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CCS-P > Medical Science > Flashcards

Medical Science Flashcards

1
Q

vaccination occurs due to the formation of what type of cells?

A

Memory cells

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2
Q

True or false contaminated food is an example of direct transmission of disease?

A

False

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3
Q

What is the most common Rickettsial disease in the United States?

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

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4
Q

What is the most common blood-borne infection in the United States?

A

Hepatitis c

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5
Q

What is the most causative organism for severe acute respiratory syndrome?

A

Coronavirus

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6
Q

What childhood viral disease which can be passed to an unborn fetus cause congenital anomalies such as mental retardation blindness?

A

Rubella

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7
Q

Define pandemic and give an example

A

And epidemic of infectious disease is spread through human populations across a large region for example the 1918 Spanish flu pandemic

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8
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

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9
Q

What type of cancer classifies tissue derive from epithelial cells?

A

Carcinoma

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10
Q

What is the most fatal type of lung cancer?

A

Small cell cancer

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11
Q

The presence of Reed Sternberg cells in the lymph node are indicative of what disease?

A

Hodgkin’s disease

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12
Q

True or false the pancreas has both endocrine and exocrine functions?

A

True

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13
Q

What disease is the most common etiology for dementia in the US?

A

Alzheimer’s

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14
Q

Most of the digestion food and absorption of nutrients occurs in what part of the body

A

Small intestine

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15
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease where affected segments of the bowel may be separated by normal bowel tissue is characteristic of what disease?

A

Crohns

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16
Q

What is portal hypertension?

A

Pressure of the portal venous system caused by a block as the result of liver damage

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17
Q

What type of joints does rheumatoid arthritis typically affect?

A

Knees and small joints of the hands and feet

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18
Q

The type of cell produces a histamine type one hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Mast cells

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19
Q

What is pernicious anemia?

A

A decrease in red blood cells when the body can’t absorb enough vitamin B-12.

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20
Q

What type of cell produces antibodies?

A

Plasma cells

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21
Q

Lithium carbonate is a drug commonly used to treat what mood disorder?

A

Bipolar

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22
Q

Describe a synergistic effect of drugs

A

When the interaction of two drugs working together each simultaneously help the other to achieve the fact that neither could produce

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23
Q

Diagnostic test best identifies a pulmonary embolism?

A

Pulmonary angiography

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24
Q

Surgical procedure is for the treatment of early-stage breast cancer in both the removal of cancerous tumor skin breast tissue Ariola nipple and most of the axillary lymph node while leaving underline chest muscles intact what is the term for this procedure

A

Modified radical mastectomy

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25
Q

Describe a full mastectomy

A

Removal of all breast tissue and most of the time the nipple and Ariola

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26
Q

Hypokalemia is indicative of what condition?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis

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27
Q

And elevated serum amylase would be characteristic of what?

A

Acute pancreatitis

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28
Q

With hematology test determines the relative number and percentage of each type of leukocytes?

A

WBC with differential

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29
Q

Which laboratory test evaluates the oxygen carrying capacity of blood?

A

Hemoglobin determination

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30
Q

Lung consolidation on a chest x-ray is indicative of what condition?

A

Pneumonia

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31
Q

What term describes the progress of the disease including initiating factors signs and symptoms physical manifestations residuals a sequela prognosis and finally the end result?

A

Pathogenesis

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32
Q

What is carcinogenesis?

A

The process of cancer development from exposure through cellular changes of hyperplasia to neoplasia

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33
Q

What type of joint such as the sutures of the Skull have no movement?

A

Synarthrosis

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34
Q

Which valve is between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

A

The tricuspid

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35
Q

The QRS wave signifies the electronic stimulation of which part of the heart during EKG?

A

The ventricles

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36
Q

Name three parts of the upper respiratory tract

A

Nose mouth sinus pharynx larynx

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37
Q

What is peristalsis?

A

Muscular contractions that move food through the alimentary canal from the mouth to the anus

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38
Q

What is the largest solid organ of the body?

A

The liver

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39
Q

Which structure transport urine from the kidneys to the bladder?

A

The ureter

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40
Q

True or false women have considerably longer urethras than men

A

False is the same length regardless of gender

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41
Q

Which endocrine gland secretes melatonin?

A

Pineal

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42
Q

In which brain lobe is the processing of smell and hearing stimuli performed?

A

Frontal

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43
Q

Dilation of pupils would like conditions are low is example of what type of nervous system division?

