Medications from Acute Pain Flashcards

1
Q

Hydrocodone + Tylenol (3)

A

Norco, Lortab, Vicodin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dolophine

A

Methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

MsContin, Kadian, MSIR

A

morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Percocet

A

oxycodone + acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Percodan

A

oxycodone + aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Controlled-released oxycodone is called

A

oxycontin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3-Methoxymorphine is ____

A

codeine

derived from opium poppy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Codeine is metabolized (CYP450) into two things:

A

10% morphine (active)

the rest into inactive norcodeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

if children 12 years or younger receive this medication, they can experience side effects w/o analgesia dt immature enzymes in the liver

A

codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Dose: (adult)

30-60 mg q 4hrs, max 360 mg/day

A

Codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Pediatric dosing for codeine

A

0.5-1 mg/kg

max 60 mg/dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the ceiling effect dose for codeine?

A

60 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Opioids, alcohol, and anticholinergics interact with ______

A

codeine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Contraindications for codeine (4)

A
  1. hypersensitivity
  2. acute/chronic ashtma
  3. respiratory depression
  4. paralytic ileus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

codeine works on what receptors

A

mu, kappa, delta

side effects include: N/V, brady, hypotension, respiratory depression, urinary retention, constipation, dizziness, miosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

synthetic 4-phenylpiperidine analogue of morphine and codeine

A

Tramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Tramadol is a racemic mixture of two enantiomers + & -

+ enanatiomer is centrally acting opioid agonist with moderate affinity to ____ receptor, weak affinity to ____ & ___, and opposes _____ reuptake

A

strong affinity: mu

weak: kappa and delta

opposes serotonin reuptake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tramadol is a racemic mixture of two enantiomers + & -

( — )enantiomer inhibits _____ reuptake and stimulates _____ receptors

A

inh. norepinephrine reuptake

and stimulates alpha 2 receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tramadol is metabolized by CYP450 into ______

A

o-desmethyltramadol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

o-desmethyltramadol 2-4x more potent or weaker than Tramadol?

A

Potent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is Tramadol’s potency compared to morphine?

A

1/5- 1/10s the potent to morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Tramadol’s onset PO

A

1-2 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tramadol’s protein binding

A

20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Tramadol is contraindicated in patients that have what?

