Medical Surgical Nursing Flashcards
1- Estimate the burn size using the rule of nines, if the client burned at anterior chest, abdomen and left arm:
a) 27%
b) 36%
c) 9%
d) 18%
a) 27%
2- What is the main route of transmission of this hepatitis A virus:
a) Sexual contact
b) Fecal oral
c) Blood
d Milk product
b) Fecal oral
3- A nurse caring for a client with deep vein thrombosis must be especially alert for complications such as pulmonary embolism. Which findings suggest pulmonary embolism:
a) Nonproductive cough and abdominal pain
b) Hypertension and lack of fever
c) Bradypnea and bradycardia
d) Chest pain and dyspnea
d) Chest pain and dyspnea
4- A client is undergoing an extensive diagnostic workup for a suspected GI problem. The nurse discovers that the client has a family history of ulcer disease. Which blood type also is a risk factor for duodenal ulcers:
a) Type A
b) Type B
c) Type AB
d) Type O
d) Type O
5- The primary mode of transmission for hepatitis B is:
a) Sexual contact
b) The oral – fecal
c) Contaminated food or milk products
d) Blood
d) Blood
6- The pain associated with Myocardial Infarction (MI), is due to:
a) Impending circulatory collapse
b) Extracellular electrolyte imbalance
c) Left ventricular overload
d) Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscles
d) Insufficient oxygen reaching the heart muscles
7- Which of the following clinical manifestation would be an early and most sensitive indicator of deterioration in the client’s neurologic status?
a) Widening pulse pressure
b) Decrease in the pulse pressure
c) Otorrhea and rihnorrehea
d) Decrease in level of consciousness
d) Decrease in level of consciousness
8- All of the following may induce angina pectoris EXCEPT:
a) Light meal
b) Exposed for cold
c) Stress or emotion upset
d) Physical exercise
a) Light meal
9- Evaluation of the effectiveness of cardiac nitrates is based on:
a) Relief of angina pain
b) Decrease in blood pressure
c) Improved cardiac output
d) Dilation of superficial blood vessels
a) Relief of angina pain
10- Which of the following is a false statement in relation to ECG :
a) The P wave is represents depolarization of the atrium.
b) The QRS wave is represents repolarization of the ventricle.
c) The T wave follows the S wave and represents ventricular relaxation.
d) The U wave represents repolarization of purkinje fibers.
b) The QRS wave is represents repolarization of the ventricle.
12- All of the following is considered as a clinical manifestation of hypovolemia, EXCEPT:
a) Decrease skin turgor
b) Hypotension
c) Oliguria
d) Strong, rapid pulse
d) Strong, rapid pulse
13- Which if the following is/are complication of fluid therapy:
a) Hypotension
b) Circulatory overload
c) Allergic reaction
d) All of the above
b) Circulatory overload
14- All of the following considered as the most common life threatening complication for a patient with renal failure EXCEPT:
a) Acute pulmonary edema
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Metabolic alkalosis
d) Cardiac arrhythmia
c) Metabolic alkalosis
15- After patient return from barium swallow the nursing action include:
a) Increase fluid intake
b) Keep pt. N.P.O until pass stool
c) Complete bed rest
d) Assess the level of consciousness
b) Keep pt. N.P.O until pass stool
16- Which of the following does the liver require for the synthesis of prothrombin:
a) Vitamin B12
b) Vitamin D
c) Vitamin K
d) Ketones
c) Vitamin K
17- One of the functions of the gallbladder is:
a) Storage and production of bile
b) To store white blood cells
c) To produce vitamin D
d) To reabsorb bile salts
a) Storage and production of bile
18- Which of the following occupations is at greatest risk for contracting hepatitis B:
a) Flight attendants
b) Fire fighters
c) Health care workers
d) Educators
c) Health care workers
19- In a typical patient with cholecysitis, beside localized pain, in what other area might the patient report feeling pain:
a) Left upper arm
b) Neck or jaw
c) Lower abdomen
d) Right shoulder
d) Right shoulder
20- The patient has a gallstone blocking the bile duct. with what symptoms will the patient report feeling pain:
a) Increased bilirubin levels in the blood