A

Autonomic

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44
Q

Which nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response?

A

Sympathetic

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45
Q

Which nervous system controls homeostasis (aka rest and digest function)

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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46
Q

define neuropathy

A

Damage to nerves

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47
Q

What part of the brain is closely tied to varying degrees of arousal and sleep disorders?

A

The hypothalamus

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48
Q

What disease affecting the central nervous system is a genetic disorder leads to atrophy of the caudate nucleus results in progressive abnormal movements and cognitive decline is fatal within 15 to 20 years?

A

Huntington’s disease

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49
Q

Describe Parkinson’s disease

A

It is a decrease in the neurotransmitter dopamine in the basal ganglia

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50
Q

Need to symptoms of Parkinson’s disease

A

Tremors and unsteady gait

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51
Q

Name the body’s cellular defense mechanism

A

White blood cells

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52
Q

The majority of upper respiratory and gastrointestinal infections are caused by what?

A

Viruses

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53
Q

Most soft tissue skin infections, urinary tract infection is, and pneumonias are what type of infection?

A

bacterial

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54
Q

What term is used for an infection that is contained?

55
Q

What term is used for infection that has spread?

A

Disseminated

56
Q

What is the name of a single cell organism with a cell membrane which lacks a nucleus?

57
Q

Much smaller than bacteria about one 100 and hundred the size in some cases, this cannot replicate on its own but survive by inserting its DNA or RNA into the nucleus of an infected so and taking over the host cells function

58
Q

Protozoa and amoebas are examples of what?

59
Q

Hydrochloric acid located in what part of the digestive system is very inhospitable to for an organisms and help prevent infection in many cases

A

The stomach

60
Q

What disease is a problem with estimates of infection in one third of the population?

A

Tuberculosis

61
Q

Is tuberculosis… Gram-negative gram-positive

A

Neither,regular bacterial grabs a message do not work. Another method known as as acid-fast must be used

62
Q

Tuberculosis is described as in acid-fast bacilli he rod shaped how long does the culture on a special medium take for results

63
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission of tuberculosis?

A

Inhalation of respiratory droplets

64
Q

How long does an antibiotic therapy for tuberculosis?

A

months to a year

65
Q

Describe anthrax

A

Gram-positive spore forming Rod bacteria

66
Q

Bordetella a gene is a gram-negative bacteria causes what common childhood disease

A

Whooping cough

67
Q

The sandpaper rash and a strawberry tongue fever and a sore throat or symptoms of what condition?

A

Scarlet fever a complication of strep throat

68
Q

High fever stiff neck headache rash in their little findings the confusion delirium her seizures or symptoms of what common college-age disease?

A

Bacterial meningitis

69
Q

What is the most common rickettsia disease in United States

A

Rocky Mountain spotted fever

70
Q

How is Rocky Mountain spotted fever transmitted in by what?

A

Vectorborne illness, tick bite

71
Q

What is the most common type of skin cancer?

A

Basal cell carcinoma

72
Q

Also known as German measles the spiral illness can cause problems for pregnant women mainly the developing fetus

73
Q

The HIV virus attacks important in cells called what

74
Q

What illness is present when the CD4 for cell count drops below 200?

A

AIDS a normal count is 500 to 1800

75
Q

Malaria mostly found a set of United States is example of what type of disease?

76
Q

What is trigeminal neuralgia?

A

Chronic pain condition effecting the Trigeminal nerve (face)

77
Q

Where is peripheral blood formed?

A

The bone marrow

78
Q

What are the three cellular components of peripheral blood?

A

Red blood cells/erythrocytes, white blood cells/leukocytes, platelets/thrombocytes.

79
Q

What is a leukocyte

A

All white blood cells in the peripheral blood

80
Q

What is the most common type of white blood cell in the peripheral blood?

A

polymorphonuclear cells also known as neutrophils

81
Q

What is the most common type of blood cell?

A

Red blood cells

82
Q

Name the type of cell that carries oxygen from the lungs to all body cells

A

Red blood cells also known as erythrocytes

83
Q

Also known as platelets this type of cell is active and blood clotting

A

Thrombocytes

84
Q

Which type of blood cell fights infection?

A

White blood cells

85
Q

Need the three components of the CBC

A

Leukocytes platelets and erythrocytes

86
Q

What is a septal defect? I51.1

A

With the septum of the heart has a hole in it

87
Q

What are two types of septal defects?

