Icd-10 Flashcards

1
Q

When certain conditions have both an underlying etiology and multiple body system manifestations due to underlying etiology in what order should you code?

A

Code 1st the underlying condition followed by the manifestation

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2
Q

What is indicative of a title marked “in diseases classified elsewhere “

A

Manifestation codes

These codes are never permitted as first listed or principal diagnosis codes

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3
Q

Describe a manifestation code

A

A symptom or a sign of an ailment

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4
Q

Give one example of a code manifestation and etiology

A

Dementia (symptom) is a manifestation of Parkinson’s (disease)

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5
Q

How should you code multiple burns and in what sequence?

A

Assign separate codes for each site, sequence the highest degree first

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6
Q

How would you code multiple burns of the same site with varying degrees?

A

Code only the highest degree

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7
Q

How is necrosis of burned skin codes?

A

As a nonhealing burn (acute burn)

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8
Q

How many codes are required for cellulitis with an injury or burn?

A

Two: one for the injury/burn one for the cellulitis

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9
Q

How do you code for diabetes when the type is not specified?

A

Code as type two diabetes

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10
Q

The terms compound, infected, missile, puncture, and for anybody or indicative of what type of fracture?

A

Open

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11
Q

When coding a residual condition what would you do if there’s no late affect code?

A

Only code the residual condition

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12
Q

What type of condition is always consider a late affect regardless of time?

A

Nonunion, malunion, scarring

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13
Q

When the final diagnosis for an encounter is rule out, how would you code?

A

Code for the patient’s symptoms

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14
Q

When the final diagnosis for an encounter is rule out, how would you code?

A

Code for the patient’s symptoms

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15
Q

When is it appropriate to code for acquired absence of an organ?

A

When the absence of that organ affects patient care

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16
Q

When should you code additional signs and symptoms?

A

When the signs/symptoms are not routinely w a disease process

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17
Q

When is BMI coded?

A

When it meets the definition of a reportable code

Physician documented the diagnosis

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18
Q

True or false congenital anomaly codes can be assigned as principal or secondary diagnoses

A

True

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19
Q

By what age do most people with type one diabetes develop the disease

A

Puberty

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20
Q

How long should you code Trumatic fractures

A

As long as the patient is receiving active treatment

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21
Q

When is BMI coded?

A

When it meets the definition of a reportable code

Physician documented the diagnosis

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22
Q

True or false congenital anomaly codes can be assigned as principal or secondary diagnoses

A

True

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23
Q

By what age do most people with type one diabetes develop the disease

A

Puberty

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24
Q

How long should you code Trumatic fractures

A

As long as the patient is receiving active treatment

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25
Q

When he fracture is not identified as open or closed how would you code

A

Closed

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26
Q

Screws, pins, Ross Staples, plates are examples of what type of fixation devices

A

Internal fixation devices

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27
Q

Casts, splints, traction device for example Kirchner wire or a Steinman pin are examples of what type of fixation device

A

External fixation device

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28
Q

True or false b20 should be coded for all HIV related illnesses on every subsequent admission

A

True

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29
Q

What codes represents asymptomatic HIV w a positive test

A

Z21

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30
Q

A symptomatic HIV positive patient is admitted for an unrelated reason. What is the principal and secondary dxs?

A

Principal -unrelated dxs

Secondary -b20

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31
Q

Admitted: Primary and secondary dxs for an asymptomatic HIV patient

A

P-cat O98.7

S-vo8

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32
Q

Admitted: Primary and secondary dxs for a symptomatic HIV patient

A

P-o98.7

A-b20

33
Q

When can hypertensive heart disease be coded?

A

When the physician states the causal relationship between hypertension and heart disease such as due to hypertension, or hypertensive

34
Q

True or false there’s a causal relationship between hypertension and acute renal failure

A

False , only chronic kidney disease

35
Q

True or false hypertensive chronic kidney disease I12 assumes a causal relationship between hypertension and chronic kidney disease

A

True, code additional N18 to ID CKD stage

36
Q

True or false superficial injuries such as abrasions or contusions are not coded when there are more severe injuries at the same site

37
Q

True or false it is possible for the patient to be placed back on mechanical ventilation thus necessitating two codes for mechanical ventilation on the same admission

38
Q

Or false cause for intubation or a tracheostomy can be assigned in addition to mechanical ventilation

39
Q

I 21 describes which acute condition or with a duration of four weeks or less

A

Myocardial infarction

40
Q

In what order would you code when a patient has S I RS with no subsequent infection and it is the result of non-infectious disease such as trauma, cancer, or pancreatitis

A

Code 1st The non infectious disease and then the code R65.10 or are R65.11 code also a acute organ dysfunction

41
Q

In general what does the term sepsis refer to?

