Medical Emergencies Flashcards

to study for ME exams

1
Q
  1. (Lou Gehrig’s Disease) a muscular dystrophy caused by degeneration of motor neurons of the spinal cord
  2. Management - support ventilations; assure airway and oxygenation; remain aware of patient’s LOC (compassion is essential)
A

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

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2
Q
  1. A disease characterized by muscular weakness and fatigue improved by rest
  2. Management - support ventilations; assure airway and oxygenation; remain aware of patient’s LOC (compassion is essential)
A

Myasthenia gravis

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3
Q
  1. A disease of unknown etiology, characterized by pain and weakness beginning in the distal extremities and progressing to involve entire limbs and possibly the trunk
  2. Management - support ventilations; assure airway and oxygenation; remain aware of patient’s LOC (compassion is essential)
A

Guillain-Barre’s syndrome

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4
Q
  1. A severe, prolonged attack that cannot be broken by beta bronchodilators (albuterol, levalbuterol, metaproterenol, epinephrine, terbutaline)
  2. Greatly diminished breath sounds
  3. Respiratory arrest imminent - aggressively manage airway and breathing; transport immediately
  4. Pharmacologic interventions
    a. Oxygen - moderate to high flow
    b. Beta sympathomimetics - albuterol, levalbuterol, metaproterenol, epinephrine, terbutaline
    c. Anticholinergics - ipratropium
    d. Anti-inflammatory - methylprednisolone
    e. Bronchodilators - magnesium sulfate
  5. Physical interventions
    a. CPAP
    b. Intubation - as needed to improve ventilation; pharmacologically assisted/rapid sequence
    c. Instill saline down endotracheal tube or use albuterol bullets
    d. Chest percussion
A

Status asthmaticus

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5
Q
  1. A wasting disease of the muscles
  2. Management - support ventilations; assure airway and oxygenation; remain aware of patient’s LOC (compassion is essential)
A

Muscular dystrophy

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6
Q
  1. Causes - acidosis, beta-adrenergic agonist, bronchial asthma, cardiovascular disorder, CNS infection, CHF, drugs, fever, hepatic failure, high altitude, hypotension, hypoxia, interstitial pneumonitis, metabolic disorders, methyxanthine derivatives, pain, pneumonia, pregnancy, progesterone, psychogenic or anxiety, pulmonary disease, pulmonary emboli, salicylates
  2. Assessment
    a. Focused history and physical exam - SAMPLE and OPQRST
    b. Fatigue, nervousness, dizziness, dyspnea, chest pain; numbness and tingling in hands, mouth, and feet
    c. Presence of tachypnea and tachycardia
    d. Spasms of the fingers and feet
    e. Dyspnea, chest pain, other symptoms based on etiology, carpopedal spasm, rapid breath with high minute volume, varying depending on cause of syndrome
  3. Management
    a. Depends on cause
    b. Airway and ventilation
    c. Oxygen - based on symptoms and pulse oximetry
    d. If anxiety hyperventilation - coached ventilation/rebreathing technique
A

Hyperventilation syndrome

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7
Q
  1. Chronic infection
    a. Clinically, productive cough - three months/year for two or more consecutive years
  2. Increased number of goblet cells
    a. Over production of mucus
  3. Usually the result of heavy smoking history
  4. Pathophysiology
    a. Results from increase in mucus-secreting cells in respiratory tree
    b. Alveoli relatively unaffected
    c. Decreased alveolar ventilation
  5. Assessment
    a. History - frequent respiratory infections; productive cough
    b. Develop pulmonary hypertension causing RHF (cor pulmonale)
    c. Gas exchange decreased from lower alveolar ventilation (hypoxia and hypercarbia)
  6. Physical exam
    a. Often overweight, rhonchi present on auscultation, jugular vein distention, ankle edema, hepatic congestion, “blue bloaters”
A

Chronic bronchitis

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8
Q
  1. Common causes - tongue, foreign matter, trauma, burns, allergic reaction, infection
  2. Assessment - differentiate cause
  3. Management
    a. Conscious patient - if the patient is able to speak, encourage coughing; if the patient is unable to speak, perform abdominal thrusts
    b. Unconscious patient - full CPR (inspect mouth before ventilation); visualize the airway with the laryngoscope (remove foreign body with Magil forceps)
A

Upper airway obstruction

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9
Q
  1. Headache, congestion, tenderness over the sinuses, worsening of pain with leaning forward, yellow nasal discharge, pressure behind the nose
  2. Management
    a. Typically no intervention required
    b. Oxygen administration
    c. Supportive care - antipyretics, analgesics
    d. Remain cautious when symptoms seem extremely severe (meningitis)
    e. Avoid evaluating the airway in a patient with epiglottis
    f. Remain alert for complications in patients with asthma or COPD (prepare to use bronchodilators and corticosteroids)
A

Sinusitis

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10
Q
  1. Infection of the lungs (immune-suppressed patients)
  2. Pathophysiology
    a. Bacterial and viral infections - hospital-acquired vs. community-acquired
    b. Infection can spread throughout lungs
    c. Alveoli may collapse, resulting in a ventilation disorder
  3. Risk factors - cigarette smoking, alcoholism, exposure to cold, extremes of age (old or young)
  4. Assessment
    a. Focused history and physical exam - SAMPLE and OPQRST (recent fever, chills, weakness, and malaise; deep, productive cough with associated pain)
    b. Tachypnea and tachycardia may be present
    c. Breath sounds: presence of rales/crackles in affected lung segments; decreased air movement in affected lung
  5. Management
    a. Maintain the airway
    b. Support breathing - high flow O2 or assisted ventilation as indicated
    c. Monitor vital signs; establish IV access (avoid fluid overload)
    d. Medications - antibiotics, antipyretics, beta-agonists
A

