fundamentals of nursing Flashcards
Dyspnea is defined as:
Difficult respiration
Mr. Ahmed age 53, her pulse rate is found to be 52 per minute. Her heart rate could be described as :
Bradycardia
The condition in which a person is aware of his or her own heart contraction without having to feel the pulse is called:
Palpitation
When you assess the respiratory rate for the patient, you should do all of the following except:
a) Instruct the patient to breath in and out from his mouth.
b) Count each inspiration followed by expiration as one breath.
c) Make sure that the patient is not aware that you are counting his respiratory rate.
d) Count the respiratory rate for 30 seconds.
Instruct the patient to breath in and out from his mouth.
Cyanosis is blue colour of skin, is caused by:
Low tissue oxygenation
To examine the ear canal of the child, this is done by:
Pull the ear down and back
The advantage of use head to toe approach when you assess the patient:
It helps to prevent overlooking some aspect of data collection
Discharge planning for hospitalised patient begins:
From the first day of admission
Instrument which is used to examine the eye structure is called:
Ophthalmoscope
Abnormal skin color which indicates yellowish color is called:
Jaundice
A pattern in which the nursing personnel divide the patient into groups and complete their care together is called:
Team nursing
Which of the following is considered as subjective data:
a) Anxiety
b) Skin color
c) Height
d) Temperature
Anxiety
The term used to describe blood in the urine:
Hematuria
The physician has ordered an indwelling urinary catheter inserted in a hospitalised patient, the nurse is aware that:
a) The procedure requires surgical asepsis
b) Lubricant not needed for catheter insertion
c) Smaller catheters are used for male catheter
d) Normally a clean technique is required for catheter insertion
The procedure requires surgical asepsis
The normal colour of urine is:
Light yellow
Diarrhoea is best described by its
Consistency
When a person has a fever or diaphoresis, the urine output will be which of the following :
a) Increased and diluted
b Increased and concentrated
c) Decreased and highly diluted
d) Decreased and highly concentrated
Decreased and highly concentrated
Medication is instilled between the skin & the muscle and used to administer Heparin:
Subcutaneous
The angle of the syringe and needle for intramuscular injections is:
90 degrees
Is the term used to administered undiluted medication quickly into a vein:
Bolus
A primary concern when giving heparin subcutaneously (S.C) to prevent bleeding is:
Don’t make massage on the injection site
When administering medication via nasogastric tube, clamp tube for at least:
One half hours after instilling medication to allow for absorption
To ensure that medications are prepared and administered correctly, the nurse should:
Use the five rights
The nurse chooses to inject a prescribed intramuscular medication into the Ventrogluteal site. If the nurse selects the site correctly, the injection is administered into the:
Hip
500 mg of a drug is order. It is supplied in tablets of 1 gm per tablet. How many tablets should be administered:
0.5 tablet
The doctor order is 300 cc of normal saline solution, to be finished within 4 hours, how many drop/min you will regulate this IV (drop factor is 20 drop/minute):
25 drop/min
All of the following is used Central Venous Catheter, EXCEPT:
a) Clients require long term IV medication
b) IV medications are irritating to peripheral veins
c) Clients require short term IV medication
d) Difficult to insert peripheral catheter
c) Clients require short term IV medication
In case of kerosene poisoning the best management is:
Give the patient water or milk to dilute the kerosene
One of your patients complains of difficulty of breathing, all of the following measurement which help improve breathing EXCEPT:
a) Put your patient in semi- fowler’s position
b) Teach patient breathing techniques
c) Put the patient in prone position
d) Give oxygen therapy
Put the patient in prone position
A pre-operative check list form that should be completed before surgery, it should be including which of the following:
a) The surgical consent form
b) All laboratory test
c) Vital Signs
d) All of above
d) All of above
The process of removing poisonous substance through gastric intubation is called:
Gastric Lavage
During the inflammation process, which of the following characteristics occur first:
a) Swelling
b) Pain
c) Redness
d) Decreased functioning
c) Redness
Of the following, which is the earliest signs of excessive pressure:
a) Pale appearance of the skin
b) Reddened appearance of the skin
c) Ulcer formation on the skin
d) Dark or cyanotic color to the skin
b) Reddened appearance of the skin
To prevent formation of thrombi postoperatively patient, the nurse should:
Teach foot and leg exercises
Paracentesis is best described as:
The removal of body fluid from the abdominal cavity
Which of the following is used to determine the activity of the brain:
a) Electrocardiography
b) Electromyography
c) Electroencephalography
d) Echocardiography
c) Electroencephalography
An infection that the patient acquires in the hospital is called:
A nosocomial infection
The nursing activity most likely to prevent the clogging of a nasogastric feeding tube is :
Flushing the tubing with water and clamping it after each feeding
If a nasogastric tube has been misplaced in the trachea during preparation to obtain a gastric specimen, the nurse should anticipate that the patient will:
Have difficulty breathing
When planning Mr. Asem care (50 years) who demonstrates difficulty in breathing. Which of the following positions is most appropriate:
a) On either side
b) Flat on his back
c) On his abdomen
d) Fowler’s position
d) Mid-Fowler’s position
When an order reads a drug be administered t.i.d, how often should this drug be given:
Three times a day
The following manifestations are commonly associated with a fever, EXCEPT:
a) Headache
b) Pinkish and red skin color
c) Bradycardia
d) Convulsions in infants and child
Bradycardia
Dorsal recumbent position is used when performing the following procedures EXCEPT:
a) Suppository insertion
b) Cystoscopic examination
c) Urinary catheter insertion
d) Vaginal examination
Suppository insertion
All of the following would be expected symptoms of CHF EXCEPT:
a) Rapid, shallow, difficult breathing
b) Pyuria
c) Peripheral edema
d) Pulmonary congestion
Pyuria
If a vial of Gentamicin contains 80 mg in 2 ml, the physician order is 16 mg every 8 hr., the nurse should give every time:
0.4 ml
Blood and urine analysis confirm a diagnosis of salicylate overdose. The client is treated with gastric lavage. Which of the following positions would be most appropriate for the client during this procedure:
a) Lateral
b) Trendlenburg
c) Supine
d) Lithotomy
a) Lateral
All of the followings are laboratory data indicating infection except:
a) Increase of specific type of leukocyte.
b) Increase of body temperature
c) Decrease of WBC.
d) Positive culture of blood, urine, or sputum.
c) Decrease of WBC.
All of the followings are signs of systemic infection except:
a) Fever
b) Vomiting
c) Fatigue and loss of energy
d) Enlargement and tenderness of the lymph nodes.
b) Vomiting
All of the followings are etiologies of self care deficit except:
a) Scars and abrasions.
b) Activity intolerance and weakness.
c) Mental impairment.
d) Visual impairment.
a) Scars and abrasions.
Skin turgor is:
Elasticity by lifting and pulling the skin on an extremity
Which of the following conditions indicate long term lack of oxygen:
a) Koilonychias
b) Capillary refill
c) Clubbing fingers
d) Non of the above
c) Clubbing fingers
Pressure ulcers risk factors include:
a) Immobility and inactivity
b) Fecal and urinary incontinence
c) Decreased mental status
d) all the above
all the about
Complications of wound healing include:
a) Hematoma
b) Nausea
c) Hypertension
d) All of the above
a) Hematoma
he patient should fast (NPO) before the surgery for:
6-8 hours
Scrub nurse role include:
a) Assist the surgeon
b) Draping the client with sterile draps
c) Handle sterile equipments and supplies
d) All of the above
all the above
Deep breathings and coughing exercises in postoperative phase are important for:
Prevent atelectasis
Which of the following vital signs are normal:
a) Temp: 37 RR:22 HR:90 BP:135/85
b) Temp: 36.7 RR:18. HR:75 BP:125/80
c) Temp: 38. RR:12 HR:110. BP:155/90
d) Temp: 37.2 RR:16. HR:50. BP:115/65
b) Temp: 36.7 RR:18. HR:75 BP:125/80
Nurse can provide care for:
a) Individual
b) Families
c) Communities
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
Nursing can be defined as:
a) Caring
b) Science and art
c) Holistic
d) All of the above
all the above
Example of health promotion:
a) Immunization
b) Direct care
c) Stop cigarette smoking
d) All of the above are correct
c) Stop cigarette smoking
Health is defined as
A state of complete physical, mental, social, and spiritual wellbeing not merely absence of disease or infirmity
Which phase of nursing process the nurse collect data about the client:
assessment
Chief complain includes:
a) Immunization and childhood illness
b) Hobbies and sleep patterns
c) Risk factor for certain disease
d) The answer is given to question “what brought you to the hospital”
The answer is given to question “what brought you to the hospital”
The chief complain should record using:
patient words
Nursing diagnosis is:
A statement that describes actual and potential health problems.
