fundamentals of nursing

Question 1

Dyspnea is defined as:

Answer 1

Difficult respiration

Question 2

Mr. Ahmed age 53, her pulse rate is found to be 52 per minute. Her heart rate could be described as :

Answer 2

Bradycardia

Question 3

The condition in which a person is aware of his or her own heart contraction without having to feel the pulse is called:

Answer 3

Palpitation

Question 4

When you assess the respiratory rate for the patient, you should do all of the following except:
a) Instruct the patient to breath in and out from his mouth.
b) Count each inspiration followed by expiration as one breath.
c) Make sure that the patient is not aware that you are counting his respiratory rate.
d) Count the respiratory rate for 30 seconds.

Answer 4

Instruct the patient to breath in and out from his mouth.

Question 5

Cyanosis is blue colour of skin, is caused by:

Answer 5

Low tissue oxygenation

Question 6

To examine the ear canal of the child, this is done by:

Answer 6

Pull the ear down and back

Question 7

The advantage of use head to toe approach when you assess the patient:

Answer 7

It helps to prevent overlooking some aspect of data collection

Question 8

Discharge planning for hospitalised patient begins:

Answer 8

From the first day of admission

Question 9

Instrument which is used to examine the eye structure is called:

Answer 9

Ophthalmoscope

Question 10

Abnormal skin color which indicates yellowish color is called:

Answer 10

Jaundice

Question 11

A pattern in which the nursing personnel divide the patient into groups and complete their care together is called:

Answer 11

Team nursing

Question 12

Which of the following is considered as subjective data:
a) Anxiety
b) Skin color
c) Height
d) Temperature

Answer 12

Anxiety

Question 13

The term used to describe blood in the urine:

Answer 13

Hematuria

Question 14

The physician has ordered an indwelling urinary catheter inserted in a hospitalised patient, the nurse is aware that:
a) The procedure requires surgical asepsis
b) Lubricant not needed for catheter insertion
c) Smaller catheters are used for male catheter
d) Normally a clean technique is required for catheter insertion

Answer 14

The procedure requires surgical asepsis

Question 15

The normal colour of urine is:

Answer 15

Light yellow

Question 16

Diarrhoea is best described by its

Answer 16

Consistency

Question 17

When a person has a fever or diaphoresis, the urine output will be which of the following :
a) Increased and diluted
b Increased and concentrated
c) Decreased and highly diluted
d) Decreased and highly concentrated

Answer 17

Decreased and highly concentrated

Question 18

Medication is instilled between the skin & the muscle and used to administer Heparin:

Answer 18

Subcutaneous

Question 19

The angle of the syringe and needle for intramuscular injections is:

Answer 19

90 degrees

Question 20

Is the term used to administered undiluted medication quickly into a vein:

Answer 20

Bolus

Question 21

A primary concern when giving heparin subcutaneously (S.C) to prevent bleeding is:

Answer 21

Don’t make massage on the injection site

Question 22

When administering medication via nasogastric tube, clamp tube for at least:

Answer 22

One half hours after instilling medication to allow for absorption

Question 23

To ensure that medications are prepared and administered correctly, the nurse should:

Answer 23

Use the five rights

Question 24

The nurse chooses to inject a prescribed intramuscular medication into the Ventrogluteal site. If the nurse selects the site correctly, the injection is administered into the:

Answer 24

Hip

Question 25

500 mg of a drug is order. It is supplied in tablets of 1 gm per tablet. How many tablets should be administered:

Answer 25

0.5 tablet

Question 26

The doctor order is 300 cc of normal saline solution, to be finished within 4 hours, how many drop/min you will regulate this IV (drop factor is 20 drop/minute):

Answer 26

25 drop/min

Question 27

All of the following is used Central Venous Catheter, EXCEPT:
a) Clients require long term IV medication
b) IV medications are irritating to peripheral veins
c) Clients require short term IV medication
d) Difficult to insert peripheral catheter

Answer 27

c) Clients require short term IV medication

Question 28

In case of kerosene poisoning the best management is:

Answer 28

Give the patient water or milk to dilute the kerosene

Question 29

One of your patients complains of difficulty of breathing, all of the following measurement which help improve breathing EXCEPT:
a) Put your patient in semi- fowler’s position
b) Teach patient breathing techniques
c) Put the patient in prone position
d) Give oxygen therapy

Answer 29

Put the patient in prone position

Question 30

A pre-operative check list form that should be completed before surgery, it should be including which of the following:
a) The surgical consent form
b) All laboratory test
c) Vital Signs
d) All of above

Answer 30

d) All of above

Question 31

The process of removing poisonous substance through gastric intubation is called:

Answer 31

Gastric Lavage

Question 32

During the inflammation process, which of the following characteristics occur first:
a) Swelling
b) Pain
c) Redness
d) Decreased functioning

Answer 32

c) Redness

Question 33

Of the following, which is the earliest signs of excessive pressure:
a) Pale appearance of the skin
b) Reddened appearance of the skin
c) Ulcer formation on the skin
d) Dark or cyanotic color to the skin

Answer 33

b) Reddened appearance of the skin

Question 34

To prevent formation of thrombi postoperatively patient, the nurse should:

Answer 34

Teach foot and leg exercises

Question 35

Paracentesis is best described as:

Answer 35

The removal of body fluid from the abdominal cavity

Question 36

Which of the following is used to determine the activity of the brain:
a) Electrocardiography
b) Electromyography
c) Electroencephalography
d) Echocardiography

Answer 36

c) Electroencephalography

Question 37

An infection that the patient acquires in the hospital is called:

Answer 37

A nosocomial infection

Question 38

The nursing activity most likely to prevent the clogging of a nasogastric feeding tube is :

Answer 38

Flushing the tubing with water and clamping it after each feeding

Question 39

If a nasogastric tube has been misplaced in the trachea during preparation to obtain a gastric specimen, the nurse should anticipate that the patient will:

Answer 39

Have difficulty breathing

Question 40

When planning Mr. Asem care (50 years) who demonstrates difficulty in breathing. Which of the following positions is most appropriate:
a) On either side
b) Flat on his back
c) On his abdomen
d) Fowler’s position

Answer 40

d) Mid-Fowler’s position

Question 41

When an order reads a drug be administered t.i.d, how often should this drug be given:

Answer 41

Three times a day

Question 42

The following manifestations are commonly associated with a fever, EXCEPT:
a) Headache
b) Pinkish and red skin color
c) Bradycardia
d) Convulsions in infants and child

Answer 42

Bradycardia

Question 43

Dorsal recumbent position is used when performing the following procedures EXCEPT:
a) Suppository insertion
b) Cystoscopic examination
c) Urinary catheter insertion
d) Vaginal examination

Answer 43

Suppository insertion

Question 44

All of the following would be expected symptoms of CHF EXCEPT:
a) Rapid, shallow, difficult breathing
b) Pyuria
c) Peripheral edema
d) Pulmonary congestion

Answer 44

Pyuria

Question 45

If a vial of Gentamicin contains 80 mg in 2 ml, the physician order is 16 mg every 8 hr., the nurse should give every time:

Answer 45

0.4 ml

Question 46

Blood and urine analysis confirm a diagnosis of salicylate overdose. The client is treated with gastric lavage. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for the client during this procedure:
a) Lateral
b) Trendlenburg
c) Supine
d) Lithotomy

Answer 46

a) Lateral

Question 47

All of the followings are laboratory data indicating infection except:
a) Increase of specific type of leukocyte.
b) Increase of body temperature
c) Decrease of WBC.
d) Positive culture of blood, urine, or sputum.

Answer 47

c) Decrease of WBC.

Question 48

All of the followings are signs of systemic infection except:
a) Fever
b) Vomiting
c) Fatigue and loss of energy
d) Enlargement and tenderness of the lymph nodes.

Answer 48

b) Vomiting

Question 49

All of the followings are etiologies of self care deficit except:
a) Scars and abrasions.
b) Activity intolerance and weakness.
c) Mental impairment.
d) Visual impairment.

Answer 49

a) Scars and abrasions.

