg in 1 mL/kg of 50% dextrose.
  • The patient must be transported to and managed in an ICU setting at the appropriate time.
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92
Q

How do you prep the dantrolene?

A

Administering 2.5mg/kg Dantrolene Sodium IVP and repeat every 10-15 minutes as needed (up to 10mg/kg)

Preparation of Dantrolene:
20 mg dantrolene bottle mixed with 60 mL sterile water and 3 g of mannitol.

Ryanodex (Concentrated Formulation):
Each vial contains 250 mg of dantrolene sodium and requires minimal preparation.

Add 5 mL of sterile water to the vial. Shake the vial vigorously for 10 seconds

Each mL delivers 50 mg/mL of dantrolene.

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93
Q

Define Alzheimer’s disease ?

A
  • Neurodegenerative disease characterized by the progressive loss of cortical neurons.
  • AD is the most common neurodegenerative disease and the most common cause of dementia in persons older than 65 years of age.
  • Hallmarks of the disease include impaired memory, judgment, and decision-making, and emotional lability.
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94
Q

What is the Classification of Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Classification:
    • **Familial form (early-onset AD) **
      o Rare.
      o Early onset, usually before age 60.
      **- Sporadic form **
      o More common.
      o Typically occurs after 60 years of age.
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95
Q

How you diagnose Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • The clinical diagnosis of AD is by exclusion.
  • Definitive diagnosis is usually made on post- mortem examination via autopsy (presence of accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles).
  • MRI imaging is preferred in diagnosis of AD. Will demonstrate marked cortical atrophy with ventricular enlargement.
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96
Q

What is the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • There is no cure for AD and treatment focuses on control of symptoms. Even with treatment, prognosis is poor.
  • The pharmacological agents for AD include cholinesterase inhibitors (tacrine, donepezil, rivastigmine, and galantamine), and the glutamate antagonist, memantine.
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97
Q

What is preop or anesthesia concern for Alzheimer’s disease?

A
  • Patients with AD are often confused and can be uncooperative. While some patients may tolerate a procedure with local anesthesia, many may need some sort of procedural sedation.
  • Inquire who makes health care decisions for the patient if the patient does not possess capacity (power of attorney/health care advocate).
  • Doses of sedative-hypnotics should be reduced by 30% due to increased sensitivity and slower distribution and reduction in clearance.
  • Preferred medications include short-acting sedative-hypnotics, anesthetic agents, and narcotics since they allow a more rapid recovery.
  • Centrally acting anticholinergics, such as atropine and scopolamine, may contribute to post- operative cognitive dysfunction and should be avoided if possible.
  • Glycopyrrolate, which does not cross the blood–brain barrier, is the preferred agent when an anticholinergic is needed.
  • Have the patient continue their AD medications preoperatively.
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98
Q

Parkinson’s Disease

A
  • Neurodegenerative disease characterized by the classic triad of bradykinesia, rigidity, facial immobility, and resting (pill-rolling) tremor.
  • It is caused by the progressive loss of dopaminergic neurons in the pars compacta in the basal ganglia
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99
Q

Workup and Diagnosis of Parkinson ?

A
  • The diagnosis of PD is made according to the clinical signs of tremor, bradykinesia, muscular rigidity, and postural instability.
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100
Q

Treatment of Parkinson?

A

Treatment:
- The goal is to increase the concentration of dopamine in the basal ganglia.

1- Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet®) is the main- stay of treatment of PD.
- Levodopa is a dopamine precursor combined with carbidopa and prevent conversion of levodopa to dopamine, thereby optimizing the amount of levodopa entering the CNS.

2- Selegiline and rasagiline are type B mono- amine oxidase (MAO-B) inhibitors that help control PD symptoms by inhibiting the catabolism of dopamine in the CNS.

3- Surgical tx: Thalamotomy, deep brain stimulator.

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101
Q

Management and anesthesia consideration in Parkinson disease?

A
  • Continue medication preop.
  • Nausea/vomiting are side effects of levodopa and may be treated with ondansetron, dexamethasone, and transdermal scopolamine.
  • Avoid phenothiazines (promethazine), butyrophenones (droperidol), and metoclopramide because their antidopaminergic activity can exacerbate symptoms.
  • Diphenhydramine may be used for patients with tremor.
  • Propofol is relatively safe.
  • Opioids should be used judiciously as patients with PD have a higher incidence of chest wall rigidity.
  • Be mindful of serotonin syndrome risk on patients taking MAOI (hypertension, tachycardia, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, confusion and agitation).
  • Ketamine may be relatively contraindicated due to elevated blood pressure.
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102
Q

What is Seizure?

A

Sudden onset of abnormal, highly discharges of neurons.

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103
Q

Define Epilepsy?

A

Chronic disorder defined as recurrent seizures, two separate unprovoked seizures are required to make the diagnosis of epilepsy.

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104
Q

Seizures classification

A

Seizures classification:

**- Partial focal seizure: **affect single area of the brain.
- simple partial with intact consciousness
- complex with impaired consciousness

- Generalized seizures- **Diffuse. Affect most of the brain.
- Absence (petit mal) most commonly in children. Brief loss of awareness+ blank stare
- Tonic Clonic (Grand mal): stiffening and movement
- Myoclonic: quick, repetitive movement

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105
Q

Etiology and presentation of seizure

A

Etiology:
- Syncope is most common cause in OMFS office then seizure
- Anesthesia / drugs
- Alcohol
- Brain tumor
- CNS disease
- Head trauma
- CVA
- Other metabolic changes that produce seizure activity include hypoglycemia, hypernatremia, hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia.

  • Presentation:
  • LOC
  • Confusion
  • Abnormal movement
  • Tongue /lip biting
  • Incontinence
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106
Q

How do you diagnosed seizure?

A

Work up:
-MRI, EEG , electrocorticography

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107
Q

Preop and anesthesia consideration for patient with seizure disorders?

A
  • Consult neurologist.
  • Ask about how bad is the seizure, frequency and medication.
  • Propofol and benzo are good.
  • Nitrous is safe.
  • Sevo lowering seizure threshold
  • Avoid ketamine, tramadol, methohexital and flumazenil. (lowering seizure threshold)
  • Alfentanil is contraindicated due to excessive impact on EEG activity.
  • Continue meds
  • Get a CBC as some meds cause bone marrow suppression
  • Be aware of any hepatically metabolized meds you use as their effect could be prolonged due to the use of antiepileptic drugs
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108
Q

What are common meds for seizure patients?

A
  • Phenytoin, aka “Dilantin”
    1.300mg po daily
    2.Stabilizes inactive state of voltage gated Na+ channels 3.Levels need to b between 2-20
    4.Metabolized in liver
    5.Causes blood dyscrasias so get CBC and LFT’s
  • Keppra, aka “Levitiracetem”
  • 1.500mg BID
    2.Inhibits Ca++ channels
  • Valproic Acid, “Depakote”
    1.Works on Na+ and Ca++ channels
    2.Produces thrombocytopenia and GI symptoms
  • Topiramate, aka “Topamax” 1.GABA, Na+, Ca++ channels 2.Used for migraines also
  • Tegretol, “Carbamazepine”
    1.Produces n/v and somnolence 2.Works on voltage gated Na+ channels
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109
Q

Status Epilepticus

A

seizure lasting more than 30 min or multiple seizures in a row.
Treat as status epilepticus after 5 min of seizing

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110
Q

Treatment of status epilepticus:

A
  • Activate EMS/911 if no self-resolution in 5 minutes.
  • Airway Breathing Circulations (ABCs), vitals, ECG. Patient may require airway protection with endotracheal intubation.
  • Supplemental oxygen.
  • Establish venous access – consider administering benzodiazepines.
  • Consider drawing labs for electrolytes, toxicology, anticonvulsant drug levels, and hematology.
  • Midazolam: 10 mg for >40 kg, 5 mg for 13–40 kg.
  • Lorazepam: 0.1 mg/kg/dose, max: 4 mg/dose.
  • Diazepam 0.15–0.2 mg/kg/dose, max: 10 mg/dose.
  • Rule out hypoglycemia and treat as needed (50 mL of 50% dextrose).
  • Routine glucose administration is not indicated because hyperglycemia can exacerbate brain injury.
  • Arterial blood gas draws to monitor for metabolic acidosis and to assess ventilation.
  • Hyperthermia frequently occurs and requires active cooling.
  • If seizure continues, consider second-line therapy such as phenobarbital (10–15 mg/ kg at 100 mg/min) or phenytoin (15–18 mg/ kg T 50 mg/min) or anesthetic dose of propofol.
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111
Q

What is a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?

A

A sudden onset of neurological deficits that occurs secondary to cerebral ischemia or cerebral hemorrhage.

Also known as stroke.

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112
Q

Define transient ischemic attack (TIA).

A

Sudden onset of focal neurological deficits that resolve within 24 hours.

TIA is often considered a warning sign for future strokes.

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113
Q

What characterizes a reversible ischemic neurological deficit (RIND)?

A

Neurological deficit that lasts more than 24 hours but resolves in less than 3 weeks.

RIND indicates a temporary but significant disruption in blood flow.

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114
Q

What is the majority cause of ischemic strokes?

A
  • Thrombotic, caused by atherosclerotic plaques.
  • Embolic origin is mostly from the atrium of the right heart as seen in atrial fibrillation or left ventricle from an MI.

Embolic strokes mostly originate from the heart, particularly in conditions like atrial fibrillation.

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115
Q

Where do most hemorrhagic strokes occur?

A

Mostly intracerebral, with the remaining being subarachnoid.

These types of strokes are due to bleeding into the brain or surrounding areas.

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116
Q

What is the hallmark of ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke?

A

Contralateral deficits of motor and sensory nerves of the cerebral hemisphere involved.

This means that if one side of the brain is affected, the opposite side of the body will show deficits.

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117
Q

What are the risk factors for strokes?

A

Hypertension, smoking, atrial fibrillation, diabetes, ischemic heart disease, peripheral vascular disease, increased homocysteine levels, excessive alcohol consumption.

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118
Q

What are common symptoms of strokes?

A

Hemiplegia, aphasia, dysarthria, hemineglect, seizures, and gait disturbances.

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119
Q

What symptoms are common in hemorrhagic strokes?

A

Headache, loss of consciousness, nausea, and vomiting.

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120
Q

How do symptoms manifest in strokes?

A

Symptoms manifest clinically based on the anatomical area of neurological involvement (e.g., hemiplegia due to cortico-spinal tract involvement).

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121
Q

What are craniomaxillofacial manifestations of strokes?

A

Facial droop, ptosis, ocular muscle weakness, weakened parapharyngeal muscles (weakened gag and swallowing reflex), anosmia, visual field deficits, and disturbances in tongue movement.