Pneumonia

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11
Q
  1. Not a disease but a pathophysiological condition
    a. High pressure (cardiogenic) - acute MI, chronic HTN, myocarditis
    b. High permeability (non-cardiogenic) - acute hypoxemia, near-drowning, post-cardiac arrest, post shock, high altitude exposure, inhalation of pulmonary irritants, ARDS
  2. Assessment
    a. Hypoxic episode - shock (hypovolemic, septic, or neurogenic) dyspnea, orthopnea, fatigue, cough, frothy sputum, pulmonary rales
  3. Management
    a. Airway and ventilation - intubation as necessary; assisted ventilation (PEEP), high flow O2
    b. Avoid fluid excess; diuretics - not usually appropriate in high permeability edema; corticosteroid
A

Pulmonary edema

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12
Q
  1. Odorless, colorless gas
    a. Results from combustion of carbon-containing compounds
    b. Often builds up to dangerous levels in confined spaces such as mines, autos, and poorly ventilated homes
  2. Pathophysiology
    a. Binds to hemoglobin; prevents oxygen from binding and creates hypoxia at cellular level
  3. Assessment
    a. Determine source and length of exposure
    b. Symptoms: headache, confusion, agitation, lack of coordination, loss of consciousness, seizures
  4. Management
    a. Ensure scene safety - remove the patient from the toxic environment
    b. Maintain the airway
    c. Support breathing - high flow O2 or assisted ventilations as indicated
    d. Establish IV access; transport to hyperbaric therapy
A

CO inhalation

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13
Q
  1. Pathophysiology
    a. A variety of bacteria and virus; 20-30% are group A streptococci; 50% of pharyngitis have no demonstrated bacterial or viral cause; most are self-limiting diseases
  2. Assessment findings
    a. Chief complaints - sore throat, fever, chills, headache
    b. Physical findings - erythematous pharynx, positive throat culture
  3. Management
    a. Typically no intervention required
    b. Oxygen administration
    c. Supportive care - antipyretics, analgesics
    d. Remain cautious when symptoms seem extremely severe (meningitis)
    e. Avoid evaluating the airway in a patient with epiglottis
    f. Remain alert for complications in patients with asthma or COPD (prepare to use bronchodilators and corticosteroids)
A

Upper respiratory infection

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14
Q
  1. Pathophysiology
    a. Includes inhalation of heated air, chemical irritants, steam
    b. Airway obstruction due to edema and laryngospasm due to thermal/chemical burns
  2. Assessment
    a. Determine nature of substance; length of exposure/loss of consciousness
  3. Management
    a. Consider Haz-Mat
    b. Maintain airway - early, aggressive management may be indicated
    c. Support breathing; establish IV access; transport promptly to appropriate facility
A

Toxic inhalation

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15
Q
  1. Pathophysiology
    a. Obstruction of a pulmonary artery - may be of air, fat, amniotic fluid, foreign bodies
  2. Risk factors - recent surgery, long-bone fractures, pregnancy or postpartum, atrial fibrillation, oral contraceptive use, tobacco use, long term immobilization
  3. Assessment - presence of risk factors, sudden onset of severe dyspnea and pain, cough (often blood-tinged)
  4. Physical Exam - signs of heart failure including JVD and hypotension; warm, swollen extremities
  5. Management
    a. Maintain airway
    b. Support breathing - high flow O2 or assisted ventilations as indicated; intubation may be indicated
    c. Establish IV access; monitor closely; transport to appropriate facility
A

Pulmonary embolism

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16
Q
  1. Pathophysiology
    a. Significant variety in cell types/growth rates
    b. Signs and symptoms vary according to location of tumor
    c. Signs of severe distress - altered mentation, 1-2 syllable dyspnea, severe or uncontrollable hemoptysis, dysphagia
  2. Management - supportive care
    a. Airway and ventilation; intubation if required; assisted ventilation if necessary; oxygen (flow rate based on symptoms and pulse ox); honor scope of DNR (palliative care may be indicated)
A

Pulmonary neoplasms

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17
Q
  1. Pathophysiology - chronic inflammatory disorder
    a. Results in widespread but variable air flow obstruction
    b. The airway becomes hyperresponsive
    c. Induced by a trigger, which can vary by individual
    d. Trigger causes release of histamine, causing bronchoconstriction and bronchial edema
    e. 6-8 hours later, immune system cells invade the bronchial muscosa and cause additional edema
  2. Initial presenting signs on physical exam
    a. Dyspnea, wheezing (not present in all asthmatics), cough
  3. Secondary (worsening) symptoms on physical exam
    a. 1-2 word dyspnea, lengthened expiratory periods,
    hyperinflation of the chest, accessory muscle use, tachycardia, pulsus paradoxus
  4. Management
    a. Treatment goals - correct hypoxia, reverse bronchospasm, reduce inflammation
    b. Maintain the airway
    c. Support breathing - High flow O2 or assisted ventilations as indicated
  5. Pharmacologic interventions
    a. Oxygen - moderate to high flow
    b. Beta sympathomimetics - albuterol, levalbuterol, metaproterenol, epinephrine, terbutaline
    c. Anticholinergics - ipratropium
    d. Anti-inflammatory - methylprednisolone
    e. Bronchodilators - magnesium sulfate
  6. Physical interventions
    a. CPAP
    b. Intubation - as needed to improve ventilation; pharmacologically assisted/rapid sequence
    c. Instill saline down endotracheal tube or use albuterol bullets
    d. Chest percussion
A