Question 50

Skin turgor is:

Answer 50

Elasticity by lifting and pulling the skin on an extremity

Question 51

Which of the following conditions indicate long term lack of oxygen:
a) Koilonychias
b) Capillary refill
c) Clubbing fingers
d) Non of the above

Answer 51

c) Clubbing fingers

Question 52

Pressure ulcers risk factors include:
a) Immobility and inactivity
b) Fecal and urinary incontinence
c) Decreased mental status
d) all the above

Answer 52

all the about

Question 53

Complications of wound healing include:
a) Hematoma
b) Nausea
c) Hypertension
d) All of the above

Answer 53

a) Hematoma

Question 54

he patient should fast (NPO) before the surgery for:

Answer 54

6-8 hours

Question 55

Scrub nurse role include:
a) Assist the surgeon
b) Draping the client with sterile draps
c) Handle sterile equipments and supplies
d) All of the above

Answer 55

all the above

Question 56

Deep breathings and coughing exercises in postoperative phase are important for:

Answer 56

Prevent atelectasis

Question 57

Which of the following vital signs are normal:
a) Temp: 37 RR:22 HR:90 BP:135/85
b) Temp: 36.7 RR:18. HR:75 BP:125/80
c) Temp: 38. RR:12 HR:110. BP:155/90
d) Temp: 37.2 RR:16. HR:50. BP:115/65

Answer 57

b) Temp: 36.7 RR:18. HR:75 BP:125/80

Question 58

Nurse can provide care for:
a) Individual
b) Families
c) Communities
d) All of the above

Answer 58

d) All of the above

Question 59

Nursing can be defined as:
a) Caring
b) Science and art
c) Holistic
d) All of the above

Answer 59

all the above

Question 60

Example of health promotion:
a) Immunization
b) Direct care
c) Stop cigarette smoking
d) All of the above are correct

Answer 60

c) Stop cigarette smoking

Question 61

Health is defined as

Answer 61

A state of complete physical, mental, social, and spiritual wellbeing not merely absence of disease or infirmity

Question 62

Which phase of nursing process the nurse collect data about the client:

Answer 62

assessment

Question 63

Chief complain includes:
a) Immunization and childhood illness
b) Hobbies and sleep patterns
c) Risk factor for certain disease
d) The answer is given to question “what brought you to the hospital”

Answer 63

The answer is given to question “what brought you to the hospital”

Question 64

The chief complain should record using:

Answer 64

patient words

Question 65

Nursing diagnosis is:

Answer 65

A statement that describes actual and potential health problems.

Question 66

The nursing diagnosis include all of the following except: a) Problem
b) Time
c) Sign
d) Etiology

Answer 66

b) Time

Question 67

Hyperthermia is:

Answer 67

body temperature above 40.6 degrees

Question 68

All of the followings are clinical signs of fever except:
a) Palled
b) Shivering
c) Decrease thirst
d) Increase heart rate

Answer 68

c) Decrease thirst

Question 69

All of the followings factors increase respiratory rate except:
a) Decrease temperature
b) Stress
c) Exercise
d) Increase altitude

Answer 69

a) Decrease temperature

Question 70

The most safe and non invasive site to measure the temperature is:

Answer 70

Auxiliary site

Question 71

The difference between the rectal and auxiliary temperature is:

Answer 71

1 c

Question 72

The term “Tachycardia” means:

Answer 72

Heart rate above 100 bpm

Question 73

Hyperventilation is :

Answer 73

Deep respiration

Question 74

Hemoptysis is:

Answer 74

Blood in the sputum

Question 75

All of the following are normally present in the urine except:
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Albumin
d) Sodium

Answer 75

Albumin

Question 76

Apnea is a medical term means

Answer 76

stop breathing

Question 77

When blood sugar level is above normal this means the patient has:

Answer 77

Hyperglycemia

Question 78

The most important thing should be done after any nursing action is:

Answer 78

documentation

Question 79

All of the followings are assessment sites for body temperature except:
a) Oral site
b) Rectal site
c) Axillary site
d) Apical

Answer 79

d) Apical

Question 80

Mr. ashraf 35 years old his pulse rate found 120 bpm his heart rate could be described:

Answer 80

b) Tachycardia

Question 81

Which of the following factors are affecting body temperature:
a) Food intake
b) Age and gende
c) Climate
d) All of the above

Answer 81

All of the above

Question 82

Normal heart rate to the newborn is:

Answer 82

120-160

Question 83

The condition in which body temperature is above normal is called:

Answer 83

fever

Question 84

Which of the following best describes the technique of palpitation:
a) The use of sense of hearing to listen for sounds.
b) The use of tapping on particular part of body to produce sound.
c) The use of the senses to evaluate general appearance of patient.
d) The sense of touch to feel the body by slight or deep pressure.

Answer 84

d) The sense of touch to feel the body by slight or deep pressure.

Question 85

Inhalation or inspiration means:

Answer 85

breathing in

Question 86

Normal body temperature ranging from:

Answer 86

37.4 - 35.8

Question 87

Pulse pressure is defined as which of the following:
a) Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
b) Expansion of the artery as blood move through it.
c) Difference between arterial and venous pressure.
d) Difference between venous and systolic pressure.

Answer 87

a) Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.

Question 88

Sleep is defined as:

Answer 88

A state of arousable unconsciousness.

Question 89

Unoccupied bed making means:

Answer 89

Changing linen when the bed is empty.

Question 90

The normal blood pressure for adult person include:

Answer 90

120/80 mmhg

Question 91

The most accurate time for measuring pulse rate is:

Answer 91

60 seconds

Question 92

Normal respiratory rate per minute in adult is ranging from:

Answer 92

12-20 breaths/minute

Question 93

Practices that promote health through personal cleanliness is called:

Answer 93

Hygiene

Question 94

All of the followings are therapeutic bathes except:
a) Shampooing bath
b) Whirlpool bath
c) Medicated bath
d) Sitz bath

Answer 94

a) Shampooing bath

Question 95

Orthopnea is;
a) Breathing facilitated by sitting or standing up.
b) Absence of breathing.
c) Rapid breathing
d) Difficult breathing

Answer 95

Breathing facilitated by sitting or standing up.

Question 96

Which of the following is considered as benefits of bathing:
a) Improving self image
b) Eliminating body odor
c) Stimulating circulation
d) All of the above

Answer 96

d) All of the above

Question 97

The patient is reclining on back with the feet are elevated in metal support this position is called:

Answer 97

Lithotomy position

Question 98

Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide when taking air in and out of the chest:

Answer 98

Respiration

Question 99

Ventilation means:

Answer 99

Movement of air in and out of the chest

Question 100

All of the followings are common factors that invalidated examinations or test results except:
a) Inadequate specimen volume.
b) Failure to send the specimen in a timely manner.
c) Correct diet preparation.
d) Insufficient bowel cleaning.

Answer 100

Correct diet preparation.

Question 101

All of the followings are physical assessment techniques except:
a) Inspection
b) Percussion
c) Puncturing
d) Palpation

Answer 101

c) Puncturing

Question 102

2- Which of the following physical assessment techniques are most commonly
used in nursing procedures:
a) Inspection
b) Percussion
c) Auscultation
d) Palpation

Answer 102

a) Inspection

Question 103

All of the following are post procedural nursing responsibilities except:
a) The nurse has to attend the patient for comfort and rest
b) Care of specimen
c) Assist the examiner
d) record and report the information.

Answer 103

c) Assist the examiner

Question 104

• Another name for stone in urinary tract:
  a) Calix
  b) Calculus
  c) Calcemia
  d) Calcitoni

Answer 104

b) Calculus

Question 105

Urine that remains in patient’s bladder after he voids is called:
a) Reflux urine
b) Over flow urine
c) Retention urine
d) Residual urine

Answer 105

Residual urine

Question 106

For the normal person the urine specific gravity is ranged between:
a) 1.000 - 1.010
b) 1.015 - 1.025
c) 1.025 - 1.050
d) 1.050 - 1.070

Answer 106

b) 1.015 - 1.025

Question 107

Which of the following term is used to indicate total urine output of less
than 50 ml in 24 hours:
a) Anuria
b) Oliguria
c) Dysuria
d) Polyuria

Answer 107

a) Anuria

Question 108

• The name of procedure for the removal of urinary bladder stones is:
  a) Cystolithiasis
  b) Cystolithectomy
  c) Cystometry
  d) Cystoextractio

Answer 108

b) Cystolithectomy

Question 109

• Insertion of tube through the nose into stomach called:
  a) Orogastric intubation
  b) Nasogastric intubation
  c) Nasointestinal intubation
  d) Transabdominal tube

Answer 109

b) Nasogastric intubation

Question 110

• Lavage is:
  a) Giving nourishment by tube
  b) Surgical opening in the stomach
  c) Removing substances from the stomach
  d) Non of the abov

Answer 110

c) Removing substances from the stomach

Question 111

All of the following are abnormal color of urine except:
a) Urine has no color
b) Bright red color
c) Light yellow
d) Light green

Answer 111

Light yellow

Question 112

Urinary elimination process means:
a) The process of reabsorption of water and minerals in the kidneys
b) The process of urine collection of human bladder
c) The process of releasing excess fluid and wastes
d) The process of urine assessment by lab technician

Answer 112

The process of releasing excess fluid and wastes

Question 113

• Measurement of NGT as:
  a) From neck to nose to epigastric region
  b) From shoulder to nose to zephoid process
  c) From ear to nose to zephoid process
  d) From mouth to nose to zephoid proces

Answer 113

From ear to nose to zephoid process

Question 114

Pain transmission begins by stimulating of:
a) Nerve plexus
b) Nerve receptors
c) Spinal cord
d) Skin

Answer 114

b) Nerve receptors

Question 115

• Normal blood PH range from:
  a) 7.25 - 7.30
  b) 6.40 - 7
  c) 7.75 - 8
  d) 7.35 - 7.45

Answer 115

d) 7.35 - 7.45

Question 116

• Promotion of oxygenation can be occur by:
  a) Maintain airway open
  b) Positioning (sitting or fowler)
  c) Oxygen supply
  d) Breathing techniques
  e) All of the above
  f) Non of the above

