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AP0411 > Medical Microbiology > Flashcards

Medical Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

What is clinical microbiology?

A

The study of how microorganisms cause disease, how it’s managed, the clinical presentation of a disease and how a disease is diagnosed

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2
Q

Where is normal flora found in the human body?

A

Mouth
Skin
Intestinal tract
Genital tract

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3
Q

What professions deliver a clinical microbiology service?

A

Clinical microbiologists
Infection control & link nurses
Doctors
Anti microbial pharmacists
Biomedical scientists
Lab assistants
Lab managers

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4
Q

What are the 2 pathways of transmission?

A

Horizontal- Transmitted from host to host
Vertical- Transmitted from one generation to the next through congenital infection

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5
Q

What are the 2 types of direct, horizontal transmission?

A

Direct contact- Through touch or exchange of bodily fluids with another person
Droplet- Through coughing and sneezing

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6
Q

What are the 3 types of indirect, horizontal transmission?

A

Airborne- Via infectious agent remaining in the air from coughing, sneezing, laughing or breathing
Vehicle- Through an inanimate object that can pass on disease from person to person (via touch)
Vector- Mostly transmitted by insect bites

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7
Q

Define infection

A

Invasion and multiplication of microorganisms in body tissues, especially that causing local cellular injury due to competitive metabolism, toxins, Intracellular replication or antigen- antibody response

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8
Q

What are the 5 major types of pathogens?

A

1- bacteria
2- Viruses
3- Fungi
4- Protozoan (water borne)
5- Parasitic worm

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9
Q

List the routes of entry for invading pathogens

A

Ears
Nose
Mouth
Vagina
Urethra
Anus
Conjunctiva of eye
Broken skin and insect bites

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10
Q

What are the 6 steps of the chain of infection?

A
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Reservoir (pathogen itself often found in reservoir)
  3. Exit portal
  4. Transmission
  5. Entry portal
  6. Susceptible host
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11
Q

Explain the index, primary, secondary and tertiary cases

A

Index- first patient identified with disease
Primary- case that brings infection to the population
Secondary- Infected by a primary case
Tertiary- Infected by a secondary case

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12
Q

What characteristics should pathogens have?

A

Ability to enter the body
Multiply in the tissue
Damage tissue
Result the host defence

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13
Q

Define pathogenicity

A

Pathogenicity- Ability of microbial species to produce disease

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14
Q

Define virulence

A

Ability of microbial strains to produce disease

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15
Q

Where does pathology receive their specimens from?

A

In-patient
Out-patient (follow up etc)
Emergency admissions
General practice
Care homes, Hospice and Convalescents
Environment

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16
Q

List the different types of specimens

A

Blood
Urine
Swab
Sputum
Faeces
Tissue
Food/ water

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17
Q

Where can fluid samples be collected from?

A

Urinary tract
Gastrointestinal tract- Bile and washings
Respiratory tract- Sputum and alveolar lavage
CNS- Cerebrospinal fluid and pus
Skin and soft tissue- Vesical fluid and pus
Bone and joints- Pus and aspirate
Other (e.g Septicaemia (blood))

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18
Q

Where can tissue samples be collected from?

A

Urinary tract- Renal biopsy
Gastrointestinal tract- Liver biopsy, rectal swab
Respiratory tract- Lung biopsy, nasal/ throat swab
CNS- Brain biopsy
Genital tract- Endometrial biopsy, urethral/ cervical swab
Skin and soft tissue- skin/ wound swab

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19
Q

Where are swab specimens collected from?

A

Skin and soft tissue- skin biopsy and scrapings
Bone and joint- Bone
Other- e.g Endocarditis- Heart valve

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20
Q

Why are specimens taken?

A

Due to signs of infection
Rule out infection
Routine upon admission (for MRSA)
Check levels
Look for abnormalities
To see treatment needs to begin/ withdrawn

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21
Q

What are the methods of rapid detection?