The nursing diagnosis include all of the following except: a) Problem
b) Time
c) Sign
d) Etiology
b) Time
Hyperthermia is:
body temperature above 40.6 degrees
All of the followings are clinical signs of fever except:
a) Palled
b) Shivering
c) Decrease thirst
d) Increase heart rate
c) Decrease thirst
All of the followings factors increase respiratory rate except:
a) Decrease temperature
b) Stress
c) Exercise
d) Increase altitude
a) Decrease temperature
The most safe and non invasive site to measure the temperature is:
Auxiliary site
The difference between the rectal and auxiliary temperature is:
1 c
The term “Tachycardia” means:
Heart rate above 100 bpm
Hyperventilation is :
Deep respiration
Hemoptysis is:
Blood in the sputum
All of the following are normally present in the urine except:
a) Urea
b) Creatinine
c) Albumin
d) Sodium
Albumin
Apnea is a medical term means
stop breathing
When blood sugar level is above normal this means the patient has:
Hyperglycemia
The most important thing should be done after any nursing action is:
documentation
All of the followings are assessment sites for body temperature except:
a) Oral site
b) Rectal site
c) Axillary site
d) Apical
d) Apical
Mr. ashraf 35 years old his pulse rate found 120 bpm his heart rate could be described:
b) Tachycardia
Which of the following factors are affecting body temperature:
a) Food intake
b) Age and gende
c) Climate
d) All of the above
All of the above
Normal heart rate to the newborn is:
120-160
The condition in which body temperature is above normal is called:
fever
Which of the following best describes the technique of palpitation:
a) The use of sense of hearing to listen for sounds.
b) The use of tapping on particular part of body to produce sound.
c) The use of the senses to evaluate general appearance of patient.
d) The sense of touch to feel the body by slight or deep pressure.
d) The sense of touch to feel the body by slight or deep pressure.
Inhalation or inspiration means:
breathing in
Normal body temperature ranging from:
37.4 - 35.8
Pulse pressure is defined as which of the following:
a) Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
b) Expansion of the artery as blood move through it.
c) Difference between arterial and venous pressure.
d) Difference between venous and systolic pressure.
a) Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
Sleep is defined as:
A state of arousable unconsciousness.
Unoccupied bed making means:
Changing linen when the bed is empty.
The normal blood pressure for adult person include:
120/80 mmhg
The most accurate time for measuring pulse rate is:
60 seconds
Normal respiratory rate per minute in adult is ranging from:
12-20 breaths/minute
Practices that promote health through personal cleanliness is called:
Hygiene
All of the followings are therapeutic bathes except:
a) Shampooing bath
b) Whirlpool bath
c) Medicated bath
d) Sitz bath
a) Shampooing bath
Orthopnea is;
a) Breathing facilitated by sitting or standing up.
b) Absence of breathing.
c) Rapid breathing
d) Difficult breathing
Breathing facilitated by sitting or standing up.
Which of the following is considered as benefits of bathing:
a) Improving self image
b) Eliminating body odor
c) Stimulating circulation
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
The patient is reclining on back with the feet are elevated in metal support this position is called:
Lithotomy position
Exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide when taking air in and out of the chest:
Respiration
Ventilation means:
Movement of air in and out of the chest
All of the followings are common factors that invalidated examinations or test results except:
a) Inadequate specimen volume.
b) Failure to send the specimen in a timely manner.
c) Correct diet preparation.
d) Insufficient bowel cleaning.
Correct diet preparation.
All of the followings are physical assessment techniques except:
a) Inspection
b) Percussion
c) Puncturing
d) Palpation
c) Puncturing
2- Which of the following physical assessment techniques are most commonly
used in nursing procedures:
a) Inspection
b) Percussion
c) Auscultation
d) Palpation
a) Inspection
All of the following are post procedural nursing responsibilities except:
a) The nurse has to attend the patient for comfort and rest
b) Care of specimen
c) Assist the examiner
d) record and report the information.
c) Assist the examiner
- Another name for stone in urinary tract:
a) Calix
b) Calculus
c) Calcemia
d) Calcitoni
b) Calculus
Urine that remains in patient’s bladder after he voids is called:
a) Reflux urine
b) Over flow urine
c) Retention urine
d) Residual urine
Residual urine
For the normal person the urine specific gravity is ranged between:
a) 1.000 - 1.010
b) 1.015 - 1.025
c) 1.025 - 1.050
d) 1.050 - 1.070
b) 1.015 - 1.025
Which of the following term is used to indicate total urine output of less
than 50 ml in 24 hours:
a) Anuria
b) Oliguria
c) Dysuria
d) Polyuria
a) Anuria
- The name of procedure for the removal of urinary bladder stones is:
a) Cystolithiasis
b) Cystolithectomy
c) Cystometry
d) Cystoextractio
b) Cystolithectomy
- Insertion of tube through the nose into stomach called:
a) Orogastric intubation
b) Nasogastric intubation
c) Nasointestinal intubation
d) Transabdominal tube
b) Nasogastric intubation
- Lavage is:
a) Giving nourishment by tube
b) Surgical opening in the stomach
c) Removing substances from the stomach
d) Non of the abov
c) Removing substances from the stomach
All of the following are abnormal color of urine except:
a) Urine has no color
b) Bright red color
c) Light yellow
d) Light green
Light yellow
Urinary elimination process means:
a) The process of reabsorption of water and minerals in the kidneys
b) The process of urine collection of human bladder
c) The process of releasing excess fluid and wastes
d) The process of urine assessment by lab technician
The process of releasing excess fluid and wastes
- Measurement of NGT as:
a) From neck to nose to epigastric region
b) From shoulder to nose to zephoid process
c) From ear to nose to zephoid process
d) From mouth to nose to zephoid proces
From ear to nose to zephoid process
Pain transmission begins by stimulating of:
a) Nerve plexus
b) Nerve receptors
c) Spinal cord
d) Skin
b) Nerve receptors
- Normal blood PH range from:
a) 7.25 - 7.30
b) 6.40 - 7
c) 7.75 - 8
d) 7.35 - 7.45
d) 7.35 - 7.45
- Promotion of oxygenation can be occur by:
a) Maintain airway open
b) Positioning (sitting or fowler)
c) Oxygen supply
d) Breathing techniques
e) All of the above
f) Non of the above
e) All of the above
All of the following factors are considered when selecting a syringe and
needle except:
a) Depth of the tissue
b) Family history
c) Type of the drug
d) Size of the patient
b) Family history
All of the following route of administration considered parentral routs
except:
a) Intradermal
b) IV
c) SC
d) Otic
e) Intra joint
f) Ophthalmic
g) Both d and f
g) Both d and f
- IV bolus administration means:
a) Give drug IV in short period
b) Give drug IV in a long period
c) Give drug IV by infusion
d) Give drug IV quickly without dilution
d) Give drug IV quickly without dilution
Z – Track technique used in:
a) Deep intramuscular injection
b) Irritant drugs
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
c) Both a and b
All of the following IM injection sites except:
a) Dorsogluteal
b) Forearm
c) Ventrogluteal
d) Vastus lateralis
e) Deltoid
b) Forearm
The patient lying face down:
a) Supine
b) Prone
c) Fowler
d) Lateral
b) Prone
Which of the following is an objective data:
a) Chest pain
b) Dizziness
c) Blue nails
d) Anxiety
Blue nails
Consider as the most accessible and convenient method for temperature:
making:
a) Oral
b) Rectal
c) Axillary
d) Tympany
c) Axillary
It is the most single important procedure to prevent cross contamination:
a) Cleaning
b) Disinfecting
c) Sterilizing
d) Hand washing
d) Hand washing
Normal saline solution is considered which of the following:
a) Isotonic solution
b) Hypotonic
c) Hypertonic
d) Non of the above
a) Isotonic solution
The best example for nursing order:
a) Encourage fluid
b) Change patient position every 2 hours
c) Provide oral fluid
d) All of above
d) All of above
All of the following signs of hypoxia except:
a) Rapid pulse
b) Cyanosis
c) Rapid shallow respiration
d) Diarrhea
Diarrhea
Hypercabnia is:
a) Bluish discoloration of the skin nails beds and mucosal membrane
b) Inadequate alveolar ventilation can lead to hypoxia
c) Accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood
d) Slow respiration rate
c) Accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood
Which position allow maximum chest expansion:
a) Prone
b) Semifowler
c) Supine
d) Lateral
b) Semifowler
which of the following its the major function is provide energy supply:
a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Fats
d) Minerals
b) Carbohydrates
What does number 18 mean in BMI (body mass index):
a) Under weight
b) Morbidity obese
c) Malnourished
d) Normal
a) Under weight
Constipation is:
a) Fewer than 5 bowel movements per week
b) Fewer than 3 bowel movements per week
c) Passage of liquid feces and increase frequency of defecation.
