MEDICAL PARASITOLOGY: PROTOZOANS – AMEBA, FLAGELLATES, CILIATES AND APICOMPLEXANS Flashcards

1
Q

o Kingdom Protista
o Unicellular organisms that possess 2 nucleus/nuclei, cytoplasm, limiting membrane, and organelles
o Eukaryotic
o Cytoplasm has 2 region
o Do not possess a cell wall
o Possess locomotory structures
o Manner of reproduction:
- Sexual
- Asexual
- both

A

Protozoan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 2 regions of cytoplasm of protozoans?

A
  • Endoplasm
  • Ectoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • Inner region
  • for nutrition, food synthesis and storage (metabolism)
A

Endoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • Outer region
  • for protection, ingestion, and organelles for locomotion
A

Ectoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the locomotory structures?

A
  • Pseudopodia (Falsely locomotion)
  • cilia
  • flagella
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What protozoans that does not have locomotor structures?

A

Apicomplexa (malaria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What protozoans that does have complicated life cycle because they undergo both sexual and asexual manner of reproduction?

A

Apicomplexa (malaria)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the manner of reproduction?

A
  • Sexual
  • Asexual
  • both
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

locomotion for SUBPHYLUM SARCODINA: Ameba

A

pseudopodia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

SUBPHYLUM SARCODINA: Ameba Inhabit in the large intestine except

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

all SUBPHYLUM SARCODINA: Ameba undergo encystation except

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This process where trophozoites would transform to become cyst

A

Encystation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The Mode of reproduction of SUBPHYLUM SARCODINA: Ameba

A

Asexual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  • found in oral cavity/mouth
  • no cyst stage
  • Infective stage: trophozoite stage
A

o Entamoeba gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It is in the edge of the nucleus of entamoeba

A

peripheral chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

It is used to differentiate the members of entamoeba

A

Peripheral chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the Infective stage of SUBPHYLUM SARCODINA: Ameba is the cyst except

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

All are commensals/nonpathogenic except

A

Entamoeba hystolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vegetative stage, Motile and Feeding stage of intestinal ameba

A

Trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Non-motile and Resistant stage of intestinal ameba

A

Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Stool consistency of the intestinal ameba trophozoite

A

watery/diarrheic stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Stool consistency of the intestinal ameba cyst

A

formed stool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Stain/s that can be added in wet mount to identify the intestinal ameba trophozoite

A
  • Quensel’s Stain
  • Buffered Methylene Blue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stain/s that can be added in wet mount to identify the intestinal ameba cyst

A
  • Lugol’s Iodine
  • D’ Antoni
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the only pathogenic member ameba

A

Entamoeba histolytica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Final host of E. coli and E. histolytica

A

man

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Mode of transmission of E. coli and E. histolytica

A

Ingestion of cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

habitat of E. coli and E. histolytica

A

Large Intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

usual size of E. coli trophozoite

A

20-25 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

usual size of E. histolytica trophozoite

A

15-20 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

movement of E. coli trophozoite

A

Non-progressive; sluggish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

movement of E. histolytica trophozoite

A

Progressive; Unidirectional movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

describe the pseudopodia of E. histolytica trophozoite

A

Finger-like; hyaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

describe the pseudopodia of E. coli trophozoite

A

Blunt; granular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

no. of nucleus of E.coli trophozoite and E. histolytica trophozoite

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

describe the peripheral chromatin of E. coli trophozoite

A

Coarse, Rough, Uneven (CRU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

describe the peripheral chromatin of E. histolytica trophozoite

A

Fine, Smooth, Even (FES)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Karyosome is composed of

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

describe the karyosome of E. histolytica trophozoite

A

Centrally located; small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

describe the karyosome of E. coli trophozoite

A

Eccentric; Large

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Diagnostic/distinguising characteristics of E. coli trophozoite

A
  • Ingested debris, bacteria, yeast
  • Dirty looking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Diagnostic/distinguising characteristics of E. histolytica trophozoite

A
  • Clean looking
  • Ingested RBC
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Usual size of E. histolytica cyst

A

12-15 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Usual size of E. coli cyst

A

15-25 um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

No. of nuclei of E. histolytica cyst

A

Up to 4 nuclei;
- quadrinucleate (mature form)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

No. of nuclei of E. coli cyst

A

Up to 8 nuclei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe the karyosome of E. coli cyst

A

Eccentric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

describe the karyosome of E. histolytica cyst

A

Centrally located

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

It is the energy source Made up of RNA (crystalline RNA)

A

Chromotoidal bar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

describe the Chromotoidal bar of E. histolytica cyst

A

Cigar/sausage shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

describe the Chromotoidal bar of E. coli cyst

A

Splintered/broom stick appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the other inclusion of E. coli cyst and E. histolytica cyst

A

Glycogen vacuoles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

2 amoebas that commonly encountered in stool specimens

A
  • Entamoeba histolytica
  • Entamoeba coli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Non-pathogenic ameba that are morphologically similar to Entamoeba histolytica (same in the appearance and size)

A
  • Entamoeba dispar
  • Entamoeba moshkovskii – also known as Laredo strain
  • Entamoeba bangladeshi
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

E. histolytica and the other 3 non-pathogenic ameba that are morphologically similar can be differentiated through

A
  • molecular methods
  • zymodeme analysis
  • isoenzyme analysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

90% of Entamoeba histolytica infections are ______

A

asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

10% of Entamoeba histolytica infections are ______

A

Symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What disease if the stool is:
- watery, mucoid
- Presence of trophozoites
- Fishy odor
- Few Bacilli (few bacteria)

A

Amebic dysentery: Bloody diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Identify the disease if the stool is:
- watery, mucoid
- Presence of trophozoites
- Fishy odor
- Many Bacilli (many bacteria)
- and caused by Shigella

A

bacillary dysentery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

disease manifestation of E. histolytica

A
  • Amebic dysentery: Bloody diarrhea
  • Formation of flask shaped ulcers
  • Colitis (fulminant colitis)
  • Amebomas
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

manifestation of disease in E. histolytica mistaken for carcinomas (mass like lesions with abdominal pain)