Answer 116

e) All of the above

Question 117

All of the following factors are considered when selecting a syringe and
needle except:
a) Depth of the tissue
b) Family history
c) Type of the drug
d) Size of the patient

Answer 117

b) Family history

Question 118

All of the following route of administration considered parentral routs
except:
a) Intradermal
b) IV
c) SC
d) Otic
e) Intra joint
f) Ophthalmic
g) Both d and f

Answer 118

g) Both d and f

Question 119

• IV bolus administration means:
  a) Give drug IV in short period
  b) Give drug IV in a long period
  c) Give drug IV by infusion
  d) Give drug IV quickly without dilution

Answer 119

d) Give drug IV quickly without dilution

Question 120

Z – Track technique used in:
a) Deep intramuscular injection
b) Irritant drugs
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b

Answer 120

c) Both a and b

Question 121

All of the following IM injection sites except:
a) Dorsogluteal
b) Forearm
c) Ventrogluteal
d) Vastus lateralis
e) Deltoid

Answer 121

b) Forearm

Question 122

The patient lying face down:
a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Fowler
d) Lateral

Answer 122

b) Prone

Question 123

Which of the following is an objective data:
a) Chest pain
b) Dizziness
c) Blue nails
d) Anxiety

Answer 123

Blue nails

Question 124

Consider as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature:
making:
a) Oral
b) Rectal
c) Axillary
d) Tympany

Answer 124

c) Axillary

Question 125

It is the most single important procedure to prevent cross contamination:
a) Cleaning
b) Disinfecting
c) Sterilizing
d) Hand washing

Answer 125

d) Hand washing

Question 126

Normal saline solution is considered which of the following:
a) Isotonic solution
b) Hypotonic
c) Hypertonic
d) Non of the above

Answer 126

a) Isotonic solution

Question 127

The best example for nursing order:
a) Encourage fluid
b) Change patient position every 2 hours
c) Provide oral fluid
d) All of above

Answer 127

d) All of above

Question 128

All of the following signs of hypoxia except:
a) Rapid pulse
b) Cyanosis
c) Rapid shallow respiration
d) Diarrhea

Answer 128

Diarrhea

Question 129

Hypercabnia is:
a) Bluish discoloration of the skin nails beds and mucosal membrane
b) Inadequate alveolar ventilation can lead to hypoxia
c) Accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood
d) Slow respiration rate

Answer 129

c) Accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood

Question 130

Which position allow maximum chest expansion:
a) Prone
b) Semifowler
c) Supine
d) Lateral

Answer 130

b) Semifowler

Question 131

which of the following its the major function is provide energy supply:
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Fats
d) Minerals

Answer 131

b) Carbohydrates

Question 132

What does number 18 mean in BMI (body mass index):
a) Under weight
b) Morbidity obese
c) Malnourished
d) Normal

Answer 132

a) Under weight

Question 133

Constipation is:
a) Fewer than 5 bowel movements per week
b) Fewer than 3 bowel movements per week
c) Passage of liquid feces and increase frequency of defecation.
d) Air or gas in the GI tract

Answer 133

b) Fewer than 3 bowel movements per week

Question 134

• Oliguria is:
  a) Production of abnormally large amounts of urine by kidneys
  b) Lack of urine production with no effective urine production
  c) Voiding either painful or difficult
  d) Low urine output usually less than 500ml a day or 30ml in an hour

Answer 134

d) Low urine output usually less than 500ml a day or 30ml in an hour

Question 135

All of the following are normal characteristics of urine except:
a) Volume 1200-1500ml per day.
b) Straw color
c) Sterile, with no microorganisms
d) Cloudy

Answer 135

d) Cloudy

Question 136

The preferred site for IM injection is:
a) Ventrogluteal site
b) Vastus lateralis
c) Dorsogluteal site
d) Deltoid muscle

Answer 136

a) Ventrogluteal site

Question 137

The intentional wound is:
a) Occurring during therapy
b) Occur accidently
c) The mucus membrane or skin surface is broken
d) The tissue is traumatized without break in the skin

Answer 137

a) Occurring during therapy

Question 138

The abrasion is:
a) Open wound involving the skin only
b) It is due to surface scrape
c) Its painful wound
d) All of the above

Answer 138

d) All of the above

Question 139

All of the followings are risk factors for nosocomial infection except:
a) Poor hand washing
b) Using a sterile techniques
c) Contamination of closed drainage system
d) Improper procedure technique (dressing, suctioning, catheterization)

Answer 139

b) Using a sterile techniques

Question 140

Medical asepsis includes:
a) Hand washing
b) Personal protective equipments
c) Cleaning, disinfecting, sterilizing
d) All of the above

Answer 140

d) All of the above

Question 141

Acute infection is :
a) Infection may occur slowly and takes long time
b) Is limited to specific part of the body where microorganism remain
c) Infection appear suddenly and in short time
d) When microorganisms spread and damage different parts of the body

Answer 141

c) Infection appear suddenly and in short time

Question 142

Indirect transmission of infection include:
a) Vehicle born transmission
b) Vector born transmission
c) Neither a nor b
d) A and B are correct

Answer 142

) A and B are correct

Question 143

ncubation period of infection:
a) Person is most infectious and non specific sign and symptoms
b) Organisms are growing and multiplying
c) Recovery from infection
d) Presence of specific signs and symptoms

Answer 143

Organisms are growing and multiplying

Question 144

During a retention catheter or bladder irrigation the nurse must use:
a) Sterile equipment & wear sterile gloves
b) Clean equipment & maintain surgical asepsis
c) Sterile equipment &maintain medical asepsis
d) Clean equipment & technique

Answer 144

c) Sterile equipment &maintain medical asepsis

Question 145

The millimeters of drug that should be used to give 0.5 gm if the label on the
bottle reads 5 gm in 10 ml is:
a) 2.0
b) 1.0
c) 0.5
d) 5.0

Answer 145

b) 1.0

Question 146

Robert Reinhold , a construction worker , is seen in the ER with low blood
pressure , normal pulse , cool skin temperature and weakness . these are clinical
signs of:
a) Heat exhaustion
b) Heat stroke
c) Heat cramp
d) Hypothermia

Answer 146

d) Hypothermia

Question 147

Which of the following would be an appropriate site for taking a pulse on 2-
year -old
a) Redial
b) Apical
c) Brachial
d) Femoral

Answer 147

c) Brachial

Question 148

If measuring BP were necessary in the leg . the nurse would expect the
diastolic pressure to be:
a) 10-40 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
b) 20_30 mmhg lower than in the brachial artery
c) 50 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
d) Essentially the same as that in the brachial artery

Answer 148

d) Essentially the same as that in the brachial artery

Question 149

The nurse could best auscultator the point of maximum impulse PMI in 8
years old at the:
a) Furth intercostals space , left of midclavicular line
b) Fifth intercostals space , left of midclavicular line
c) Second intercostals space , right of midclavicular line
d) Third intercostals space , left of midclavicular line

Answer 149

b) Fifth intercostals space , left of midclavicular line

Question 150

Mrs. Jarrett has abdominal pain of unknown origin, during the abdominal
examination , which of the following is most accurate:
a) The palpitation should be performed first
b) Auscultation is best done with Mrs. Jarrett in the sitting position
c) Bowel sounds should be heard by examining each quadrant for 3 _ 5 minutes
d) Paralytic ileus would result in low, growling sound

Answer 150

a) The palpitation should be performed first

Question 151

The nurse employs surgical aseptic technique when:
a) Placing soiled linen in moisture resistant bags
b) Inserting an intravenous catheter
c) Disposing of syringes in puncture proof containers
d) Washing hands before changing a dressing

Answer 151

b) Inserting an intravenous catheter

Question 152

Which of the following could contribute to causing a nosocomial infection:
a) Washing hands before applying a dressing.
b) Taping a plastic bag to the bed rail for tissue disposal
c) Placing a Foley bag on the bed when transferring a client
d) Using butadiene to cleans the skin before starting an IV line

Answer 152

b) Taping a plastic bag to the bed rail for tissue disposal

Question 153

• Mr. walls has allergy abdominal incision that requires a dressing . the
  incision is packed with half inch iodoform packing (soaked in butadiene) and
  covered with a dry sterile 4 by 4 inch gauze. when changing the dressing , the
  nurse accidentally drops the packing onto the client’s abdomen. the nurse
  should:

Answer 153

b) Throw the paking away and prepare a new one

Question 154

The overall rule for avoiding accidents with equipment in the hospital is for
the nurse to:
a) Always lock wheels
b) Never operate equipment without prior instruction
c) Always unplug equipment when moving the client
d) Never use equipment without a person to assist you

Answer 154

c) Always unplug equipment when moving the client

Question 155

Jessica , age 4 years , is scheduled to receive an IV line the most appropriate
type of restraint to use on Jessica to prevent her from trying to remove the IV
line would be a
a) Wrist restraint
b) Jacket restraint
c) Elbow restraint
d) Mummy restraint