A

Determined by location, atrial or ventricular

88
Q

Name the three layers of the heart wall

A

Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium

89
Q

Why is inflammation of the epicardium called pericarditis?

A

Because epicardium is considered part of the pericardial sac

90
Q

Which part of the heart cycle occurs when the muscle contracts?

91
Q

Which part of the heart cycle occurs when the muscle relaxes?

92
Q

Define infarction

A

Cell death due to inadequate oxygen

93
Q

To find and locate the sinoatrial node

A

Top of the right atrium, who receives blood from the right coronary artery he, is the pacemaker of the heart

94
Q

What is leukocyte?

A

Generic term for all white blood cells in the peripheral blood

95
Q

What is another name for red blood cells?

A

Erythrocyte

96
Q

What does suffix -cystosis indicate?

A

Overproduction of a line of blood cells

97
Q

What does suffix penia indicate?

A

Underproduction of a line of blood cells

98
Q

What is adenocarcinoma?

A

a malignant tumor formed from glandular structures in epithelial tissue.

99
Q

What is adenocarcinoma?

A

a malignant tumor formed from glandular structures in epithelial tissue.

100
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

carcinoma is a cancer that begins in a tissue that lines the inner or outer surfaces of the body

101
Q

What is a carcinoma?

A

carcinoma is a cancer that begins in a tissue that lines the inner or outer surfaces of the body

102
Q

What type of anemia is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells (due to lack of internal structure protein/shoddy building materials)

A

Hemolytic anemia

102
Q

Anemia cause by lack of b12

A

Pernicious anemia

103
Q

On what anatomical location of the GI tract is iron absorbed?

104
Q

What is thalassemia?

A

A blood disorder in which red blood cells like the normal ability to produce hemoglobin

105
Q

What is tetralogy of fallot?

A

A defect characterized by for anatomical abnormalities within the heart which results in poorly oxygenated a blood being pumped to the body

106
Q

The left side of the heart pumps blood where?

A

Through the body to the right side of the heart

107
Q

The right side of the heart pumps blood where?

A

Through the pulmonary vessels a short distance to the lunches and then to the left side of the heart

108
Q

What is the purpose of the cardiac septum

A

To keep in oxygenated blood in the left heart from mixing with unoxygenated blood of the right

109
Q

What is a septal defect?

A

A hole in the septum

110
Q

What is the septum of the heart?

A

muscular wall separating the left and right sides of the heart

111
Q

Three layers of the heart

A

Endocardium,myocardium,epicardium

112
Q

Endocardium

A

Later inside the hear

113
Q

Epicardium

A

Outside layer also consider the inner layer of the pericardium of heart

114
Q

Myocardium

A

Thick center - cardiac muscle

115
Q

Endothelial lining of the heart which lets blood slide through the heart without clotting

A

Endocardium

116
Q

Where do coronary arteries and veins run through to nourish the myocardium

A

Epicardium

117
Q

A sac Firmly attached to the heart, with two fibrous layers surrounding the heart

A

The pericardium (around the heart)

118
Q

Pericardial fluid lubricates parietal pericardial layers to let them slide smoothly w every heartbeat. What condition can arise when the fluids increase pushing against the heart?

A

Cardiac tamponade

119
Q

The thin walled entrance hall of the heart

120
Q

Describe ventricles

A

The major thick walled pumps

Pump blood out through the arteries during systole

121
Q

Systole

A

Heart cycle when muscle contracts pumping blood out

122
Q

Diastole

A

Heart relaxes

123
Q

When in atrial diastole, what are the ventricles doing?

A

In systole and vice versa

124
Q

What is another term for the atrioventricular valve?

125
Q

Valve between left atrium and left ventricle

126
Q

Three semi lunar crescent shaped sections firmly attached to the aorta

A

Aortic valve

127
Q

Thin heart wall well,Separates the two atria

A

Atrial septum

128
Q

Open during diastole, Close during systole, has two leaflets, between the left atrium and the left ventricle

A

Mitral valve

129
Q

Open during diastole, close during systole, three leaflets

A

Tricuspid valve

130
Q

Large vein that carries on oxygenated blood returning to the heart from upper parts of the body

A

Superior vena cava

131
Q

Large vein carries unoxygenated blood returning to the heart from lower parts of the body, joins the superior vena cava, empties into the right atrium

A

Inferior vena cava

132
Q

The major thick walled pumps which send blood out through arteries during systole

A

The ventricles

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