A

Amebomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The most common site of Extraintestinal amebiasis

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Extraintestinal amebiasis can infect and destroy the liver causing

A

Amebic Liver Abscess (ALA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Other organs affected by Extraintestinal amebiasis: (result to abscess formation)

A
  • Brain
  • Lungs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the Virulence factors of E. histolytica

A
  • GalNac Lectin
  • Amebapore
  • Cysteine Proteinases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Virulence factor of E. histolytica that causes attachment to the target cells

A

GalNac Lectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Virulence factor of E. histolytica that causes formation of holes/pores

A

Amebapore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Virulence factor of E. histolytica that causes spread of the parasite; tissue destruction

A

Cysteine Proteinases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Stool examination used to diagnose the movement of E. histolytica

A

DFS (Direct Fecal Smear)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Concentration Techniques used to recovers cystic stages of E. histolytica

A

Formalin Ether Concentration Technique (FECT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Stool examination used for Confirmation of Intestinal Protozoans

A

Permanent Stained Smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

stool adhesive used in Permanent Stained Smear

A

Polyvinyl alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Fixative used in Permanent Stained Smear

A

Schaudinn’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

classic stain used for better nuclear detail in Permanent Stained Smear

A

Iron hematoxylin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Stains that are used in Permanent Stained Smear

A
  • Iron hematoxylin
  • Trichrome stain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Culture media used for lab diagnosis of E. histolytica

A
  • Boeck’s
  • Rice Egg Saline
  • Diamond
  • Balamuth’s Egg Yolk Infusion
  • Robinson’s and Inoki
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Recommended culture media for lab diagnosis of E. histolytica

A

Robinson’s and Inoki
▪ More sensitive than microscopy
▪ Not routinely used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Anchovy sauce like

A

Liver Aspirates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Treatment forMetronidazole E. histolytica

A
  • Metronidazole
  • Iodoquinol
  • Diloxanide Furoate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

treatment used for invasive amebiasis

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

treatment used for asymptomatic cyst carriers

A

Diloxanide Furoate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

small race of E. histolytica

A

Entamoeba hartmanni cyst
- Similar to Entamoeba histolytica but smaller in
size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Movement of Entamoeba hartmanni trophozoite

A

sluggish; non-progressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q
  • Nucleus: 1
  • Central karyosome with evenly distributed peripheral chromatin
  • Movement: progressive; unidirectional
    o Can be acquired by a person who has direct contact with pigs and monkeys, working in a pig farm
A

Entamoeba polecki trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q
  • Nucleus: 1
  • Karyosome: Central with evenly distributed peripheral chromatin
  • Chromotoidal bars –angular or pointed ends
  • Presence of glycogen mass
A

Entamoeba polecki cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

morphologically similar to E. polecki

A

E. chattoni

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q
  • Nucleus: 1
    o Large eccentric karyosome is surrounded by achromatic granules
    o No peripheral chromatin
  • Large glycogen vacuole
A

Iodamoeba butschlii cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe the karyosome of Iodamoeba butschlii cyst

A

“Basket of Flowers appearance”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q
  • Nucleus: 1
    o Central karyosome surrounded by refractile, achromatic granules
    o No peripheral chromatin
  • The cytoplasm is coarsely granular, vacuolated
  • amoeba of pigs
A

Iodamoeba butschlii trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Movement of Iodamoeba butschlii trophozoite

A

sluggish and non-progressive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q
  • Oval
  • Nucleus: 2-4
  • Blot-like karyosome
  • Eccentric; prominent; cross eyed cyst
  • No peripheral
A

Endolimax nana cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q
  • Nucleus: 1
  • Blot-like karyosome; no peripheral chromatin (crosseyes cyst)
  • very small ameba/protozoan
A

Endolimax nana trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Movement of Endolimax nana trophozoite

A

sluggish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q
  • Nucleus: 1
  • Centrally located karyosome
  • Pseudopod: varying appearance
  • May ingest bacteria, debris and WBC
  • Non-pathogenic: may be seen in patients with pyorrhea alveolaris
A

Entamoeba gingivalis trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Parasite that has no cyst stage

A

Entamoeba gingivalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Gums infection caused Entamoeba gingivalis

A

pyorrhea alveolaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Parasite found in the environment inhabiting lakes,
pools, tap water, air conditioning units and heating units

A

Opportunistic Amebae/Free-living pathogenic ameba/Facultative parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Facultative parasite usually invade ____ if ever they become parasitic

A

CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

3 commonly Opportunistic amebae

A
  • Naegleria fowleri,
  • Acanthamoeba spp.,
  • Balamuthia spp.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Certain bacteria that has symbiotic relationship with Opportunistic Amebae

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

bacteria that is found in air-conditioning units

A

Legionella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Most pathogenic and Most virulent Ameboflagellate

A

Naegleria fowleri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the mode of transmission of Naegleria fowleri

A

entry to Olfactory epithelium, respiratory tract, skin and sinuses during swimming in contaminated pools, water, ponds, or lakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Infective stage of Naegleria fowleri

A

Trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Naegleria fowleri Trophozoite is biphasic. What are the two forms of Naegleria fowleri Trophozoite?

A
  • Ameba (Limax form)
  • Flagellate form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What form of Naegleria fowleri can be found in clinical specimen, biopsies or tissue specimen?

A

Limax form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Disease Manifestation and Pathology of Naegleria fowleri

A

Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Virulence factor of Naegleria fowleri used to attached to the tissues and also release enzymes that can destroy the brain

A

Amebostomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Diagnosis of Naegleria fowleri

A
  • CSF examination
  • Culture
  • Molecular techniques (PCR, Immunofluorescence (IF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the result of CSF examination if there is a presence of N. fowleri?

A
  • elevated WBC
  • no presence or very few bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Treatment for patient with N. fowleri

A

Amphotericin B with Clotrimazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Opportunistic ameba Larger or bigger than Naegleria fowleri.