A

seizure disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
T/F: tramadol causes respiratory depressioin
false: minimal
26
T/F: Tramadol is not associated with dependence, tolerance, or addiction
True
27
T/F: Tramadol causes constipation
F: minimal
28
T/F: Tramadol does not cause N/V
F: high incidence of N/V
29
Oral dose of Morphine is about ___x higher than IM or IV
3
30
Morphine primarily acts on what receptors
Mu 1 and Mu 2
31
This drug's primary pathway for metabolism is conjugation with glucuronic acid in hepatic and extrahepatic sites, especially the kidney
Morphine
32
Morphine gets metabolised into two substances
morphine-6-glucuronide morphine-3-glucuronide
33
T/F: morphine-3-glucuronide contributes to analgesia
F: morphine-3-glucuronide causes adverse effects such as neurotoxicity and hyperalgesia morphine-6-glucuronide contributes to analgesia
34
Morphine's absorption into the CNS is minimal dt 3 things:
1.poor lipid solubility (morphine hydrophilic) 2. high protein binding (35%) 3. high degree of ionization at physiologic pH
35
Morphine IM onset: ____ peak: _____
onset: 15-30 mins peak: 45-90 mins
36
Women vs men who has a greater analgesic potency and slower speed of offset with morphine
women
37
Morphine is contraindicated in what patients and why?
renal impairment dt metabolite morphine-6-glucuronide causing respiratory depression
38
______ is a semisynthetic derivative of thebaine
oxycodone
39
oxycodone has recently replaced ____ as the most used opioid worldwide
morphine
40
oxycodone can be made alone or combined with 3 things and has many names
acetaminophen (Percocet), aspirin (Percodan), and ibuprofen (Combunox)
41
This drug is used to tx neuropathic pain syndrome and to treat acute/chronic pain
oxycodone
42
controlled release oxycodone is called?
Oxycotin
43
Oxycodone is mainly a prodrug and is metabolized into two forms ___ & ____
(active) Oxymorphone (inactive) noroxycodone
44
What receptors do oxycodone work on
Mu and Kappa
45
How is oxycodone metabolized and excreted?
Cype 450 (2D6) and excreted in the urine
46
T/F: Oxycodone has an extensive first pass effect
true
47
Oxycodone (PO) onset: duration: IR & CR
onset: < 1hr duration: IR 3-4 hrs duration: CR: 12 hrs
48
Oxycodone dose PO
10-15 mg of oxycodone is equal to 10 mg Morphine
49
Protein binding of oxycodone
45%
50
T/F Oxycodone can only be given PO
F: can be giving both IV/ PO (PO most common)
51
T/F: oxycodone doesn't cause histamine release
F: oxycodone causes histamine release
52
This drug is a synthetic broad-spectrum opioid that has become the maintenance drug for opioid addiction due to its oral bioavailability (60-95%) high potency, and long duration of action
Methadone
53
What receptors does methadone work on?
weak non-competitive NMDA antagonist, serotonin reuptake inhibitor, monoamine transmitter reuptake inhibitor, and affinity for the mu- receptor
54
How is methadone metabolized and does it have an active metabolites?
metabolized by the liver CYP450 and only has inactive metabolites
55
What effect does carbamazepine have on methadone's metabolism?
carbamazepine (anticonvulsant/ (Tegretol®)* ) is a CYP450 inducer, so it lowers the concentration of the drug in the bloodstream
56
What effect do antiretroviral agents and grapefruit have on methadone's metabolism?
inhibit CYP45, so metabolism is reduced so the concentration of the drug is higher in the bloodstream
57
Does hepatic and renal impairment influence the clearance of methadone significantly?
No
58
Steady-state of methadone may take up to ____ days, dt extensive redistribution of the drug
10
59
The morphine/methadone equianalgesic ratio appears to be curvilinear: 3:1 at morphine doses < ___ mg/day 20:1 at morphine doses > ___ mg/day
3:1 at morphine doses < 100 mg/day 20:1 at morphine doses > 1000 mg/day
60
Methadone dose: PO/IM/SC
2.5-10 mg q4-12 hrs
61
Methadone has a high variable half-life pt to pt so dosing guidelines are unachievable. Half-life range: ___ - ____
8-80 hours “ * one time dose of 10 mg, you can guess about 12-24 hours of pain relief”
62
ciprofloxacin, diazepam, and ethanol (acute use) have what effect of methadone?
increase concentration/effect
63
Amprenavir, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampin (abx), MAOIs have what effect of methadone?
decrease concentration/effect MAOIs have an unpredictable reaction with MAOIs
64
Methadone S/E includes: 4
hypotension, respiratory depression, sedation, confusion
65
This medication rarely cause these side effects: pause-dependent dysrhythmia associated with bradycardia *, QT prolongation *, and torsades
methadone
66
____ is a phenylpiperidine-derivative synthetic opioid agonist that is structurally related to meperidine (demeral)
Fentanyl
67
This drug has high potency, rapid onset of action and short duration of action
fentanyl
68
Extensively metabolized by N-demethylation and produces ____, ____, ____
norfentanyl hydroxyproprionyl-fentanyl hydroxyproprionyl-norfentanyl