d) Air or gas in the GI tract
b) Fewer than 3 bowel movements per week
- Oliguria is:
a) Production of abnormally large amounts of urine by kidneys
b) Lack of urine production with no effective urine production
c) Voiding either painful or difficult
d) Low urine output usually less than 500ml a day or 30ml in an hour
d) Low urine output usually less than 500ml a day or 30ml in an hour
All of the following are normal characteristics of urine except:
a) Volume 1200-1500ml per day.
b) Straw color
c) Sterile, with no microorganisms
d) Cloudy
d) Cloudy
The preferred site for IM injection is:
a) Ventrogluteal site
b) Vastus lateralis
c) Dorsogluteal site
d) Deltoid muscle
a) Ventrogluteal site
The intentional wound is:
a) Occurring during therapy
b) Occur accidently
c) The mucus membrane or skin surface is broken
d) The tissue is traumatized without break in the skin
a) Occurring during therapy
The abrasion is:
a) Open wound involving the skin only
b) It is due to surface scrape
c) Its painful wound
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
All of the followings are risk factors for nosocomial infection except:
a) Poor hand washing
b) Using a sterile techniques
c) Contamination of closed drainage system
d) Improper procedure technique (dressing, suctioning, catheterization)
b) Using a sterile techniques
Medical asepsis includes:
a) Hand washing
b) Personal protective equipments
c) Cleaning, disinfecting, sterilizing
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
Acute infection is :
a) Infection may occur slowly and takes long time
b) Is limited to specific part of the body where microorganism remain
c) Infection appear suddenly and in short time
d) When microorganisms spread and damage different parts of the body
c) Infection appear suddenly and in short time
Indirect transmission of infection include:
a) Vehicle born transmission
b) Vector born transmission
c) Neither a nor b
d) A and B are correct
) A and B are correct
ncubation period of infection:
a) Person is most infectious and non specific sign and symptoms
b) Organisms are growing and multiplying
c) Recovery from infection
d) Presence of specific signs and symptoms
Organisms are growing and multiplying
During a retention catheter or bladder irrigation the nurse must use:
a) Sterile equipment & wear sterile gloves
b) Clean equipment & maintain surgical asepsis
c) Sterile equipment &maintain medical asepsis
d) Clean equipment & technique
c) Sterile equipment &maintain medical asepsis
The millimeters of drug that should be used to give 0.5 gm if the label on the
bottle reads 5 gm in 10 ml is:
a) 2.0
b) 1.0
c) 0.5
d) 5.0
b) 1.0
Robert Reinhold , a construction worker , is seen in the ER with low blood
pressure , normal pulse , cool skin temperature and weakness . these are clinical
signs of:
a) Heat exhaustion
b) Heat stroke
c) Heat cramp
d) Hypothermia
d) Hypothermia
Which of the following would be an appropriate site for taking a pulse on 2-
year -old
a) Redial
b) Apical
c) Brachial
d) Femoral
c) Brachial
If measuring BP were necessary in the leg . the nurse would expect the
diastolic pressure to be:
a) 10-40 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
b) 20_30 mmhg lower than in the brachial artery
c) 50 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
d) Essentially the same as that in the brachial artery
d) Essentially the same as that in the brachial artery
The nurse could best auscultator the point of maximum impulse PMI in 8
years old at the:
a) Furth intercostals space , left of midclavicular line
b) Fifth intercostals space , left of midclavicular line
c) Second intercostals space , right of midclavicular line
d) Third intercostals space , left of midclavicular line
b) Fifth intercostals space , left of midclavicular line
Mrs. Jarrett has abdominal pain of unknown origin, during the abdominal
examination , which of the following is most accurate:
a) The palpitation should be performed first
b) Auscultation is best done with Mrs. Jarrett in the sitting position
c) Bowel sounds should be heard by examining each quadrant for 3 _ 5 minutes
d) Paralytic ileus would result in low, growling sound
a) The palpitation should be performed first
The nurse employs surgical aseptic technique when:
a) Placing soiled linen in moisture resistant bags
b) Inserting an intravenous catheter
c) Disposing of syringes in puncture proof containers
d) Washing hands before changing a dressing
b) Inserting an intravenous catheter
Which of the following could contribute to causing a nosocomial infection:
a) Washing hands before applying a dressing.
b) Taping a plastic bag to the bed rail for tissue disposal
c) Placing a Foley bag on the bed when transferring a client
d) Using butadiene to cleans the skin before starting an IV line
b) Taping a plastic bag to the bed rail for tissue disposal
- Mr. walls has allergy abdominal incision that requires a dressing . the
incision is packed with half inch iodoform packing (soaked in butadiene) and
covered with a dry sterile 4 by 4 inch gauze. when changing the dressing , the
nurse accidentally drops the packing onto the client’s abdomen. the nurse
should:
b) Throw the paking away and prepare a new one
The overall rule for avoiding accidents with equipment in the hospital is for
the nurse to:
a) Always lock wheels
b) Never operate equipment without prior instruction
c) Always unplug equipment when moving the client
d) Never use equipment without a person to assist you
c) Always unplug equipment when moving the client
Jessica , age 4 years , is scheduled to receive an IV line the most appropriate
type of restraint to use on Jessica to prevent her from trying to remove the IV
line would be a
a) Wrist restraint
b) Jacket restraint
c) Elbow restraint
d) Mummy restraint
a) Wrist restraint
The workmen cause an electrical fire when installing a new piece of
equipment in the intensive care unit . Mr. Richey is on a ventilator on the next
room . the first action the nurse should take is to:
a) Attempt to extinguish the fire
b) Pull the alarm
c) Call the physician to obtain orders to take Mr. Richey off the ventilator
d) Use an ambo bag & remove Mr. Richey from the are
d) Use an ambo bag & remove Mr. Richey from the area
Two nurses are standing on opposite side of the bed to move Mr. Chatrowx
up in bed with a draw sheet. where should the nurses be standing in relation with
Mr. chatrowx’s body as they prepare to move him:
a) Even with his thorax
b) Even with his shoulders
c) Even with his hips
d) Even with his knees
Even with his shoulders
The nurse notes a client’s skin is redden with a small abrasion and serous
fluid present . the nurse would classify this stage of ulcer formation as:
a) Stage 1
b) Stage 2
c) Stage 3
d) Stage 4
Stage 2
When turning a client , the nurse notices a reddened area on the coccyx.
what skin care interventions should the nurse use on this area:
a) Clean & dry the area & add a protective moisturizer
b) Hydrogen peroxide
c) Normal saline solution
d) Povidon-iodine
a) Clean & dry the area & add a protective moisturizer
The nurse prepares to irrigate Mrs. Notz’s wound . the primary reason for
this procedure is to:
a) Remove debris from the wound.
b) Decrease scar formation.
c) Improve circulation to the wound.
d) Decrease irritation from wound drainage.
a) Remove debris from the wound.