Asthma

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18
Q
  1. Pathophysiology - exposure to noxious substances
    a. Exposure results in destruction of walls of alveoli
    b. Weakens walls of small bronchioles/results in increase residual volume
  2. Often develop pulmonary hypertension, leading to right heart failure (cor pulmonale); polycythemia causing elevated hematocrit; increased risk of infection and dysrhythmia
  3. Live with condition every day (compensated); when infection sets in, or stress in present (decompensated)
  4. Assessment
    a. History: recent weight loss, dyspnea with exertion; cigarette and tobacco usage; diseases usually start after 20 pack/years
    b. Lack of cough
  5. Physical exam
    a. Barrel chest, prolonged expiration/rapid rest phase, thin, pink skin due to extra red cell production, hypertrophy of accessory muscles, pursed lips - “pink puffers”
A

Pulmonary emphysema

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19
Q
  1. Respiratory syndrome characterized by respiratory insufficiency and hypoxia
  2. Pathophysiology
    a. High mortality, multiple organ failure, affects interstitial fluid (disrupts diffusion and perfusion)
  3. Causes - sepsis, aspiration, pneumonia, pulmonary injury, burns/inhalation injury, oxygen toxicity, drugs, high altitude, hypothermia, near-drowning syndrome, head injury, pulmonary emboli, tumor destruction, pancreatitis, invasive procedures (bypass, hemodialysis), hypoxia, hypotension, cardiac arrest
  4. Findings - SOB, rapid breathing, inadequate oxygenation, decreased lung compliance
  5. Management
    a. Provide supplemental oxygen
    b. Support respiratory effort - provide positive pressure ventilation if respiratory failure is imminent
    c. PEEP; suction
    d. Manage the underlying condition
    e. Consider medications - beta adrenergic, corticosteroids
A

Adult respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

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20
Q
  1. Rhinorrhea, nasal congestion, sneezing
  2. Management
    a. Typically no intervention required
    b. Oxygen administration
    c. Supportive care - antipyretics, analgesics
    d. Remain cautious when symptoms seem extremely severe (meningitis)
    e. Avoid evaluating the airway in a patient with epiglottis
    f. Remain alert for complications in patients with asthma or COPD (prepare to use bronchodilators and corticosteroids)
A

Rhinitis

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21
Q
  1. Sore throat, difficulty swallowing, erythmatous pharynx, tonsil enlargement, pus on tonsils, cervical lymph node enlargement
  2. Management
    a. Typically no intervention required
    b. Oxygen administration
    c. Supportive care - antipyretics, analgesics
    d. Remain cautious when symptoms seem extremely severe (meningitis)
    e. Avoid evaluating the airway in a patient with epiglottis
    f. Remain alert for complications in patients with asthma or COPD (prepare to use bronchodilators and corticosteroids)
A

Pharyngitis

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22
Q
  1. Sore throat, drooling, ill appearing, upright position
  2. Avoid evaluating the airway
A

Epiglottitis

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23
Q
  1. Sore throat, hoarseness, pain on speaking, red pharynx, hoarse quality to voice, cervical lymph node enlargement
  2. Management
    a. Typically no intervention required
    b. Oxygen administration
    c. Supportive care - antipyretics, analgesics
    d. Remain cautious when symptoms seem extremely severe (meningitis)
    e. Avoid evaluating the airway in a patient with epiglottis
    f. Remain alert for complications in patients with asthma or COPD (prepare to use bronchodilators and corticosteroids)
A

Laryngitis

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24
Q
  1. Sudden pneumothorax without trauma
  2. Risk factors - males, younger age, smokers, thin body mass, hx of COPD
  3. Assessment
    a. SOB, chest pain (sudden onset), pallor, diaphoresis, tachypnea
    b. Severe - altered mentation, cyanosis, tachycardia, decreased breath sounds, local hyperresonance to percussion, subcutaneous emphysema
  4. Management - supportive
    a. Airway and ventilation - intubation as required; assisted ventilation if necessary; oxygen - administration levels based on symptoms and pulse ox
  5. Tension pneumothorax? - needle decompression
A

Spontaneous pneumothorax

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25
Q

Inflammation of the lining of shealth that surround a tendon

A

Tenosynovitis

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26
Q

One of the big 5 higher-order personality traits that causes the pt to be prone to moodiness. The pt will respond worse to stressors and experiences; anxiety, fear, frustration, anger, envy, depression.

A

Neuroticism

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27
Q

unusual and stressful situation that is encountered in every call. This is the paramedic’s most challenging role.

A

Emotional crisis

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28
Q

The origin of abnormal behaviors caused/ related by structural changes or disease processes. Eg metabolic disease, infection, head trauma

A

Biological/ organic

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29
Q

The origin of abnormal behaviors caused/ related to the pt’s personality style, unresolved conflict, or crisis management methods

A

Psychosocial

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30
Q

The origin of abnormal behaviors caused by the pt’s actions and interactions with society such as environmental violence/ cultural norms.

A

Sociocultural

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31
Q

General management of behavioral emergencies pt

A

-SS/BSI
- supportive + calm environment
- treat any existing medical conditions
- do not allow SI pt to be alone
-do not confront/ argue with pt
- provide realistic reassurance
- IDENTITY cause (medical or psychological)
- if psychological build trust, use interviewing skills, and talk down pt
-inquire mental warrant if applicable

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32
Q

Chemical restraint medication options

A
  • benzodiazepines
  • haloperidol
  • droperedol
    -ziprasidone
  • paralytics (RARE)
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33
Q

Produces a rapid onset of unconsciousness, seizures, and widening of the QRS complexes. This is a type of overdose

A

Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCA)

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34
Q

what drug should TCA overdoses be treated with?