Answer 155

a) Wrist restraint

Question 156

The workmen cause an electrical fire when installing a new piece of
equipment in the intensive care unit . Mr. Richey is on a ventilator on the next
room . the first action the nurse should take is to:
a) Attempt to extinguish the fire
b) Pull the alarm
c) Call the physician to obtain orders to take Mr. Richey off the ventilator
d) Use an ambo bag & remove Mr. Richey from the are

Answer 156

d) Use an ambo bag & remove Mr. Richey from the area

Question 157

Two nurses are standing on opposite side of the bed to move Mr. Chatrowx
up in bed with a draw sheet. where should the nurses be standing in relation with
Mr. chatrowx’s body as they prepare to move him:
a) Even with his thorax
b) Even with his shoulders
c) Even with his hips
d) Even with his knees

Answer 157

Even with his shoulders

Question 158

The nurse notes a client’s skin is redden with a small abrasion and serous
fluid present . the nurse would classify this stage of ulcer formation as:
a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4

Answer 158

Stage 2

Question 159

When turning a client , the nurse notices a reddened area on the coccyx.
what skin care interventions should the nurse use on this area:
a) Clean & dry the area & add a protective moisturizer
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Normal saline solution
d) Povidon-iodine

Answer 159

a) Clean & dry the area & add a protective moisturizer

Question 160

The nurse prepares to irrigate Mrs. Notz’s wound . the primary reason for
this procedure is to:
a) Remove debris from the wound.
b) Decrease scar formation.
c) Improve circulation to the wound.
d) Decrease irritation from wound drainage.

Answer 160

a) Remove debris from the wound.

Question 161

• Mr. Milan has a large abdominal wound that requires a dressing change
  every 4 hours . he will be discharged to his home setting where he will continue
  the dressing care which of the following is true concerning his healing process:
  a) An antiseptic agent is best followed with a rinse of sterile saline solution
  b) A heat lamp should be used every 2 hours to rid the wound area of contaminants
  c) Sterile technique should be emphasized to Mr. Milan & his family
  d) Addressing covering should allow the wound area to remind mois

Answer 161

c) Sterile technique should be emphasized to Mr. Milan & his family

Question 162

The route of drug administration that provides the most rapid &
dependable absorption is :
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subcutaneous
d) Intravenous

Answer 162

d) Intravenous

Question 163

For accurate drug administration the nurse should read the drug label :
a) 2 times
b) 3 times
c) 4 times
d) 5 times

Answer 163

b) 3 times

Question 164

• The physician’s order to administer 3 L of IV fluid 5% D \ 0.45 % normal
  saline over 24 hours . The drop factor is 60 gtt / ml. the nurse regulates the IV
  at :
  a) 25 gtt / min
  b) 100 gtt / min
  c) 125 gtt / min
  d) 150 gtt / min

Answer 164

c) 125 gtt / min

Question 165

ORDERED : 500 cc D5RL to be infused in 6 hours . The drop factor is 15.
How many gtt per minute should you give:
a) 28 gtt / min
b) 32 gtt / min
c) 21 gtt / min
d) 30 gtt / min

Answer 165

c) 21 gtt / min

Question 166

A medication order should never be implemented if :
a) The nurse doesn’t know the physician .
b) The nurse doesn’t know the patient’s history .
c) The nurse Questions any part of the order
d) The nurse did not know witness the writing of the order

Answer 166

c) The nurse Questions any part of the order

Question 167

A medication order should never be implemented if :
a) The nurse doesn’t know the physician .
b) The nurse doesn’t know the patient’s history .
c) The nurse Questions any part of the order
d) The nurse did not know witness the writing of the order

Answer 167

c) The nurse Questions any part of the order

Question 168

ORDERD: penicillin 400.000 u IM now
AVAILABLE: penicillin 800.000 u per 2 cc
how many ml should you give?
a) 2 ml
b) 1 ml
c) 0.2 ml
d) 0.4 ml
l

Answer 168

b) 1 ml

Question 169

At 9:45 PM nurse sheener , Mrs. Rooney evening nurse arrives with
sleeping medication . Nurse sheener is a summer nursing student & doesn’t
know any of the individuals on the unit. How should nurse sheener determine
that she is giving the right medication to the right individual?
a) Examine the individual’s name posted outside the door.
b) Say: “Mrs. Rooney, I’ve your medication.”
c) Ask: are you Mrs. Rooney?”
d) Say: “I’m nurse sheener . What is your name “

Answer 169

d) Say: “I’m nurse sheener . What is your name “

Question 170

Mr. Mulligan, LPN, IS Mrs. Rooney’s primary nurse & is working the 8:00
AM to 4:00 PM shift. The next four questions refer to this situation.
At 10:10 AM nurse Mulligan brings Mrs. Rooney her 10:00 AM medication.
Mrs. Rooney says, [oh, I’ve already had those little red pills once this morning;
do I really need more? ] . What would be most appropriate response by nurse
Mulligan?
a) “I checked your medication very carefully, Mrs. Rooney, but to make sure these
are right, I’ll check the chart one more time
b) ” I checked & double checked your medication orders and I’m sure I’m right,
please take them”
c) Let me check with the doctor. I’ll be right back “
d) “ I think these are correct, but to make sure, I’ll discuss this with the head nurse

Answer 170

a) “I checked your medication very carefully, Mrs. Rooney, but to make sure these
are right, I’ll check the chart one more tim

Question 171

• The medication order is for indomethacin . p.o 50mg , bid , this drug is
  irritating to the stomach mucosa . For this reason the nurse should:
  a) Give the medication one hour before meals.
  b) Give the medication 2 hour after meals.
  c) Ask the physician for an IV preparation
  d) Have food available when administering the medication

Answer 171

) Have food available when administering the medication

Question 172

You are preparing to administer Mrs. Carter’s eye drops. The correct
position for her to assume would be:
a) Head titled forward, placing the drops in the conjunctiva sac.
b) Head titled backward, placing the drops in the lower conjunctival sac.
c) Head titled forward, placing the drops directly on the eyeball.
d) Head titled backward, placing the drops directly on the eyeball.

Answer 172

b) Head titled backward, placing the drops in the lower conjunctival sac.

Question 173

To instill drops in the adult patient , the ear canal is opened by pulling the
ear :
a) Up and back
b) Down and back
c) Up and forward
d) Back and forward

Answer 173

a) Up and back

Question 174

The nurse is giving heparin subcutaneously. Which needle should the nurse
use:
a) 19 gauge, 1 ½ inch
b) 21 gauge, 1 inch
c) 22 gauge, 1 ½ inch
d) 25 gauge, 5/8 inch

Answer 174

d) 25 gauge, 5/8 inch

Question 175

The nurse correctly administer an SC injection a ………degree angle:
a) 15
b) 30
c) 90
d) 45

Answer 175

d) 45

Question 176

Which of the following is true concerning a SC injection:
a) A bleb indicates that the medication has been properly injected
b) Drug absorption is slower than with the IM route.
c) 0.2 cc of air should be drawn in the syringe before administration
d) Up to 2 cc of water-soluble medication can be given by the SC route.

Answer 176

b) Drug absorption is slower than with the IM route.

Question 177

When giving medication , the label should be checked 3 times . Which of the
following is not one of these times:
a) When the nurse reaches for the container
b) Immediately prior to pouring medication
c) When the nurse located the drug on the shell
d) When replacing the container to the drawer or shelf.

Answer 177

c) When the nurse located the drug on the shell

Question 178

Mr. Baker is to receive penicillin IM. Nurse hill locates the site of the
injection by planning the posterior superior iliac spine & the greater trochanter .
An imaginary line is drawn the posterior superior iliac spine & the greater
trochanter . The injection side is lateral & slightly superior to the midpoint of the
line . Which of the following is correct name of the site:
a) Dorsogluteal site.
b) Rectus femoral site.
c) Ventrogluteal site
d) Vastus lateralis

Answer 178

c) Ventrogluteal site

Question 179

Which of the following is the reason for using the Z tract technique for
injections :
a) For medication of over 5cc in quantity
b) For medication that is highly irritating to subcutaneous tissue
c) For medication that stains the tissue
d) For medication that cannot be given orally

Answer 179

b) For medication that is highly irritating to subcutaneous tissue

Question 180

• Which of the following orders is complete :
  a) Ampicillin 250mg IM q12hrs x 10 days
  b) Maalox 30 cc po
  c) Humulin R insulin SQ in AM & noon
  d) OPV (oral polio vaccine) 0.5 cc

Answer 180

a) Ampicillin 250mg IM q12hrs x 10 days

Question 181

Mrs. Kelly tells the nurse that her arm is sore from an injection she received
early in the day. She states “the nurse gave me a shot, and I heard her say that
the needle was a 25 gauge. Isn’t that too big for a local injection?” . Your best
response would be:
a) “A 25 gauge needle is a small needle , but it can cause some discomfort . let me
see your arm .”
b) “Really, Mrs. Kelly, no once gets hurts with a 25 gauge needle . you are over –
reacting to the shot “
c) “A 25 gauge needle is very small . you are just nervous about the injection.”
d) “A 25 gauge needle is very small. So you are wrong about the pain from the
injection.”