A

Acanthamoeba spp.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

mode of transmission of Acanthamoeba spp

A

entry through nose or break in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

infective stage of Acanthamoeba spp

A

Cyst and Trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

It is a spinny projection found in the pseudopodia of the acanthamoeba

A

Acanthapodia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

no. of nucleus of Acanthamoeba spp.

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe the double cell wall of Acanthamoeba spp.in cyst stage

A

o Outer: wrinkled
o Inner: polygonal/ polyhedral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Chronic type of disease and the progression is slow caused by Acanthamoeba spp.
- Immunocompromised patients are affected

A

Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis (GAE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Risk factor of Amebic keratitis

A

used of the contaminated contact lens solution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Usually seen in AIDS patients
- caused by Acanthamoeba spp.

A

Cutaneous lesions; Sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Diagnosis for N. fowleri

A

o Brain biopsy
o Corneal scrapings (Calcofluor white)
o Skin biopsy
o CSF exam
o Staining of Cyst with Periodic Acid Schiff (PAS)
o Indirect Immunofluorescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Treatment

A

Fluorocystine
Ketoconazole
Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Mode of transmission of Balamuthia mandrillaris

A

entry thru nose, skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The disease caused by Balamuthia mandrillaris

A

Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis (GAE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

irregular; finger-like, broad pseudopodia opportunistic ameba

A

Balamuthia mandrillaris trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

It is the stage the Balamuthia mandrillaris which has outer irregular wall and inner round wall

A

Balamuthia mandrillaris cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Diagnosis for Balamuthia mandrillaris

A
  • Brain biopsy
  • IF
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Class Zoomastigophora

A
  • Intestinal and urogenital flagellates
  • Hemoflagellates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

All inhabit the large intestine except

A

Giardia lamblia, Trichomonas vaginalis, Trichomonas tenax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

All undergo encystation except

A

Trichomonas species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Infective stage of INTESTINAL AND UROGENITAL FLAGELLATES

A

cyst except Trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

All are commensals in INTESTINAL AND UROGENITAL FLAGELLATES except

A

Giardia lamblia, Trichomonas vaginalis, Dientamoeba fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Mode of reproduction of INTESTINAL AND UROGENITAL FLAGELLATES

A

asexual reproduction through binary fission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q
  • Also known as G. duodenalis and G. intestinalis
  • it affects humans and animals
  • pathogenic intestinal flagellate
A

Giardia lamblia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Important reservoir of Giardia lamblia

A

Beavers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

diagnostic stage of Giardia lamblia

A

Cyst, Trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Infective stage of Giardia lamblia

A

Cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

MOT of Giardia lamblia

A

ingestion of cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Parasite that has Pear, pyriform, Bilaterally symmetrical shaped and an appearance of Old Man’s Face with Glasses/“Someone is looking at you”, Curved spoon (side view)

A

Giardia lamblia Trophozoite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

no. of nuclei of Giardia lamblia Trophozoite

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

no. of flagella of Giardia lamblia Trophozoite

A

8 or 4 pairs of flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Giardia lamblia Trophozoite used or employed this for attachment and act as Virulence factor

A

Ventral sucking disk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

describe the Parabasal body/ Median body of the Giardia lamblia Trophozoite

A

(2) hammer shaped/ claw hammer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is the motility of Giardia lamblia Trophozoite?

A

“Falling Leaf” motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q
  • Oval
  • Football shape with 4 nuclei, parabasal bodies, axoneme
    o A group of axoneme would eventually become an axostyle
A

Giardia lamblia cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are the disease caused by Giardia lamblia

A

Giardiasis
* Beaver fever
* Traveler’s Diarrhea
* Gay Bowel Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Symptom of Giardiasis

A

Explosive Watery Diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the chronic disease caused by Giardia lamblia?

A
  • Steatorrhea
  • Weight loss
  • Malaise
  • Foul smelling stools: “Rotten eggs” odor because of malabsorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Lab diagnosis for Giardia lamblia

A
  • Stool exam
  • Duodenal aspirates
  • Entero-test; (Beale’s String Test)
  • Serology
  • Molecular methods
  • Biopsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

This procedure will ask the patient to swallow the capsule with string and then the loose end of the string taped on the face of the patient and wait 4 hours. After 4 hours, string will be pulled out
- If the string become color green that means it reach in the duodenum

A

Entero-test; (Beale’s String Test)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

treatment for Giardia lamblia

A

Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Parasite that is Non pathogen/Commensal flagellate residing the colon

A

Chilomastix mesnili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

appearance of Chilomastix mesnili trophozoite

A

Asymmetric; pear shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

No. of flagella of Chilomastix mesnili trophozoite

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is the Motility of Chilomastix mesnili trophozoite

A

Boring/Corkscrew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

It is the mouth of the Chilomastix mesnili trophozoite

A

Cytostome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is the appearance of Cytostomal fibril of Chilomastix mesnili?

A

“Shepherd’s Crook” appearance”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

What is the appearance of posterior part of Chilomastix mesnili?

A

spiral groove/twisted jaw appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is the appearance of the Chilomastix mesnili cyst?

A

Nipple/ Lemon Shaped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

The Nipple/ Lemon Shaped of the Chilomastix mesnili cyst is also called as?