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122
Q

Diagnosis and work up of stroke

A
  • CT scan w/o contrast
  • Echo to rule out of emboli.
  • CTA/MRA and carotid doppler
  • Coagulopathy: CBC, BMP, coags , pregnancy test, cardiac enzyme.
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123
Q

What is the role of statin in stroke patient?

A
  • Statins reduce risk of stroke even in the absence of hyperlipidemia.
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124
Q

Treatment of Ischemic Stroke

A
  • IV tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) converts plasminogen into plasmin, in patients who meet criteria and in whom treatment can begin within 3–4.5 hours from initial symptom.
  • Inclusion criteria:
  • 18 years or older, ischemic stroke with neuro deficit, time within 3 hours
  • Exclusion criteria:
  • Intracranial bleeding, hx of brain bleed, uncontrolled HTN >185/110, known AV malformation, neoplasm, or aneurysm.
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125
Q

Treatment of Hemorrhagic Stroke

A
  • DC and reverse all anticoagulation.
  • Consider fresh frozen plasma.
  • Neurosurgery consult for possible placement of EVD.
  • If pt intubated, mechanical hyperventilation help reduce ICP
  • Elevated ICP can be managed with IV mannitol 3g/kg, or hypertonic saline, avoid hypotonic.
  • Monitor blood glucose.
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126
Q

Management of stroke patient prior sedation:

A
  • Identify high-risk patients (e.g., risk factors and recent CVA).
  • The patient should be considered ASA class II if patient had a CVA >6 months earlier and has no evidence of residual neurologic deficit.
  • The patient should be considered ASA class III if patient had a CVA >6 months earlier and has some evidence of residual neurologic deficit.
  • The patient should be considered ASA IV if patient had a CVA <6 months earlier or if substantial residual deficit remains.
  • Maintain adequate oxygenation.
  • Monitor EKG
  • Discuss drug holiday with physician.
  • Avoid ketamine.
  • Maintain adequate blood pressure.
  • Can do elective cases within 6 months after stroke if the pt is stable.
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127
Q

Pre-hospital assessment for stroke
Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

A

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

  • Facial droop: Have the patient smile or show teeth.
  • Arm drift: close eyes, extend your arm straight out with palm up for 10 seconds.
  • Speech: Have the pt say “You can’t teach an old dog new tricks “
  • Time to act.
  • FAST

Time is brain – Critical time goals:
- Immediate assessment within 10 minutes of arrival
- Neurologic assessment, CT scan within 25 minute
- Interpretation of CT scan within 45 minutes
- Initiation of tPA within 3 hours

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128
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A
  • disease affecting lungs, pancreas 2/2 defect in CFTR protein
  • 1:3000
  • Dx = genetic test, sweat test
  • Tx: Supplement with vitamins:
    ADEK, dornase alpha, inhaled
    cortico, chest PT
  • Chronic infxns: P. aeruginosa…
  • Tx: levofloxacin inhaled
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129
Q

Subacute bacterial endocarditis

A

infection of the heart’s inner lining or valves 2/2 S. viridans
* Can be fatal 6 wks-1 year
* S/S: fever, cough, SoB, joint
pain, diarrhea, flank pain + Murmur
* Osler nodes - raised tender
lumps on fingers/toes
* Janeway lesions - palms, soles
* Splinter hemorrages

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130
Q

Hyperthyroidism

A
  • Production of ↑TH r/i ↑metabolic
    state, tremors, ↑ reflexes
  • Causes: Graves’, goiter, tumors,
    overdose of TH meds
  • Dx: TFTs showing ↑T4–>T3
  • Tx: propylthiouracil/methimazole
    inhibit TH

Anesthesia concerns:

  • delay case until controlled
  • avoid sympathomimetics
  • be aware of potential for thyroid storm
  • Tx: propanolol, cooling, IVF
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131
Q

Hypothyroidism

A
  • Hypometabolic state ↓TH 2/2
    autoimmune disease,
    throidectomy, iodine ↓
  • S/S: ↑ weight, cold intolerance,
    fatigue, lethargy, dull
  • Dx: ↓ T4
  • Tx = replace TH
  • Anesthesia: slow recovery
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132
Q

Beta-thalassemia:

A

Decrease in the synthesis of the beta-globin chain of Hgb.

Autosomal recessive

More commonly found in mediterranean populations, middle east, Africans, Greeks.

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133
Q

Beta-thalassemia variants

A
  • Minor: mild microcytic anemia due to DNA splicing defect, decreased HbA, increase in RBC count, HbA2 and ferritin production, usually no treatment
  • Major: severe hemolytic anemia due to a nonsense mutation of a stop codon, no production of HbA, increased HbA2 and HbF
    Patients have a lifelong danger of iron overload and lifelong need for transfusions
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134
Q

Beta-Thalassemia: Anesthesia and Surgery Considerations for Extraction Under Sedation

A
  • Check hemoglobin, manage anemia (transfuse if needed), and assess for iron overload, cardiac, and liver function.
  • Ensure oxygenation, avoid hypoxia and acidosis, and monitor bleeding risk.
  • Maintain hydration and provide careful pain management.
    Consult hematology or cardiology if complications are present.
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135
Q

HTN

A
  • What is the HTN?
  • Systemic vascular disease characterized by persistently elevated arterial blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg or higher.
  • What is the essential HTN?
  • HTN with no identifiable cause 90% of HTN pts
  • What is secondary HTN:
  • HTN with identifiable cause like renal artery stenosis, Cushing syndrome, pheochromocytoma, pregnancy.
  • How do you diagnose HTN:
  • Diagnosed by 2 elevated readings of at least 130/80 mmHg on 2 or more visits.
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136
Q

Tell me the different stages or classifications of HTN?

A
  • The JNC 7 Classification:
    – Normotension <120/80 mmHg
    – Elevated 120–129/<80 mmHg
    – Stage I 130–139/80–89 mmHg
    – Stage II >140/90 mmHg
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137
Q

What is your cutt off of HTN in your office?

A

For me a blood pressure over 160/100 I will start to get more concerned about uncontrolled HTN

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138
Q

How dose smoking contributes to HTN?

A
  • Smoking release nicotine, which can cause blood vessels to constrict or narrow.
  • Nicotine stimulates the release of adrenaline which lead to increase HR and eventually increase BP.
  • Smoking increase the inflammation on the blood vessels and interfere with their ability to regulate the BP.
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139
Q
  • What are some sequalae of untreated HTN:
A
  • Left ventricular hypertrophy
  • CHF
  • Stroke
  • Renal disease
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140
Q
  • What are some factors that can cause HTN?
A
  • Obesity
  • Diabetes
  • Alcohol
  • Aging
  • Smoking
  • OSA
  • Family history
  • Ethnicity (African American)
  • Sex (Males have higher rates of HTN)
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141
Q

What monitors you put in your patient?

A
  • Standard ASA monitors, BP cuff, puls ox , end tidal CO2, three lead EKG and temperature measure will be readily available.
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142
Q

What staff with you in the room?

A

Myself and two ancillary staff that are BLS certified.

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143
Q
  • How do you judge your level of sedation?
A

A combination of checking response to stimuli, airway, spontaneous ventilation, vital signs and Verrill sign which is ptosis when the upper eyelid cover the upper half of the pupil.

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144
Q

Treatment of HTN:

A
  • Calcium channel blocker: decrease the influx of Ca ions resulting in vasodilation. Example: amlodipine, verapamil, diltiazem, felodipine
  • ACE inhibitors: Block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II responsible for vasoconstriction (e.g., lisinopril, fosinopril, enalapril, captopril, ramipril).
  • Angiotensin II (AII) receptor blockers (ARBs) – block the effects of AII through antagonism of AII receptors leading to decreasing vasoconstriction and aldosterone secretion. (e.g., losartan, valsartan, Olmesartan, telmisartan).
  • β-blockers – block β-adrenergic receptors resulting in a decrease in myocardial contractility, decrease in renin production, and relaxation of smooth muscles (e.g., metoprolol, atenolol, esmolol, carvedilol, labetalol).
  • Thiazide diuretics – block the reabsorption of NaCl in the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron leading to a contracted intravascular volume (e.g., hydrochlorothiazide, chlorthalidone).
  • Vasodilators – work by decreasing vascular smooth muscle tone (e.g., hydralazine, sodium nitroprusside).
  • Alpha-2 adrenergic agonist – works on central adrenergic receptors leading to decreased norepinephrine release (e.g., clonidine).
  • Direct renin inhibitor – prevents renal release of renin with a subsequent decrease in AII production (e.g., aliskiren).
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145
Q

HTN Patient management prior sedation:

A
  • Get CBC, BMP and EKG
  • Monitor EKG for sign of myocardial ischemia.
  • Defer elective cases if BP > 180/120 and refer to PCP if they are asymptomatic, if they have symptoms send the pt to the ER.
  • Amide LA metabolism can be reduced in patient taking B blocker.
  • Continue antihypertension meds.
  • Look for hypokalemia in patients using ACE and ARBs.
  • patients using ACE and ARBs more prone to anesthesia induced hypotension.
  • LA with vasoconstriction 0.04mg with epi that’s the limit.
  • Avoid ketamine
  • Contact EMS for evidence of a hypertensive crisis (BP 180/120 with signs/symptoms of myocardial ischemia, bradycardia, hypertensive encephalopathy, dyspnea, chest pain, confusion, nausea/vomiting, headache, seizures, and pulmonary edema).
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146
Q
  • Who recovers your patient?
A

Typically, I have nurse in my office who will recover the patient, they will stay in the room for 15 minutes after the anesthetics, and will take some vital sings, we use modified Aldrete score.

Assigns a score of 0–2 to the following categories:
activity, breathing, circulation, consciousness, and oxygen saturation.

A score of 9 out of 10 is required for discharge from the facility/PACU.

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147
Q

Atherosclerosis

A
  • Atherosclerosis:
  • Hardening of the arteries due to lipid accumulation within the arterial wall.
  • Risk factor: Genetic, dyslipidemia 240mg/dl increase chance CAD, elevated LDL, elevated HDL is good is protective from CAD, tobacco, HTN, DM.
  • Pathophysiology:
  • Damage to endothelium, then leukocytes accumulated, smooth muscles secrete matrix that traps the lipid and form a bulk, matrix also form cap, as lesion increase in size the cape rupture and thrombus form.
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148
Q

Congestive Heart Failure (CHF):

A

Inability of the heart to pump enough blood to meet the metabolic demands of the body.