- Mr. Milan has a large abdominal wound that requires a dressing change
every 4 hours . he will be discharged to his home setting where he will continue
the dressing care which of the following is true concerning his healing process:
a) An antiseptic agent is best followed with a rinse of sterile saline solution
b) A heat lamp should be used every 2 hours to rid the wound area of contaminants
c) Sterile technique should be emphasized to Mr. Milan & his family
d) Addressing covering should allow the wound area to remind mois
c) Sterile technique should be emphasized to Mr. Milan & his family
The route of drug administration that provides the most rapid &
dependable absorption is :
a) Oral
b) Intramuscular
c) Subcutaneous
d) Intravenous
d) Intravenous
For accurate drug administration the nurse should read the drug label :
a) 2 times
b) 3 times
c) 4 times
d) 5 times
b) 3 times
- The physician’s order to administer 3 L of IV fluid 5% D \ 0.45 % normal
saline over 24 hours . The drop factor is 60 gtt / ml. the nurse regulates the IV
at :
a) 25 gtt / min
b) 100 gtt / min
c) 125 gtt / min
d) 150 gtt / min
c) 125 gtt / min
ORDERED : 500 cc D5RL to be infused in 6 hours . The drop factor is 15.
How many gtt per minute should you give:
a) 28 gtt / min
b) 32 gtt / min
c) 21 gtt / min
d) 30 gtt / min
c) 21 gtt / min
A medication order should never be implemented if :
a) The nurse doesn’t know the physician .
b) The nurse doesn’t know the patient’s history .
c) The nurse Questions any part of the order
d) The nurse did not know witness the writing of the order
c) The nurse Questions any part of the order
A medication order should never be implemented if :
a) The nurse doesn’t know the physician .
b) The nurse doesn’t know the patient’s history .
c) The nurse Questions any part of the order
d) The nurse did not know witness the writing of the order
c) The nurse Questions any part of the order
ORDERD: penicillin 400.000 u IM now
AVAILABLE: penicillin 800.000 u per 2 cc
how many ml should you give?
a) 2 ml
b) 1 ml
c) 0.2 ml
d) 0.4 ml
l
b) 1 ml
At 9:45 PM nurse sheener , Mrs. Rooney evening nurse arrives with
sleeping medication . Nurse sheener is a summer nursing student & doesn’t
know any of the individuals on the unit. How should nurse sheener determine
that she is giving the right medication to the right individual?
a) Examine the individual’s name posted outside the door.
b) Say: “Mrs. Rooney, I’ve your medication.”
c) Ask: are you Mrs. Rooney?”
d) Say: “I’m nurse sheener . What is your name “
d) Say: “I’m nurse sheener . What is your name “
Mr. Mulligan, LPN, IS Mrs. Rooney’s primary nurse & is working the 8:00
AM to 4:00 PM shift. The next four questions refer to this situation.
At 10:10 AM nurse Mulligan brings Mrs. Rooney her 10:00 AM medication.
Mrs. Rooney says, [oh, I’ve already had those little red pills once this morning;
do I really need more? ] . What would be most appropriate response by nurse
Mulligan?
a) “I checked your medication very carefully, Mrs. Rooney, but to make sure these
are right, I’ll check the chart one more time
b) ” I checked & double checked your medication orders and I’m sure I’m right,
please take them”
c) Let me check with the doctor. I’ll be right back “
d) “ I think these are correct, but to make sure, I’ll discuss this with the head nurse
a) “I checked your medication very carefully, Mrs. Rooney, but to make sure these
are right, I’ll check the chart one more tim
- The medication order is for indomethacin . p.o 50mg , bid , this drug is
irritating to the stomach mucosa . For this reason the nurse should:
a) Give the medication one hour before meals.
b) Give the medication 2 hour after meals.
c) Ask the physician for an IV preparation
d) Have food available when administering the medication
) Have food available when administering the medication
You are preparing to administer Mrs. Carter’s eye drops. The correct
position for her to assume would be:
a) Head titled forward, placing the drops in the conjunctiva sac.
b) Head titled backward, placing the drops in the lower conjunctival sac.
c) Head titled forward, placing the drops directly on the eyeball.
d) Head titled backward, placing the drops directly on the eyeball.
b) Head titled backward, placing the drops in the lower conjunctival sac.
To instill drops in the adult patient , the ear canal is opened by pulling the
ear :
a) Up and back
b) Down and back
c) Up and forward
d) Back and forward
a) Up and back
The nurse is giving heparin subcutaneously. Which needle should the nurse
use:
a) 19 gauge, 1 ½ inch
b) 21 gauge, 1 inch
c) 22 gauge, 1 ½ inch
d) 25 gauge, 5/8 inch
d) 25 gauge, 5/8 inch
The nurse correctly administer an SC injection a ………degree angle:
a) 15
b) 30
c) 90
d) 45
d) 45
Which of the following is true concerning a SC injection:
a) A bleb indicates that the medication has been properly injected
b) Drug absorption is slower than with the IM route.
c) 0.2 cc of air should be drawn in the syringe before administration
d) Up to 2 cc of water-soluble medication can be given by the SC route.
b) Drug absorption is slower than with the IM route.
When giving medication , the label should be checked 3 times . Which of the
following is not one of these times:
a) When the nurse reaches for the container
b) Immediately prior to pouring medication
c) When the nurse located the drug on the shell
d) When replacing the container to the drawer or shelf.
c) When the nurse located the drug on the shell
Mr. Baker is to receive penicillin IM. Nurse hill locates the site of the
injection by planning the posterior superior iliac spine & the greater trochanter .
An imaginary line is drawn the posterior superior iliac spine & the greater
trochanter . The injection side is lateral & slightly superior to the midpoint of the
line . Which of the following is correct name of the site:
a) Dorsogluteal site.
b) Rectus femoral site.
c) Ventrogluteal site
d) Vastus lateralis
c) Ventrogluteal site
Which of the following is the reason for using the Z tract technique for
injections :
a) For medication of over 5cc in quantity
b) For medication that is highly irritating to subcutaneous tissue
c) For medication that stains the tissue
d) For medication that cannot be given orally
b) For medication that is highly irritating to subcutaneous tissue
- Which of the following orders is complete :
a) Ampicillin 250mg IM q12hrs x 10 days
b) Maalox 30 cc po
c) Humulin R insulin SQ in AM & noon
d) OPV (oral polio vaccine) 0.5 cc
a) Ampicillin 250mg IM q12hrs x 10 days
Mrs. Kelly tells the nurse that her arm is sore from an injection she received
early in the day. She states “the nurse gave me a shot, and I heard her say that
the needle was a 25 gauge. Isn’t that too big for a local injection?” . Your best
response would be:
a) “A 25 gauge needle is a small needle , but it can cause some discomfort . let me
see your arm .”
b) “Really, Mrs. Kelly, no once gets hurts with a 25 gauge needle . you are over –
reacting to the shot “
c) “A 25 gauge needle is very small . you are just nervous about the injection.”
d) “A 25 gauge needle is very small. So you are wrong about the pain from the
injection.”
A 25 gauge needle is a small needle , but it can cause some discomfort . let me
see your arm .”