Answer 181

A 25 gauge needle is a small needle , but it can cause some discomfort . let me
see your arm .”

Question 182

Mrs. Davis has a written order from her physician for Demerol 100 mg stat
Which of the following best explain this order:
a) Give it needed
b) Give once when needed .
c) Give once immediately
d) Give once when specified

Answer 182

c) Give once immediately

Question 183

20 minutes after receiving her noon dose of oral medication , Mrs. Rooney
vomits . To assure accuracy in medication administration the first thing nurse
Mulligan should do is to :
a) Report the situation to the head nurse
b) Contact the physician
c) Administer another dose of medication
d) Examine the vomits for signs of medication

Answer 183

b) Contact the physician

Question 184

• While checking Mr. Appendectomy’s vital signs , he requests his “
  medication for the pain in my incision “ the vital signs were :
  BP 100/60 , T – 98.4 F , P – 66 , RR – 10 .you decide he may not have the
  Morphine sulfate injection at this time due to witch vital signs reading :
  a) Blood pressure
  b) Pulse
  c) Respiration
  d) Temperature

Answer 184

) Respiration

Question 185

After withdrawing the needle from the tissue when administering an ID
injection you :-
a) Apply firm pressure to the site with your thumb .
b) Do not rewipe the site
c) Gently wipe the site
d) Massage the site vigorously

Answer 185

Do not rewipe the site

Question 186

• Asking the patient if he is allergic to any medication is a part of the ……
  phase of the nursing process:
  a) Assessment
  b) Planning
  c) Implementation
  d) Evaluation

Answer 186

Assessment

Question 187

• Teaching the patient about the medication is a part of the …….phase of the
  nursing process ?
  a) Assessment
  b) Planning
  c) Implementation
  d) Evaluation

Answer 187

c) Implementation

Question 188

A nurse is unable to read the label on a bottle of liquid medication because
the label is stained from spillage . the nurse knows that the correct procedure is
to :
a) Ask the charge nurse to verify the medication in the bottle and apply a new label
b) Smell and test the medication and apply a new label if certain of the contents
c) Empty the contents down the drain and notify the charge and the pharmacist
d) Send the bottle back to the pharmacy to be relabeled

Answer 188

d) Send the bottle back to the pharmacy to be relabeled

Question 189

Medications which are labeled [ Otic ] are specific for use in \ on the :-
a) Eyes
b) Ears
c) Nose
d) Throat

Answer 189

b) Ears

Question 190

• A primary concern when giving heparin SC is to prevent:
  a) Pain and bruising .
  b) Pain and bleeding
  c) Bleeding and bruising
  d) Injecting a vein

Answer 190

c) Bleeding and bruising

Question 191

• Is it necessary for the nurse to wear gloves during administration of an
  intermittent feeding through a G-tube:
  a) Yes , because it is a sterile procedure
  b) Yes , because universal precautions must be maintained
  c) No , because it is not a sterile procedure
  d) No , because there is no danger of contact with body fluid if procedure is
  performed correctly

Answer 191

b) Yes , because universal precautions must be maintained

Question 192

Narcolepsy is a condition characterized by:
a) Excessive anxiety
b) Excessive sleeping
c) Excessive fatigue
d) Excessive sleepiness

Answer 192

d) Excessive sleepiness

Question 193

4- You are giving an injection of Morphine 3 mg & Tigan 199 mg IM to an
elderly debilitated client. He has sacral edema with extensive bruising of the
buttocks & the ventral gluteal areas which of the following sites is the best choice
for injection :
a) Deltoid site using the Z-tract method
b) Dorsal gluteal , since the volume is over 2 ml
c) Vastus lateralis using a 22 gauge 1 inch needle
d) Abdomen using a 5/8 inch needle

Answer 193

c) Vastus lateralis using a 22 gauge 1 inch needle

Question 194

To prepare the skin for injection the nurse would use :
a) Friction with back and forth motions at the site with alcohol swab
b) Friction and alcohol swab moving from outer edge to center of site
c) Friction and alcohol swab with circular motions and palpate site gently with finger
pad before injection
d) Friction and circular motions with alcohol swab from center of site outward

Answer 194

d) Friction and circular motions with alcohol swab from center of site outward

Question 195

IM injection into the deltoid muscle should be limited to :
a) 2.5 ml of solution
b) 2 ml of solution
c) 1 ml of solution
d) 0.5 ml of solution

Answer 195

1 ml of solution

Question 196

300- The abbreviation p.c refers to:
a) Before meal.
b) Nothing by mouth
c) Non of the above
d) After meal

Answer 196

d) After meal

Question 197

7- The type of needle selected for the ( dorsogluteal ) intramuscular ( IM )
injections would be based on :
1) The size of the patient
2) The viscosity of the antibiotic .
3) The position of the patient .
4) The volume of medication .
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2

Answer 197

d

Question 198

301- For all of the following poisoning situations induced vomiting and gastric lavage recommended except:
a) Food poisoning
b) Drug poisoning
c) Caustic and corrosives poisoning
d) Plant poisoning

Answer 198

c) Caustic and corrosives poisoning

Question 199

302- To prevent oral mucosa infection q.4.h, instruct patient to use :
a) Warm saline gargle
b) Glycerin oil
c) Antibiotic
d) Warm gargle with mineral oil

Answer 199

a) Warm saline gargle

Question 200

303- Before irrigating a client’s NGT the nurse must first :
a) Assess breath sounds
b) Instill 15 ml. Of normal saline
c) Auscultate for bowel sounds
d) Check the tube for placement

Answer 200

d) Check the tube for placement

Question 201

304- Which of the following is not an abnormal finding in a routine urine analysis:
a) Ph 6.0
b) Pus
c) RBCs
d) Protein

Answer 201

a) Ph 6.0

Question 202

305- The best method of preventing the spread of infection is :
a) Isolating all patients suspected of having an infection
b) Wearing rubber gloves when performing all nursing procedures
c) Washing the hands thoroughly before & after each contact with a patient
d) Sterilizing the hands with strong germicide at least once a day

Answer 202

c) Washing the hands thoroughly before & after each contact with a patient

Question 203

306- The most reliable method used for sterilizing hospital equipment to be free of spores and bacteria is :-
a) Soaking in strong chemical
b) Washing and drying it thoroughly after use
c) Applying steam under pressure in an autoclave
d) Boiling the equipment

Answer 203

c) Applying steam under pressure in an autoclave

Question 204

307- A must important nursing measure in the prevention of Thrombophlebitis for the post-partum patient is :-
a) Elastic stocking
b) Early ambulation
c) Anticoagulant
d) Isometric exercise

Answer 204

b) Early ambulation

Question 205

308- The most important factor in the promotion and maintenance of wound healing both during surgery and the postoperative period is :
a) Adequate fluid intake
b) Proper administration of antibiotics
c) Strict asepsis
d) Frequent cleansing of the wound

Answer 205

c) Strict asepsis

Question 206

309- If the skin must be shaven prior to surgery . Ideally the preoperative shave be done at:
a) The night before
b) Early in the morning of the surgery
c) No more than one hour before surgery
d) By the patient before entering

Answer 206

c) No more than one hour before surgery

Question 207

310- The abbreviation “Hs” refers to:
a) Treatment
b) At bed time
c) After meal
d) Before meal

Answer 207

b) At bed time

Question 208

311- The term N means:
a) Drug is not given via mouth
b) Drug is not available
c) The client is no present
d) The client refuse to have the drug

Answer 208

a) Drug is not given via mouth

Question 209

312- The life span for normal RBC is:
a) 40 days
b) 60 days
c) 80 days
d) 120 days

Answer 209

d) 120 days

Question 210

313- All of the following are fat soluble vitamins except:
a) VitK
b) VitC
c) VitA
d) VitE
e) VitD

Answer 210

b) VitC

Question 211

314- Outpatient surgery is:
a) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home in the same period
b) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home after 2 days
c) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home after a week
d) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home after month

Answer 211

a) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home in the same period

Question 212

315- Sim’s position is done on :
a) Lt side, chest forward, Rt knee bent toward head Rt arm forward, Lt arm behind the body
b) Rt side, chest forward, Rt knee bent toward head Rt arm forward, Lt arm behind the body
c) All of the above
d) Non of the above

Answer 212

a) Lt side, chest forward, Rt knee bent toward head Rt arm forward, Lt arm behind the body

Question 213

316- Reclining position with the knees bent hips rotated outward and feet flat:
a) Lithotomy position
b) Dorsal recumbent position
c) Modified standing position
d) Knee-chest position

Answer 213

b) Dorsal recumbent position

Question 214

317- All of the following is/are true about measuring blood pressure:
a) Measurement shouldn’t exceed 5-10 mmhg between two measurement at the same time unless pathology
b) Cuff’s bladder width should be 40% at least
c) Cuff’s bladder Length should be 80% - 100%
d) All of the above are true
e) Both b and c only true

Answer 214

d) All of the above are true

Question 215

318- Wave like sensation that can be palpated in the peripheral artery:
a) Pulse
b) Korot koff sound
c) Pulse pressure
d) Pulse deficit