A

1 mEq/kg Sodium Bicarbonate

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35
Q

the eating disorder when the pt consumes non-food items

A

pica

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36
Q

The lack of maintenance of a healthy body weight and obsessive fear of gaining weight. The pt may refuse to gain weight. The unrealistic perception or non-recognition of the seriousness of weight

A

Anorexia nervosa

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37
Q

Recurrent binge eating, followed by compensatory behaviors such as purging. Pt presents with
- self induced vomiting
- eating to the point of vomiting
-excessive use of laxatives/ diuretics
excessive exercise

A

Bulimia nervosa

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38
Q

neutralization

A

disarms

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39
Q
  • contagious respiratory infection
  • three types (A,B,C)
  • constant change or antigenic drift
  • mild to severe illness, frequently fatal
  • spread through airborne secretions
  • sudden onset of : fever, headache, fatigue, dry cough, sore throat, runny nose, muscle aches, GI complications
A

Influenza

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40
Q

general signs and symptoms for hepatitis

A

-fever and weakness being first to appear
- anorexia, nausea, and abdominal pain
- guarding to upper right quadrant
- jaundice, with dark yellow urine
- light stool

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41
Q
  • inflammation of the lining of brain and spinal cord
  • viral, bacterial, or fungal
  • often follows trauma or sinus infectious
  • airborne or direct contact with respiratory secretions
  • S/S include irregular fever, headache, nausea, STIFF NECK
  • presents with brudzinskis neck sign ( with supine pt, lift head. Knees should rise)
  • eventually vomiting, rash, anorexia, constipation, noise, light intolerance, and decreased mentation will occur
  • treatment includes supportive, control seizures, maintain airway and ventilations, IV fluids
A

Meningitis

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42
Q

Syndrome, not disease
- developed from HIV
- began in homosexual men and IV drug abusers- since spread to general population
- spread through direct contact with human fluid
- S/S include fever, cough, reddish lesions (kaposi’s sarcoma), night sweats, and weight loss
- may develop encephalopathy
- pneumonia from pneumocystis carinii parasite
cause of death: pneumonia and suicide

A

AIDS

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43
Q

Gram positive spore-forming bacterium
- normal flora of colon
- remains/ flourishes after antibiotic treatment
- outbreaks follow accidental ingestion of spores
- releases toxins that cause: bloating, diarrhea, abd pain, causes psuedomebranous colitis, may be life threatening
to manage:
- maintain hydration
- antibiotics
- control nausea/ emesis
- stool transplant
Latent bacteria can be killed by bleach solutions

A

Clostridium Difficile (C-Diff)

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44
Q

Conjunctival condition
- raised, wedge shaped growth of conjunctiva
- non-cancerous
- common in people who have increased outdoor exposure to sun, wind , and dust.

A

Pterygium

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45
Q

Clouding of lens of eye
-associated with; aging, breakdown of proteins within lens
risk factors: diabetes, eye injury, radiation exposure, smoking, exposure to ultraviolet light
Presents with:
decreased vision, cloudy / fuzzy vision, light sensitivity, diplopia, loss of color intensity, halos around lights
treatment is prevention and surgical removal

A

Cataract

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46
Q

Separation of retina from supporting structures:
causes: trauma, diabetes, unknown
presents as: bright flashes in peripheral vision, floaters in eye, shadow/ blindness in part of visual field

A

Retinal detachment

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47
Q

Infection/ inflammation of sinuses
- bacterial, viral, allergies
symptoms: facial pressure, headaches, sore throat, posterior nasal drip, cough, bad breath, loss of smell, malaise, fever
treatment
-antibiotics, decongestants, antihistamines, corticosteroids

A

Sinusitis

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48
Q

Viral infection/ drainage from upper airway/sinus infection
- causes; allergies, bacterial infections, injury, chemical exposures, germ, pneumonia
S/S include: fever, hoarseness, loss of voice

A

Laryngitis

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49
Q

Chronic autoimmune disease that affects skin, joints, kidneys, and other organs
- runs in families but common in women
- joint pain/ swelling with some developing arthritis
- fingers, wrists, knees are affected
S/S include: chest pain, fatigue, fever, malaise, skin rash, swollen Lymph nodes
- diagnosed through laboratory testing/ physical exam
- treatment is symptomatic

A

Systemic lupus erythematous (SLE)

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50
Q

Pediatric condition of painful swelling of the anterior tibial tubercle
- bump on upper tibia below knee
- repetitive injuries before growth complete
-treatment is rest, ice, NSAID medications

A

Osgood-schlatter disease

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51
Q

The informal term that refers to a pattern of antisocial behavior and attitudes. This is most closely represented by antisocial personality disorder. Lack empathy but HAS conscience.

A

Sociopathy

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52
Q

Categorized under antisocial personality disorder. Lacks empathy but DOES NOT have a conscience

A

Psychopath

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53
Q

Functional mental disorders that involve chronic distress but is absent of delusion/ hallucinations. This term is no longer used by the psychiatric community. Pt still has a touch of reality and is not a fundamental personality trait.

A

Neurosis

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54
Q

RAPID ONSET of widepread, disorganized thought.
- inattention
- memory impairment
- disorientation
- clouding of consciousness
- vivid visual hallucinations

A

Delirium

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55
Q

GRADUAL development of memory impairment and cognitive disturbances.
-aphasia, apraxia, agnosia
- abstract thinking/ judgment

A

Dementia

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56
Q

The behavioral disorder that presents with gross distortions of reality
- withdrawal from social interaction
- disorganized thought, perception and emotion
assessment will present with
-delusions
-hallucinations
- disorganized speech
- high risk SI/ HI

A

Schizophrenia

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57
Q

the worry of future events

A

Anxiety

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58
Q

the fear of CURRENT events regarding behavioral disorders

A

fear

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59
Q

Recurrent attacks of sudden anxiety. May present with 4 symptoms peaking within 10 minutes, including but not limited to
- palpitations
- sweating
- SOB
-trembling
-CP
-nausea
- parethesia
- dizziness

A

Panic disorders

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60
Q

Exaggerated, sometimes disabling, frequently inexplicable fear. May be unreasonable for the average person.