A

SIRS due to infection

42
Q

When is drug or alcohol withdrawal listed as the principal diagnosis

A

When the patient is admitted in withdrawal or when withdrawal develops after admission

43
Q

When are Z Codes used

A

When a patient is seeking healthcare services other than for a disease or injury

44
Q

What two ways can neoplasms be located in the alphabetical Index

A

By anatomic site or histological terms, such as carcinoma sarcoma.

45
Q

What a patient has a primary malignancy with a metastasis when might the metastasis be coded as the principal diagnosis

A

When the treatment is directed toward the secondary site only

46
Q

When would you code a history of malignant neoplasm and instead of a current condition of malignant neoplasm

A

When the primary neoplasm is eradicated and no more treatment is directed toward the primary malignancy

47
Q

In what order would you code for pain management associated with a malignancy

A

Code G 89.3 as the principal diagnosis followed by the primary malignancy

48
Q

How would you code for management of anemia associated with a malignancy

A

D 63.0 is the primary diagnosis followed by the malignancy

49
Q

How would you code for anemia associated with chemotherapy immunotherapy or radiotherapy

A

Code first anemia due to Antiplastic therapy then the neoplasm as an additional

50
Q

If patient is admitted for chemotherapy immunotherapy radiation therapy and complications occur how should you code

A

Code 1st the chemotherapy immunotherapy or radiation therapy followed by a codes for the complications

51
Q

When might you have secondary diagnoses on a newborn

A

For significant conditions noted after birth

Insignificant or transient conditions that resolve without treatment or not coded

52
Q

When might you use code P00 through P04 during the evaluation of a newborn

A

What I suspected condition proves not to exist as the baby exhibits no signs or symptoms

53
Q

True or false tcodes from chapter 15 take sequencing precedence over other chapter codes

54
Q

What does the postpartum period begin

A

Immediately after birth to six week.

55
Q

Under what circumstances can codes from chapter 15 continue to be used after the six week period

A

When the physician documents that is pregnancy related

56
Q

When should category G89 be used?

A

What a patient is admitted for pain control or management

57
Q

When should category G8 9.1 and G89.2 NOT be used

A

When the underlying diagnosis is known unless the primary reason for admission is pain control

58
Q

When can pleural effusion be coded?

A

When the effusions addressed and treated separately

59
Q

true or false pleural effusion noted on an x-ray can be coded

60
Q

True or false lobar pneumonia refers to the lobe of the lung that is affected

A

False it is a type of pneumonia

61
Q

When do expected conditions occur

A

In the immediate postop. Period

62
Q

True or false you should code pressure ulcers documented as healed

63
Q

True or false ulcers documented as healing should be coded to the site and stage

64
Q

How should you code a patient admitted with a pressure ulcer at one stage but then it progresses to a higher stage

A

Code to the highest stage

65
Q

What are the two types of pulmonary edema

A

Cardiogenic or noncardiogenic

66
Q

Describe noncardiogenic acute pulmonary edema

A

Pulmonary edema which occurs in the absence of heart failure or other heart disease

67
Q

Name three diseases which pulmonary Edema is a manifestation of

A

Heart failure hypertension and rheumatic heart disease

68
Q

When is the acute respiratory failure coded as the principal diagnosis

A

When it meets the definition of a principal diagnosis, code as secondary

69
Q

When a patient is admitted with acute respiratory failure and another acute condition what determines the principal diagnosis

A

The main reason that caused the admission of the patient

70
Q

True or false positive blood culture warrants the diagnosis of septicemia

A

False to code as septicemia the physician must document as such

71
Q

What should you do if urosepsis is coded?

A

Query the MD. It’s not a code in 10

72
Q

Four symptoms of SIRS

A

Fever, tachycardia tachypenea, leukocytosis

73
Q

When coding sequelae of CVA right side affected hemiplegia , and dominant hand is not indicated how should you code

A

Right side affected, default dominant

74
Q

When coding sequelae of CVA left side affected hemiplegia , and dominant hand is not indicated how should you code

A

Left side affected default is non dominant

75
Q

When coding sequelae of CVA of an ambidextrous patient with a specified affected side documented (but no dominant hand can be determined because ambidexterity) how should you code

A

Default to dominant (basically assuming whatever side is being impacted, is their dominant side)

76
Q

True or false when coding a fracture the assignment of the seventh character is based on whether the patient is undergoing active treatment and not whether the provider is seeing the patient for the first time

77
Q

Patient’s surgery is canceled because they ate what is the first listed diagnosis?

A

The same as the diagnosis for surgery

78
Q

Which diagnosis is first listed when postoperative diagnosis is different from the preoperative diagnosis

A

Postoperative

79
Q

The patient is placed an observation care following surgery due to complications of the surgery what is the first listed diagnosis and what supplemental diagnoses should be at it

A

First listed is the reason for surgery additional diagnoses should reflect the complication