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149
Q

Systolic failure

A
  • Due to impaired contractility of the heart or high afterload (chronic volume overload from mitral and aortic regurgitation, dilated cardiomyopathies, HTN, aortic stenosis).
  • Ejection fraction <40%. HFrEF
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150
Q

Diastolic failure

A
  • Due to impaired diastolic relaxation or ventricular failing of the heart (caused by left ventricular hypertrophy, restrictive cardiomyopathy, myocardial fibrosis, myocardial infarction).
  • Can have preservation of the ejection fraction (>50%). HFpEF
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151
Q

CHF Risk factor

A
  • Risk Factors
    o Ischemic heart disease.
    o Hypertension.
    o Myocardial infarction.
    o Valvular diseases.
    o Congenital heart disease.
    o Cardiomyopathies.
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152
Q

Left-Sided Heart Failure
Signs and Symptoms

A

o Dyspnea.
o Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.
o Orthopnea.
o Pulmonary congestion.
o Clinically can appreciate a third heart sound (S3) and pulmonary rales. S4 sound with diastolic failure.

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153
Q

Right-Sided Heart Failure
Signs and Symptoms

A
  • Most common cause is left-sided heart failure.
  • Abdominal discomfort.
  • Anorexia.
  • Hepatomegaly.
  • Peripheral edema.
  • Jugular venous distension.
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154
Q

New York Heart Association Classification of CHF

A
  • CLASS I – heart disease with no symptoms or limitation of physical activity.
  • CLASS II – No symptoms at rest and slight limitation with ordinary activity.
  • CLASS III – Marked limitation of activity with minimal exertion.
  • CLASS IV – Symptoms at rest. Severe limitation of activity.
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155
Q

CHF Workup:

A

CHF Workup:
- EKG
- ECHO
- Chest xray
- CBC to evaluate for anemia.
- BMP- Look for hypokalemia.
- LFTs to evaluate hepatic function and congestion.
- Fasting glucose level to assess for diabetes.
- Clinical exam- auscultation for sign of volume overload rales and S3, JVD, pedal edema and hepatomegaly.
- Test: Normal BNP BELOW 100pg/ml
- Brain natriuretic peptide BNP, BNP>35 diagnostic for non-acute onset CHF, BNP >100pg/ml for acute onset CHF.

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156
Q

Treatment of CHF:

A

Treatment of CHF:
- Diuretics (Lasix): treat systemic and pulmonary congestion.
- Beta Blocker: decrease myocardial oxygen consumption.
- Digoxin: increase cardiac contractility.

  • Signs and symptoms of digitalis toxicity which include xanthopsia (vision deficiency leading to predominance of yellow vision) nausea, vomiting, confusion, paresthesias, ventricular tachycardia, premature ventricular contractions, heart block, bigeminy, trigeminy.
  • Narrow therapeutic range. 0.5– 0.9 ng/ml.
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157
Q

Marfan Syndrome

A
  • Autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder affecting cardiac, skeletal, and ocular tissue.
  • The pt will be tall, thin, has an outward displacement of ribs, micrognathia, malar hypoplasia, high arched palate, glaucoma, myopia aortic dissection, MVR.
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158
Q
  • What is your anesthesia plan for Marfan syndrom?
A
  • Versed/ Propofol, I will avoid fentanyl in this patient, control BP, fluids, ventilatory pressure should be reduced to prevent barotrauma.
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159
Q

Describe your work up for Mrafan?

A
  • AHA does not recommend abx , cardiology consult for evaluation of valvular function, monitor EKG , ECHO, control BP, pulmonary function evaluation since these patients exhibits restrictive lung disease , chest x ray
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160
Q

How do you tell if MVP is regurgitant?

A
  • Clinical evaluation A systolic murmur heard over the apex of the heart, ECHO, MRI
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161
Q
  • What else about Marfan’s concerns you?
A
  • CHF, continue BP meds to prevent and control BP to prevent sharing force on the vessels and TMJ dislocation
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162
Q

Patient takes Zoloft. What concerns do you have about Zoloft, Prozac, lexapro?

A
  • Zoloft (sertraline) or any other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), concern of bleeding this medication can affect platelet function, it can affect the clearance and metabolism of fentanyl causing serotonin syndrome which increase serotonin activity in the central nervous system.
  • Prozac = Fluoxetine SSRI
  • Lexapro SSRI
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163
Q

Serotonin Syndrome

A
  • An adverse drug reaction producing excess serotonergic effects of the central nervous system.
  • Serotonin syndrome typically occurs shortly after an increase in the dose of a serotonin agonist (a MAOI or an SSRI inhibitor) and meperidine, fentanyl and tramadol) and ondansetron
  • Onset of the reaction can be within minutes of drug administration or over the course of several hours. Fortunately, most reactions are mild and resolve within several hour
  • Clinical diagnosis. No labs
  • Symptoms include hypertension, diarrhea, tachycardia, hyperthermia, hyperkalemia, diaphoresis, ataxia, myoclonus, mydriasis, hallucinations, and confusion.
  • Concern for rhabdomyolysis, ventricular arrhythmia, respiratory arrest, and coma.
  • Some can be severe and life-threatening mimicking malignant hyperthermia.
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164
Q

Treatment of Serotonin Syndrome

A
  • Activate 911 to transfer for definitive treatment.
  • Chilled IV fluids and ice until EMS transfer.
  • If intubation is indicated, avoid succinylcholine, which can cause additional hyperkalemia.
  • Lorazepam 1–2 mg IV push for agitation. 0.1mg/kg for pediatric
  • Methysergide 2–6 mg to counteract serotonin.
  • Labetalol or propranolol for HTN and tachycardia.
  • Cyproheptadine histamine-1 receptor antagonist 4 mg po to counteract serotonin. Comes only oral. DO NOT GIVE PREGNANT PATIENT cause congenital deformity.
  • Dantrolene for severe cases: hyperthermia, rhabdomyolysis, hyperkalemia and DIC.
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165
Q

Patient Management Serotonin Syndrome

A
  • Avoid drugs that may trigger serotonin syndrome (fentanyl, tramadol, ondansetron).
  • Look for signs of serotonin syndrome.
  • EKG monitoring for lithium-induced dysrhythmias.
  • Patients on MAOIs are at risk for orthostatic hypotension.
  • Careful use of sympathomimetic agents – vasoconstrictors may have exaggerated effects, especially in patients on TCAs.
  • Ephedrine should be avoided in patients with MAOIs. Ketamine use should be carefully considered due to sympathetic effects.
  • CYP450 inhibitors such as macrolide antibiotics may lead to toxic levels of TCAs.
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166
Q

Ehler Danlos syndrome:

A
  • Genetic connective tissue disorders characterized by defects in fibrillar collagen production leading to changes in skin, tendons, blood vessels, and viscera.
  • 80% of cases fall under the classical and hypermobile (most frequent) types.
  • There are six major subtypes based on the Villefranche nosology.
  • Vascular EDS subtype is life threatening due to spontaneous rupture of small and large arteries.
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167
Q

Classical Features of EDS

A
  • Joint hypermobility with subluxation.
  • Skin hyperelasticity.
  • Easily bruised.
  • Gorlin sign – ability to touch tongue to tip of nose
  • Abnormal scarring.
  • Extremely soft skin.
  • Hernias are common.
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168
Q

Anesthesia and surgery concerns in EDS

A
  • CBC, BMP , EKG and Echo
  • Cardiac evaluation to monitor risk of aortic root dilatation and mitral valve prolapse, usually non-significant.
  • 26% of patients have platelet aggregation defects. Consider discussion with hematologist for plan of action (commonly desmopressin) . Additionally, use of prophylactic tranexamic acid should be considered.
  • Individuals can be resistant to local anesthetic, most commonly seen in hypermobility subtype.
  • Be cognizant of TMJ subluxation during intubation and neck extension instability (occipitoatlantoaxial)
  • Reduce airway pressures due to pneumothorax risk.
  • Postural orthostatic tachycardia syndrome prevalent in hypermobile variant, ensure adequate hydration.
  • Consider avoiding NSAIDs for pain control due to bruising risk.
  • Commonly have dental issues with poor periodontal health due to fragility of periodontium, especially in vascular subtype.
  • Subtypes with vascular fragility should have type and cross match.
  • Skin tape placement should be minimized
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169
Q

What is DM?

A

A metabolic disorder, which results in a defect in insulin secretion, action, or both, resulting in hyperglycemia.

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170
Q

What are the different types of DM?

A

Type 1 diabetes mellitus is due to impaired production of insulin and occurs early in life. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is characterized by insulin resistance.

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171
Q

What is the function of insulin?

A

The functions of insulin are to increase glycogen synthesis, decrease gluconeogenesis, increase potassium uptake, and increase lipid synthesis.

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172
Q

How do you diagnose DM?

A

Fasting glucose of >126 mg/dl on 2 or more occasions, glucose tolerance test (readings >200 mg/dl 2 hours after a 75-gram glucose load), HgB A1C of 6.5 or greater, non-fasting plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dl and symptoms of DM.

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173
Q

Which drug is typically prescribed first for a patient with DMII on insulin and metformin?

A

Metformin.

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174
Q

What is the mechanism of action of metformin?

A

Decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis and decrease intestinal glucose absorption.

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175
Q

What is your concern about DM?

A

I want to know how well the DM is controlled, the regimen, and check the HgB A1C for glycemic control. DM patients can develop silent ischemia and are at risk of infection.

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176
Q

What are the pre-surgical recommendations for a patient with diabetes?

A
  • NPO 12 hours for IDDM
  • early morning appointments
  • pre and post op finger stick to assess glucose
  • obtain recent HbA1c
  • give fluids 100-200ml of 5% dextrose solution hourly, avoid LR
  • stop oral hypoglycemics on day of surgery.
  • Omit short-acting insulin on morning of procedure.
  • Take between 1⁄2 - 2/3 total morning dose of intermediate acting glucose.
  • If the pt blood glucose < 100mg/dl , consider D5W with 0.45% NS and consider NS if blood glucose >130.
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177
Q

What is a concern about long-standing DMII?

A

Long-standing DMII can lead to peripheral neuropathy, CAD, silent ischemic episodes, diabetic retinopathy, and nephropathy.

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178
Q

What concerns do you have for a patient with type I DM before surgery?

A

Rapid development of diabetic ketoacidosis, infection risk, managing blood glucose levels, and adjusting insulin doses preoperatively.

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179
Q

What concerns do you have for a patient with DM on an oral hypoglycemic regimen before surgery?

A

Oral regimens should be discontinued, glucose levels should be measured, and metformin should be stopped due to lactic acidosis risk.

Discontinuation of sulfonylureas is due to its association with hypoglycemia and increased risk of perioperative myocardial ischemia and infarction.

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180
Q

How would you handle a call from a diabetic patient complaining of nausea and vomiting after sedation?

A

I will ask the patient to come in and examine her.

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181
Q

What is DKA?

A

DKA is a metabolic condition that occurs secondary to an insulin shortage that results in hyperglycemia, ketonemia, and an anion gap metabolic acidosis.

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182
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of DKA?

A

Vomiting, confusion, polydipsia, polyuria, dehydration, abdominal pain, Kussmaul breathing, hyperglycemia, hyperkalemia, ketotic ‘fruity’ breath, dry mucous membranes, and hypotension.