Answer 215

a) Pulse

Question 216

319- Normal volume of circulating blood:
a) 4.5 - 5.5 in adult female
b) 5 - 6 in adult male
c) Both a and b
d) Non of the above

Answer 216

c) Both a and b

Question 217

320- Which of the following play an important role in calcium absorption:
a) Vit E
b) Vit C
c) Vit B
d) Vit D

Answer 217

d) Vit D

Question 218

321- The nurse is preparing to begin CPR the nurse should first:
a) Open airway
b) Check carotid pulse
c) Check respiration
d) Check injuries

Answer 218

b) Check carotid pulse

Question 219

• The nurse needs to give an injection to 5-year-old Shawn . Which of the
  following approaches by the nurse is appropriate:
  a) “Shawn I need to give you a shot. Which one of your arms should I give it in ? “
  b) “Shawn , is it ok if I give you a shot now ?”
  c) “Shawn , I have a hypodermic injection to administer to you now “
  d) “Shawn, I have a shot to give you . be a big boy and don’t cry

Answer 219

a) “Shawn I need to give you a shot. Which one of your arms should I give it in ? “

Question 220

322- The maneuver that performed for chocked person is:
a) Hemlock maneuver
b) Leopold maneuver
c) Aspiration maneuver
d) Non of the above

Answer 220

a) Hemlock maneuver

Question 221

• The largest gauge needle of the following is :-
  a) 19 gauge
  b) 20 gauge
  c) 21 gauge
  d) 22 gauge

Answer 221

a) 19 gauge

Question 222

323- The nurse understand that in absence of pathology client is stimulated to have breath by:
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Calcium
d) Lactic acid

Answer 222

a) Oxygen

Question 223

• Optimum normal urine output hourly to an adult :
  a) 10cc
  b) 25cc
  c) 50cc
  d) 100cc

Answer 223

c) 50cc

Question 224

324- The inability to void although the kidneys are producing urine and enters the bladder is known as:
a) Urinary urgency
b) Urinary retention
c) Dysuria
d) Non of the above

Answer 224

b) Urinary retention

Question 225

Scurvy is a deficiency of :
a) Vit A
b) Vit B
c) Vit C
d) Vit D

Answer 225

c) Vit C

Question 226

• If measuring BP were necessary in the leg . the nurse would expect the
  Systolic pressure to be:
  a) 10-40 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
  b) 20_30 mmhg lower than in the brachial artery
  c) 50 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
  d) Essentially the same as that in the brachial artery

Answer 226

a) 10-40 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery

Question 227

325- Which of the following statements best describe Oliguria:
a) Absence of urine
b) Volume of urine 100 ml or less in 24 hour
c) Both a and b
d) Non of the above

Answer 227

c) Both a and b

Question 228

326- Cylindrical container to collect urine:
a) Urinal
b) Bed pan
c) Urine bag
d) All of the above

Answer 228

a) Urinal

Question 229

3- Which of the following vitamins has coagulation of blood :
a) Vit E
b) Vit K
c) Vit A
d) Vit C

Answer 229

b) Vit K

Question 230

Deep breathing and coughing exercise done :
a) At angle of 90 degree
b) Angel 45 degree
c) Lie laterally
d) Semi-fowler’s position

Answer 230

d) Semi-fowler’s position

Question 231

327- Which of the following is/are isotonic solution/s:
a) NACL 0.9% solution
b) NACL 1.8%solution
c) RL solution
d) All of the above
e) Only a and c

Answer 231

e) Only a and c

Question 232

The best time to collect urine for culture :-
a) Early morning awaking sample .
b) 30 minutes after voiding
c) 30 minutes after fluid
d) Double voided

Answer 232

a) Early morning awaking sample

Question 233

328- Which of the following factors affect wound healing:
a) Type of wound injury
b) Depth of injury
c) Quality of circulation
d) All of the above

Answer 233

d) All of the above

Question 234

• When assessing the unconscious victim for pulselessness , which of the
  following is the best artery to check :-
  a) Radial
  b) Femoral
  c) Brachial
  d) Carotid

Answer 234

D

Question 235

329- All of the following are true about sources of energy except:
a) Protein provide the body with 9 Kcl for each 1 gm
b) Minerals provide a minimum of calories
c) Carbohydrates provide 4 Kcl for each 1 gm
d) Fat provide 4 Kcl for each 1 gm
e) Both a, b, and d
f) Only b

Answer 235

e) Both a, b, and d

Question 236

• In treating puncture wounds , the first priority is to :-
  a) Stop the bleeding
  b) Care of the wound
  c) Give prophylactic treatment against tetanus
  d) Remove the object from the wound

Answer 236

a) Stop the bleeding

Question 237

330- Black stool known as:
a) Melena
b) Steatorrhea
c) Xerosis
d) Non of the above

Answer 237

a) Melena

Question 238

Nursing measures can be used to lower core body temperature include :-
a) Immersing the patient in cold water
b) Placing the patient on a hypothermic blanket
c) Administering chilled saline enemas
d) All of the above measures

Answer 238

b) Placing the patient on a hypothermic blanket

Question 239

A patient develops a small decubitus ulcer on the sacral area . the nurse
should plan to deal with this problem by:
a) Keeping the area dry
b) Applying moist dressing
c) Providing a low caloric diet
d) Keep the patient on the right side

Answer 239

a) Keeping the area dry

Question 240

331- Movement a way of the median plane is known as:
a) Adduction
b) Abduction
c) Flexion
d) Extension

Answer 240

b) Abduction

Question 241

During physical examination , the part of the kidney may be felt on deep
palpation is:
a) Lower pole of the right kidney
b) Lower pole of the left kidney
c) Entire right kidney
d) Right and left kidney

Answer 241

a) Lower pole of the right kidney

Question 242

332- When there is a severe bleeding the best to do immediately:
a) Apply sterile dressing
b) Apply a pressure bandage
c) Apply tourniquet
d) Elevate the area

Answer 242

b) Apply a pressure bandage

Question 243

For how many days after a facial wound are sutures usually left in place :
a) 3 days
b) 10 days
c) 14 days
d) 7 days

Answer 243

d) 7 days

Question 244

333- One step of nursing process is carrying out written nursing care, this is called:
a) Assessment
b) Evaluation
c) Planning
d) Implementation

Answer 244

d) Implementation

Question 245

334- Which of the following factors play an important role in elimination:
a) Body temperature and diaphoresis
b) The level of activity
c) The anatomical structure of the bowels
d) The ability to control anal muscle

Answer 245

b) The level of activity

Question 246

To control bleeding from the radial artery , pressure to be applied directly
above the:
a) Thumb on the flexor surface of the arm
b) Thumb on the extensor surface of the arm
c) Little finger on the flexor surface of the arm
d) Little finger on the extensor surface of the arm

Answer 246

b) Thumb on the extensor surface of the arm

Question 247

335- The most common site for pressure ulcer is:
a) Sternum
b) Humerus
c) Sacrum
d) Occipital area e) Hands
e) Non of the above

Answer 247

c) Sacrum

Question 248

As a child increases age , cardiac and respiratory rate should :
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain unchanged
d) Stabilize at the adult level

Answer 248

b) Decrease

Question 249

336- The term “Eupnea” means that respiration that characterized by:
a) Normal exchange of air
b) Temporary cessation of breathing
c) Change in the usual respiratory
d) Marked increase in depth of respiration

Answer 249

a) Normal exchange of air

Question 250

An excellent diet suggest for an elderly patient is :
a) High-calorie , low-fat , high carbohydrate diet
b) low-calorie , low-fat , lot of fruits and vegetables
c) High-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet
d) low-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet

Answer 250

b) low-calorie , low-fat , lot of fruits and vegetables

Question 251

337- If the physician ordered Amikacin q.i.d the best time to give:
a) 3:00 pm, 9:00 am, 3:00 pm, 9:00 am
b) 3:00 am, 9:00 am, 3:00 pm, 9:00 pm
c) 6:00 am, 2:00 pm, 10:00 pm
d) 12:00 am, 12:00 pm

Answer 251

b

Question 252

338- The most stable form of ambulatory aid is:
a) A cane
b) A walking belt
c) Crutches
d) A walker

Answer 252

d) A walker

Question 253

How many liters of oxygen can be given with nasal canula ?
a) 1-2 liters
b) 1-10 liters
c) 1-6 liters
d) Non of the above

Answer 253

c) 1-6 liters

Question 254

339- When opening a sterile package, the nurse should unfold:
a) The left side first
b) The nearest side first
c) The far side first
d) The right side first

Answer 254

c) The far side first

Question 255

• First management of unconscious victim is :-
  a) Administer shock medications
  b) Determine unresponsiveness
  c) Administer oxygen.
  d) Non of the above

Answer 255

b) Determine unresponsiveness

Question 256

340- The venturi mask delivers supply of up to:
a) 10% oxygen
b) 20% oxygen
c) 30% oxygen
d) 40% oxygen
e) 100% oxygen

Answer 256

d) 40% oxygen

Question 257

• The force with which the blood is pushing against the arterial walls when
  the ventricles are contracting is called:
  a) Pulse pressure
  b) Pressure gradient
  c) Systolic pressure
  d) Diastolic pressure

