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CCS-P > Icd-10 > Flashcards

Icd-10 Flashcards

1
Q

When certain conditions have both an underlying etiology and multiple body system manifestations due to underlying etiology in what order should you code?

A

Code 1st the underlying condition followed by the manifestation

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2
Q

What is indicative of a title marked “in diseases classified elsewhere “

A

Manifestation codes

These codes are never permitted as first listed or principal diagnosis codes

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3
Q

Describe a manifestation code

A

A symptom or a sign of an ailment

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4
Q

Give one example of a code manifestation and etiology

A

Dementia (symptom) is a manifestation of Parkinson’s (disease)

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5
Q

How should you code multiple burns and in what sequence?

A

Assign separate codes for each site, sequence the highest degree first

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6
Q

How would you code multiple burns of the same site with varying degrees?

A

Code only the highest degree

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7
Q

How is necrosis of burned skin codes?

A

As a nonhealing burn (acute burn)

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8
Q

How many codes are required for cellulitis with an injury or burn?

A

Two: one for the injury/burn one for the cellulitis

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9
Q

How do you code for diabetes when the type is not specified?

A

Code as type two diabetes

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10
Q

The terms compound, infected, missile, puncture, and for anybody or indicative of what type of fracture?

A

Open

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11
Q

When coding a residual condition what would you do if there’s no late affect code?

A

Only code the residual condition

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12
Q

What type of condition is always consider a late affect regardless of time?

A

Nonunion, malunion, scarring

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13
Q

When the final diagnosis for an encounter is rule out, how would you code?

A

Code for the patient’s symptoms

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14
Q

When the final diagnosis for an encounter is rule out, how would you code?

A

Code for the patient’s symptoms

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15
Q

When is it appropriate to code for acquired absence of an organ?

A

When the absence of that organ affects patient care

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16
Q

When should you code additional signs and symptoms?

A

When the signs/symptoms are not routinely w a disease process

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17
Q

When is BMI coded?

A

When it meets the definition of a reportable code

Physician documented the diagnosis

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18
Q

True or false congenital anomaly codes can be assigned as principal or secondary diagnoses

A

True

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19
Q

By what age do most people with type one diabetes develop the disease

A

Puberty

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20
Q

How long should you code Trumatic fractures

A

As long as the patient is receiving active treatment

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21
Q

When is BMI coded?

A

When it meets the definition of a reportable code

Physician documented the diagnosis

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22
Q

True or false congenital anomaly codes can be assigned as principal or secondary diagnoses

A

True

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23
Q

By what age do most people with type one diabetes develop the disease

A

Puberty

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24
Q

How long should you code Trumatic fractures

A

As long as the patient is receiving active treatment

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25
Q

When he fracture is not identified as open or closed how would you code

A

Closed

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26
Q

Screws, pins, Ross Staples, plates are examples of what type of fixation devices

A

Internal fixation devices

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27
Q

Casts, splints, traction device for example Kirchner wire or a Steinman pin are examples of what type of fixation device

A

External fixation device

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28
Q

True or false b20 should be coded for all HIV related illnesses on every subsequent admission

A

True

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29
Q

What codes represents asymptomatic HIV w a positive test

A

Z21

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30
Q

A symptomatic HIV positive patient is admitted for an unrelated reason. What is the principal and secondary dxs?

A

Principal -unrelated dxs

Secondary -b20

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31
Q

Admitted: Primary and secondary dxs for an asymptomatic HIV patient

A

P-cat O98.7

S-vo8

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32
Q

Admitted: Primary and secondary dxs for a symptomatic HIV patient

A

P-o98.7

A-b20

33
Q

When can hypertensive heart disease be coded?

A

When the physician states the causal relationship between hypertension and heart disease such as due to hypertension, or hypertensive

34
Q

True or false there’s a causal relationship between hypertension and acute renal failure

A

False , only chronic kidney disease

35
Q

True or false hypertensive chronic kidney disease I12 assumes a causal relationship between hypertension and chronic kidney disease

A

True, code additional N18 to ID CKD stage

36
Q

True or false superficial injuries such as abrasions or contusions are not coded when there are more severe injuries at the same site

A

True

37
Q

True or false it is possible for the patient to be placed back on mechanical ventilation thus necessitating two codes for mechanical ventilation on the same admission

A

True

38
Q

Or false cause for intubation or a tracheostomy can be assigned in addition to mechanical ventilation

A

True

39
Q

I 21 describes which acute condition or with a duration of four weeks or less

A

Myocardial infarction

40
Q

In what order would you code when a patient has S I RS with no subsequent infection and it is the result of non-infectious disease such as trauma, cancer, or pancreatitis

A

Code 1st The non infectious disease and then the code R65.10 or are R65.11 code also a acute organ dysfunction

41
Q

In general what does the term sepsis refer to?