Mrs. Davis has a written order from her physician for Demerol 100 mg stat
Which of the following best explain this order:
a) Give it needed
b) Give once when needed .
c) Give once immediately
d) Give once when specified
c) Give once immediately
20 minutes after receiving her noon dose of oral medication , Mrs. Rooney
vomits . To assure accuracy in medication administration the first thing nurse
Mulligan should do is to :
a) Report the situation to the head nurse
b) Contact the physician
c) Administer another dose of medication
d) Examine the vomits for signs of medication
b) Contact the physician
- While checking Mr. Appendectomy’s vital signs , he requests his “
medication for the pain in my incision “ the vital signs were :
BP 100/60 , T – 98.4 F , P – 66 , RR – 10 .you decide he may not have the
Morphine sulfate injection at this time due to witch vital signs reading :
a) Blood pressure
b) Pulse
c) Respiration
d) Temperature
) Respiration
After withdrawing the needle from the tissue when administering an ID
injection you :-
a) Apply firm pressure to the site with your thumb .
b) Do not rewipe the site
c) Gently wipe the site
d) Massage the site vigorously
Do not rewipe the site
- Asking the patient if he is allergic to any medication is a part of the ……
phase of the nursing process:
a) Assessment
b) Planning
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
Assessment
- Teaching the patient about the medication is a part of the …….phase of the
nursing process ?
a) Assessment
b) Planning
c) Implementation
d) Evaluation
c) Implementation
A nurse is unable to read the label on a bottle of liquid medication because
the label is stained from spillage . the nurse knows that the correct procedure is
to :
a) Ask the charge nurse to verify the medication in the bottle and apply a new label
b) Smell and test the medication and apply a new label if certain of the contents
c) Empty the contents down the drain and notify the charge and the pharmacist
d) Send the bottle back to the pharmacy to be relabeled
d) Send the bottle back to the pharmacy to be relabeled
Medications which are labeled [ Otic ] are specific for use in \ on the :-
a) Eyes
b) Ears
c) Nose
d) Throat
b) Ears
- A primary concern when giving heparin SC is to prevent:
a) Pain and bruising .
b) Pain and bleeding
c) Bleeding and bruising
d) Injecting a vein
c) Bleeding and bruising
- Is it necessary for the nurse to wear gloves during administration of an
intermittent feeding through a G-tube:
a) Yes , because it is a sterile procedure
b) Yes , because universal precautions must be maintained
c) No , because it is not a sterile procedure
d) No , because there is no danger of contact with body fluid if procedure is
performed correctly
b) Yes , because universal precautions must be maintained
Narcolepsy is a condition characterized by:
a) Excessive anxiety
b) Excessive sleeping
c) Excessive fatigue
d) Excessive sleepiness
d) Excessive sleepiness
4- You are giving an injection of Morphine 3 mg & Tigan 199 mg IM to an
elderly debilitated client. He has sacral edema with extensive bruising of the
buttocks & the ventral gluteal areas which of the following sites is the best choice
for injection :
a) Deltoid site using the Z-tract method
b) Dorsal gluteal , since the volume is over 2 ml
c) Vastus lateralis using a 22 gauge 1 inch needle
d) Abdomen using a 5/8 inch needle
c) Vastus lateralis using a 22 gauge 1 inch needle
To prepare the skin for injection the nurse would use :
a) Friction with back and forth motions at the site with alcohol swab
b) Friction and alcohol swab moving from outer edge to center of site
c) Friction and alcohol swab with circular motions and palpate site gently with finger
pad before injection
d) Friction and circular motions with alcohol swab from center of site outward
d) Friction and circular motions with alcohol swab from center of site outward
IM injection into the deltoid muscle should be limited to :
a) 2.5 ml of solution
b) 2 ml of solution
c) 1 ml of solution
d) 0.5 ml of solution
1 ml of solution
300- The abbreviation p.c refers to:
a) Before meal.
b) Nothing by mouth
c) Non of the above
d) After meal
d) After meal
7- The type of needle selected for the ( dorsogluteal ) intramuscular ( IM )
injections would be based on :
1) The size of the patient
2) The viscosity of the antibiotic .
3) The position of the patient .
4) The volume of medication .
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,2
d
301- For all of the following poisoning situations induced vomiting and gastric lavage recommended except:
a) Food poisoning
b) Drug poisoning
c) Caustic and corrosives poisoning
d) Plant poisoning
c) Caustic and corrosives poisoning
302- To prevent oral mucosa infection q.4.h, instruct patient to use :
a) Warm saline gargle
b) Glycerin oil
c) Antibiotic
d) Warm gargle with mineral oil
a) Warm saline gargle
303- Before irrigating a client’s NGT the nurse must first :
a) Assess breath sounds
b) Instill 15 ml. Of normal saline
c) Auscultate for bowel sounds
d) Check the tube for placement
d) Check the tube for placement
304- Which of the following is not an abnormal finding in a routine urine analysis:
a) Ph 6.0
b) Pus
c) RBCs
d) Protein
a) Ph 6.0
305- The best method of preventing the spread of infection is :
a) Isolating all patients suspected of having an infection
b) Wearing rubber gloves when performing all nursing procedures
c) Washing the hands thoroughly before & after each contact with a patient
d) Sterilizing the hands with strong germicide at least once a day
c) Washing the hands thoroughly before & after each contact with a patient
306- The most reliable method used for sterilizing hospital equipment to be free of spores and bacteria is :-
a) Soaking in strong chemical
b) Washing and drying it thoroughly after use
c) Applying steam under pressure in an autoclave
d) Boiling the equipment
c) Applying steam under pressure in an autoclave
307- A must important nursing measure in the prevention of Thrombophlebitis for the post-partum patient is :-
a) Elastic stocking
b) Early ambulation
c) Anticoagulant
d) Isometric exercise
b) Early ambulation
308- The most important factor in the promotion and maintenance of wound healing both during surgery and the postoperative period is :
a) Adequate fluid intake
b) Proper administration of antibiotics
c) Strict asepsis
d) Frequent cleansing of the wound
c) Strict asepsis
309- If the skin must be shaven prior to surgery . Ideally the preoperative shave be done at:
a) The night before
b) Early in the morning of the surgery
c) No more than one hour before surgery
d) By the patient before entering
c) No more than one hour before surgery
310- The abbreviation “Hs” refers to:
a) Treatment
b) At bed time
c) After meal
d) Before meal
b) At bed time
311- The term N means:
a) Drug is not given via mouth
b) Drug is not available
c) The client is no present
d) The client refuse to have the drug
a) Drug is not given via mouth
312- The life span for normal RBC is:
a) 40 days
b) 60 days
c) 80 days
d) 120 days
d) 120 days
313- All of the following are fat soluble vitamins except:
a) VitK
b) VitC
c) VitA
d) VitE
e) VitD
b) VitC
314- Outpatient surgery is:
a) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home in the same period
b) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home after 2 days
c) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home after a week
d) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home after month
a) Operation procedure performed on patient who return home in the same period
315- Sim’s position is done on :
a) Lt side, chest forward, Rt knee bent toward head Rt arm forward, Lt arm behind the body
b) Rt side, chest forward, Rt knee bent toward head Rt arm forward, Lt arm behind the body
c) All of the above
d) Non of the above
a) Lt side, chest forward, Rt knee bent toward head Rt arm forward, Lt arm behind the body
316- Reclining position with the knees bent hips rotated outward and feet flat:
a) Lithotomy position
b) Dorsal recumbent position
c) Modified standing position
d) Knee-chest position
b) Dorsal recumbent position
317- All of the following is/are true about measuring blood pressure:
a) Measurement shouldn’t exceed 5-10 mmhg between two measurement at the same time unless pathology
b) Cuff’s bladder width should be 40% at least
c) Cuff’s bladder Length should be 80% - 100%
d) All of the above are true
e) Both b and c only true
d) All of the above are true
318- Wave like sensation that can be palpated in the peripheral artery:
a) Pulse
b) Korot koff sound
c) Pulse pressure
d) Pulse deficit
a) Pulse
319- Normal volume of circulating blood:
a) 4.5 - 5.5 in adult female
b) 5 - 6 in adult male
c) Both a and b
d) Non of the above
c) Both a and b
320- Which of the following play an important role in calcium absorption:
a) Vit E
b) Vit C
c) Vit B
d) Vit D
d) Vit D
321- The nurse is preparing to begin CPR the nurse should first:
a) Open airway
b) Check carotid pulse
c) Check respiration
d) Check injuries
b) Check carotid pulse
- The nurse needs to give an injection to 5-year-old Shawn . Which of the
following approaches by the nurse is appropriate:
a) “Shawn I need to give you a shot. Which one of your arms should I give it in ? “
b) “Shawn , is it ok if I give you a shot now ?”