Answer 257

Systolic pressure

Question 258

341- The Lithotomy position is most often used to examine:
a) The heart and lung
b) The rectum and vagina
c) The rectum and colon
d) The bladder and uterus

Answer 258

b) The rectum and vagina

Question 259

Carbohydrates are stored in the body in the form of :-
a) Glucose
b) Glucagon
c) Glycogen
d) Glucose 6 phosphate

Answer 259

Glycogen

Question 260

9- The period in which communicable is most contagious is the :-
a) Incubation period
b) Period of illness
c) Convalescent period
d) All are equally contagious

Answer 260

a) Incubation period

Question 261

342-The adaptation theory was developed by:
a) Florence Nightingale
b) Virginia Henderson
c) Dorothea Orem
d) Sister Callista Roy

Answer 261

d) Sister Callista Roy

Question 262

• An injection the gluteal site must be given in which quadrant of the
  buttocks :
  a) Upper- inner quadrant
  b) Upper-outer quadrant
  c) Lower-inner quadrant
  d) Lower- outer quadrant

Answer 262

b) Upper-outer quadrant

Question 263

343- Which of the following are associated with Disuse Syndrome:
a) Contractures, diarrhea, and vomiting.
b) Contractures, diarrhea, and atelectasis.
c) Atelectasis, increased appetite, and muscle weakness. d) Contractures, muscle weakness, and atelectasis

Answer 263

d) Contractures, muscle weakness, and atelectasis

Question 264

The most important route of drug excretion for nonvolatile substances is:
a) Lungs
b) Kidneys
c) Feces
d) Liver

Answer 264

b) Kidneys

Question 265

344- Of the following types of exercise, which is performed with the assistance of another person:
a) Active exercise
b) Passive exercise.
c) Aerobic exercise.
d) Isometric exercise

Answer 265

b) Passive exercise.

Question 266

• Which of the following amounts of water per day should be ingested by the
  average person to maintain hydration :
  a) 500cc
  b) 1000cc
  c) 1200cc
  d) 2500cc

Answer 266

D

Question 267

345- Which of the following best defines pulse deficit
a) The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates.
b) The difference between the radial and femoral pulse rates,
c) The difference between the brachial and radial pulse rates.
d) The difference between the temporal and the femoral pulse rates.

Answer 267

a) The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates.

Question 268

• In the internal environment , fluids make up what percent of body weight :-
  a) 10%
  b) 20%
  c) 40%
  d) 70%

Answer 268

d) 70%

Question 269

In which of the following ways can ascorbic acid be administer?
a) Orally
b) IM
c) Diluted intravenous fluids
d) all of the above

Answer 269

a) Orally

Question 270

• Following a sigmoid scope , the patient should be observed for signs of
  hemorrhage and :-
  a) Fluid loss
  b) Performation
  c) Flatus
  d) Nausea

Answer 270

b) Performation

Question 271

Hypertension is a persistent elevation of systolic and diastolic pressure
above:
a) 140/90 mmhg
b) 150/190 mmhg
c ) 160/100 mmhg
d) 160/110 mmhg

Answer 271

a) 140/90 mmhg

Question 272

The patient who administered to him chemotherapy what would
appropriate nursing intervention:
a) Select large vein to the drug.
b) Give sedative drug as prescribed after chemotherapy.
c) Don’t cover some drugs of chemotherapy
d) None of the above

Answer 272

a) Select large vein to the drug

Question 273

After below knee amputation:
a) Keep the patient in semi fowler’s
b) Stump to be evaluated
c) Watch the site for bleeding
d) Non of the above

Answer 273

B

Question 274

Active immunity is acquired by :
a) Having had the disease
b ) From mother to fetus
c ) Taking the vaccine
d) Non of the abov

Answer 274

A

Question 275

Normal arterial O2 saturation :
a) 85%
b) 92%
c ) 97%
d) 100%

Answer 275

d) 100%

Question 276

Before the collection of blood culture , the site should be cleansed:
a) 70% isopropyl alcohol
b) 100% isopropyl alcohol
c) Povidone iodine
d) Non of the above

Answer 276

A

Question 277

Blood transfusion reaction occurs , the nurse should:
a) Sow down the rate
b) Notify the physician
c) Shut off the transfusion
d) Non of the above

Answer 277

c) Shut off the transfusion

Question 278

If O2 is ordered as medication , which method the nurse would choose:
a) Nasal canula
b) Nasal catheter
c) O2 mask
d) O2 tent

Answer 278

a) Nasal canula

Question 279

• Temp. 98.6 F , is equal to :
  a) 37C
  b) 37.5C
  c ) 36.8C
  d) 37.3

Answer 279

a) 37C

Question 280

One fluid ounce equal to :
a) 30cc
b) 15cc
c) 60cc
d) 5cc

Answer 280

a) 30cc

Question 281

Most effective , easy and un-expensive method of sterilization is :
a) Pressure
b) Heat
c) Drying
d) Antiseptic

Answer 281

a) Pressure

Question 282

To prevent irreversible brain hypoxia CPR should be commenced within:
a) 2-3min
b) 4-6 min
c) 6-8 min
d) 8-10 min

Answer 282

a) 2-3min

Question 283

Surgical asepsis means :
a) Destroying bacteria from articles .
b) Removing the bacteria which is in contact with the patient
c) Destroying the bacteria before entering in to the body
d) Hand washing

Answer 283

a) Destroying bacteria from articles .

Question 284

The purpose of urine culture is to:
a) Determine the duration of urinary infection
b) Identify the organisms that cause urinary infection
c) Locate the exact site foe urinary infection
d) Determine the severity of the urinary infection

Answer 284

b) Identify the organisms that cause urinary infection

Question 285

The primary purpose foe oil retention enema is:
a) Lubricant and soften the stool
b) Increase the fluid in the bowel
c) Break up fecal impaction
d) Increase peristalsis

Answer 285

a) Lubricant and soften the stool

Question 286

The common site for giving IM injection into the gluteus maximum:
a) Rectus femoris site
b) Vastus lateralis site
c) Dorsoglutal site
d) Ventrogluteal site

Answer 286

Dorsoglutal site

Question 287

The best definition for assessment:
a) The process of measuring how well a goal or objectives is reached.
b) An expected outcome or desired end result toward which the nurse works.
c) The action of collection and organizing patient information.
d) The acquisition of skills required to meet the needs of the patient.

Answer 287

c) The action of collection and organizing patient information.

Question 288

The relationship between pulse and respiratory rate is:
a) One respiration to two or three heart beat.
b) One respiration to three or four heart beat.
c) One respiration to four or five heart beat.
d) One respiration to five or six heart beat.

Answer 288

c) One respiration to four or five heart beat.

Question 289

Swelling and coolness in the skin at the vein puncture site could be indicate
for:
a) Infection
b) Infiltration
c) Phlebitis
d) Air embolism

Answer 289

b) Infiltration

Question 290

The suitable position for female catheterization is:
a) Supine
b) Dorsal recumbent
c) Prone
d) lithotomY

Answer 290

D

Question 291

How often to position the inactive patient:
a) At least every 2 hours
b) At least every 3 hours
c) At least every 4 hours
d) At least every once every shift

Answer 291

A

Question 292

The stages of grieving are identified as:
a) Numbness, anger, resolution, and reorganization
b) Anger, loneliness, depression, and resolution
c) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance
d) Depression, guilt, identification, and resolution

Answer 292

C

Question 293

When the nurse change the client dressing which nursing action is correct:
a) The nurse remove the solid dressing with sterile gloves
b) The nurse frees the tape by pulling it away from the incision
c) The nurse encloses the solid dressing within a latex gloves
d) The nurse clean the wound in circles toward the incision

Answer 293

B

Question 294

Which of the following is not true when preparing the medication:
a) Prepare the medication under well prepared area
b) Work alone without interruption
c) Don’t use medications with missed labels
d) Check the label of the drug two time

Answer 294

d

Question 295

The patient tells the nurse that the abdominal incision is ruptured, the
nurse assessed the incision and the nurse noted that the wound has eviscerated
the nurse should do:
a) Apply an abdominal binder to support the wound
b) Apply pressure to the wound
c) Cover the wound with sterile saline dressing
d) Place the patient in supine position

Question 296

Phlebothrombosis is a collection of clot due to:
a) Venous stasis
b) Traumatic cause
c) Coagulation factors disturbances
d) All of the above

Answer 296

d

Question 297

• The physician has ordered a client to receive a total dosage of 20.000 units
  of heparin in 500 cc of IV fluid the client is to receive 1000 units/hour, the drop
  factor is 10 drops/ ml how many drops per minute will the client receive:
  a) 3 drops / minute
  b) 4 drops / minute
  c) 5 drops / minute
  d) 6 drops / minute

Answer 297

b

Question 298

When an accident occurs which of the following steps should be taken first:
a) Report the accident to the proper person promptly
b) Comfort and reassure the patient who was involved
c) Check the condition of the involved patient
d) Call for assistance of other health person