A

Phobias

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61
Q

Anxiety reaction to a severe psychosocial event. Usually from a life threatening event. There will be repetition of intrusive memories. Findings will include:
- depression/ nightmares
- survivor guilt
- frequent and complicated substance abuse

A

PTSD

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62
Q

One of the most prevalent major psychiatric conditions. Affects 10-15% of population. This condition is episodic with periods of remission. There may be gradual or rapid onset with clusters of episodes. This is a major cause of suicide.

A

Depression

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63
Q

Depressed mood lasting all day, nearly every day
- diminished interest in pleasure and dainty activities
- significant weight change
- insomnia or hypersomnia
- psychomotor agitation
- recurrent thoughts of death

A

Major depressive episodes

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64
Q

Requires 5 or more symptoms during the same 14 day period and depression cannot be accounted for by other events. ( ISAD CAGES)
-interest
- sleep
-appetite
- depressed mood
- concentration
- activity
-guilt
- energy
- suicide

A

Major depressive disorder (MDD)

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65
Q

What should be noted during documentation of a suicidal pt?

A

-Document observations about the scene that may be valuable to mental health professionals
- notes, plans, or statements from pt
- treat trauma/ medical complaints

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66
Q

described as alternating periods of depression with manic behavior. Depressive periods are greater than manic episodes. Irritation, gregarious, and quickly becomes argumentative and hostile if thwarted

A

Bipolar

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67
Q

OD of this drug produces extrapyramidal reactions (shakes, dyskinesia)

A

Phenathiazines

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68
Q

what drug should be used in treatment of an OD of phenathiazines?

A

25 mg of Diphenhydramine

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69
Q

The feigning of the symptoms of a disease or injury in order to undergo diagnostic tests, hospitalization, or medical/ surgical treatment.

A

Munchausen’s syndrome

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70
Q

The eating disorder involving the regurgitation of food

A

rumination disorder

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71
Q

Eating disorder presenting with the lack of interest of food

A

Avoidant/ restrictive food intake disorder

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72
Q

Preoccupation that one’s own body is too small, too skinny, insufficiently muscular or lean. Eats to bulk up and build muscle. Mostly affects males

A

muscle dysmorphia

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73
Q

Grazing on large quantities of food rather than binging

A

Compulsive overeating

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74
Q

Aberrant eating disorders of children in foster care

A

Food maintenance

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75
Q

obsession with pure diet

A

orthorexia nervosa

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76
Q

restricting food to save food calories for alcohol calories

A

drunkorexia

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77
Q

Obsessive focus on fine foods, following frontal lobe injury

A

Gourmand syndrome

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78
Q

Odd/eccentric cluster of personality disorders
includes:
-paranoia
- schiziod
- schizotypical
common features include social awkwardness, social withdrawal, and dominated by distorted thinking

A

Cluster A

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79
Q

Pervasive social detachment/ restricted range of emotional expression. “Loners”

A

Schiziod personality disorder

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80
Q

Pervasive pattern of social/ interpersonal limitations.
- experience acute discomfort in social settting
- reduced capacity for close relationships
- notices flashes of light no one else can see
- think they can read thoughts/ others steeling theirs

A

schizotypal personality disorder

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81
Q

Cluster of personality disorders that share problems with impulse control, emotion, and regulation.
- borderline personality disorder
- narcissistic personality disorder
- histrionic personality disorder
- antisocial personality disorder

A

Cluster B

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82
Q

Pervasive pattern of disregard for the rights of others. Often manifesting as hostility or aggression
- may first appear in childhood
- do not experience genuine guilt
- take little to no responsibility for their actions

A

antisocial personality disorder

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83
Q

pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking
- drama queens
- emotional expression is vague/ shallow but has manners that draw attention to oneself

A

Histrionic personality disorder

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84
Q

Significant problems with the sense of self worth stemming from a powerful sense of entitlement.
- they believe they deserve special treatment, assume the are uniquely talented
- can fundamentally disregard/ disrespect worth of those around them

A

narcissistic personality disorder

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85
Q

Most widely studied personality disorder that is characterized by intense/ unstable emotions/ moods that can shift fairly
- generally have a hard time calming down once upset.
- angry outbursts
- engage in impulsive behaviors
- see world as black and white
- unstable sense of self

A

borderline personality disorder

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86
Q

Cluster of personality disorders that share a high level of anxiety
- avoidant personality disorder
- dependent personality disorder
- OCD

A

Cluster C

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87
Q

Characterized by
- pervasive pattern of social inhibition
- feelings of inadequacy
- hypersensitivity to negative evaluation
people with this disorder are afraid others will ridicule, reject, and criticize them.