A

Hyaline knob

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q
  • It is Pathogenic (Diarrhea)
  • Formerly under the ameba
  • NO visible flagella
A

Dientamoeba fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

No. of nuclei in cystic stage of Dientamoeba fragilis

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

The appearance of 2 nuclei in Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoite

A

Rosette like (fragmented chromatin 3-5 granules/nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Mode of transmission of Dientamoeba fragilis

A

via helminth eggs; Oral-fecal
o Those people who had Ascaris or Enterobius infections, possible they can also be infected Dientamoeba

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

How to diagnose Dientamoeba fragilis Trophozoite

A

permanent stained smear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Treatment for Dientamoeba fragilis

A

Iodoquinol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Diseases caused by Dientamoeba fragilis

A

Intermittent diarrhea, abdominal pain; eosinophilia; pruritus in the anal area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Closest relative of Dientamoeba

A

Trichomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q
  • Oval trophozoite; 1 nucleus
  • 3 anterior flagella & 1 posterior flagella
  • Jerky motility
A

Enteromonas hominis trophozoite

169
Q

No. of nuclei in Enteromonas hominis cyst

A

2/4 nuclei

170
Q
  • 1 anterior and 1 posterior flagella
  • Cleft like cytostome
  • Jerky motility
A

Retortamonas intestinalis trophozoite

171
Q

Apperance of Cytostomal fibril of Retortamonas intestinalis

A

“Bird’s beak”

172
Q

SUBPHYLUM MASTIGOPHORA: Flagellates that has No cyst stage; possess 4-5 flagella (trophozoite stage)

A

Trichomonas spp.

173
Q

the most pathogenic trichomonas spp.

A

T. vaginalis

174
Q

What is the habitat of Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Urogenital Area

175
Q

Mode of transmission of Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Intimate contact, Infant deliver, contaminated underwear, and towels

176
Q

a wave-like structure on the lateral part of the trophozoite and is used for motility
- 1/2 of the body

A

Undulating Membrane

177
Q

o dot-like structure throughout the body.
o iron-rich (iron-loving)
o can only be found in T. vaginalis

A

Siderophil granules:

178
Q

leading non-viral STD worldwide caused by T. vaginalis

A

: Trichomoniasi

179
Q

Disease manifestation of T. vaginalis infection in females

A

Vaginal pruritus, Strawberry cervix, Frothy discharge

180
Q

Disease manifestation of T. vaginalis infection in males

A

asymptomatic, occasionally Non-gonococcal urethritis, prostatitis

181
Q

Virulence factors of T. vaginalis

A

adhesins, cell detaching factor

182
Q

inflammation of cervix with reddish dots (petechial spots)

A

Strawberry cervix

183
Q

Formerly known as T. hominis
Commensal (non-pathogenic) but may be misdiagnosed as T. vaginalis especially in children if there is fecal contamination of urine

A

Pentatrichomonas hominis

184
Q

Habitat of Pentatrichomonas hominis

A

Colon

185
Q

Mode of transmission of Pentatrichomonas hominis

A

ingestion of trophozoite

186
Q

describe the nucleus of the Pentatrichomonas hominis

A

Rounded (no peripheral chromatin)

187
Q

Undulating Membrane of Pentatrichomonas hominis

A

Full body length

188
Q

Smallest among the 3 Trichomonas species

A

Trichomonas tenax

189
Q

Habitat of Trichomonas tenax

A

Mouth (tartar or teeth)

190
Q

Mode of transmissionof Trichomonas tenax

A

direct contact (kissing, sharing of utensils)

191
Q

describe the nucleus of Trichomonas tenax

A

ovoidal

192
Q

Undulating Membrane of Trichomonas tenax

A

2/3 of the body

193
Q

Disease manifestation of Trichomonas tenax

A

periodontal diseases
respiratory infections

194
Q

Lab diagnosis for Trichomonas spp.

A
  • Wet mounts if vaginal and urethral discharge, stool exam, mouth scrapings
  • stained smears (giemsa or Pap’s)
  • Culture (gold standard)
  • Antigen detection (rapid detection for T. vaginalis)
  • Serology
  • Molecular methods
195
Q
  • Flagellates that are found in the blood and other fluids (CSF) and in tissues
  • Vector borne parasites
A

Hemoflagellates

196
Q

Medical important genera of hemoflagellates

A

o Trypanosoma
o Leishmania

197
Q

four morphological forms of hemoflagellates (based on the location of kinetoplast and flagella)

A
  • Amastigote (Donovan Leishman)
  • Promastigote (Leptomonas)
  • Epimastigote(Crithidia)
  • Trypomastigote
198
Q

Energizing structure of hemoflagellate made up of DNA.

A

Kinetoplast

199
Q

Only the epimastigote and trypomastigote are seen in the life cycle of_____

A

Trypanosoma brucei infections

200
Q

Only the promastigote and amastigote are seen in _____

A

Leishmania infections

201
Q

Diagnostic stages (found in humans) in hemoflagellates

A

amastigote and trypomastigote

202
Q

Infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi

A

metacyclic trypomastigote

203
Q

Infective stage of Trypanosoma brucei

A

metacyclic trypomastigote

204
Q

Infective stage of Leishmania

A

promastigote

205
Q

Stage of hemoflagellate that has:
- No flagella
- Intracellular
- Found on the host cell

A

Amastigote

206
Q

Stage of hemoflagellate that has:
- Anterior flagella
- Kinetoplast: anterior to the nucleus
- Nucleus: found in the center of the slender stage

A

Promastigote

207
Q

Stage of hemoflagellate that has:
- Anterior flagella
- Undulating membrane: 1/2 of the body
- Kinetoplast: anterior to the nucleus
- Nucleus: posterior part of the parasite.
- Body is wider than promastigote

A

Epimastigote

208
Q
  • Anterior flagella
  • Undulating membrane: full body length
  • Kinetoplast: posterior to the nucleus
  • Has U-, C-, or S-shaped appearance
  • Contain granules (known as volutins granules)
A

Trypomastigote

209
Q

Habitat of Trypanosoma cruzi

A

reticuloendothelial system, cardiac muscle, CNS

210
Q

Vector of Trypanosoma cruzi

A

reduviid bug/Kissing Bug (Triatoma)

211
Q

mode of transmission of Trypanosoma cruzi

A

Feces of vector entering the bite wound; blood transfusion, organ transplants; transplacental

212
Q

disease commonly found in south africacaused by Trypanosoma cruzi

A

American Trypanosomiasis or Chagas disease

213
Q

signs of infection include the development of Chagoma, Romaña’s sign, and others are fever and lymphadenopathy