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183
Q

What triggers DKA to occur?

A

CVA, MI, UTI, stress, cocaine usage, and inadequate insulin.

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184
Q

How are ketones generated in someone with DKA?

A

Result of the breakdown of fatty acids through the ketogenesis cycle.

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185
Q

What is the management of DKA in ICU?

A

ABG, IV fluids 0.9% NS, IV regular insulin, replace K, correct pH with bicarb if <7.

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186
Q

Why would we give potassium to a DKA patient?

A

Because insulin drives K into the cell, causing hypokalemia.

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187
Q

How does DMII contribute to HTN?

A

Insulin resistance increases sympathetic nervous system activity and contributes to endothelial dysfunction.

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188
Q

Why are diabetics more prone to infections?

A

Due to impaired chemotaxis and phagocytosis 2/2 glycosylation of the neutrophils.

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189
Q

Why are diabetics at a higher risk of CAD/MI?

A

Glycosylation of LDLs triggers a stronger inflammatory response, weakening the fibrous cap of atheromas.

190
Q

What preoperative blood glucose level warrants postponing surgery?

A

250 mg/dl, as osmotic diuresis can occur which increases the risk of dehydration and DKA.

191
Q

What are the classes of drugs to treat diabetes?

A
  • Insulin
  • oral hypoglycemics:
  • biguanides: Metformin
  • sulfonylureas: stimulates beta cells to produce insulin ex Glipzide
  • Thiazolidinediones: promote insulin sensitivity in adipose, hepatic and muscle tissue.
  • Meglitinides: bind ATP-dependent potassium channel to increase beta cell secretion of insulin (e.g., Repaglinide).
  • GLP1 agonists: synthetic peptide of glucagon- stimulates insulin secretion and decreases glucagon secretion. Ozempic, manjaro
  • DPP4 inhibitors: prevents inactivation of GLP1 and GIP leading to increased insulin secretion (e.g., Sitagliptin aka Januvia®).

SGLT2 inhibitors: decrease blood sugar by significant glycosuria, don’t cause hypoglycemia. flozins (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, ertugliflozin)

192
Q

What are SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

For DMT2, decrease blood sugar by significant glycosuria, don’t cause hypoglycemia.

SGLT2 inhibitors -flozins (canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, empagliflozin, ertugliflozin)
- decrease blood sugar by significant glycosuria, don’t cause hypoglycemia
- Perioperative concerns?
- Urinary tract infections, urosepsis, pyelonephritis
- Euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis
- Recommended hold time: 3-4 days
- Resume medications when normal PO intake is resumed (outpatients are at lower but not negligible risk of DKA)

193
Q

What are the perioperative concerns for SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

Urinary tract infections, euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis, recommended hold time: 3-4 days.

194
Q

What are the two main components of the adrenal gland, and what do they produce?

A

The adrenal gland has two main components:

  • Adrenal cortex: Produces glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone and 11-deoxycorticosterone), and androgens (dehydroepiandrosterone).
  • Adrenal medulla: Produces norepinephrine and epinephrine.
195
Q

What hormone controls the secretion of cortisol, and how is it regulated?

A
  • Corticotropin releasing factor (CRF) from the hypothalamus regulates the secretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) by the pituitary gland, which in turn controls cortisol secretion.
196
Q

Define Cushing syndrome and its common causes.

A

Cushing syndrome is a condition caused by excess free plasma glucocorticoids, often due to chronic use of glucocorticoid products (e.g., prednisone, dexamethasone).

197
Q

List common signs and symptoms of Cushing syndrome.

A

Buffalo hump
Weight gain and truncal obesity
Plethora
Striae
Cognitive dysfunction and depression
Proximal muscle weakness
Osteopenia
Hyperglycemia and hypertension

198
Q

How is Cushing syndrome diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis involves measuring:
- Blood cortisol levels
- 24-hour urine free cortisol levels
- Dexamethasone suppression test
- ACTH levels

199
Q

What is Addison’s disease, and how does it present?

A
  • Addison’s disease is a disorder of insufficient production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids by the adrenal cortex.
  • Common symptoms include:
    Weakness, anorexia, arthralgia
    Abdominal pain, hyperpigmentation
    Hypotension
    Electrolyte imbalances (hyponatremia, hyperkalemia)
200
Q

How is Addison’s disease diagnosed?

A

Diagnosis is made when:
- low morning cortisol levels are detected.
If cortisol levels are <3 mcg/dL in the morning, no further testing is needed.
- A corticotropin stimulation test may be performed if necessary.

201
Q

What are the key perioperative management considerations for patients with Cushing syndrome?

A
  • Increased risk of infection and delayed wound healing – use prophylactic antibiotics.
  • Glucose intolerance – use sliding scale insulin for glycemic control.
  • Risk of sleep apnea and GERD – take precautions during anesthesia.
  • Ensure proper positioning due to fragile skin and risk of osteoporosis.
202
Q

What are the key perioperative management considerations for patients with Addison’s disease?

A
  • Check serum potassium preoperatively and regularly.
  • Patients with primary adrenal insufficiency typically require 100 mg IV hydrocortisone.
  • Avoid excessive supraphysiological dosing unless needed.
203
Q

What is adrenal crisis, and how does it present?

A

Adrenal crisis is a life-threatening condition caused by major physical stress, leading to:
Severe circulatory collapse and hypotension not responsive to vasopressors.

Fever, lethargy, severe flank or abdominal pain, tachycardia, delirium, and potentially coma.

204
Q

What is the risk of adrenal crisis in patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency?

A
  • Patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency due to exogenous steroids or autoimmune conditions have a 1–2% risk of adrenal crisis.
  • These patients typically require lower doses of steroids compared to those with primary adrenal insufficiency.
205
Q

Perioperative Glucocorticoid Regimen for Secondary Adrenal Insufficiency

A
  • Minor Surgical Stress (e.g., dentalalveolar procedures):
    Intraoperative steroids: Usual dose.
    Taper: None required.
  • Moderate Surgical Stress (e.g., orthognathic surgery):
    Intraoperative steroids: 50 mg hydrocortisone or equivalent preoperatively.
    Taper: Continue 25 mg hydrocortisone every 8 hours for 24 hours, then resume regular dosage.

Major Surgical Stress (e.g., free flap surgery):
Intraoperative steroids: 100 mg hydrocortisone or equivalent preoperatively.
Taper:
Continue 50 mg hydrocortisone every 8 hours for 24 hours.
Taper by half every day to usual dosage.

206
Q

What is asthma?

A
  • Asthma is a chronic reversible lower respiratory tract disease characterized by wheezing, dyspnea, coughing, and chest tightness.
207
Q
  • What is the classification for asthma?
A
  • Mild Intermittent- symptoms less than 2 per week
  • Mild persistent- symptoms more than 2 per week
  • Moderate persistent- daily symptoms
  • Severe persistent- continues
  • The asthma classification is based on the occurrence of symptomatology, interference with normal activity, and impact of obstruction (altered FEV1).
208
Q
  • What are some triggers for asthma attacks?
A
  • Dust, Mold, URI, Pollen Anxiety/stress – NSAIDs and Exercise
209
Q
  • What is cromolyn: mast cell stabilizer?
A
  • Theophylline relaxes the smooth muscles located in the bronchial airways and pulmonary blood vessels.
210
Q

What medication do I want to avoid with theophylline.

A

Erythromycin and macrolides inhibit cyp450 elevate theophylline level.

211
Q
  • What are some signs of theophylline toxicity?
A
  • Tremors (most common), restlessness, agitation, and altered mental status.
212
Q

Status Asthmaticus

A
  • Bronchospastic episode that does not respond to treatment and is considered life threatening.
213
Q

Treatment of Status Asthmaticus

A

Treatment
* Supplemental oxygen to maintain an SaO2 of >90%.
* β2-agonists by metered dose inhaler every 15–20 minutes.
* Intravenous corticosteroids.
* IV magnesium sulfate.
* Epinephrine 0.3 mg 1:1000 administered subcutaneously.
* Tracheal intubation for a PaCO2 > 50 mm Hg.

214
Q

Patient Management of asthma patient

A
  • Assess the severity of asthma at the preoperative visit.
  • For elective cases, postpon the case for 6 weeks in case of active infection.
  • Auscultation of chest to rule active disease processes such as wheezing.
  • Prophylactic preanesthetic use of β2-agonist inhaler to reduce chances of bronchospasm is recommended. Very light sedation or deep general anesthesia is desired to avoid stage II, which increases odds of laryngospasm/ bronchospasm.
  • Use of anesthetic agents that result in bronchodilation is preferred, such as propofol, ketamine, sevoflurane, and isoflurane. Desflurane is very pungent and should be avoided.
  • Medications that result in histamine release should be avoided such as meperidine and morphine. Also, opioids should be used judiciously to decrease the risk of chest wall rigidity.
  • Use of adenosine and other nonspecific β-blockers (e.g., Labetalol) should be avoided since they will result in bronchoconstriction.
  • Be cautious using NSAIDs and cyclooxygenase inhibitors as this can induce an asthma attack and rash. Some patients may have Samter’s triad (nasal polyps, ASA sensitivity, and asthma)
215
Q

Classification of Asthma and Treatment Regimen

A

Mild Intermittent Asthma:
Symptom frequency: <2 per week
Night-time symptoms: <2 per month
FEV₁: >80%
β-adrenergics: Short-acting, <2 days per week

Mild Persistent Asthma:
Symptom frequency: >2 per week
Night-time symptoms: >2 per month
FEV₁: >80%
β-adrenergics: Short-acting, >2 days per week (not daily, and not more than once on any day)
Steroids: Inhaled low-dose
Leukotriene inhibitor: Yes
Cromolyn: Alternative

Moderate Persistent Asthma:
Symptom frequency: Daily
Night-time symptoms: >1 per week
FEV₁: 60–80%
β-adrenergics: Short-acting daily, can add long-acting
Steroids: Inhaled medium-dose
Leukotriene inhibitor: Yes
Cromolyn: PRN

Severe Persistent Asthma:
Symptom frequency: Continuous
Night-time symptoms: Frequent
FEV₁: <60%
β-adrenergics: Short-acting >2 times/day, can add long-acting
Steroids: Inhaled and high-dose systemic
Leukotriene inhibitor: Yes
Cromolyn: PRN

216
Q
A
217
Q

What is rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • A chronic systemic inflammatory disease characterized by inflammatory polyarthritis (synovitis) with progressive destruction of joint, bone, and articular cartilage.
  • F>M, 5-6 decades.
218
Q

What are hallmark signs of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Morning stiffness and swelling of the joints involved for over 1 hour.

219
Q

What are classic deformities associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Ulnar deviation, subluxation of the metacarpophalangeal joints, swan-neck deformity, and Boutonnière deformities.

220
Q

What are rheumatoid nodules?