69
____ is the principal metabolite of fentanyl and is excreted by the kidneys
Norfentanyl and is structurally similar to normeperidine
70
This drug's elimination is slightly prolonged despite a short duration of action due to the _____ serving as a large inactive reservoir
Fentanyl lungs: large inactive reservoir
71
Why does fentanyl have a greater potency and more rapid onset compared to morphine?
lipid solubility Fentanyl is lipophilic while morphine is hydrophilic
72
Where does 75% of first-pass effect occur for fentanyl?
lungs
73
what is the % protein binding for fentanyl?
84%
74
____: is a semisynthetic drug and hydrogenated ketone of analogue of morphine and can be formed by N-demethylation of hydrocodone
Hydromorphone
75
this drug is an effective alternative to morphine for tx of moderate to severe pain. Available in PO, IV, and rectal
Hydromorphone
76
How much stronger is hydromorphone than morphine when administered orally?
3-5x stronger
77
How much stronger is hydromorphone than morphine when administered parenterally?
8.5x stronger
78
Hydromorphone is metabolized in the liver to ____
hydromorphone-3-glucuronide (active)
79
Does hydromorphone-3-glucuronide have analgesic effects?
No, it lacks analgesic effects but may be an active metabolite that potentiates neurotoxic effects: allodynia, myoclonus, and seizures luckily production of this product is low unless pt has renal insufficiency
80
Hydromorphone: Parenteral dose for postoperative pain ____ mg every ___ -___ mins, titrated to achieve a balance btw pain relief and respiratory depression
dose: 0.2 mg Q 3-5 mins
81
Duration of action for hydromorphone
3-4 hours (same of IR of oxycodone)
82
Oral dose of hydromorphone
2-8 mg
83
____ a semi-synthetic opioid which is a codeine derivative
hydrocodone
84
how much stronger is hydrocodone to codeine?
6-8x stronger
85
Hydrocodone is commonly paired with ______
acetaminophen
86
Norco concentration
Norco: 5mg hydrocodone w/ 325 mg tylenol
87
Vicodin concentration
Vicodin: 5mg hydrocodone w/ 500 mg tylenol
88
Lortab concentration
Lortab: 7.5mg hydrocodone w/ 325mg tylenol
89
This drug is the second most abused prescription behind oxycodone
hydrocodone
90
The liver metabolizes hydrocodone and produces 2 metabolites: ___ & ____
hydromorphone (active) Norhydrocodone (inactive)
91
30 mg of hydrocodone = ___ mg of morphine
10 mg of morphine
92
dose range of hydrocodone: ___ -____ mg hydrocodone w/ ___-___ mg of acetaminophen q4-6 hrs
2.5-10 mg of hydrocodone w/ 300-750 mg of acetaminophen 4g max tylenol in 24 hrs
93
These side effects are for what drug: meiosis, histamine release, pruritus, decreased hypercapnia drive/ RR, airway reflexes, bradycardia, hypotension, NV
hydrocodone
94
____: a semi-synthetic agonist-antagonist opioid derived from the opium alkaloid thebaine
Buprenorphine
95
Buprenorphine partial agonist @ __ receptor antagonist @ ___ receptor and a weak ___ receptor agonist
partial agonist @ mu receptor antagonist @ kappa receptor and a weak delta receptor agonist
96
T/F: Burprenorphine has less respiratory depression, less immune suppression, no accumulation in patients with renal function
True
97
What is Subutex
buprenorphine
98
What is the metabolite of buprenorphine?
Norbuprenorphine
99
What receptors do norbuprenorphine act on?
full agonist at mu, delta, and ORL-1 partial agonist at Kappa
100
Does Buprenorphine's metabolite have more or less effect on respiratory depression?
Norbuprenorphine has extremely little antinociceptive potency but markedly increased respiratory depression (10fold)
101
Buprenorphine ____ mg = 10 mg of morphine
0.3 mg
102
Oral administration of buprenorphine results in high first-pass metabolism and can be bypassed by sublingual sublingual administration --> onset of _____ mins duration of ___-___ hrs
sublingual onset: 30 mins duration 6-9 hrs
103
Does renal impairment affect the elimination of buprenorphine?
No mainly hepatic elimination so there is little risk of accumulation with renal impairment
104
This drug can be resistant to antagonism with naloxone
buprenorphine
105
other name for phenytoin
Dilantin
106
other name for carbamazepine
tegretol
107
other name for Topiramate
Topamax
108
other name for baclofen
lioresal
109
other name for carisoprodol
soma
110
other name for cyclobenzaprine
flexeril
111
other name for Methocarbamol
robaxin
112
other name for Tizanidine
Zanaflex
113
Opioid conversion: Morphine parenteral: 10 mg Oral:
Oral: 30 mg
114
Opioid conversion: Hydromorphone parenteral: 1.5 mg Oral:
Oral: 7.5 mg
115
Opioid conversion: Oxycodone Oral:
Oral: 20-30 mg* parenteral: ----
116
Opioid conversion: Codeine parenteral: 130 mg Oral:
Oral: 200 mg
117
Opioid conversion: Hydrocodone parenteral: ----- Oral:
parenteral: ----- Oral: 30 mg
118
Opioid conversion: Methadone parenteral: 1.5-2.5 Oral:
Oral: 3-5 mg
119
Opioid conversion: Fentanyl parenteral: oral: ----
parenteral: 0.1 mg oral: ----