A

Acute phase of chagas disease

214
Q

painful reddish nodule at the site of the bite of reduviid bug

A

Chagoma

215
Q

periorbital swelling after the bite of reduviid bug

A

Romaña’s sign

216
Q

after 10-20 years of trypanosoma infection.
o Enlargement of the vital organs (heart, esophagus, colon).
o Common cause of death involves heart diseases

A

Chronic phase of chagas disease

217
Q

Lab Diagnosis for Chagas disease

A
  • Giemsa staining of CSF, Blood, Lymph
  • Xenodiagnosis
  • Culture
  • Serology
218
Q

Treatment for chagas disease

A
  • Nifurtimox
  • Benznidazole
219
Q

use of kissing bug. Patient is allowed to be bitten by
the bug. If the parasite develops in the bug after a few weeks, the patient is positive

A

Xenodiagnosis

220
Q

Common culture method for diagnosis of Chagas disease

A

Novy MacNeal Nicolle

221
Q

Common serology method for diagnosis of Chagas disease

A

Machado Guerreiro (complement fixation technique)

222
Q

Stages used to diagnose Trypanosoma cruzi in chagas disease

A
  • Trypomastigote
  • Amastigote (tissues) commonly encountered
    in chronic phase.
222
Q

Stages used to diagnose Trypanosoma cruzi in chagas disease

A
  • Trypomastigote
  • Amastigote (tissues) commonly encountered
    in chronic phase.
223
Q

agent of African Sleeping Sickness

A

Trypanosoma brucei

224
Q

vector of Trypanosoma brucei

A

Tse-tse fly (Glossina spp.)

225
Q

Example of Glossina spp.

A
  • G. pallidipes
  • G. morsitans
  • G. palparis
226
Q

habitat of Trypanosoma brucei

A

blood, lymph, CSF

227
Q

Agent of Rhodesian/East African Sleeping
Sickness
Endemic in S. and E. Africa

A

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

228
Q

agent of Gambien/West African Sleeping Sickness
o Endemic in W. and C. Africa

A

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

229
Q

o Acute rapidly progressing
o CNS stage takes place early (<9mos)
o Minimal lymphadenopathy
o Anthropozoonotic: animals (most common) and humans are affected
o High parasitemia

A

Rhodesian/East African Sleeping Sickness

230
Q

o Prominent lymphadenopathy
o Chronic progression
o Anthroponotic: humans are affected
o Low parasitemia

A

Gambien/West African Sleeping Sickness

231
Q

Laboratory diagnosis of Trypanosoma brucei

A
  • Trypanosomal chancre (early sign)
  • Winterbottom’s sign
  • Kerandel’s sign
  • In-vitro autoagglutination in blood
  • Elevated serum and CSF IgM
  • Mott cells in CSF (morula cells)
232
Q

painful ulceration caused by Trypanosoma brucei

A

Trypanosomal chancre

233
Q

▪ cervical lymphadenopathy
▪ enlargement of lymph nodes
▪ swelling or bumps on the neck region

A

Winterbottom’s sign

234
Q

Delayed sensation to pain result to Trypanosoma brucei infection

A

Kerandel’s sign

235
Q

Diagnostic stage of Trypanosoma brucei

A

Trypomastigotes in bite lesion, blood, CSf, lymph node
aspirate

236
Q

Diagnosis for Trypanosoma brucei

A

o Concentration of Buffy Coat; quantitative buffy coat (QBC)
o Serology – IHAT, ELISA, Rapid tests
o Molecular methods
o Animal inoculation and Culture

237
Q

Treatment for Trypanosoma brucei infection

A

Pentamidine
Suramin
Melarsoprol
(MelaSun Po)

238
Q

intracellular protozoan

A

Leishmania

239
Q

Vector of Leishmania spp.

A

Sand fly

240
Q

GENUS of Leishmania spp.

A
  • Phlebotomus spp.
  • Lutzomiya spp.
241
Q

MOT of Leishmania spp.

A

Bite of vector; blood transfusion, contact, contamnation of bite wounds

242
Q

Leishmania spp. that:
Target:
- Endothelial cells of skin capillaries; phagocytic monocytes
- Lesions on the skin are painless but highly disfiguring

Disease: Cutaneous Leishmaniasis, Old world Leishmaniasis, Aleppo Button, Delhi boil, Baghdad boil,
Jericho boil ( Si ALEPPO pumunta ng DELHI para bumili ng BAG kasama si JERICHO)

A

L. tropica

243
Q

New World Cutaneous Leishmaniasis

A
  • L. mexicana,
  • L. braziliensis
244
Q

Leishmania spp. that:
Target
Mucocutaneous junstionc (nasal septum, mouth, pharynx)

Disease:
Mucocutaneous Leishmaniasis (American, New world Leishmaniasis)

A

L. braziliensis

245
Q

Leishmania spp. that:
Target:
Endothelial cells of Reticuloendothelial System
* Causes splenomegaly

Disease:
Visceral Leishmaniasis (Kala-azar, Dumdum fever, Black
fever)
The most severe/virulent

A

L. donovani

246
Q

Diagnostic stage of Leishmania

A

Intracellular amastigotes

247
Q

Amastigotes can be mistaken for _____ of Histoplasma capsulatum especially in cases of dumdum fever

A

yeast cells

248
Q

Laboratory Diganosis of Leishmania

A
  • Demonstration of lesions
  • Biopsies (skin, tissue)
  • Examination of BM spleen, lymph node
  • Montenegro skin test (Leishmanin Skin test)
  • Formol-Gel test
  • Serology: IFAT
  • Culture
  • Molecular methods
249
Q

detection of hypergammaglobulinemia in patients with
kala-azar

A

Formol-Gel test

250
Q

Common culture medium for Laboratory Diganosis of Leishmania

A

Novy MacNeal Nicolle
Schneider’s drosophilia medium w/ 30% fetal bovine
serum

251
Q

Treatment for Leishmania

A

Antimony compounds (Sodium stibogluconate, n-methyl-glucamine antimonite)