A

Non-painful, firm nodules present in 1/5th of patients, typically on the extensor surface of the forearms.

221
Q

Which part of the spine is commonly involved in rheumatoid arthritis?

A

The cervical spine, most often a C1–C2 (atlantoaxial) subluxation.

222
Q

What are some cardiovascular manifestations of rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Pericarditis, myocarditis, coronary artery disease (CAD), and aortitis.

223
Q

What ocular symptoms can occur with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Eye pain, redness, and keratoconjunctivitis.

224
Q

What pulmonary issues can arise from rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Pleural effusion, rheumatoid nodules, and restrictive lung disease.

225
Q

What hematological conditions are associated with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Anemia and Felty syndrome (RA with splenomegaly and leukopenia).

226
Q

What laboratory findings are indicative of rheumatoid arthritis?

A
  • Increased rheumatoid factor titers
  • Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR),
  • Elevated C-reactive protein.
227
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Symptoms must be >6 weeks and 4/7 criteria must be met:
- Morning stiffness (≥1 hour)
- Swelling of 3+ joints
- Swelling of hand joints
- Symmetrical swelling
- Subcutaneous nodules
- Serum rheumatoid factor
- Radiographic evidence of erosive arthritis.

228
Q

What is the primary treatment for rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Prednisone to decrease swelling and stiffness, but long-term use can cause osteoporosis and poor wound healing.

229
Q

What are disease-modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARDs)?

A

Medications used to slow and halt progression of the disease, including methotrexate, hydroxychloroquine, antimalarials, minocycline, and tofacitinib.

230
Q

How does methotrexate work?

A

It inhibits metabolism of folic acid via dihydrofolate reductase.

231
Q

What preoperative evaluations are important for rheumatoid arthritis patients?

A

CBC and BMP to rule out anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal compromise, and electrolyte disturbances.

EKG to rule out ischemic heart disease, cardiopulmonary exam for murmurs, PFTs for restrictive lung disease, and consideration of supplemental antibiotics and steroid supplementation.

232
Q

What intubation considerations are there for rheumatoid arthritis patients?

A

Hoarseness or stridor may indicate cricoarytenoid joint involvement, TMJ involvement should be identified, and cervical spine flexion deformity may complicate intubation.

233
Q

What should be confirmed preoperatively regarding the cervical spine in rheumatoid arthritis patients?

A

Atlantoaxial subluxation should be confirmed with a radiograph to prevent spinal cord damage during laryngoscopy.

234
Q

What is pulmonary embolism?

A

Acute, partial, or complete obstruction in the pulmonary arterial vasculature leading to a ventilation perfusion mismatch.

235
Q

What are the sources of emboli?

A

Thrombus from a vein of the lower extremity, mural thrombus from atrial fibrillation, and fat embolism from long bones.

236
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of pulmonary embolism?

A

Chest pain, dyspnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, hemoptysis, coughing, jugular venous distension, cyanosis, rales and rhonchi, diminished breath sounds.

237
Q

What are the risk factors for pulmonary embolism?

A

(Virchow’s triad – stasis, damage to the endothelium, and a hypercoagulable state)

Immobility, malignancy, disability or obesity, oral contraceptives, pregnancy, Factor V Leiden, antiphospholipid syndrome, protein C and S deficiency, DVT, recent long bone fracture, hormone replacement therapy.

238
Q

What is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism?

A

CT angiography.

  • Signs and symptoms of a PE.
  • D-dimer assay highly sensitive If negative, then a PE is unlikely. Normal less than 0.50mg
  • CT angiography gold standard.
  • Venous ultrasonography to rule out DVT.
  • Arterial blood gas – can see hypoxemia, respiratory alkalosis, and hypocapnia.
  • Wells criteria >4 probable PE.
239
Q

What does a D-dimer assay indicate?

A

Highly sensitive for pulmonary embolism; if negative, a PE is unlikely.

240
Q

What is Wells criteria?

A

A scoring system where a score >4 indicates a probable pulmonary embolism.

241
Q

Wells Criteria to Determine Likelihood of Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

A

Clinical signs/symptoms of DVT: 3.0 points

High suspicion of PE as the diagnosis: 3.0 points

Heart rate > 100 BPM: 1.5 points

Surgery within 1 month or immobility > 3 days: 1.5 points

History of PE or DVT: 1.5 points

Malignancy: 1.0 point

Hemoptysis: 1.0 point

Interpretation of Total Score:
>6 points: High probability of PE
2–6 points: Moderate probability of PE
<2 points: Low probability of PE

242
Q

What is the initial management for a patient with pulmonary embolism?

A
  • Consult with the physician managing anticoagulation
  • Obtain preoperative INR if warfarin is utilized.
  • Use judicious hemostatic measures
  • Avoid NSAID use in the setting of anticoagulation to decrease the chance of perioperative bleeding.
243
Q

What is the ASA classification for a 70 yo male with chronic Afib and a CVA history?

A

ASA III if CVA > 3 months with remaining neuro deficits; ASA II if no deficits > 6 months.

244
Q

What preoperative labs/tests are needed for a patient on Coumadin?

A

EKG, INR, PT/PTT.

245
Q

What are the types of CVA?

A

Hemorrhagic and ischemic.

246
Q

How do you differentiate between types of CVA?

A

CT scan.

247
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A

A serious heart rhythm disorder characterized by irregular and rapid heartbeats.

248
Q

What are the symptoms of atrial fibrillation?

A

Irregular or rapid heartbeat, heart palpitations, fatigue, shortness of breath, dizziness or lightheadedness.

249
Q

What are the causes of atrial fibrillation?

A

Age-related changes, high blood pressure, heart attacks, abnormal heart valves, overactive thyroid, chronic lung diseases, excessive alcohol, obesity.

250
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for atrial fibrillation?

A

EKG and ECHO.

251
Q

What is the treatment for atrial fibrillation?

A

Antiarrhythmic drugs and anticoagulants.

252
Q

What are the differential diagnoses for shortness of breath (SOB)?

A

MI, PE, pneumothorax, CHF exacerbation, cardiac arrhythmia, atelectasis.

253
Q

What is the initial evaluation for a patient with SOB?

A

Evaluate ABC, check airway, ask for symptoms, give O2, obtain vitals, listen to lung and heart, order ABG, chest x-ray, and 12 lead EKG.

254
Q

What is the initial treatment for suspected pulmonary embolism?

A

Unfractionated heparin to a goal PTT of 60–85, low molecular weight heparin with bridging to warfarin for a goal INR of 2–3.

255
Q

What is indicated if anticoagulation is contraindicated?

A

An inferior vena cava filter.

256
Q

What is the recommended duration of oral anticoagulation for most patients?

A

3 months.

257
Q

What details should be gathered about juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?

A

I want to get more details about RA, any multiple system involvement such as cardiovascular (pericarditis, CAD, and myocarditis), and if he has ever experienced any respiratory problems.

258
Q

What respiratory issues are associated with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis?

A

These patients tend to have pleural effusion and rheumatoid nodule restrictive disease.

259
Q

What should be asked regarding steroid treatment?

A

I want to ask if he has been on steroid treatment, how much, and how often?

260
Q

What questions should be asked about latex exposure?

A

I would ask what happens when exposed to latex. I want to ask how bad is his allergy? Has he ever had an anaphylactic shock?

261
Q

Are there different reactions to latex?

A

Yes - irritation dermatitis, delayed hypersensitivity, and anaphylaxis.

262
Q

Can patients have full-blown anaphylaxis if they only get a rash?

A

Yes, they can. Repeat exposure to latex can cause anaphylaxis.

263
Q

What is your latex protocol for your office?

A

Using latex-free products, patient screening, signs in the waiting area encouraging disclosure of latex allergy, staff training to recognize anaphylaxis, emergency kit and crash cart readiness, and staying updated regarding latex-free products.

264
Q

Why is the steroids question important?

A

I’m concerned about adrenal suppression and need for preop steroids.

265
Q

How do you determine adrenal suppression?

A

Rule of two’s: adrenal suppression may occur if a patient is taking 20 mg of cortisone or its equivalent daily, for 2 weeks within 2 years of dental treatment.

266
Q

What additional symptoms indicate adrenal suppression?

A

Symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, ACTH stimulation test, serum cortisol level.

267
Q

Can a patient with RA extend their neck?

A

The cervical spine is commonly involved, most often a C1–C2 (atlantoaxial) subluxation. Limitation of neck extension should be practiced with SLE patients to demonstrate range of motion to avoid damage to the spinal cord.

268
Q

What is hepatitis?

A

An inflammatory mediated process with active hepatocellular damage and necrosis with lobular inflammatory response.

269
Q

What defines acute hepatitis?

A

When inflammation lasts for 6 months or less.

270
Q

What is Hepatitis A?

A

RNA virus with an incubation period of 30-70 days. It is self-limiting.

271
Q

How is Hepatitis A transmitted?

A

Fecal-oral route, often through sewage contaminated shellfish.

272
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of Hepatitis A?

A

Fever, malaise, myalgia, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and jaundice.

273
Q

Is there a chronic form of Hepatitis A?

A

No chronic form.

274
Q

What is the treatment for Hepatitis A?

A

Supportive treatment and vaccination.

275
Q

What is Hepatitis B?

A

DNA virus with an incubation period of 60-110 days.

276
Q

How is Hepatitis B transmitted?

A

Vertical transmission (mother to fetus), percutaneous, and sexual.

277
Q

What are the preventive measures for Hepatitis B?

A

Vaccination and Hepatitis B IgG.

278
Q

What percentage of Hepatitis B cases progress to cirrhosis?

A

20% progress to cirrhosis, and 4% to hepatocellular carcinoma.

279
Q

What is Hepatitis C?

A

RNA virus with an incubation period of 30-70 days.

280
Q

What is the treatment after exposure to Hepatitis C?

A

Interferon and ribavirin; there is no vaccine.

281
Q

How is Hepatitis C transmitted?

A

Percutaneous route.

282
Q

What are the risk factors for Hepatitis C?

A

IV drug use, incarceration, needle stick injuries, tattoos, body piercing, hemodialysis, and blood transfusions.

283
Q

What is the risk of Hepatitis C patients developing non-Hodgkin lymphoma?

A

Hepatitis C patients have an increased risk of non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

284
Q

What is HIV?

A

An RNA retrovirus that infects CD4 cells and causes varying levels of immunosuppression, potentially progressing to AIDS.

285
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A

Through sexual contact, exposure to infected blood, organ donations, perinatally, or via IV drug abuse.

286
Q

What defines AIDS?

A

The result of progressive HIV infection with a weakened immune system meeting specific diagnostic criteria.

287
Q

What are the criteria for a patient to be diagnosed with AIDS?

A
  1. CD4+ T-cell count of 200 cells/μL or less.
  2. CD4+ T-cell percentage of total lymphocytes of 15% or less.
  3. Other illnesses such as Burkitt’s lymphoma and encephalopathy, Kaposi.
288
Q

What is the initial screening test for HIV?