b) Increase in appetite
c) Weight gain
d) Constipation
a) Increased bilirubin levels in the blood
21- In type II non-insulin diabetes mellitus (NIDDM), the patient demonstrates the following characteristics:
a) A need for insulin for life
b) Usually obesity at diagnosis
c) Islet cell antibodies
d) Decrease in insulin resistance
b) Usually obesity at diagnosis
22- The nurse teaches the newly diagnosed patient with diabetes mellitus that which of that which of the following guidelines will decrease the body’s need for insulin:
a) Sleep
b) Exercise
c) Stress
d) Low-fat diet
b) Exercise
23- Usually the first symptom associated with esophageal disease is:
a) Dysphagia
b) Pain
c) Malnutrition
d) Regurgitation
a) Dysphagia
24- The most common complication of peptic ulcer disease is:
a) Hemorrhage
b) Perforation
c) Intractable ulcer
d) Pyloric obstruction
b) Perforation
25- On physical examination the nurse should be looking for tenderness on palpation at Mc Burney’s point, which:
a) Left lower quadrant
b) Right lower quadrant
c) Left upper quadrant
d) Right upper quadrant
b) Right lower quadrant
26- A symptom or symptoms suggestive of acute appendicitis is/are:
a) Appositive rovsing
b) Increase abdominal pain with coughing
c) Tenderness around the umbilicus
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
27- Before a gastroscopy the nurses should inform the patient that:
a) He must fast for 6 to 8 hours before the exam
b) After gastroscopy, he will not be given anything to eat or drink until his gag reflex results
c) His throat will be sprayed with a local anesthetic
d) All of the above will be necessary
d) All of the above will be necessary
28- The purpose of the cilia is to:
a) Produce mucus
b) Contract smooth muscle
c) Phagocyte bacteria
d) Move the mucous
d) Move the mucous
29- Nursing responsibilities before the thoracentesis should include:
a) Encourage pt. to refrain coughing
b) Making sure that the pt. immobilized during the procedure
c) Seeing that the consent from has been explained and signed
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
30- Clinical manifestation of tonsillitis included:
a) Hypertrophy of tonsils
b) Repeated attacks of otitis media
c) Suspected hearing loss
d) All of the above
a) Hypertrophy of tonsils
31- The functional units of the kidneys are the:
a) Nephrons
b) Renal capsules
c) Renal pyramids
d) Convoluted tubules
a) Nephrons
32- An important function of the kidneys is:
a) Ammonia retention
b) Phosphate retention
c) Glucose elimination
d) Acid elimination
d) Acid elimination
33- A 73-year-old male patient has a urethral obstruction related to prostatic enlargement. The nurse is aware this may result in:
a) Urinary tract infection
b) Enuresis
c) Polyuria
d) Proteinuria
a) Urinary tract infection
34- A patient has asked the nurse what test the physician has ordered to measure the effectiveness of his or her renal function. Which is the appropriate response: a) Urine-specific gravity
b) Urine osmolality
c) Serum creatinine
d) Blood urea nitrogen to creatinine ratio
c) Serum creatinine
- A patient has asked the nurse what test the physician has ordered to measure
the effectiveness of his or her renal function. Which is the appropriate response:
a) Urine-specific gravity
b) Urine osmolality
c) Serum creatinine
d) Blood urea nitrogen to creatinine ratio
c
A male patient has a catheter, and the nurse suspects he has a bladder
infection. What may be the most likely cause of bladder infection in a patient
with a catheter :
a) Irrigation of the catheter
b) Maintenance of the closed drainage system
c) Emptying the Foley bag
d) Emptying the Foley bag without applying gloves
d
Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of Addison’s disease :
a) Truncal obesity
b) Hypertension
c) Muscle weakness
d) “Moon” face
c
Which of the following menu items would be the best source of iodine, which
supports the function of the thyroid:
a) Eggs
b) Strawberries
c) Table salt
d) Red meat
c
Nursing care for the patient with hypothyroidism would include which action
as a priority :
a) Encourage the patient to participate in activities as tolerated .