252
Q

largest protozoan infecting man; medically important
ciliate

A

Balantidium coli

252
Q

largest protozoan infecting man; medically important
ciliate

A

Balantidium coli

253
Q

Final host of Balantidium coli

A

Man

254
Q

Reservoir host of Balantidium coli

A

pigs

255
Q

MOT of Balantidium coli

A

Ingestion of cysts

256
Q

Habitat of Balantidium coli

A

Colon (cecum)

257
Q

Infective stage of Balantidium coli

A

cyst

258
Q

It is called Anterior Tapered

A

Balantidium coli trophozoite

259
Q

Motility of B. coli trophozioite

A

“Thrown ball or rotary”

260
Q

hair-like structures surrounding the whole parasite

A

Cilia

261
Q

describe the Cytostome B. coli trophozioite

A

funnel-shaped mouth

262
Q

anus; where waste products of B. coli are released

A

Cytopyge

263
Q

nucleus that is kidney-shaped

A

Macronucleus

264
Q

nucleus that is primarily used for reproduction

A

Micronucleus

265
Q

It is for osmoregulation of B. coli

A

Contractile vacuoles

266
Q

Describe the wall of B. coli trophozoite

A

Double-walled; refractive cyst wall enclosing the cilia

267
Q

Manifestation of Balantidiasis/ Balantidial
dysentery

A

o Bloody diarrhea
o Flask shaped ulcers (wide and rounded ulcers)
o Extraintestinal may spread may occur (usually spread in the lungs, urogenital area, and mesenteries)

268
Q

What is Virulence factor of B. coli?

A

Hyaluronidase

269
Q

Lab Diagnosis for B. coli

A

Stool exam and Biopsy

270
Q

Treatment for B. coli

A

Metronidazole

271
Q
  • Intracellular parasites
  • Presence of the Apical complex:
A

PHYLUM APICOMPLEXA

272
Q

used by Phylum apicomlexa for gaining entry of host cells

A

Apical complex

273
Q

Reproduction of Phylum apicomlexa

A

Alternating asexual and sexual Generation (can happen in 1 or 2 hosts depending on the spp.)

274
Q

most important parasitic disease in man
bad air

A

MALARIAL PARASITES

275
Q

most important and most virulent;
#1 cause of malaria in the Philippines

A

Plasmodium falciparum

276
Q

most widespread/ prevalent; except in Antarctica

A

Plasmodium vivax

277
Q

least common malarial parasite

A

Plasmodium ovale

278
Q

Malarial parasite that has long paroxysmal cycle and incubation period

A

Plasmodium malariae

279
Q

zoonotic (malaria of monkeys)
o Endemic area: South-East Asia
o can be mistaken for P. malariae in microscopy (certain RBC stages)

A

Plasmodium knowlesi

280
Q

diagnosis for malarial parasite

A

Molecular method (preferably)

281
Q

It is Sexual reproduction that happens in the final host

A

sporogony

282
Q

It is asexual reproduction that happens in the intermediate host

A

schizogony

283
Q

Major malarial vector in the Philippines
Night biter

A

Female Anopheles minimus flavirostris

284
Q

Habitat of malarial parasite in humans:

A

RBCs, liver cells (humans)

285
Q

Infective stage of malarial parasite to mosquito

A

Gametocytes (Macrogametocytes, Microgametocytes)

286
Q

Infective Stage of malarial parasite to Man (Transmission Stage)

A

Sporozoites

287
Q

Mode of Transmission of malarial parasite

A

Mosquito bite; Blood transfusion; Congenital

288
Q

Female anopheles mosquito bites humans and injects ____

A

sporozoites

289
Q

Sporozoites must reach liver to become ____ and reproduce (around 40 minutes or less than an hour depending on the reference)

A

merozoites

290
Q

Hypnozoites are seen in

A

P. vivax and P. ovale

291
Q

It is caused by Hypnozoites
reactivation of hypnozoites

A

RELAPSE

292
Q

Some merozoites enter the blood circulation to infect

A

RBCs

293
Q

Merozoites of malaria in asexual cycle enter the blood circulation to invade RBCs to become:

A

ring forms

294
Q

female gametocyte

A

Macrogametocyte

295
Q

male gametocyte

A

Microgametocyte:

296
Q

release sporozoites migrate to salivary glands of mosquito
ready to infect a susceptible human

A

Oocyst of malaria in sexual cycle

297
Q

Most cases of malaria occur in

A

Africa

298
Q

Symptoms and complications of malarial infection

A

o Paroxysms (chills, fever, sweating)
o Anemia
o Splenomegaly
o Blackwater fever (P. falciparum) o Cerebral malaria (P. falciparum)
o DIC
o Proteinuria: Nephrotic syndrome
o Occurrence of relapse and recrudescence

299
Q

Malarial pigment
the more pigment, the more severe the malaria is

A

hemozoin

300
Q

infected RBCs become adherent to the blood vessels that causes other stages (schizonts) to not be observed under the microscope

A

Cytoadherence (P. falciparum)

301
Q

Malignant tertian
Malaria/Subtertian
Malaria or estivoautumnal
malaria

A

Plasmodium falciparum

302
Q

Paroxysmal cycle of Plasmodium falciparum

A

36-48 hours

303
Q

RBC infected by Plasmodium falciparum

A

All forms

304
Q

Size of Parasitized RBC in Plasmodium falciparum

A

Normal

305
Q

Parasite that has: (ring form)
- Delicate small ring
- May have 2 chromatin dots
- Common multiple rings in an RBC
- Accole/applique forms – ring forms in the periphery

A

Plasmodium falciparum

306
Q

Parasite that the Developing Trophozoite has:
Heavy ring forms;
not commonly seen

A

Plasmodium falciparum

307
Q

Schizont of Plasmodium falciparum

A

8-36 merozoites ; rarely seen

308
Q

describe the Microgametocyte of P. falciparum

A

Sausage shaped; diffuse chromatin (sabog)