A

Enzyme immunoassay for IgM and IgG anti-HIV antibodies detected 3-5 weeks after infection.

Diagnosis:
- Screen enzyme immunoassay for IgM and IgG anti-HIV antibodies detected 3-5 week after infection.
- CBC exhibit hematological disorders
- CD4 reflect of immune status. Normal 500-1500
- Viral load, predictor of rate of progression to AIDS. Normal less than 20-75 copies.
- Albumin and prealbumin (nutritional status)

289
Q

What does a CBC show in HIV patients?

A

leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia

290
Q

What is the normal range for CD4 cells?

A

Normal CD4 count is 500-1500 cells/μL. Reflect of immune status.

291
Q

What does viral load indicate in HIV patients?

A

It is a predictor of the rate of progression to AIDS, with normal being less than 20-75 copies.

292
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of HIV?

A

Fever, fatigue, headache, night sweats, myalgias, generalized lymphadenopathy, weight loss, and temporal wasting.

293
Q

What cardiovascular complications can arise from HIV?

A

Left ventricular hypertrophy, myocarditis, and diastolic heart failure.

294
Q

What pulmonary complications are associated with HIV?

A

Predisposition to pneumonia, TB, and Kaposi sarcoma.

295
Q

What neurological complications can occur with HIV?

A

Meningitis, peripheral neuropathy, and CNS lymphoma.

296
Q

What endocrine issues can arise from HIV?

A

Glucose intolerance and adrenal insufficiency.

297
Q

What hematological issues are associated with HIV?

A

Leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia, and a hypercoagulable state.

298
Q

What renal complications can occur in HIV patients?

A

HIV nephropathy can lead to ESRD, and protease inhibitors may cause acute tubular necrosis and nephrolithiasis.

299
Q

What oral manifestations can occur in HIV patients?

A

Temporal wasting due to lipodystrophy, parotid gland enlargement, dermatitis of the scalp, lymphoma, lymphoepithelial cysts, gingivitis, xerostomia, fungal infections, candidiasis when CD4 is lower than 500, and aphthous ulcers.

300
Q

What is HAART?

A

Highly active antiretroviral therapy that inhibits HIV replication.

301
Q

What is the typical regimen for HAART?

A

Usually consists of three drugs: two NRTIs and one protease inhibitor or NNRTI.

302
Q

What are some NRTIs used in HIV treatment?

A

Zidovudine (AZT), lamivudine (3TC), stavudine (D4T), tenofovir, and emtricitabine.

303
Q

What are common side effects of NRTIs?

A

Nausea, headache, peripheral neuropathy, anemia, and thrombocytopenia.

304
Q

What are some NNRTIs used in HIV treatment?

A

Nevirapine and efavirenz (EFV).

305
Q

What are common side effects of NNRTIs?

A

Dizziness, rash, vivid dreams, and suicidal thoughts.

306
Q

What is Atripla®?

A

A combination drug used in the treatment of HIV, consisting of emtricitabine, tenofovir, and efavirenz.

307
Q

What is Truvada®?

A

A combination drug used in the treatment and prevention of HIV, also approved for Pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP).

308
Q

What are some side effects of protease inhibitors?

A

Ritonavir.
GI disturbances, glucose metabolism issues, and paresthesias.

309
Q

What immunotherapy can increase CD4 levels?

A

Interleukin II or interferon-alpha.

310
Q

What prophylactic treatment is given if CD4 count falls below 100 cells/μL?

A

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim®) to decrease the risk of Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia.

311
Q

What empirical management is recommended if CD4 count falls below 50 cells/μL?

A

Macrolide (azithromycin or clarithromycin) to decrease the risk of Mycobacterium avium complex (MAC) infection.

312
Q

What is crucial in patient management for HIV/AIDS patients prior to surgery?

A

Communication with the physician (PCP or infectious disease) is paramount in clinical decision-making.

313
Q

What laboratory workup should be done for HIV/AIDS patients before surgery?

A

CBC, CHEM 10, LFTs, glucose, coagulation studies, immunological status via CD4+ lymphocyte cell count, and viral load during the previous 3 months.

314
Q

What imaging studies should be performed in HIV/AIDS patients preoperatively?

A

Chest radiographs and EKG for cardiopulmonary abnormalities and screening for opportunistic infections.

315
Q

What antibiotic prophylaxis protocol should non-neutropenic HIV/AIDS patients follow?

A

Standard antibiotic prophylaxis protocol.

316
Q

What should be considered for patients on certain antiretroviral medications?

A

They may have impairment of CYP450 hepatic enzymes, prolonging the effects of benzodiazepines, opiates, and lidocaine.

317
Q

What anesthetic agents are preferable for HIV patients?

A

Etomidate, atracurium, remifentanil, and desflurane as they are not dependent on CYP450 hepatic metabolism.

318
Q

What is a potential risk when using succinylcholine in HIV patients?

A

It is a potential risk in patients with progressive neuropathy, myopathy, or muscle wasting.

319
Q

What should be used judiciously in patients with HIV?

A

Propofol, due to potential interactions with NRTIs that may promote mitochondrial toxicity and lactic acidosis.

320
Q

What complications can arise from opportunistic infections in HIV patients?

A

Pulmonary complications leading to respiratory distress and hypoxemia.

321
Q

What is alcoholic liver disease (ALD)?

A

Excessive alcohol intake leading to a fatty liver, followed by hepatitis and cirrhosis.

322
Q

What amount of alcohol consumption puts individuals at risk for ALD?

A

50 g daily (5 standard drinks) for 10 years or more.

323
Q

What is the clinical course of ALD?

A

A spectrum of disease: alcoholic steatosis, alcoholic steatohepatitis, cirrhosis, and hepatocellular carcinoma.

324
Q

What is the treatment for ALD?

A

Alcohol cessation and nutritional support are the first steps. Folic acid, thiamine, and zinc are important when deficiencies are noted.

325
Q

What may reduce short-term mortality in patients with alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Daily administration of methylprednisolone or equivalent corticosteroid for 1 month.

326
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

Hepatic inflammation and fibrosis leading to liver cirrhosis and ultimately liver failure.

327
Q

What causes portal hypertension in cirrhosis?

A

Fibrosis deposition increases resistance of intrahepatic blood flow.

328
Q

What are the clinical sequelae of portal hypertension?

A

Gastroesophageal varices with hemorrhage, ascites, and hypersplenism.

329
Q

What is spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Infection of ascitic fluid, a dreaded complication in surgical inpatients with cirrhosis with a high mortality rate.

330
Q

What is critical for the survival of patients with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

A

Timely administration of antibiotic therapy.

331
Q

Why are cirrhosis patients more prone to infections?

A

Due to destruction of the hepatic reticuloendothelial system.

332
Q

What are the management steps for cirrhosis?

A

Stop alcohol, maintain a diet rich in calories and protein, manage varices, treat ascites, and consider liver transplant.

333
Q

What scoring systems are used to assess chronic liver disease severity?

A

Child-Pugh score and Model for End-Stage Liver Disease (MELD) equation.

334
Q

What does MELD predict?

A

90-day mortality without liver transplantation, based on sodium, INR, bilirubin, and creatinine.

335
Q

What does the Child-Turcotte-Pugh (CTP) score predict?

A

Survival rate up to 2 years, based on bilirubin, albumin, PT (or INR), ascites, and hepatic encephalopathy.

336
Q

What are physical exam signs of liver disease?

A

Spider nevi, jaundice, splenomegaly, ascites, hepatomegaly, and caput medusa.

337
Q

What should be evaluated in cirrhosis patients preoperatively?

A

Cirrhotic cardiomyopathy, baseline oxygen saturation, CBC, LFTs, PT/INR, serum albumin, and prealbumin.

338
Q

What is the significance of albumin in liver disease?

A

It is a better marker for chronic nutritional status but less useful in acute settings.

339
Q

What is the significance of prealbumin in liver disease?

A

It reflects short-term changes in nutritional intake and is preferred for monitoring acute malnutrition.

340
Q

What should be done if platelet count is below 50,000?

A

Transfusion should be considered.

341
Q

What is recommended prior to surgery for patients with liver disease?

A

Consider vitamin K 10mg IM.

342
Q

What is the response to anesthetics in patients with viral hepatitis?

A

They might need a lower dose due to increased CNS sensitivity.

343
Q

What is the response to anesthetics in alcoholic patients?

A

They exhibit cross-tolerance to volatile and intravenous anesthetics.

344
Q

What should be used for rapid-sequence induction in patients with large ascites?

A

Rapid-sequence induction should be used due to increased gastric volumes and delayed gastric emptying.

345
Q

What neuromuscular blockers are safe for patients with liver disease?

A

Cisatracurium, atracurium, and succinylcholine, as they preserve hepatic blood flow.

346
Q

What should be considered regarding amide local anesthetics in liver disease?

A

They are degraded in the liver, so a reduction in the amount may be necessary.

347
Q

What benzodiazepines are unaffected by liver disease?

A

Those that undergo glucuronidation (e.g., oxazepam, temazepam, and lorazepam).

348
Q

What volatile agents are safe for patients with significant liver disease?

A

Isoflurane and sevoflurane, as they do not reduce hepatic blood flow.

349
Q

What should be avoided in liver disease patients regarding anesthetics?

A

Halothane, as it is believed to cause immune-mediated liver damage.

350
Q

What is the recommendation for opioid use in liver disease patients?

A

Lower dosages should be used due to prolonged half-lives.

351
Q

What is the half-life of propofol in patients with decompensated cirrhosis?

A

It retains a short half-life.

352
Q

What should be avoided to preserve hepatic arterial perfusion?

A

Hypotension.

353
Q

What is the challenge in fluid replacement for chronic liver disease patients?

A

They are on a sodium-restricted diet preoperatively, and overall fluid administration should be limited.

354
Q

What type of intravenous fluids are preferable for liver disease patients?

A

Colloid intravenous fluids (albumin) to avoid sodium overload.

355
Q

What labs should be requested preoperatively for a drug addict with Hep C?

A

CBC, Chem 10, Ca, PO4, Mg, HIV test, liver enzymes, and coag panel.

356
Q

What concerns arise for a patient with HIV and Hep C?

A

Bleeding, metabolism of drugs, ability to fight infection, withdrawal, compliance with treatment, and cardiac complications.

357
Q

Can cocaine withdrawal lead to life-threatening complications?

A

Yes, it can lead to complications such as depression, suicidal thoughts, cardiac arrhythmia, seizures, and respiratory problems.

358
Q

When do alcohol withdrawal symptoms begin?

A

6–24 hours after the last intake of alcohol.

359
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Tremors, agitation, nausea, sweating, vomiting, hallucinations, insomnia, tachycardia, hypertension, delirium, and seizures.