A

Avoidant personality disorder

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88
Q

Characterized by:
- strong need to be cared for
- fear of losing support of others
- fear of losing relationship makes them vulnerable to manipulation/ abuse

A

dependent personality disorder

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89
Q

Characterized by:
-preoccupied with rules, regulations, orderliness
- great makers of list/ schedules
- devoted to work- often neglect social relationships
- unable to delegate bc “ it wont be done right”

A

obsessive compulsive personality disorder

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90
Q

Development disorder characterized by troubles with social interaction/ communication
- restricted/ repetitive behavior
- usually seen within first 2-3 years of life

A

Autism

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91
Q
  • Unicellular, microorganism
  • visible under light microscopy
  • plant-like without photosynthetic capabilities
  • reproduce through binary fission
  • treated with antibiotics
A

Bacteria

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92
Q
  • Extremely small, non-living, microorganism
  • not visible under light microscopy
  • obligate, intercellular
  • depend on host for nutrition
A

Virus

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93
Q
  • unicellular organism
  • motile
  • lack cell walls
  • capture food through phagocytosis
    -malaria, giardiasis, amebic dysentery
A

Protozoa/ protozoan diseases

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94
Q
  • cellular organisms which live off of organic matter
  • size varies
  • found in decaying tissues, and damp, warm environments
  • athletes foot, yeast infections
A

fungi/ fungal infection

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95
Q
  • recently recognized infections agent
  • normal protein, mutated
  • smaller than viruses
  • kuru, creutzfeld-Jakob disease, bovine spongiform encephalitis
A

prions/ prion diseases

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96
Q

A foreign substance, usually protein, may be anything (dust, pollen, drug, food)

A

Antigens

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97
Q

-immunoglobulin proteins
- each specific antibody is developed in response to specific antigen

A

Antibodies

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98
Q

What is the most short lived immunoglobulin protein that is formed in almost every immune response following contact of B-lymphocyte with its specific antigen.

A

IgM (gamma M)

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99
Q

The most abundant immunoglobulin protein that compromises 75 % of normal persons antibodies. Important in producing immunity in fetus prior to birth

A

IgG (gamma G)

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100
Q

Principle immunoglobulin protein in exocrine secretions that PROTECTS MUCOUS MEMBRANES

A

IgA (gamma A)

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101
Q

antibody responsible for allergic effects. Allergies can be from the overproduction of this

A

IgE (gamma E)

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102
Q

Present in very small amounts in human serum. Kickstarts immune system, least abundant immunoglobulin protein.

A

IgD (gamma D)

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103
Q

Agglutination

A

grab+ clump, bear hug cells

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104
Q

Precipitation

A

makes liquid to solid

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105
Q

Lysis

A

destruction of antigen

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106
Q
  • white blood cells
  • travels circulatory system
  • Destroy invading substances
  • 7000 per milliliter
A

Leukocytes

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107
Q
  • another circulatory system
  • contains lymph nodes, lymphocytes
  • spleen is key factor
A

lymphatic system

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108
Q

Staph that is resistant to beta-lactum antibiotics such as penicillins, and cephalosporins (CEF drugs)
- presents with skin infection such as pimple or boil
- can lead to more serious infections such as pneumonia, sepsis, surgical wound infections.

A

methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)

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109
Q
  • airborne or direct contact disease
  • infectious for 4 days before and 5 days following a rash
  • S/S include: fever, cough, conjunctivitis, photosensitivity, rash to face, neck, and may spread to entire trunk/ extremities
  • treatment is supportive but look out for complications such as Ottis media, bronchopneumonia, and encephalitis
A

measles (rubeola)

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110
Q
  • viral infection
  • transmitted through salvia
  • infectious 2 days before swelling of parotid gland until symptoms subside
  • S/S include fever, fatigue, sore throat, dysphasia, testicular swelling
  • treatment is supportive, apply ice to swollen areas, look for complications such as orchitis, pancreatitis, and meningoencephalitis.
A

Mumps (epidemic parotitis)

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111
Q
  • “general measles”
  • transmitted through airborne droplet, urine/ feces on skin
  • virus teratogenic/ crosses placenta
  • stops cells from developing- destroys the fetus
  • S/S include rash (face, spread to trunk/ limbs) that fades in THREE DAYS, low grade fever, swollen lymph nodes, joint pain, headache, conjunctivitis
A

Rubella

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112
Q
  • herpes varicella zoster virus
  • airborne/ direct contact with respiratory secretions
  • infectious 1 days before swelling before symptoms until all lesions have scabbed over
  • S/S fever + vomiting early, headache and chills, general fatigue, itchy skin eruptions begin on chest and may cover the entire body.
  • treatment is supportive, lotions and cream may ease itching, virus may become active in later years as shingles
A

Chicken pox

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113
Q

-from bacterium clostridium tetani
- infection puncture or deep wound
- muscle spams development in jaw “lock jaw”
- S/S include spasms in jaw, chest, neck, and abd
- back muscle spasms can cause arching (opisthotonos)
- spasms may affect intercostal muscles
- drooling, sweating, fever, irritability, uncontrolled urination/ defecation may be present as well.

A

Tetanus

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114
Q
  • caused by bacteria bordetella pertussis
  • spread by coughing or sneezing while in close contact with others
  • infants contract from parents, older siblings, or other caregivers
  • S/S include starting like a common cold (runny nose/ congestion, sneezing, mild cough, fever)
  • after 1-2 weeks severe coughing begins
  • violent and rapid cough until air is gone from lungs, forcing and inhale
  • infants can have a minimal/ absent cough but may present with a life threatening apnea.
A

Pertussus (whooping cough)

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115
Q
  • bacterial infection
  • usually involves the lungs
  • can spread to kidneys, pericardium, bone and meninges
  • airborne; contact with respiratory secretions
  • S/S include fever, productive cough (hemoptysis), night sweats, weight loss, fatigue
A

tuberculosis

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116
Q

Infection of the liver that is the most common form.
- formally called infectious hepatitis
- fecal-oral transmission
- approximately 30 day incubation period
- once infected- immune for life

A

Hepatitis A

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117
Q

Infection of liver that is commonly called serum hepatitis
- serious risk to healthcare workers
- transmitted through body fluids, primarily blood
- approximately 50-day incubation period
- carrier state possible