A

Light microscopy (Gram stain etc)
Immunofluorescence (tagged antibodes)
Antigen detection (monoclonal antibodies)
Molecular tests (PCR)
Colonial appearance/ selective agar
MALDI- TOF

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22
Q

List the different ways in which bacteria are classified

A

Gram reaction
Cell shape
Sporulation
Atmospheric preference
Requirements from special media/ intracellular growth

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23
Q

List the different types of media and describe what they are used for

A

General purpose- Grow a broad spectra of microorganisms (blood agar)
Enriched - Enhance the growth factors of bacterium
Selective- Enhance the growth of desired bacteria and inhibit others
Differential- Show the differences between bacteria

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24
Q

What are the identification enzyme tests that can be carried out on bacteria?

A

Catalyse
Oxidase

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25
When is the best time to take a patients blood culture sample?
Before antibiotics are given
26
What are the different isolation procedure requirements?
Liquid or solid media Apppropriate temp Appropriate gaseous conditions (aerobic, anaerobic, facultative or microaerophillic- 2-10% O2)
27
What are the basic requirements that bacteria have to grow?
Nutrients- H2O, CHO’s, proteins and minerals Neutral pH (slight variation between each bacteria) Sterile 30-35 degrees temp for bacteria 40 degrees for fungi
28
What are the 2 general strategies to grow bacteria?
1. Enriched media for non-selective growth 2. Selective media- for large numbers of bacteria (normal flora)
29
What is solid media?
Nutrients and chemicals added to encourage growth + identification poured into a Petri dish for lab use Practically no bacteria can digest it
30
What is liquid media?
Specialised broths used for the recovery of organisms from sterile sites Don’t dry out= a good maintence media
31
What are the 4 types of media?
1. Selective- selects what you want to grow, useful for sites with normal flora 2. Enrichment- good for sterile sites 3. Differential- used to work out the different types of different types of bacteria are present 4. Specialised- cultivation of rare and unusual isolates
32
What is blood agar and what is it used for?
Basal media 5% horse blood (rest is sheep/ human) Shows alpha, beta and gamma haemolysis (break down of red blood cells) Not selective
33
What is Cetrimide agar differential for?
Differential for Pseudomonus Fluoresces when pseudomonas is present with a distinctive smell
34
What is Candida Brillinace agar differential for?
Candida species Present a range of colours from blue-red depending on what yeast is grown/ present
35
What is MacCockney agar differential for, and what colour change occurs?
Differential for lactose fermenting bacteria Crystal violet is gar mixture is differential for Gram +ve bacteria and inhibits the growth of Gram -ve bacteria Lactose +ve bacteria cause the agar to turn from red- bright pink to Lactose -ve cause a red- organge/ yellow colour change
36
How is Mannitol salt agar differential and what bacteria is it differential for?
Differential for Staphlycococcus High concentrations of NaCl only allows halototlerant/ halophillic bacteria to grow Those bacteria ( staph aureus) that can ferment mannitol, reduces the pH causing the agar to turn the phenol red from light red- yellow Bacteria that don’t ferment the mannitol can still grow so the agar turns a darker pink (staph epidermis)
37
What is MEYP agar?
Mannitol egg Yolk Polymyxin agar
38
How is MEYP differential and what bacteria is it differential for?
Differential for Bacillus that ferment mannitol (particularly for B. Serious) Contains polymixin which inhibits the growth of Gram -ve bacteria and Gram +ve cocci (staph) Fermentation dec pH, turns agar pink only b.serious can do this
39
What are the different atmospheric requirements for growth of bacteria?
Obligate aerobes- obliged to use O2 Microaerohillic- lower amount of O2 than the atmosphere Capnophiles- high amounts of CO2 Facultative anaerobes- growth in prescence OR abscence of oxygen Obligate anaerobes- strictly only grow n anaerobic conditions
40
What are the 5 techniques used to identify a microorganism?
Selective and differential media Colonial morphology Gram staining Confirmatory tests Antibiotic susceptibility
41
How should a specimen be handled/collected?