c) “Shawn , I have a hypodermic injection to administer to you now “
d) “Shawn, I have a shot to give you . be a big boy and don’t cry
a) “Shawn I need to give you a shot. Which one of your arms should I give it in ? “
322- The maneuver that performed for chocked person is:
a) Hemlock maneuver
b) Leopold maneuver
c) Aspiration maneuver
d) Non of the above
a) Hemlock maneuver
- The largest gauge needle of the following is :-
a) 19 gauge
b) 20 gauge
c) 21 gauge
d) 22 gauge
a) 19 gauge
323- The nurse understand that in absence of pathology client is stimulated to have breath by:
a) Oxygen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Calcium
d) Lactic acid
a) Oxygen
- Optimum normal urine output hourly to an adult :
a) 10cc
b) 25cc
c) 50cc
d) 100cc
c) 50cc
324- The inability to void although the kidneys are producing urine and enters the bladder is known as:
a) Urinary urgency
b) Urinary retention
c) Dysuria
d) Non of the above
b) Urinary retention
Scurvy is a deficiency of :
a) Vit A
b) Vit B
c) Vit C
d) Vit D
c) Vit C
- If measuring BP were necessary in the leg . the nurse would expect the
Systolic pressure to be:
a) 10-40 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
b) 20_30 mmhg lower than in the brachial artery
c) 50 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
d) Essentially the same as that in the brachial artery
a) 10-40 mmhg higher than in the brachial artery
325- Which of the following statements best describe Oliguria:
a) Absence of urine
b) Volume of urine 100 ml or less in 24 hour
c) Both a and b
d) Non of the above
c) Both a and b
326- Cylindrical container to collect urine:
a) Urinal
b) Bed pan
c) Urine bag
d) All of the above
a) Urinal
3- Which of the following vitamins has coagulation of blood :
a) Vit E
b) Vit K
c) Vit A
d) Vit C
b) Vit K
Deep breathing and coughing exercise done :
a) At angle of 90 degree
b) Angel 45 degree
c) Lie laterally
d) Semi-fowler’s position
d) Semi-fowler’s position
327- Which of the following is/are isotonic solution/s:
a) NACL 0.9% solution
b) NACL 1.8%solution
c) RL solution
d) All of the above
e) Only a and c
e) Only a and c
The best time to collect urine for culture :-
a) Early morning awaking sample .
b) 30 minutes after voiding
c) 30 minutes after fluid
d) Double voided
a) Early morning awaking sample
328- Which of the following factors affect wound healing:
a) Type of wound injury
b) Depth of injury
c) Quality of circulation
d) All of the above
d) All of the above
- When assessing the unconscious victim for pulselessness , which of the
following is the best artery to check :-
a) Radial
b) Femoral
c) Brachial
d) Carotid
D
329- All of the following are true about sources of energy except:
a) Protein provide the body with 9 Kcl for each 1 gm
b) Minerals provide a minimum of calories
c) Carbohydrates provide 4 Kcl for each 1 gm
d) Fat provide 4 Kcl for each 1 gm
e) Both a, b, and d
f) Only b
e) Both a, b, and d
- In treating puncture wounds , the first priority is to :-
a) Stop the bleeding
b) Care of the wound
c) Give prophylactic treatment against tetanus
d) Remove the object from the wound
a) Stop the bleeding
330- Black stool known as:
a) Melena
b) Steatorrhea
c) Xerosis
d) Non of the above
a) Melena
Nursing measures can be used to lower core body temperature include :-
a) Immersing the patient in cold water
b) Placing the patient on a hypothermic blanket
c) Administering chilled saline enemas
d) All of the above measures
b) Placing the patient on a hypothermic blanket
A patient develops a small decubitus ulcer on the sacral area . the nurse
should plan to deal with this problem by:
a) Keeping the area dry
b) Applying moist dressing
c) Providing a low caloric diet
d) Keep the patient on the right side
a) Keeping the area dry
331- Movement a way of the median plane is known as:
a) Adduction
b) Abduction
c) Flexion
d) Extension
b) Abduction
During physical examination , the part of the kidney may be felt on deep
palpation is:
a) Lower pole of the right kidney
b) Lower pole of the left kidney
c) Entire right kidney
d) Right and left kidney
a) Lower pole of the right kidney
332- When there is a severe bleeding the best to do immediately:
a) Apply sterile dressing
b) Apply a pressure bandage
c) Apply tourniquet
d) Elevate the area
b) Apply a pressure bandage
For how many days after a facial wound are sutures usually left in place :
a) 3 days
b) 10 days
c) 14 days
d) 7 days
d) 7 days
333- One step of nursing process is carrying out written nursing care, this is called:
a) Assessment
b) Evaluation
c) Planning
d) Implementation
d) Implementation
334- Which of the following factors play an important role in elimination:
a) Body temperature and diaphoresis
b) The level of activity
c) The anatomical structure of the bowels
d) The ability to control anal muscle
b) The level of activity
To control bleeding from the radial artery , pressure to be applied directly
above the:
a) Thumb on the flexor surface of the arm
b) Thumb on the extensor surface of the arm
c) Little finger on the flexor surface of the arm
d) Little finger on the extensor surface of the arm
b) Thumb on the extensor surface of the arm
335- The most common site for pressure ulcer is:
a) Sternum
b) Humerus
c) Sacrum
d) Occipital area e) Hands
e) Non of the above
c) Sacrum
As a child increases age , cardiac and respiratory rate should :
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remain unchanged
d) Stabilize at the adult level
b) Decrease
336- The term “Eupnea” means that respiration that characterized by:
a) Normal exchange of air
b) Temporary cessation of breathing
c) Change in the usual respiratory
d) Marked increase in depth of respiration
a) Normal exchange of air
An excellent diet suggest for an elderly patient is :
a) High-calorie , low-fat , high carbohydrate diet
b) low-calorie , low-fat , lot of fruits and vegetables
c) High-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet
d) low-calorie , high-fat , high protein diet
b) low-calorie , low-fat , lot of fruits and vegetables
337- If the physician ordered Amikacin q.i.d the best time to give:
a) 3:00 pm, 9:00 am, 3:00 pm, 9:00 am
b) 3:00 am, 9:00 am, 3:00 pm, 9:00 pm
c) 6:00 am, 2:00 pm, 10:00 pm
d) 12:00 am, 12:00 pm
b
338- The most stable form of ambulatory aid is:
a) A cane
b) A walking belt
c) Crutches
d) A walker
d) A walker
How many liters of oxygen can be given with nasal canula ?
a) 1-2 liters
b) 1-10 liters
c) 1-6 liters
d) Non of the above
c) 1-6 liters
339- When opening a sterile package, the nurse should unfold:
a) The left side first
b) The nearest side first
c) The far side first
d) The right side first
c) The far side first
- First management of unconscious victim is :-
a) Administer shock medications
b) Determine unresponsiveness
c) Administer oxygen.