A

Hepatitis B

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118
Q

Infection of the liver that is bloodborne and is a major cause of post-transfusion hepatitis
- incidences declining
- approximately 50-day incubation period
- carrier state exists

A

hepatitis C

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119
Q

Infection of the liver that is called delta hepatitis
- a defective virus ( must have another virus to exist)
- exaggerated symptoms with Co-infection
- can lead to fatal cirrhosis

A

hepatitis D

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120
Q

Infection of the liver with a fecal-oral transmission
- rare in the US
- approximately 40 day incubation period
- chronic states do not appear to exist

A

Hepatitis E

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121
Q

disease from palladium bacteria
- transmitted through direct sexual contact
- infectious during active periods
- several stages, may be dormant for long periods
-Primary stage: 2-4 weeks after exposure, chancre (painless genital ulcer) that will disappear untreated and pt becomes asymptomatic
- Stage 2: 6-8 weeks post chancre, headache, malaise, anorexia, fever, sore throat, reddish rash on palms and soles but may cover whole body, will end untreated
- Tertiary stage: months to years later, bacteria invades vessels and CNS, tabes dorsalis (wide gait, slapping feet, ataxia), psychosis, potentially fatal (usually from ruptured aorta)

A

syphilis

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122
Q

Bacterial disease from direct sexual contact
- females remain asymptomatic for extended periods while transmitting disease
- may be symptomless in oropharynx and rectums
- painful and frequent urination, constant purulent discharge from urethra/ vagina.
- lower abd pain in women

A

Gonorrhea

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123
Q

Bacterial disease transmitted from vaginal, anal, or oral sex
- can pass from infected mother to baby during vaginal childbirth
- S/S in women asymptomatic in 50-70% of women, unusual vaginal bleeding/ discharge, abd pain, painful intercourse, fever, urinary complications
- S/S in men, urethritis, painful/ burning urination, purulent discharge from penis (lighter color than gonorrhea), swollen/ tender testicles, fever

A

chlamydia

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124
Q

Chronic viral infection
- infectious anytime lesions are present
- can reoccur anytime
- S/S include fever, swollen lymph nodes, ulcerated lesions, thin white discharge from ulcer until encrusted

A

Herpes

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125
Q

Itch mite infestation through direct contact
s/s include red/ elevated skin lesions, itching, dermatitis

A

scabies

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126
Q

Ectoparasite
- small sting insect
- transmitters of epidemic typhus and other diseases
- transmitted through direct contact
-S/S include itching, small white speck resembling dandruff, secondary injury is burns

A

Lice

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127
Q

bacterial infection disease from the borrelia family, tick borne from infected ticks belong to species genus Ixodes.
S/S include early fever, headache, fatigue, depression, character circular skin rash, erythema migrans (EM).
Later symptoms involve joints, heart, and CNS

A

Lyme disease

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128
Q

warm blooded animals
- zoonotic (can be transmitted from one species to another)
- early S/S include malaise, headache, fever
- progression to acute pain, violent movements/ uncontrolled excitement, depression, hydrophobia
- finally, mania and lethargy, coma
- death is usually in 2-10 days mostly from respiratory insufficiency

A

Rabies

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129
Q

Viral infection that affects the respiratory system
coronavirus is a cause for infection
- first reported in Asia in 2003
- spread through airborne droplets or by touching contaminated surface
S/S include: high fever, headache, body aches/chills, malaise, dry cough, pneumonia, diarrhea.
Good prognosis if caught early

A

Sudden Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS)

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130
Q

Viral infection from central and west Africa, coming to the US in 2003
- transmitted by respiratory droplets or contact with bodily fluids
- S/S include fever, headache, muscle aches, backache, lymph nodes swell, fatigue, rash for 1-3 days after fever.
- rash develops into raised bumps, fluid starting on face, spreads to other parts of the body, bumps go through several stages before they get crusty, scab over, and fall off
- illness usually lasts for 2-4 weeks

A

Monkey pox

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131
Q

Variola virus that is extremely contagious and fatal
- no cure
- vaccine has been extremely successful
- S/S include fever malaise, headache and body ache, emesis, fever, prodrome phase lasting 2-4 days.
- rash emerges as small red spots on tongue/ mouth
- spots develop into sores and break open, spreading large mounts of virus into mouth/ throat.
- rash appears on skin (face, arms, legs, body, over 24 hours)
- fever usually falls and the person may start to feel better
- by 4th day, bumps fill with thick/ opaque fluid, often have depression in the center that looks like a bellybutton
- fever will often rise again and remain high until scabs form over the bumps
- remained contagious until scabs fall off

A

Small pox

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132
Q

Viral infection spread by mosquitoes feeding on infected birds
- only 20% of those infected will develop symptoms
- S/S include fever, headache, body aches, skin rash on trunk, swollen lymph glands.
- severe S/S include neck stiffness, stupor, disorientation, coma, tremors, convulsions, muscle weakness, paralysis

A

West Nile virus

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133
Q

Bacterial infection, yersinia pestis, spread by fleas on rats and other vectors
- responsible for millions of deaths from multiple epidemics in china, Europe, and africa
- currently still present in many countries
There are 3 types with 3 different sets of symptoms
- bubonic: swollen lymph nodes, fever, chills, weakness
- septicemic: fever, chills, weakness, septic shock, DIC
- pneumonic: dyspnea, hemoptysis, cheat pain, weakness, fever, headache

A

Plague

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134
Q

Virus spread by rodent urine, feces, and saliva
- symptoms, following 1-5 week incubation
early: fatigue, fever, muscle aches, headaches, dizziness, chills,
abd problems
late: cough, chest pain, dyspnea, pulmonary edema