A

SIRS due to infection

42
Q

When is drug or alcohol withdrawal listed as the principal diagnosis

A

When the patient is admitted in withdrawal or when withdrawal develops after admission

43
Q

When are Z Codes used

A

When a patient is seeking healthcare services other than for a disease or injury

44
Q

What two ways can neoplasms be located in the alphabetical Index

A

By anatomic site or histological terms, such as carcinoma sarcoma.

45
Q

What a patient has a primary malignancy with a metastasis when might the metastasis be coded as the principal diagnosis

A

When the treatment is directed toward the secondary site only

46
Q

When would you code a history of malignant neoplasm and instead of a current condition of malignant neoplasm

A

When the primary neoplasm is eradicated and no more treatment is directed toward the primary malignancy

47
Q

In what order would you code for pain management associated with a malignancy

A

Code G 89.3 as the principal diagnosis followed by the primary malignancy

48
Q

How would you code for management of anemia associated with a malignancy

A

D 63.0 is the primary diagnosis followed by the malignancy

49
Q

How would you code for anemia associated with chemotherapy immunotherapy or radiotherapy

A

Code first anemia due to Antiplastic therapy then the neoplasm as an additional

50
Q

If patient is admitted for chemotherapy immunotherapy radiation therapy and complications occur how should you code

A

Code 1st the chemotherapy immunotherapy or radiation therapy followed by a codes for the complications

51
Q

When might you have secondary diagnoses on a newborn

A

For significant conditions noted after birth

Insignificant or transient conditions that resolve without treatment or not coded

52
Q

When might you use code P00 through P04 during the evaluation of a newborn

A

What I suspected condition proves not to exist as the baby exhibits no signs or symptoms

53
Q

True or false tcodes from chapter 15 take sequencing precedence over other chapter codes

A

True

54
Q

What does the postpartum period begin

A

Immediately after birth to six week.

55
Q

Under what circumstances can codes from chapter 15 continue to be used after the six week period

A

When the physician documents that is pregnancy related

56
Q

When should category G89 be used?

A

What a patient is admitted for pain control or management

57
Q

When should category G8 9.1 and G89.2 NOT be used

A

When the underlying diagnosis is known unless the primary reason for admission is pain control

58
Q

When can pleural effusion be coded?

A

When the effusions addressed and treated separately

59
Q

true or false pleural effusion noted on an x-ray can be coded

A

False

60
Q

True or false lobar pneumonia refers to the lobe of the lung that is affected

A

False it is a type of pneumonia

61
Q

When do expected conditions occur

A

In the immediate postop. Period

62
Q

True or false you should code pressure ulcers documented as healed

A

False

63
Q

True or false ulcers documented as healing should be coded to the site and stage

A

True

64
Q

How should you code a patient admitted with a pressure ulcer at one stage but then it progresses to a higher stage

A

Code to the highest stage

65
Q

What are the two types of pulmonary edema

A

Cardiogenic or noncardiogenic

66
Q

Describe noncardiogenic acute pulmonary edema

A

Pulmonary edema which occurs in the absence of heart failure or other heart disease

67
Q

Name three diseases which pulmonary Edema is a manifestation of

A

Heart failure hypertension and rheumatic heart disease

68
Q

When is the acute respiratory failure coded as the principal diagnosis

A

When it meets the definition of a principal diagnosis, code as secondary

69
Q

When a patient is admitted with acute respiratory failure and another acute condition what determines the principal diagnosis

A

The main reason that caused the admission of the patient

70
Q

True or false positive blood culture warrants the diagnosis of septicemia

A

False to code as septicemia the physician must document as such

71
Q

What should you do if urosepsis is coded?

A

Query the MD. It’s not a code in 10

72
Q

Four symptoms of SIRS

A

Fever, tachycardia tachypenea, leukocytosis

73
Q

When coding sequelae of CVA right side affected hemiplegia , and dominant hand is not indicated how should you code

A

Right side affected, default dominant

74
Q

When coding sequelae of CVA left side affected hemiplegia , and dominant hand is not indicated how should you code

A

Left side affected default is non dominant

75
Q

When coding sequelae of CVA of an ambidextrous patient with a specified affected side documented (but no dominant hand can be determined because ambidexterity) how should you code

A

Default to dominant (basically assuming whatever side is being impacted, is their dominant side)

76
Q

True or false when coding a fracture the assignment of the seventh character is based on whether the patient is undergoing active treatment and not whether the provider is seeing the patient for the first time

A

True

77
Q

Patient’s surgery is canceled because they ate what is the first listed diagnosis?

A

The same as the diagnosis for surgery

78
Q

Which diagnosis is first listed when postoperative diagnosis is different from the preoperative diagnosis

A

Postoperative

79
Q

The patient is placed an observation care following surgery due to complications of the surgery what is the first listed diagnosis and what supplemental diagnoses should be at it

A

First listed is the reason for surgery additional diagnoses should reflect the complication

CCS-P (7 decks)

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