d) Non of the above
b) Determine unresponsiveness
340- The venturi mask delivers supply of up to:
a) 10% oxygen
b) 20% oxygen
c) 30% oxygen
d) 40% oxygen
e) 100% oxygen
d) 40% oxygen
- The force with which the blood is pushing against the arterial walls when
the ventricles are contracting is called:
a) Pulse pressure
b) Pressure gradient
c) Systolic pressure
d) Diastolic pressure
Systolic pressure
341- The Lithotomy position is most often used to examine:
a) The heart and lung
b) The rectum and vagina
c) The rectum and colon
d) The bladder and uterus
b) The rectum and vagina
Carbohydrates are stored in the body in the form of :-
a) Glucose
b) Glucagon
c) Glycogen
d) Glucose 6 phosphate
Glycogen
9- The period in which communicable is most contagious is the :-
a) Incubation period
b) Period of illness
c) Convalescent period
d) All are equally contagious
a) Incubation period
342-The adaptation theory was developed by:
a) Florence Nightingale
b) Virginia Henderson
c) Dorothea Orem
d) Sister Callista Roy
d) Sister Callista Roy
- An injection the gluteal site must be given in which quadrant of the
buttocks :
a) Upper- inner quadrant
b) Upper-outer quadrant
c) Lower-inner quadrant
d) Lower- outer quadrant
b) Upper-outer quadrant
343- Which of the following are associated with Disuse Syndrome:
a) Contractures, diarrhea, and vomiting.
b) Contractures, diarrhea, and atelectasis.
c) Atelectasis, increased appetite, and muscle weakness. d) Contractures, muscle weakness, and atelectasis
d) Contractures, muscle weakness, and atelectasis
The most important route of drug excretion for nonvolatile substances is:
a) Lungs
b) Kidneys
c) Feces
d) Liver
b) Kidneys
344- Of the following types of exercise, which is performed with the assistance of another person:
a) Active exercise
b) Passive exercise.
c) Aerobic exercise.
d) Isometric exercise
b) Passive exercise.
- Which of the following amounts of water per day should be ingested by the
average person to maintain hydration :
a) 500cc
b) 1000cc
c) 1200cc
d) 2500cc
D
345- Which of the following best defines pulse deficit
a) The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates.
b) The difference between the radial and femoral pulse rates,
c) The difference between the brachial and radial pulse rates.
d) The difference between the temporal and the femoral pulse rates.
a) The difference between the apical and radial pulse rates.
- In the internal environment , fluids make up what percent of body weight :-
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 40%
d) 70%
d) 70%
In which of the following ways can ascorbic acid be administer?
a) Orally
b) IM
c) Diluted intravenous fluids
d) all of the above
a) Orally
- Following a sigmoid scope , the patient should be observed for signs of
hemorrhage and :-
a) Fluid loss
b) Performation
c) Flatus
d) Nausea
b) Performation
Hypertension is a persistent elevation of systolic and diastolic pressure
above:
a) 140/90 mmhg
b) 150/190 mmhg
c ) 160/100 mmhg
d) 160/110 mmhg
a) 140/90 mmhg
The patient who administered to him chemotherapy what would
appropriate nursing intervention:
a) Select large vein to the drug.
b) Give sedative drug as prescribed after chemotherapy.
c) Don’t cover some drugs of chemotherapy
d) None of the above
a) Select large vein to the drug
After below knee amputation:
a) Keep the patient in semi fowler’s
b) Stump to be evaluated
c) Watch the site for bleeding
d) Non of the above
B
Active immunity is acquired by :
a) Having had the disease
b ) From mother to fetus
c ) Taking the vaccine
d) Non of the abov
A
Normal arterial O2 saturation :
a) 85%
b) 92%
c ) 97%
d) 100%
d) 100%
Before the collection of blood culture , the site should be cleansed:
a) 70% isopropyl alcohol
b) 100% isopropyl alcohol
c) Povidone iodine
d) Non of the above
A
Blood transfusion reaction occurs , the nurse should:
a) Sow down the rate
b) Notify the physician
c) Shut off the transfusion
d) Non of the above
c) Shut off the transfusion
If O2 is ordered as medication , which method the nurse would choose:
a) Nasal canula
b) Nasal catheter
c) O2 mask
d) O2 tent
a) Nasal canula
- Temp. 98.6 F , is equal to :
a) 37C
b) 37.5C
c ) 36.8C
d) 37.3
a) 37C
One fluid ounce equal to :
a) 30cc
b) 15cc
c) 60cc
d) 5cc
a) 30cc
Most effective , easy and un-expensive method of sterilization is :
a) Pressure
b) Heat
c) Drying
d) Antiseptic
a) Pressure
To prevent irreversible brain hypoxia CPR should be commenced within:
a) 2-3min
b) 4-6 min
c) 6-8 min
d) 8-10 min
a) 2-3min
Surgical asepsis means :
a) Destroying bacteria from articles .
b) Removing the bacteria which is in contact with the patient
c) Destroying the bacteria before entering in to the body
d) Hand washing
a) Destroying bacteria from articles .
The purpose of urine culture is to:
a) Determine the duration of urinary infection
b) Identify the organisms that cause urinary infection
c) Locate the exact site foe urinary infection
d) Determine the severity of the urinary infection
b) Identify the organisms that cause urinary infection
The primary purpose foe oil retention enema is:
a) Lubricant and soften the stool
b) Increase the fluid in the bowel
c) Break up fecal impaction
d) Increase peristalsis
a) Lubricant and soften the stool
The common site for giving IM injection into the gluteus maximum:
a) Rectus femoris site
b) Vastus lateralis site
c) Dorsoglutal site
d) Ventrogluteal site
Dorsoglutal site
The best definition for assessment:
a) The process of measuring how well a goal or objectives is reached.
b) An expected outcome or desired end result toward which the nurse works.
c) The action of collection and organizing patient information.
d) The acquisition of skills required to meet the needs of the patient.
c) The action of collection and organizing patient information.
The relationship between pulse and respiratory rate is:
a) One respiration to two or three heart beat.
b) One respiration to three or four heart beat.
c) One respiration to four or five heart beat.
d) One respiration to five or six heart beat.
c) One respiration to four or five heart beat.
Swelling and coolness in the skin at the vein puncture site could be indicate
for:
a) Infection
b) Infiltration
c) Phlebitis
d) Air embolism
b) Infiltration
The suitable position for female catheterization is:
a) Supine
b) Dorsal recumbent
c) Prone
d) lithotomY
D
How often to position the inactive patient:
a) At least every 2 hours
b) At least every 3 hours
c) At least every 4 hours
d) At least every once every shift
A
The stages of grieving are identified as:
a) Numbness, anger, resolution, and reorganization
b) Anger, loneliness, depression, and resolution
c) Denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance
d) Depression, guilt, identification, and resolution
C
When the nurse change the client dressing which nursing action is correct:
a) The nurse remove the solid dressing with sterile gloves
b) The nurse frees the tape by pulling it away from the incision
c) The nurse encloses the solid dressing within a latex gloves
d) The nurse clean the wound in circles toward the incision
B
Which of the following is not true when preparing the medication:
a) Prepare the medication under well prepared area
b) Work alone without interruption
c) Don’t use medications with missed labels
d) Check the label of the drug two time
d
The patient tells the nurse that the abdominal incision is ruptured, the
nurse assessed the incision and the nurse noted that the wound has eviscerated
the nurse should do:
a) Apply an abdominal binder to support the wound
b) Apply pressure to the wound
c) Cover the wound with sterile saline dressing
d) Place the patient in supine position
Phlebothrombosis is a collection of clot due to:
a) Venous stasis
b) Traumatic cause
c) Coagulation factors disturbances
d) All of the above
d
- The physician has ordered a client to receive a total dosage of 20.000 units
of heparin in 500 cc of IV fluid the client is to receive 1000 units/hour, the drop
factor is 10 drops/ ml how many drops per minute will the client receive:
a) 3 drops / minute
b) 4 drops / minute
c) 5 drops / minute
d) 6 drops / minute
b
When an accident occurs which of the following steps should be taken first:
a) Report the accident to the proper person promptly
b) Comfort and reassure the patient who was involved
c) Check the condition of the involved patient
d) Call for assistance of other health person
c
The primary goal of infection control is to:
a) Contain the infectious organisms in one place
b) Prevent infectious organisms from producing
c) Prevent the spread of infectious microorganisms
d) Control the effect of microorganisms
c
Which of the followings procedures , should be done first when toe nails are
difficult to cut:
a) File the rough edges first
b) Massage a cream into nails
c) Soak the feet in warm water
d) Apply an antiseptic to the nails
c
When a rational adult wishes to leave the hospital against the medical
advice which of the following is true:
a) He may not leave, until the physician examine him
b) He may leave, only after he has signed a special form
c) He may leave, because he cannot forcefully detained
d) He may leave after his attorney obtains permission
b
- In normal persons the erythrocytes are produced by:
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Bone marrow
d) Lymph nodes
c
Most of the erythrocytes are destroyed in:
a) Spleen
b) Liver
c) Kidney
d) Bone marrow
a
To instill drops in the child patient , the ear canal is opened by pulling the
ear :
a) Up and back
b) Down and back
c) Up and forward
d) Back and forward
b
Which of the following is among an ideal way of collecting a urine specimen
for culture and sensitivity:
a) Use a clean container
b) Discard the first flow of urine to ensure that the urine is not contaminated
c) Collect around 30-50 ml of urine
d) Add preservatives, refrigerate specimen or add ice according to agency’s protocol
b
In assessing the abdomen which of the following is the correct sequence of
the physical assessment:
a) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
b) Palpation, auscultation, percussion, Inspection
c) Inspection, palpation, auscultation, percussion
d) Inspection, auscultation, palpation, percussion
d
Too narrow cuff will cause what change in client BP:
a) True high reading
b) True low reading
c) False high reading
d) False low reading
c
Too loose cuff will cause what change in client BP:
a) True high reading
b) True low reading
c) False high reading
d) False low reading
d
Which is preferable arm when taking BP:
a) An arm with the most contraption
b) The left arm with the client with CVA
c) The right arm
d) The left arm
d
Which of the following is more life threatening:
a) BP 180/100
b) BP 160/120
c) BP 90/60
d) BP 80/50
d
Refer to the pressure when the ventricles at rest:
a) Diastole.