Before antibiotics have started Labelled appropriately with clinical detail Transported and stored accordingly Special transport medium carried out if required Correct sample type collected
42
How are specimens processed?
Urgent vs non-urgent samples Sites with normal flora and sites without Culture conditions should be correct: Growth time Atmospheric conditions Specific factors in the culture media
43
Describe chromogenic media
Use in most labs Acts as an indicator media Incorporates chromogenic sub rates in the media Quicker method of identifying and differentiating micro-organisms Easy to separate mixed cultures Expensive
44
What is routine plate selection?
Often selective an enrichment Indicator in special circumstances Plates are usually ready the next day
45
Describe the urease confirmatory test?
Tests for bacteria’s ability to degrade urea Phenol red is used to test for acidity Yellow appearance= Acidic Pink appearance= Alkaline
46
What are healthcare associated infections?
HCAI are a result of healthcare interventions/ being in contact with a healthcare setting (MRSE or CDI) Therefore infection prevention and control is a key priority for the NHS
47
Describe the process and effect of MRSA screening
Initiative to reduce HCAI Patients screened according to this policy 2/3 swabs of each patient upon admission, during their stay and prior to discharge Inc lab workload due to need for quick result
48
What is MRSA?
Discovered in 1981 1 in 3 healthy people are carriers Widespread in most hospitals Resistant to most antibiotics
49
Which bacteria are catalase +ve/-ve?
Staphylococci- +ve Streptococci- -ve Gram -ve- +ve Very few anaerobes are +ve
50
How does the catalase test work?
Breakdown of hydrogen peroxide Generation of oxygen “bubbles” (in 20s on a slide)= +ve Distinguishes between Strep and Micrococcus from Enetrcoccus and Staph
51
Which bacteria are oxidase +ve/-ve?
Staph and Strep- -ve Many enviromental organisms- +ve Many pathogens- +ve Gram -ve bacteria- -ve
52
How does the oxidase test work?
Enzyme is only found obligate aerobes that oxidises the TMPD* reagent Purple/ blue compound is produced in aprox10 seconds
53
What are the 3 major groups of bacteria and their result for the catalase test?
1. Obligate aerobe - Positive 2. Facultative anaerobe- Positive 3. Obligate anaerobe- Negative
54
What are the 3 major groups of bacteria and their result for the oxidase test?
1. Obligate aerobe- Positive 2. Facultative anaerobes- Negative 3. Obligate anaerobes- Negative
55
What is taxonomic analyses?
The process of ordering and classifying bacteria
56
What are the 5 main categories in phenotypic analysis?
1. Morphology- Gram reaction, cell size and shape 2. Motility- Nonmotile, gliding motility, swimming (flagella) 3. Metabolism- Mechanism of energy conservation, growth factor requirements 4. Physiology- Temp, pH, salt ranges for growth, response to oxygen 5. Other traits- Pigments, luminescence, antibiotic sensitivity, serotype
57
What are the 3 different spore positions that help differentiate bacteria?
Terminal Central Subterminal
58
Describe phylogenetic analysis
The representation of the history f a group of organisms in a phylogenetic tree PCR is used to amplify and sequence DNA so that sequences can be compared and phylogenetic trees can be created
59
Describe the theoretical aspects of evolutionary analysis
Most widely used molecular clocks are a small subunit rRNA genes They’re found in small domains of life 16S rRNA in prokaryotes and 18S rRNA in eukaryotes Functionally constant Sufficient length
60
How is genomic hybridisation used as a taxonomic tool?
Genomes of 2 organisms are hybridises to examine proportion of similarities in their gene sequences Useful for differentiating very similar organisms
61
List some bacteriological uses when naming bacteria
Bacterial name must be in italics Name of all taxa must be in italics Names should only be abbreviated after they save been first used in text
62
Describe the coagulase test
Tube test- performed enzyme within cell-free coagulase Considered gold standard for S.aureus identification Clots rabbit palms in the test tube
63
What is MALDI TOF MS?
Matrix assisted laser desorption time of flight mass spectrometry Identification of virtually all clinically relevant bacteria in 20 mins However only as good as the data base it has

AP0411 (6 decks)

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