309
Q

describe the macrogametocyte of P. falciparum

A

rescent shaped; compact chromatin

310
Q

describe the Stippling of P. falciparum

A

Maurer’s clefts (comma-like red dots)

311
Q

Benign tertian malaria

A

Plasmodium vivax

312
Q

Paroxysmal cycle of Plasmodium vivax

A

44-48 hrs

313
Q

RBC infected by Plasmodium vivax

A

reticulocytes

314
Q

Size of Parasitized RBC of Plasmodium vivax

A

Enlarged RBC (1.5-2 times)

315
Q

RBC stages in Plasmodium vivax

A

All stages present

316
Q

Describe the Ring Forms of Plasmodium vivax

A

Ring 1/3 diameter of RBC
Heavy chromatic dot
Signet ring appearance

317
Q

Developing Trophozoite of Plasmodium vivax

A

Ameboid (bizarre looking, irregular shaped)

318
Q

Developing Trophozoite of Plasmodium vivax

A

12-24 merozoites

319
Q

Microgametocyte of Plasmodium vivax

A

Round; large pink to purple chromatin mass surrounded
by a pale halo

320
Q

Macrogametocyte of Plasmodium vivax

A

Round; eccentric chromatin mass

321
Q

Stippling of Plasmodium vivax

A

Schuffner’s (eosinophilic)
- More common

322
Q

Ovale tertian malaria

A

Plasmodium ovale

323
Q

Paroxysmal cycle of Plasmodium ovale

A

48 hours

324
Q

RBC infected by Plasmodium ovale

A

Young (reticulocytes)

325
Q

Size of RBC Parasitized Plasmodium ovale

A

Oval, some may be larger than normal; presence of fimbriated or serrated (pangil) edges in RBCs

326
Q

Presence of RBC stages in Plasmodium ovale

A

All stages present

327
Q

Describe the Ring Forms Plasmodium ovale

A

Larger rings; similar to P. vivax

328
Q

Describe the Developing Trophozoite of Plasmodium ovale

A

Ring shaped; non ameboid; similar to P. vivax

329
Q

Schizont of Plasmodium ovale

A

8 merozoites

329
Q

Microgametocyte of Plasmodium ovale

A

Smaller than P. vivax

330
Q

Macrogametocyte of Plasmodium ovale

A

Smaller than P. vivax

331
Q

Stippling of Plasmodium ovale

A

James ; Schuffner’s (in some references)

332
Q

Quartan malaria

A

Plasmodium malariae

333
Q

Paroxysmal cycle of Plasmodium malariae

A

72 hours

334
Q

RBC infected of Plasmodium malariae

A

Old (senescent)

335
Q

Size of RBC Parasitized by Plasmodium malariae

A

Normal

336
Q

Presence of RBC stages in Plasmodium malariae

A

Few rings, mostly trophozoites and schizonts

337
Q

Ring Forms of Plasmodium malariae

A

Smaller rings (1/8 of cell)
Heavy chromatin dot
(Bird’s Eye appearance)

338
Q

Developing Trophozoite in Plasmodium malariae

A

Band shaped trophozoite;
basket forms may be seen

339
Q

Schizont of Plasmodium malariae

A

6-12 merozoites; rosette or fruit pie appearance

340
Q

Microgametocyte of Plasmodium malariae

A

Smaller than P. vivax
*same pics with P. ovale

341
Q

Macrogametocyte of Plasmodium malariae

A

Smaller than P. vivax
*same pics with P. ovale

342
Q

Stippling of Plasmodium malariae

A

Ziemann’s

343
Q

Spx for Lab diagnosis of malaria

A

o Capillary blood w/o AC (more preferred)
o Whole blood: EDTA (pero this is not preferred)

344
Q

Best time/period for collecting the malarial specimen

A

collect blood at height of fever or every 6-8 hours

345
Q

The GOLD STANDARD laboratory diagnosis for alarial infection

A

Microscopy

346
Q

Smear prep. for malarial count

A

Thick smear:

347
Q

Size of the thick smear

A

2 cm or 2.5 cm diameter

348
Q

Dehemoglobinize using _____

A

Distilled water to lyse RBCs

349
Q

Smear prep for malarial Species identification

A

Thin smear

350
Q

Fixative of Thin smear

A

Methanol

351
Q

Stain used for smear prep

A

Giemsa (pH 7.2)
pH must diluted (adjusted using PBS – Phosphate Buffered Saline)

352
Q

Alternative stain for smear prep

A

Wright’s

353
Q

Stain used for Quantitative Buffy coat (QBC)

A

acridine orange stain

354
Q

anticoagulant used for Quantitative Buffy coat (QBC)

A

oxalate

355
Q

Positive indicator for Quantitative Buffy coat (QBC)

A

(+) bright green and yellow under fluorescence microscope

356
Q

Antigen detect in Rapid Diagnostic Tests (Immunochromatographic Methods)

A
  • HRP-II
  • Parasite LDH
  • Aldolase
357
Q

antigen that is Specific for P. falciparum

A
  • histidine rich protein II
358
Q

Antigen that is nonspecific P. falciparum

A

Parasite LDH

359
Q

Test for for low parasitemia and mixed infections

A

Molecular: PCR

360
Q

Culture media for Malarial infection

A

RPMI1640

361
Q

Treatment for malarial infection

A

o Chloroquine: Main stay drug (has resistance as a disadvantage)
o Artemether Lumefantrine: for falciparum malaria
o Doxycycline: prophylaxis

362
Q

Intracellular parasites that causes malaria-like infections

A

Babesia microti

363
Q

Definitive host of Babesia microti

A

Ticks (Ixodes spp.)