b) Keep the patient’s room temperature cool
c Provide frequent high-calorie meals
d) Teach about alcohol and stimulants
a
The nurse teaches the patient who is prescribed corticosteroid therapy that:
a) Her diet should be low protein with ample fat
b) There will be no change in appearance
c) She is at an increased risk for developing infection
d) She is at a decreased risk for development of thrombophlebitis and
thromboembolism
c
Which of the following proteins, common to the epidermis, is believed to play
a significant role in forming the outer barrier of the skin:
a) Keratin cells
b) Melanocytes
c) Merkel cells
d) Langerhans’ cells
a
What makes up the largest portion of the skin:
a) Rete ridges
b) Epidermis
c) Dermis
d) Subcutaneous tissue
c
In a 75-year-old woman with a diagnosis of a CVA, which of the following
nursing assessments is indicative of a CVA :
a) Facial droop
b) Facial edema
c) Increase in blood pressure
d) Noncompliance with the treatment regimen
c
The electrical conduction of the heart usually originates in the SA node.
Which of the following sequences completes the conduction:
a) SA node to Bundle of HIS to AV node to Purkinjie fibers
b) SA node to AV node to Purkinjie fibers to Bundle of HIS
c) SA node to bundle of HIS to Purkinjie fibers to AV node
d) SA node to AV node to bundle of HIS to Purkinjie fibers
d
A patient is diagnosed as having damage to the layer of the heart responsible
for the pumping action. The nurse is aware the damage is in the:
a) Endocardium
b) Pericardium
c) Myocardium
d) Visceral pericardium
c
- A nurse finds the patient’s systolic pressure as 122 mm Hg and the diastolic
pressure as 75 mm Hg. The pulse pressure would be:
a) 57
b) 60
c) 54
d) 47
d
- An adult patient has damage to the electrical conduction of the ventricles of
the heart. The nurse would expect to see changes in the:
a) P wave
b) U wave
c) QRS complex
d) T wave
c
- The most appropriate intervention for the nurse to take when a patient
develops chest pain related to angina is:
a) To discontinue the oxygen if in use
b) To have the patient walk to see if pain is relieved with activity
c) To have the patient sit or rest immediately
d) To remove the nitroglycerin patch immediately
c
- A patient with CHF is displaying symptoms such as dry hacking cough,
fatigue, and a slight increase in today’s weight. The most appropriate position
for the patient to be placed in is:
a) Supine
b) Low Fowler’s
c) High Fowlers with feet dangling
d) Left lateral
b
Which of the following defines orthopnea:
a) Difficulty ambulating
b) Difficulty breathing with movement
c) Difficulty breathing while sitting upright
d) Difficulty in breathing when lying flat
d
- The most reliable sign of cardiac arrest is :
a) Absence of pulse
b) Absence of breathing
c) Unconsciousness
d) ECG
a
The target goal for patient’s blood pressure when being treated for
hypertension is:
a) 140/90 or lower.
b) 165/90 or lower.
c) 130/100 or lower.
d) 150/80or lower.
a
Treatment of scurvy :
a) Vit.b supplement.
b) Vit.c supplement.
c) Iron supplement.
d) Vit a supplement.
b
All of the following are etiologic factors of fluid volume deficit except:
a) Vomiting.
b) Diarrhea.
c) Renal failure.
d) Excessive sweating.
c
All of the following are complications postoperatively except:
a) Hemorrhage.
b) Tonsillitis.
c) Wound infection.
d) Pain.
b
- All of the following are clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess except:
a) Edema.
b) Oliguria.
c) Distended neck veins.
d) Increase CVP.
b
All of the following nursing actions during postoperative nursing care except:
a) Observe incisional site.
b) Remove hairpins.
c) Remove jewelry and prostheses.
d) Assess all vital signs.
a
- Signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock are all of the following except:
a) Tachycardia.
b) Hypertension.