Answer 298

c

Question 299

The primary goal of infection control is to:
a) Contain the infectious organisms in one place
b) Prevent infectious organisms from producing
c) Prevent the spread of infectious microorganisms
d) Control the effect of microorganisms

Answer 299

c

Question 300

Which of the followings procedures , should be done first when toe nails are
difficult to cut:
a) File the rough edges first
b) Massage a cream into nails
c) Soak the feet in warm water
d) Apply an antiseptic to the nails

Answer 300

c

Question 301

When a rational adult wishes to leave the hospital against the medical
advice which of the following is true:
a) He may not leave, until the physician examine him
b) He may leave, only after he has signed a special form
c) He may leave, because he cannot forcefully detained
d) He may leave after his attorney obtains permission

Answer 301

b

Question 302

• In normal persons the erythrocytes are produced by:
  a) Liver
  b) Spleen
  c) Bone marrow
  d) Lymph nodes

Answer 302

c

Question 303

Most of the erythrocytes are destroyed in:
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Bone marrow

Answer 303

a

Question 304

To instill drops in the child patient , the ear canal is opened by pulling the
ear :
a) Up and back
b) Down and back
c) Up and forward
d) Back and forward

Answer 304

b

Question 305

Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen
for culture and sensitivity:
a) Use a clean container
b) Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
c) Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
d) Add preservatives, refrigerate specimen or add ice according to agency’s protocol

Answer 305

b

Question 306

In assessing the abdomen which of the following is the correct sequence of
the physical assessment:
a) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
b) Palpation, auscultation, percussion, Inspection
c) Inspection, palpation, auscultation, percussion
d) Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion

Answer 306

d

Question 307

Too narrow cuff will cause what change in client BP:
a) True high reading
b) True low reading
c) False high reading
d) False low reading

Answer 307

c

Question 308

Too loose cuff will cause what change in client BP:
a) True high reading
b) True low reading
c) False high reading
d) False low reading

Answer 308

d

Question 309

Which is preferable arm when taking BP:
a) An arm with the most contraption
b) The left arm with the client with CVA
c) The right arm
d) The left arm

Answer 309

d

Question 310

Which of the following is more life threatening:
a) BP 180/100
b) BP 160/120
c) BP 90/60
d) BP 80/50

Answer 310

d

Question 311

Refer to the pressure when the ventricles at rest:
a) Diastole.
b) Systole
c) Preload
d) Pulse pressure

Answer 311

a

Question 312

• In cleaning the thermometer after use the direction of the cleaning to follow
  medical asepsis:
  a) From bulb to stem
  b) From stem to bulb
  c) From stem to stem
  d) From bulb to bulb

Answer 312

b

Question 313

How long should the thermometer stay in the client’s axilla:
a) 1-3 minutes
b) 4-6 minutes
c) 7-10 minutes
d) 11-13 minutes

Answer 313

c

Question 314

which of the following statements is true about pulse:
a) Young person has a higher pulse than older
b) Males have a higher pulse than females after puberty
c) Digitalis have positive chronotropic effect
d) In lying position pulse rate is higher

Answer 314

a

Question 315

A sudden redness of skin is known as:
a) Flush
b) Cyanosis
c) Jaundice
d) Pallor

Answer 315

a

Question 316

The term “Gavage” indicates:
a) Administration of a liquid feeding into the stomach
b) Visual examination of the stomach
c) Irrigation of the stomach with a solution
d) A surgical opening through the abdomen to the stomach

Answer 316

a

Question 317

Which of the following may be considered a patient right:
a) The right to euthanasia
b) The right to refuse treatment
c) The right to ignore hospital regulations
d) The right to refuse to pay for what the patient considers to be inferior service

Answer 317

b

Question 318

Which of the following qualities are relevant in documenting a patient care:
a) Accuracy and conciseness
b) Thoroughness and currentness
c) Organization
d) All of the following

Answer 318

d

Question 319

Which of the following qualities are relevant in documenting a patient care:
a) Accuracy and conciseness
b) Thoroughness and currentness
c) Organization
d) All of the following

Answer 319

d

Question 320

• Blood pressure measurement is an important part of the patient data base,
  it is considered as:
  a) The basis of nursing diagnosis
  b) Objective data
  c) An indicator of the patient well being
  d) Subjective data

Answer 320

b

Question 321

The correct site at which to verify a radial pulse measurements is the:
a) Brachial artery
b) Apex of the heart
c) Temporal artery
d) Inguinal site

Answer 321

a

Question 322

Constipation is a common problem for immobilized patient because of:
a) Decreased peristalsis and positional discomfort
b) An increase defecation reflex
c) Decrease tightening of the anal sphincter
d) Increase colon motility

Answer 322

a

Question 323

The average daily amount of urine is :
a ) 500-600 ml
b) 800-1400 ml
c) 1000-1200 ml
d) 1500-2000 ml

Answer 323

d

Question 324

• According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs which of the following is a basic
  physiologic needs after oxygen:
  a) Activity
  b) Safety
  c) Love
  d) Self esteem

Answer 324

a

Question 325

Rectal temperature :
a) 36 c
b) 37.5 c
c) 38 c
d) 35.8 c

Answer 325

b

Question 326

Axillary temperature:
a) 36.5 c
b) 36 c
c) 35.8 c
d) 37 c

Answer 326

a

Question 327

Axillary temperature:
a) 36.5 c
b) 36 c
c) 35.8 c
d) 37 c

Answer 327

a

Question 328

The most accurate temperature is:
a) Oral
b) Anal
c) Axilla
d) Skin

Answer 328

b

Question 329

All of the following are clinical thermometers except:
a) Chemical
b) Glass
c) Infrared
d) Physical

Answer 329

a

Question 330

• All of the following are phases of fever except:
  a) Onset
  b) Lancet
  c) Prodromal
  d) Resolution

Answer 330

b

Question 331

• Subnormal body temperature means temperature is:
  a) Temperature less than 35c.
  b) Temperature higher than 35c.
  c) Temperature equal 35c.
  d) Non of the above.

Answer 331

d

Question 332

All of the following are pulse sites except:
a) Flangial
b) Brachial
c) Apical
d) Radial

Answer 332

a

Question 333

The approximate adult pulse ranges from:
a) 100-120 bpm
b) 60-100 bpm
c) 50-70 bpm
d) 80-110 bpm

Answer 333

b

Question 334

Measurement of apical pulse and radial pulse at the same period called:
a) Pulse deficit
b) Heart beat
c) Pulse volume
d) Apical radial pulse

Answer 334

d

Question 335

The patient temperature 37.5 c the Fahrenheit equivalent:
a) 96.5 F
b) 97.5 F
c) 98.5 F
d) 99.5 F

Answer 335

d

Question 336

Which of the following statements are most accurately describes the
characteristics pain:
a) Pain is objective in nature.
b) Responses to pain vary widely.
c) Pain is always associated with bodily damage.
d) Pain is not a demanding situation.

Answer 336

b

Question 337

If a vial Gentamycin contains 80mg in 2ml, the physician’s order is 12mg
every 8 hours the nurse should give every time:
a) 0.1 ml
b) 0.2 ml
c) 0.3 ml
d) 0.4 ml

Answer 337

c

Question 338

When a collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling
catheter, the nurse should:
a) Use a syringe and needle to draw the urine from the collection bag.
b) Use a syringe and needle to draw the urine from the collection tube.
c) Use a syringe and needle to draw the urine from the catheter.
d) Use a syringe and needle to draw from the port of the tube

Answer 338

d

Question 339

All of the following are characteristics of artery except:
a) Have 3 layers interna, media, and adventitia.
b) Have valves.
c) Most of them carry oxygenated blood.
d) deeper and thicker than vein.

Answer 339

b

Question 340

Which one of the following diets include only water, tea, coffee, clear juice:
a) Clear liquid diet
b) Soft diet
c) Full liquid diet
d) diabetic diet

Answer 340

a

Question 341

• Valsalva maneuver is:
  a) Closing the glottis and contract pelvis and abdominal muscle to increase abdominal
  pressure .
  b) Closing the anal sphincter to prevent defecation.
  c) Closing the urinary sphincter to prevent voiding.
  d) Non of the above.

Answer 341

a

Question 342

Placebo is:
a) Giving ineffective substance.
b) Giving IV antibiotics.
c) Giving oral antibiotics.
d) Non of the above.

Answer 342

a

Question 343

When the pulse volume is 3 it indicates:
a) Thready
b) Weak pulse
c) Bounding pulse
d) Non of the above

Answer 343

d

Question 344

What is the correct arrangement of the following parts of intestines:
a) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum, and rectum.
b) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum, and rectum.
c) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum, and rectum.
d) Rectum, duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.

Answer 344

a

Question 345

Actual diagnosis is:
a) A problem that currently exists.
b) A problem that the patient is uniquely at risk.
c) A problem that may be present.
d) Cluster of problems that are present due to an event or situation

Answer 345

a

Question 346

Which of the following is true about vital signs:
a) All vital signs are objective data.
b) Pain is consider as the 5th vital sign.
c) It indicates how well or bas the body function.
d) All of the above

Answer 346

d