b) Systole
c) Preload
d) Pulse pressure
a
- In cleaning the thermometer after use the direction of the cleaning to follow
medical asepsis:
a) From bulb to stem
b) From stem to bulb
c) From stem to stem
d) From bulb to bulb
b
How long should the thermometer stay in the client’s axilla:
a) 1-3 minutes
b) 4-6 minutes
c) 7-10 minutes
d) 11-13 minutes
c
which of the following statements is true about pulse:
a) Young person has a higher pulse than older
b) Males have a higher pulse than females after puberty
c) Digitalis have positive chronotropic effect
d) In lying position pulse rate is higher
a
A sudden redness of skin is known as:
a) Flush
b) Cyanosis
c) Jaundice
d) Pallor
a
The term “Gavage” indicates:
a) Administration of a liquid feeding into the stomach
b) Visual examination of the stomach
c) Irrigation of the stomach with a solution
d) A surgical opening through the abdomen to the stomach
a
Which of the following may be considered a patient right:
a) The right to euthanasia
b) The right to refuse treatment
c) The right to ignore hospital regulations
d) The right to refuse to pay for what the patient considers to be inferior service
b
Which of the following qualities are relevant in documenting a patient care:
a) Accuracy and conciseness
b) Thoroughness and currentness
c) Organization
d) All of the following
d
Which of the following qualities are relevant in documenting a patient care:
a) Accuracy and conciseness
b) Thoroughness and currentness
c) Organization
d) All of the following
d
- Blood pressure measurement is an important part of the patient data base,
it is considered as:
a) The basis of nursing diagnosis
b) Objective data
c) An indicator of the patient well being
d) Subjective data
b
The correct site at which to verify a radial pulse measurements is the:
a) Brachial artery
b) Apex of the heart
c) Temporal artery
d) Inguinal site
a
Constipation is a common problem for immobilized patient because of:
a) Decreased peristalsis and positional discomfort
b) An increase defecation reflex
c) Decrease tightening of the anal sphincter
d) Increase colon motility
a
The average daily amount of urine is :
a ) 500-600 ml
b) 800-1400 ml
c) 1000-1200 ml
d) 1500-2000 ml
d
- According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs which of the following is a basic
physiologic needs after oxygen:
a) Activity
b) Safety
c) Love
d) Self esteem
a
Rectal temperature :
a) 36 c
b) 37.5 c
c) 38 c
d) 35.8 c
b
Axillary temperature:
a) 36.5 c
b) 36 c
c) 35.8 c
d) 37 c
a
Axillary temperature:
a) 36.5 c
b) 36 c
c) 35.8 c
d) 37 c
a
The most accurate temperature is:
a) Oral
b) Anal
c) Axilla
d) Skin
b
All of the following are clinical thermometers except:
a) Chemical
b) Glass
c) Infrared
d) Physical
a
- All of the following are phases of fever except:
a) Onset
b) Lancet
c) Prodromal
d) Resolution
b
- Subnormal body temperature means temperature is:
a) Temperature less than 35c.
b) Temperature higher than 35c.
c) Temperature equal 35c.
d) Non of the above.
d
All of the following are pulse sites except:
a) Flangial
b) Brachial
c) Apical
d) Radial
a
The approximate adult pulse ranges from:
a) 100-120 bpm
b) 60-100 bpm
c) 50-70 bpm
d) 80-110 bpm
b
Measurement of apical pulse and radial pulse at the same period called:
a) Pulse deficit
b) Heart beat
c) Pulse volume
d) Apical radial pulse
d
The patient temperature 37.5 c the Fahrenheit equivalent:
a) 96.5 F
b) 97.5 F
c) 98.5 F
d) 99.5 F
d
Which of the following statements are most accurately describes the
characteristics pain:
a) Pain is objective in nature.
b) Responses to pain vary widely.
c) Pain is always associated with bodily damage.
d) Pain is not a demanding situation.
b
If a vial Gentamycin contains 80mg in 2ml, the physician’s order is 12mg
every 8 hours the nurse should give every time:
a) 0.1 ml
b) 0.2 ml
c) 0.3 ml
d) 0.4 ml
c
When a collecting a urine specimen from a patient with an indwelling
catheter, the nurse should:
a) Use a syringe and needle to draw the urine from the collection bag.
b) Use a syringe and needle to draw the urine from the collection tube.
c) Use a syringe and needle to draw the urine from the catheter.
d) Use a syringe and needle to draw from the port of the tube
d
All of the following are characteristics of artery except:
a) Have 3 layers interna, media, and adventitia.
b) Have valves.
c) Most of them carry oxygenated blood.
d) deeper and thicker than vein.
b
Which one of the following diets include only water, tea, coffee, clear juice:
a) Clear liquid diet
b) Soft diet
c) Full liquid diet
d) diabetic diet
a
- Valsalva maneuver is:
a) Closing the glottis and contract pelvis and abdominal muscle to increase abdominal
pressure .
b) Closing the anal sphincter to prevent defecation.
c) Closing the urinary sphincter to prevent voiding.
d) Non of the above.
a
Placebo is:
a) Giving ineffective substance.
b) Giving IV antibiotics.
c) Giving oral antibiotics.
d) Non of the above.
a
When the pulse volume is 3 it indicates:
a) Thready
b) Weak pulse
c) Bounding pulse
d) Non of the above
d
What is the correct arrangement of the following parts of intestines:
a) Duodenum, jejunum, ileum, and rectum.
b) Jejunum, ileum, duodenum, and rectum.
c) Duodenum, ileum, jejunum, and rectum.
d) Rectum, duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
a
Actual diagnosis is:
a) A problem that currently exists.
b) A problem that the patient is uniquely at risk.
c) A problem that may be present.
d) Cluster of problems that are present due to an event or situation
a
Which of the following is true about vital signs:
a) All vital signs are objective data.
b) Pain is consider as the 5th vital sign.
c) It indicates how well or bas the body function.
d) All of the above
d