c) Pallor and cyanosis.
d) Tachypnea
b
- Which of the following is a form of radiography:
a) Fluoroscopy.
b) Contrast medium.
c) C.T scan.
d) All of the above
d
- The examination that indicates physical inspection of the vagina and cervix
with palpation of uterus and ovaries is called:
a) A pap test.
b) Electrocardiography.
c) Pelvic examination.
d) Paracentesis.
c
Procedure that involves the insertion of needle between lumbar vertebra in
the spine but below the spinal cord itself is called:
a) Lumbar puncture.
b) Paracentesis.
c) Pelvic examination.
d) Electromyography.
a
A patient is prepared for hemodialysis he receive heparin before therapy
primarily to which of the following:
a) Relieve discomfort.
b) Prevent blood clotting.
c) Maintain blood pressure.
d) stimulate the production of urine.
b
Which of the following conditions doesn’t predispose to development renal
failure:
a) Mismatched blood transfusion.
b) Severe dehydration.
c) Septicemia.
d) Cerebrovascular accident (CVA).
d
Which of the following terms refers to disorder characterized by
“proteinuria, edema, hypoalbuminemia, and hyperlipidemia “:
a) Pyelonephritis.
b) Intestinal cystitis.
c) Nephritic syndrome.
d) Glomerulonephritis.
c
After IVP the nurse should anticipate incorporating which of the following
measures into the client plan of care:
a) Maintaining bed res.
b) Encouraging adequate fluid intake.
c) Assessing hematuria.
d) Administering laxative
b
Patients who are receiving hemodialysis for ESRD(end stage renal failure)
are especially prone to develop:
a) Peritonitis.
b) Renal calculi.
c) Bladder infection.
d) Serum hepatitis.
d
The nurse should instruct the female to reduce the recurrent UTI as the
following:
a) Cleanse around perineum with front to back.
b) Wash genetalia with tub bath.
c) Drink a little amount of fluid.
d) Non of the above.
a
- Patient with head trauma should have all of the following treatment except:
a) IV line catheter.
b) IV fluid.
c) Sedatives.
d) Oxygen.
c
- Perioperative period means:
a) Total period before surgery.
b) Total period after surgery.
c) Total period of “ before, during, after “.
d) Non of the above
c
In case of bacterial meningitis the CSF examination will be:
a) Low protein level.
b) Low glucose level.
c) Clear appearance.
d) Decrease CSF pressure.
b
In case of viral meningitis the CSF examination will be:
a) Low protein level.
b) Low glucose level.
c) Clear appearance.
d) Decrease CSF pressure
a
- All of the following are potential complications of meningitis except:
a) Seizures.
b) Cerebral infarction or abscess.
c) Myocardial infarction.
d) Subdural effusion
c
All of the following clinical manifestation of acute glomerulonephritis except:
a) Brown colored urine.
b) Weight loss.
c) Malaise.
d) Hypertension
b
- Kerning’s sign is a manifestation of:
a) William’s tumer encephalitis.
b) Acute rheumatic fever.
c) Encephalitis.
d) Meningitis.
d
The nurse is expecting fracture of bone for patient the sign would be all
except:
a) Absence of normal activity.
b) Tenderness.
c) Loss of sensation.
d) All of the above
c
ECG is done to the patient with chest to assess:
a) Stress of heart rate.
b) Change of the rhythm.
c) The decreased blood supply to particular part of the heart.
d) All of the above
d
Health teaching to a diabetic patient will be on:
a) Diet, oral hypoglycemic agents, weight loss, and feeding.
b) Diet, insulin, exercise, and feeding.
c) Diet, hypoglycemic agents, exercise, and feeding.
d) About complications.
c
Reacting to penicillin:
a) Anaphylactic shock.
b) Vomiting
c) Nausea
d) Non of the above
a
- Cystitis patient should be encouraged to pass urine:
a) 2-3 hours.
b) 2-3 hourly and 2 times at night.
c) 2-3 times around the clock.
d) Anyone of above according to patient’s schedule.
a
