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EMTS > Medical & Legal Outline > Flashcards

Medical & Legal Outline Flashcards

1
Q

What is Scope of Practice?

A

a description of what a licensed individual legally can, and cannot, do. What an EMT has been taught

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2
Q

Who has a bigger scope of practice?

A

A paramedic has a bigger scope of practice than an EMT

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3
Q

What is standard of care?

A

The emergency care that would be expected to be given to a patient by any trained EMT under similar

circumstances. What is expected to be done for the patient’s condition if in their scope of practice and
protocols. If the EMT does too much or too little they can get in trouble

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4
Q

What is a medical director and what do they do?

A

Must work under a medical doctor’s direction.
They are known as EMS Director, Medical Director, Medical Administrator.
EMT may take orders from an approved agent of the medical director.

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5
Q

What is a standing order/offline direction?

A

consists of standing orders issued by Med Director that allow emts to give certain meds or perform certain procedures w/o speaking to Med Director or another physician.

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6
Q

What is online direction?

A

orders from on-duty physician given directly to emt in the field by radio or telephone.

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7
Q

What is the Medical Practice Act?

A

A physician may extend and delegate to EMS professions to practice under their medical license.

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8
Q

Do EMTs have a license or a certificate?

A

EMTS have a license but can also hold several certfications

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9
Q

What is Duty to Act?

A

An obligation of the EMT to respond to the scene and to provide emergency care to the patient. A
commitment for pay or not to provide EMT services.

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10
Q

What is negligence?

A

Doing something wrong and damages happen.

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11
Q

What are four things you must prove to have negligence?

A

Four things to prove- if one is missing cannot be negligence; 1) duty to act, 2) breech of duty, 3) damages,
and 4) causation

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12
Q

How can you protect yourself against negligence claims?

A

Behave in such a way as to protect and defend those around you from harm
Act within your scope of practice at all times
Act in accordance with local protocols and procedures at all times
Serve to maintain the dignity of each person with whom you come in contact

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13
Q

What is abandonment?

A

Unilateral termination of care by the EMT without the patients consent and without making provisions from transferring care to another medical professional with the skills and training necessary to meet the needs of the patient.

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14
Q

What is expressed consent?

A

also known as; informed, actual, written, and verbal. This is when a competent
person says help me. Must be obtained from every conscious, mentally competent adult before
treatment is started.

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15
Q

What is implied consent?

A

people not competent. Drunk, unconscious, minors.

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16
Q

If you have a patient under the age of 18 what type of consent is this?

A

Implied

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17
Q

If you have a drunk person what type of consent is this?

A

Implied

18
Q

When are minors considered adults?

A

In this course must be over 18 to be an adult.
• If pregnant they are an adult during pregnancy only.
• If legally married.
• If in military services.
• If emancipated by judge.

19
Q

If you have a pregnant minor or married minor what type of consent is this?

A

Expressed

20
Q

What is emancipation of a minor?

A

a legal mechanism by which a child before attaining the age of majority (a minor) is freed from control by their parents or guardians, and the parents or guardians are freed from responsibility for the child

21
Q

What is power of attorney?

A

a legal document that lets you give someone legal authority to make important decisions about your medical care.

22
Q

What is assault and battery of a patient?

A

Assault is the threat of unwanted bodily contact.

• Battery is the act of actual unwanted touching.

23
Q

Can the patient legally refuse care?

A

As a rule the EMT will offer transport/care to all patients.
• If patient refused care EMT must do the following; 1) prove competency, 2) do an assessment to inform
the patient what might be wrong, 3) tell them to get help somewhere if not with us, 4) get a witness to
sign, 5) doctor must agree.

24
Q

What kind of documentation do you need for a patient refusal?

A

C = Condition, Capacity, and Competence—The documentation should include the patient’s chief complaint(s) in the patient’s own words. A thorough assessment is important during the process. The assessment must evaluate the patient’s neurological and mental status. Documenting that the patient is conscious, alert, and oriented is not sufficiently defensible. A = Assessment—As part of the refusal process, you should adequately explain, in nonmedical terms, your assessment findings to the patient. S = Statements—As you interact with the patient about their injury or illness, note any specific statements the patient makes. Document these statements carefully to demonstrate they understood their condition in their own words. E = Educate—Educating patients about treatment options helps them make better medical choices.C = Consequences—Discuss with the patient the potential risks and consequences of their refusing treatment and/or transport. L = Limitations of EMS—EMS personnel must educate patients about their own limitations as well. For example, you can utilize a 12-lead ECG to rule in a myocardial infarction, but it can’t be used to rule one out. Ruling out an MI requires serial blood labs and ECGs performed under observation at a facility as a part of a process within the continuum of care. O = Offer Transport—Always offer transport to the hospital, but how you offer that transport is an important part of the process. The patient’s perception often drives the decision. There is a big difference between “Will you go with me to the hospital?” and “You don’t want me to take you to the hospital, do you?” The first question lets the patient make the decision without undue negative influence. Document the number of times the patient refused your offer of transport. S = Signature—The patient refusal form is a legal document and must be signed by the patient. The refusal form or part of the report should also be signed by you and dated. A best practice is to have another person also sign the form, attesting they observed you explain the risks of refusing care and/or transportation. This individual should preferably be someone besides another member of your crew.

25
Q

What four things should be communicated to patient to have informed consent?

A

decision capacity, documentation of consent, disclosure, and competency.

26
Q

What is false imprisonment?

A

Taking a competent patient without consent. EMT needs to have doctor’s order to keep side rails up on
a bed.

27
Q

What is an advanced directive?

A

A written document (form) that tells what a person wants or doesn’t want if he/she in the future can’t make his/her wishes known about medical treatment.

28
Q

What is the difference between a DNR and Living will?

A

A DNR is a document that specifies that the patient does not want to be resuscitated. … A Living Will is a legal document wherein the patient designates if they want life support continued if they are incapacitated and in a “terminal condition”, an “end stage condition”, or in a “persistent vegetative state”

29
Q

If family member doesn’t have DNR on hand do you resuscitate?

A

Yes

30
Q

If DNR is found after CPR do you stop? Who should you contact?

A

If a DNR order is presented after CPR has been started, stop CPR. Call Med director

31
Q

Who can overturn a DNR in the field?

A

By the patient or someone with power of attorney over patient

32
Q

Can a patient overturn an DNR?

A

Yes

33
Q

Who are DNRs written for?

A

The terminally ill

34
Q

Can a DNR be overturned in the event of a crime?

A

Yes

35
Q

If it was not written down did it happen?

A

Nope

36
Q

What is slander?

A

Speaking poorly about someone’s character

37
Q

What is libel?

A

Writing poorly about someone’s character

38
Q

What must be reported by law?

A 
Gun shot/stab wounds.
• Birth.
• Death.
• Child/elderly abuse.
• Rape.
• Animal bites.
• Some communicable diseases.
• Spouse abuse.
• DO NOT INCLUDE ETOH or DRUGS. They are considered addictions and are private doctor/pt privilege.
• If a drug lab is found then report it. If for own use cannot report.
39
Q

What are the special situations where confidentiality rights are waived?

A

Organ donor waives rights

• Medical bracelet waives rights

40
Q

What is confidentiality?

A

health care providers to keep a patient’s personal health information private unless consent to release the information is provided by the patient.

41
Q

What is breech of confidentiality?

A

any private information let out. Whether good or bad.

42
Q

What is HIPAA?

A

national standards to protect sensitive patient health information from being disclosed without the patient’s consent or knowledge.

EMTS (12 decks)

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