363
Q

Intermediate hosts of Babesia microti

A

white footed mouse, deer, livestock, cattle

364
Q

accidental hosts of Babesia microti

A

human

365
Q

MOT of Babesia microti

A

bite of an infected tick (forest), blood transfusion; vertical transmission

366
Q

Morphology of merozoites of Babesia microti

A

maltese cross or bunny ears

367
Q

Ring forms of Babesia microti may be mistaken as _____

A

P. falciparum

368
Q

Disease manifestation of Babesia microti

A

Babesiosis, Texas cattle fever, Nantucket fever, Redwater fever
S/S: flu-like, malaise, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly; usually selflimiting

369
Q

B. microti severe infections in certain cases:

A

splenectomized individuals, immunecompromised,
coinfection with Lyme disease or (Borrelia)

370
Q

Diagnosis of B. microti

A

o Microscopy
o Serology
o Molecular methods

371
Q

Treatment of B. microti

A

Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine

372
Q

Tissue Coccidians

A

Toxoplasma gondii

373
Q

Definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii

A

Members of Felidae family

374
Q

Intermediate host of Toxoplasma gondii

A

birds, rodents, pigs

375
Q

Accidental or Dead End host of Toxoplasma gondii

A

Humans

376
Q

Infective stages of Toxoplasma gondii

A

oocyst and tissue cysts

377
Q

MOT of Toxoplasma gondii

A

o Ingestion of infected and undercooked meat
o Consumption of food or water contaminated with cat feces
o Blood transplant/organ transfusion
o Vertical transmission (torch testing)

378
Q

Parasite stages in humans of Toxoplasma gondii

A
  • Tachyzoites
  • Bradyzoites
379
Q

(elongated)rapidly multiply and infect cells of the intermediate hosts and non-intestinal epithelial cells of cats

A

Tachyzoites

380
Q

multiply slowly
- Develop mostly in neural and muscular tissues
- May also develop in visceral organs

A

Bradyzoites

381
Q

Disease manifestation of T. gondii

A

o Usually asymptomatic among immunocompetent
o Immunocompromised: encephalitis; retinochoroiditis, lymphadenopathy (AIDS), splenomegaly; brain focal lesions
o Congenital defect to the newborn
▪ Stillborn, abortion, encephalitis, hydrocephalus,
chorioretinitis, cerebral calcifications

382
Q

Laboratory Diagnosis for T. gondii

A
  • Sabin Feldman
  • Frenkel test (skin test)
  • ELISA, HAT, FAT
  • TORCH testing
  • Examination of tissue sections, CSF
  • Molecular methods
383
Q

Classic serologic test used for diagnosis of T. gondii

A

Sabin Feldman test

384
Q

Spx used for Sabin Feldman test

A

Serum + live toxoplasma + methylene blue

385
Q

Reagent for Sabin Feldman test

A

Methylene blue

386
Q

Positive result of Sabin Feldman test

A

nonuptake of dye

387
Q

AKA: C. parvum

A

Cryptosporidium hominis

388
Q

size of Oocyst of C. hominis

A

4-6 um

389
Q

infective once released
- contains 4 sporozoites

A

Oocyst

390
Q

disease manifestation of C.hominis

A

Outbreaks or diarrhea; low infective dose
o Lalabas yung sporozoites because of its thin-walled oocyst

391
Q

Treatment for C. hominis

A

Nitazoxanide; for AIDS – no effective Rx

391
Q

Treatment for C. hominis

A

Nitazoxanide; for AIDS – no effective Rx

392
Q

Intestinal Coccidians inhabit ____

A

small intestine (enterocytes –intestinal cells)

393
Q

MOT of Intestinal Coccidians

A

ingestion of sporulated oocysts

394
Q

AKA: Cyanobacterium like body
autofluorescence

A

Cyclospora cayetanensis

395
Q

size Oocyst of Cyclospora cayetanensis

A

8-10 um

396
Q

contains 2 sporocysts unsporulated/immature when released

A

Oocyst of Cyclospora cayetanensis

397
Q

Disease manifestation of C. cayetanensis

A

Diarrhea implicated after consumption of contaminated fruits such as raspberries; basil, baby lettuce, snow peas

398
Q

Treatment for C. cayetanensis

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SXT)

399
Q

Laboratory Diagnosis for Partially Acid Fast Intestinal Coccidians

A
  • Stool examination
    a. Concentration techniques: Sheather’s sugar Flotation, FECT
    b. Staining method: Modified Kinyoun Method (most costefficient)
  • Other tests: molecular methods; serology; phase contrast microscopy
400
Q

AKA: Isospora belli

A

Cytoisospora belli

401
Q

describe the oocyst of Cytoisospora belli

A

ellipsoid/spindle shaped
o contains 2 sporocysts
o unsporulated/immature when release

402
Q

Disease manifestation C. belli

A

Diarrhea; least common

403
Q

Rx for C. belli

A

TMP-SXT

404
Q

Sacrocystis in Beef

A

Sacrocystis hominis

405
Q

Sarcocystis in pork

A

Sarcocystis suihominis

406
Q

MOT of Sarcocystis

A

ingestion of uncooked meat containing mature sacrocysts

407
Q

Diagnostic stage of Sarcocystis

A

Oocysts in stool; Sacrocyst in muscle

408
Q

Manifestations of Sarcocystis

A

severe diarrhea, fever, weight loss, muscle pain

409
Q

Lab test for sarcocystis

A

Zinc Sulfate Concentration for stool; biopsy (muscle)

410
Q

NOW considered and fungus

A

Microsporidia

411
Q

Microsporidia that Causes diarrhea among immunocompromised patients

A

Encephalitozoon and Enterocytozoon

412
Q

Diagnosis for microsporida

A

detection of spores in stool, tissue biopsy (PAS, Silver stain, Giemsa); Modified trichrome; antigen detection, IF, PCR

413
Q
  • Formerly classified as a yeast
  • Commensal of GI tract
  • Zoonotic
A

Blastocytis hominis

414
Q

no. of nucleus of Blastocytis hominis

A

(2-4) – found in periphery

415
Q

MOT of Blastocytis hominis

A

Ingestion of thick-walled cysts

416
Q

Forms of Blastocytis hominis

A

o Classic vacuolated form (central-body form)
o Granular forms
o Multivacuolar
o Avacuolar
o Ameboid form