360
Q

What is the most dreaded complication of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Delirium tremens (hyperthermia, tremors, and seizures), which has a high mortality rate.

361
Q

What are some serious complications of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Complications can include depression, suicidal thoughts, cardiac arrhythmia, seizures, and respiratory problems.

362
Q

When does alcohol withdrawal typically begin?

A

Alcohol withdrawal begins 6–24 hours after the last intake of alcohol.

363
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of alcohol withdrawal?

A

Signs and symptoms include tremors, agitation, nausea, sweating, vomiting, hallucinations, insomnia, tachycardia, hypertension, delirium, and seizures.

364
Q

What is the most dreaded complication of alcohol withdrawal?

A

The most dreaded complication is delirium tremens, which includes hyperthermia, tremors, and seizures, and has a high mortality rate.

365
Q

What is the treatment for alcohol withdrawal?

A

Treatment includes benzodiazepines (such as diazepam or chlordiazepoxide), electrolyte/fluid deficit correction, and administration of a banana bag (thiamine, folic acid, magnesium, and a multivitamin).

366
Q

What is the goal of thiamine therapy in alcohol withdrawal?

A

The goal of thiamine therapy is to prevent Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, which includes ataxia, anterograde amnesia, nystagmus, and peripheral polyneuropathy.

367
Q

What is the CAGE questionnaire used for?

A

The CAGE questionnaire is used to assess alcohol’s effect on health and social well-being. A score greater than 2 is concerning.

368
Q

What are the components of the CAGE questionnaire?

A
  1. Have you ever felt you should Cut down on your drinking?
  2. Have you been Annoyed by other people criticizing your drinking?
  3. Have you ever felt Guilty about drinking?
  4. Have you ever taken a drink in the morning to steady your nerves or ease a hangover (Eye-opener)?
369
Q

What preoperative labs should be conducted for patients with alcohol withdrawal?

A

Preoperative labs include CBC, Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP), and Liver Function Tests (LFTs).

370
Q

What is the goal INR and platelet count for coagulopathy management?

A

The goal INR is < 3 and platelets > 50,000, depending on the surgery.

371
Q

What should be done if emergency surgery is indicated for a patient with coagulopathy?

A

Treatment in a hospital setting should be employed, including vitamin K, clotting factors, fresh frozen plasma, or platelets to correct coagulopathies.

372
Q

What are some considerations for patients with alcohol intoxication during anesthesia?

A

During emergency anesthesia, rapid sequence induction is indicated due to possible aspiration of stomach contents.

373
Q

How does chronic alcohol use affect anesthetic agents?

A

Chronic alcohol use increases dose requirements for general anesthetic agents as the minimal alveolar concentration is increased.

  • In acutely intoxicated, non-habituated patients, the minimal alveolar concentration (MAC) of inhalational agents is reduced. Acutely intoxicated patients are more sensitive to the effects of opioids, benzodiazepines, and barbiturates. Sensitivity to other drugs may occur due to competitive inhibition from elevated blood ethanol concentration.
374
Q

What is the effect of alcohol on neuromuscular blocking agents?

A

Neuromuscular blocking agents that undergo hepatic metabolism may have a prolonged duration of action due to hepatic impairment.

375
Q

What can mitigate acute confusion or delirium after an operation?

A

Attention to pain control measures, oxygenation, and correction of metabolic disturbances can mitigate acute confusion or delirium after an operation.

376
Q

What medications can be used for acute agitation postoperatively?

A

Consider intravenous haloperidol (0.5–10 mg may be repeated after 20–30 minutes), chlorpromazine, risperidone, and olanzapine for acute agitation.

377
Q

What is cocaine?

A

Cocaine is an amphetamine that blocks the reuptake of norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine transporting mechanisms in the CNS, leading to intense stimulation, euphoria, and pleasure.

378
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of cocaine?

A

Chronic abusers may develop
1- Cocaine-induced cardiomyopathy.
Acute use can cause
1- Coronary vasospasm, myocardial ischemia/infarction, and ventricular dysrhythmias.

379
Q

What EKG findings are associated with acute cocaine use?

A

EKG findings may show prolonged QRS and QT intervals and premature ventricular contractions, which can degenerate into deadly ventricular dysrhythmias.

380
Q

What are the respiratory effects of crack cocaine use?

A

There is a risk of alveolar hemorrhaging and pulmonary edema from crack cocaine use.

381
Q

What are the nasal effects of snorting cocaine?

A

Snorting cocaine can lead to mucosal ulcerations, causing epistaxis and nasal septal destruction.

382
Q

What hematologic changes can occur with cocaine use?

A

Cocaine activates platelets, increases platelet aggregation, and promotes thrombus formation, adding risk for cardiac and cerebrovascular events.

383
Q

What is cocaine-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Cocaine-induced thrombocytopenia can occur, similar to idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura.

384
Q

How does cocaine affect the nervous system?

A

Cocaine alters pain perception, leading to potentially lower pain thresholds and challenges in analgesia administration.

385
Q

What are the gastrointestinal effects of chronic cocaine use?

A

Chronic cocaine use causes delayed gastric emptying, increasing the risk for aspiration.

386
Q

What should be determined for patient management regarding cocaine use?

A

Determine last use of cocaine and severity of use. 8 hours is sufficient for general anesthesia if the patient is stable.

387
Q

How long can urine testing detect cocaine?

A

Urine testing can detect cocaine and its metabolites for up to 6 days, or even 10 days for chronic users.

388
Q

What should be avoided during sedation for cocaine users?

A

Avoid sympathomimetic agents (e.g., ketamine) as the myocardium of patients using cocaine is more sensitive to catecholamines.

389
Q

What should be monitored with local anesthetics in cocaine users?

A

Monitor use of local anesthetics containing epinephrine due to the risk of dysrhythmias.

390
Q

What treatments should be prepared for intraoperative management of cocaine users?

A

Be prepared to treat intraoperative myocardial ischemia and cocaine-induced seizures.

391
Q

Pre op consideration cocaine users

A
  • CBC
  • BMP
  • EKG, Echo in chronic user may show cardiomyopathy
  • Determine last use of cocaine, for sedation wait 24 hours. GA 8 hours
  • Avoid ketamine
  • Be prepare to treat ischemia and bronchospasm.
392
Q

What is marijuana?

A

Marijuana is a recreational drug from the cannabis plant.

393
Q

What are the desired effects of marijuana?

A

The desired effects are euphoria, increased awareness of sensation, and increased libido.

394
Q

What is the most active cannabinoid in marijuana?

A

The most active cannabinoid in marijuana is Δ9-trans-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC).

395
Q

What are the cardiovascular effects of low and high doses of marijuana?

A

Low dose use stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, leading to hypertension and tachycardia.

High dose use inhibits it, leading to hypotension and bradycardia.

396
Q

What are the pulmonary effects of chronic marijuana use?

A

Chronic usage can result in compromised pulmonary function, increased airway reactivity, and higher susceptibility to respiratory complications due to tar deposits.
This makes patients more susceptible to anesthesia-related respiratory complications (e.g., laryngospasm and bronchospasm).

397
Q

What should be determined for patient management regarding marijuana use?

A

Determine last use of marijuana and cancel cases when intoxication is suspected.

398
Q

How long should one wait after marijuana consumption for elective cases?

A

For office-based anesthesia, consider waiting 72 hours after consumption.

399
Q

What should be monitored during procedures for marijuana users?

A

Monitor EKG and blood pressure continuously throughout the procedure.

400
Q

What should be avoided in acute marijuana users?

A

Drugs with known sympathomimetic action should be avoided.

401
Q

What should be considered for patients with recent marijuana use?

A

Consider a dose of steroids due to the risk for uvular edema.

402
Q

What is the effect of marijuana on anesthetic sensitivity?

A

Patients will be more sensitive to inhaled anesthetics.

  • Chronic users exhibit tolerance and cross tolerance, which may lead to decreased levels of sedations/combativeness during intravenous sedations.
403
Q

What is the effect of chronic marijuana use on narcotics?

A

Chronic users require higher doses of narcotics to obtain analgesia.

404
Q

Marijuana User Management for Anesthesia

A

CBC
BMP
EKG (PVCs, Afib, AV block).

  • Determine last use wait 72 hours for office-based anesthesia.
  • Consider steroids to prevent
    uvular edema in recent users.
  • Avoid sympathomimetic drugs in acute users.
  • Perform pre-op auscultation to check for pulmonary issues.
  • Consider albuterol and glycopyrrolate for airway sensitivity.
  • Watch for increased bleeding risk due to platelet drop.
  • Chronic users may need higher doses of benzodiazepines, opioids, propofol, and narcotics.
405
Q

A patient presents with a mouth lesion, stomach pain, diarrhea, and GI symptoms. What is your differential diagnosis for the mouth lesion?

A

Hyperkeratosis
Candidiasis
Leukoplakia
Lichenoid reaction
Pemphigus
White spongy nevus
Oral manifestation of IBD (Crohn’s disease)

406
Q

The biopsy report comes back showing epithelioid granulomas and giant cells. What is your diagnosis?

A

Crohn’s disease (oral manifestation).

407
Q

Crohn’s Disease

A

Inflammation: Patchy, transmural commonly affect terminal ileum

Symptoms: Nonbloody diarrhea, low-grade fever, pain, weight loss, perianal disease

Location: Anywhere in the GI tract (mouth to anus), commonly terminal ileum

Diagnosis: Colonoscopy with biopsy

Malignancy Risk: Questionable increased risk

Treatment:
Steroids, immunosuppressants, sulfasalazine

408
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

A

Inflammation: Diffuse, continuous mucosal inflammation affecting the colon including the rectum

Symptoms: Bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, weight loss

Location: Colon only, always involves rectum

Diagnosis: Colonoscopy with biopsy and stool studies

Malignancy Risk: Increased risk

Treatment: Mesalamine, steroids, surgery

409
Q

What is heroin?

A

Heroin (diacetylmorphine) is an opioid drug synthesized from morphine, a naturally occurring substance from the opium poppy plant.

410
Q

What is the desired effect of heroin?

A

The desired effect of heroin is an intense euphoria.

411
Q

How can heroin be administered?

A

Heroin can be inhaled, smoked, or injected intravenously.

412
Q

What are opioids?

A

Opioids are narcotic drugs derived from the opium plant that bind to opioid receptors in the CNS and PNS, resulting in analgesia.

413
Q

What are common effects of opioids?

A

Common effects of opioids include euphoria, sedation, nausea, constipation, chest wall rigidity, and respiratory depression.

414
Q

What are manifestations of opioid intoxication/overdose?

A

Manifestations include miosis, respiratory depression, motor slowness, euphoria, slurred speech, gastric atony, and pulmonary edema.

415
Q

What general inspection findings are associated with opioid abuse?

A

Findings include poor hygiene, malnourishment, cutaneous scarring, hyperpigmentation, and inflamed skin excoriations.

416
Q

What is the most frequent complication of intravenous heroin abuse?

A

Hepatitis (B and C) is the most frequent complication, with roughly 40% of IV heroin users exposed.

417
Q

What signs indicate liver disease in opioid users?

A

Signs include jaundice, telangiectasia, ascites, and scleral icterus.

418
Q

What pulmonary complications are associated with opioid use?

A

Higher risk for lung abscesses, bacterial pneumonia, respiratory depression, pneumonitis, and fibrosis.

419
Q

What cardiac risk is associated with heroin use?

A

There is a higher risk of endocarditis; any new murmur or unexplained fever should be considered endocarditis until proven otherwise.

420
Q

What immune system risks are associated with opioid abuse?

A

There is a higher risk of infection due to malnourishment and HIV.

421
Q

How is acute opioid intoxication treated?

A

Acute intoxication is treated with naloxone (opioid receptor antagonist) and supportive care in a hospital setting.

422
Q

What is Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome?

A

It manifests after abrupt withdrawal of opioids.

423
Q

What are symptoms of Opioid Withdrawal Syndrome?

A

Symptoms include tachycardia, hypertension, lacrimation, yawning, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle spasms, abdominal cramping, hyperthermia, diaphoresis, and mydriasis.

424
Q

What treatments are available for opioid withdrawal?

A

Treatments include supportive care for GI distress, methadone, buprenorphine, and clonidine.

425
Q

What is methadone?

A

Methadone is a mu opioid agonist used for the management of opioid dependence.

426
Q

What is buprenorphine?

A

Buprenorphine is a synthetic mixed mu agonist-antagonist used for opioid dependence, administered sublingually.

427
Q

What is clonidine used for in opioid withdrawal?

A

Clonidine is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist used to attenuate sympathetic manifestations of withdrawal.

428
Q

What preoperative labs should be obtained for opioid users?

A

Preoperative labs include LFTs, hepatitis titers, HIV titers, and CBC to rule out thrombocytopenia from splenomegaly.

429
Q

What should be done if there is doubt about a patient’s sobriety?

A

Any doubt should result in a cancelled appointment and toxicology screening ordered.

430
Q

What is a concern with intravenous access in opioid users?

A

Intravenous access may be difficult due to collapsed veins and fibrosis.

431
Q

What should be avoided preoperatively in opioid users?

A

Avoid preoperative administration of mixed agonist/antagonist (buprenorphine) as it could precipitate withdrawal syndrome.

432
Q

What is the risk of illicit narcotic use before surgery?

A

Illicit narcotic use can have additive effects with other CNS depressants, risking respiratory or cardiovascular failure.

433
Q

What is tolerance in opioid users?

A

Tolerance means patients usually require higher doses of an opioid to achieve the desired effect.

434
Q

What is cross tolerance?

A

Cross tolerance occurs when patients develop tolerance to other CNS depressants, affecting anesthesia levels.

435
Q

What should be prepared for patients with opioid use regarding hypotension?

A

Be prepared to treat opioid overdose with naloxone, supportive care, and contact EMS.

436
Q

What prophylactic measure should be taken for patients with a history of endocarditis?

A

Preoperative antibiotics should be administered.

437
Q

What is a challenge in postoperative pain management for opioid users?

A

Pain management can be difficult due to tolerance; acetaminophen should be used sparingly in patients with liver function issues.

438
Q

What should be considered instead of opioids for pain management?

A

Consider using NSAIDs instead of opioids, and tailor opioid use to the surgical procedure.

439
Q

What should be discussed preoperatively regarding pain management?

A

Discuss the pain management plan with the patient, primary care physician, or pain manager/drug abuse manager.

440
Q

What cardiac risk may opioid users have postoperatively?

A

Patients may have a prolonged QT interval which can degenerate into torsades de pointes.

441
Q

Anesthesia and preop Heroin/Opioid Abuse

A
  • CBC
  • LFTs (prothrombin time, PTT, INR).
  • Hepatitis titers.
  • HIV titers.
  • EKG prolonged QT interval
  • Communicate with pain physician to manage post op pain.
  • If IE present, consider abx prophy
442
Q

What are methamphetamines?

A

Methamphetamines are potent central nervous stimulators. Commonly abused forms include 3,4-Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA, AKA ecstasy) and methamphetamine hydrochloride (AKA crystal meth or ice).

443
Q

How do methamphetamines affect neurotransmitters?

A

They increase neurotransmitters, especially at the 5-HT receptor, and slow the reuptake of dopamine, norepinephrine, and serotonin in parts of the central nervous system.

444
Q

What are the effects of methamphetamines?

A

They have psychedelic effects that last for up to 6 hours and are typically taken by mouth.

445
Q

How is ecstasy commonly packaged?

A

Ecstasy is commonly packaged in pill form with fillers. ‘Molly’ is pure molecular MDMA without the fillers.

446
Q

What are the desired effects of methamphetamines?

A

The desired effects include euphoria, aphrodisia, heightened sensation, and increased empathy.

447
Q

What are some physical manifestations of methamphetamine use?

A

Physical manifestations include mydriasis, hyperthermia, tachycardia, hypertension, diaphoresis, anorexia, tremors, dehydration, bruxism, and insomnia.

448
Q

What is a major cardiovascular effect of MDMA toxicity?

A

Autonomic hyperactivity is a major feature in patients presenting with MDMA toxicity and is dose-dependent.

449
Q

What is serotonin syndrome?

A

Serotonin syndrome is a condition caused by central 5-HT receptor hyperstimulation, resulting in hyperthermia, mental status changes, autonomic instability, and altered muscle tone and/or rigidity.

450
Q

What is hyponatremia in relation to MDMA use?

A

Hyponatremia can lead to seizures and death, stemming from increased water intake, excessive sweating, and the release of vasopressin leading to SIADH.

451
Q

What neurologic effects can MDMA cause?

A

MDMA can lead to potentially fatal neurologic outcomes, including subarachnoid hemorrhage, cerebral infarction, or intracranial bleeds.

452
Q

What is hepatotoxicity related to MDMA?

A

Hepatotoxicity ranges from asymptomatic liver injury to fulminant acute hepatic failure.

453
Q

What dental issue is associated with long-term methamphetamine use?

A

Long-term usage can lead to dental caries due to decreased salivary production, commonly referred to as ‘Meth Mouth.’

454
Q

What are bath salts?

A

Bath salts, such as MDPV, mephedrone, and methylone, contain synthetic cathinones.

  • The principal active ingredients of bath salts products are synthetic cathinones.
  • Cathinones are beta-ketone amphetamine analogs.
455
Q

What are the effects of synthetic cathinones?

A

They stimulate alpha and beta adrenergic receptors, causing hyper-alertness, hypertension, tachycardia, mydriasis, and diaphoresis.

456
Q

What are the cardiovascular abnormalities associated with bath salts?

A

Cardiovascular abnormalities include tachycardia, hypertension, chest pain, and dysrhythmias.

457
Q

What psychological effects can bath salts induce?

A

They can cause hallucinations, muscle spasms, insomnia, agitation, anxiety, delusions, seizures, and aggression.

458
Q

What is a major concern with bath salts?

A

Excited delirium is a medical emergency due to violent behavior and hallucinations often accompanied by elevated body temperature.

459
Q

What is the management for acute intoxication bath salt and
Methamphetamines ?

A

Management includes assessing sodium levels, urine drug testing, and monitoring EKG for ischemic changes.

CBC
BMP
EKG

460
Q

What should be done for signs of acute intoxication of bath salt and Methamphetamines?

A

Signs such as anxiety, extreme agitation, panic reactions, and seizures may require benzodiazepines and restraints.

461
Q

What is the role of clozapine in MDMA-induced hyperthermia?

A

Clozapine results in a marked and immediate reversal of MDMA-induced hyperthermia.

462
Q

What should be avoided in the management of MDMA intoxication?

A

Avoid sympathomimetic drugs such as ketamine.

463
Q

What is the main acute danger of MDMA?

A

The main acute danger is its association with hyperpyrexia reaction and subsequent rhabdomyolysis.

464
Q

What treatments are effective for MDMA-induced hyperthermia?

A

Carvedilol and dantrolene are effective in reducing hyperthermia.

465
Q

How does acute intoxication affect MAC?

A

MAC decreases with acute intoxication and increases with chronic use.

466
Q

Talk to us about hydrocephalus.

A
  • Hydrocephalus is a neurological condition characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the cavities (ventricles) of the brain. This excess fluid can lead to an increase in intracranial pressure, which may cause damage to brain tissue.
  • Types: congenital, acquired, communicating and non-communicating
  • Symptoms: Nausea, vomiting , headache , diplopia , enlargement of head
  • Diagnosis: CT /MRI

-How would you manage this pt?
- I would treat this pt in the OR under GA, avoid any meds that can increase sympathetic system like ketamine, sevo is fine.

467
Q
  • What are signs of elevated ICP?
A
  • Headache, nausea/vomiting , visual changes , seizure, papilledema, Cushing triad (hypertension, bradycardia, irregular RR)
468
Q

Autism spectrum disorders (Aspergers)

A
  • Complex neurodevelopment condition behavioral syndrome, consisting of impaired social interaction, impaired communication skills (verbal as well as nonverbal language), with onset prior to age 3.
  • Caused by mutations in proteins involved in the formation and function of synapses.
  • Sign and symptoms:
  • 75% of autistic have mental retardation.
  • Hyperactivity
  • Anxiety
  • Short attention span
  • Oral manifestation are periodontal issues , poor tongue coordination, xerostomia as side effect of methylphenidate, gingival hypertrophy 2/2 to phenytoin.
  • Methylphenidate: central nervous system stimulant works by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine.
469
Q

Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxic Crisis)

A

Life-threatening condition due to excessive thyroid hormone levels usually in untreated hyperthyroidism.

Triggers:
• Infection, surgery, trauma, iodine exposure, stopping antithyroid meds.

Symptoms:
• Fever, tachycardia, arrhythmias, agitation, delirium, vomiting, abdominal pain.

Diagnosis:
• Clinical diagnosis with elevated free T3/T4, suppressed TSH.

Management:
1. Supportive care: IV fluids, cooling, oxygen.
2. Antithyroid drugs: PTU or Methimazole.
3. Beta-blockers: Propranolol or Esmolol.
4. Iodine: Lugol’s solution after antithyroid meds.
5. Glucocorticoids: Dexamethasone.
6. Treat underlying cause.

Prognosis: High mortality without treatment; prompt care improves outcomes.

470
Q

What is Graves disease?

A

An autoimmune disorder that causes the thyroid gland to produce too much thyroid hormone

What are symptoms of hyperthyroidism? Hypertension, tachycardia, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss

What medication might he have taken for Grave’s disease before thyroidectomy? Methimazole