A

Hantavirus

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135
Q

Viral hemorrhagic fever
- death rate of up to 90%
- symptoms are flu like: fever, intensive weakness, muscle pain, headache, sore throat, vomiting, diarrhea, rash, impaired kidney/liver function, internal/ external bleeding
- symptoms appear from 2-21 days after exposure

A

Ebola

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136
Q

What alert should be called based on the following criteria ?
Suspected infection + 2 (or more) of the following:
- AMS
- RR >/= 20
- HR > 90
- SBP </= 100
- ETCO2 </= 25
- Temp > 100.4/38 or <95/35

A

Sepsis

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137
Q

Infection of the eyelid- external hordeolum
- blockage of oil glands associated with eyelash
- located at lash line with a small pustule/lump
- resolves when gland blockage is relieved

A

Stye

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138
Q

Internal hordeolum
- inflammation/infection
- blockage of the meibomian glands (produces the fluid tha lubirvstes the eyes)
- red, tender lump in eyelid/ margin

A

chalazion

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139
Q

Infection/inflammation of the conjunctiva
Bacterial cause:
-pinkeye
- cornea is clear
- redness/ itching
- more tears than normal
-topical antibiotics can be used for treatment
viral cause:
-similar to bacterial but cause is viral
- treatment is symptomatic
Allergic cause:
-redness, watery discharge, itching, swelling
- tends to be seasonal
- oral/ topical ocular antihistamines for treatment

A

Conjunctivitis

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140
Q

Swelling/ irritation in the middle layer of the eye
- common in pt with autoimmune diseases
- anterior is the inflammation in the front of the eye
- posterior is the back part (choroiditis)
- can effect one or both eyes
causes: blurred vision, eye pain, erythema, photosensitivity, floaters
treatment: protection from light, analgesia, corticosteroid eye drops

A

Iritis / Uveitis

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141
Q

Infection/ inflammation of the cornea
- frequent cause of corneal transplantation
- pain
-photophobia
- blurry vision
- tearing
- erythema

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) keratitis

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142
Q

Shingles that affects eye
- virus spreads along first division of trigeminal nerve
- damage can result to eye itself
- ulcer/ similar lesion on cornea

A

Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus

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143
Q

Infection of cornea that breaks through the epithelial of cornea
- serious/ sight-threatening infection
- painful red eye, tearing, photophobia
- Evaluation by ophthalmologist essential

A

Corneal ulcers

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144
Q

Soft tissues surrounding eye infected
- sight-threatening/ life threatening condition
- edematous, erythematous, warm eyelids/ surrounding tissues
- eye itself not involved

A

Cellulitis

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145
Q

Type of cellulitis that is usually bacterial
- risk for children
- presents w/ pain, conjunctivitis, blurred vision, increased tear production
- treated with potent antibiotics + hospital admission

A

Periorbital cellulitis (preseptal)

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146
Q

ype of cellulitis that infects the structures behind the orbital septum
- common in winter
-S/S include fever, headache, malaise, eyelid edema, runny nose, protrusion of eye, inability to move eye, decreased vision
- true emergency

A

orbital cellulitis (postseptal)

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147
Q

Collection of blood in the anterior chamber of eye
From
- trauma
- sickle cell disease
-diabetes
- tumors of eyes
sight threatening

A

Hyphema

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148
Q

Group of eye sight threatening eye conditions
- increased pressure with eye IOP
- damages optic nerve
- blockage of flow of aqueous humor from anterior chamber

A

Glaucoma

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149
Q

Most common type of glaucoma
-IOP increases slowly over time
- no symptoms other than begin to lose vision
- places pressure on optic nerve/ retina

A

open-angle glaucoma

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150
Q

Type of glaucoma that is an outflow of aqueous humor suddenly blocked
- rapid and severe increased on IOP
- severe eye pain
- decreased, cloudy vision
- red/ swollen
- rainbow/ halo like effects around lights
treatment is to reduce IOP, medicate, and perform surgery

A

Angle closure glaucoma

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151
Q

Inflammation of the optic nerve
result of:
autoimmune diseases, infections, drug toxicity, multiple sclerosis
-presents as loss of vision in single eye in hour, loss of color vision, changes in pupillary reaction to light, pain with eye movement
vision returns to normal within 2-3 weeks without treatment
-corticosteroids used
- ophthalmology evaluation essential

A

Optic neuritis

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152
Q

Swelling of optic disc secondary to increased intracranial pressure
caused by: trauma, infections within the brain, stroke, tumors, hydrocephalus
can be a retinal artery or vein occlusion

A

papilledema

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153
Q

Ear disease that has:
-earache
-ear plugging
- tinnitus
- hearing loss
Plug may be removed by mineral/ baby oil, drops, detergents, hydrogen peroxide

A

Impacted cerumen

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154
Q

Inflammation of the external auditory canal
- S/S include pain, drainage, itching ear/ canal, hearing loss,
- treatment is analgesia, topical otic antibiotics, anti inflammatory drugs

A

Otitis external

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155
Q

Ear infection that spreads to bones/ cartilage at the base of the skull
- caused by difficult to treat bacterial infections
- difficult swallowing, loss of voice, facial weakness
- treatment includes hospitalization and antibiotic therapy

A

malignant otitis external

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156
Q

Blockage of eustachian
- increased fluid pressure within middle ear
- bacterial/ viral infection
- S/S include earache, fullness, pressure, general malaise, hearing loss, fever, vomiting/ diarrhea
- chronic middle ear infection
management includes antibiotics, placement of tympanostomy tubes to decompress the middle ear

A

otitis media

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157
Q

Delicate structure that separates the external ear from the middle ear
- membrane is easily ruptured/ perforated
- trauma
- foreign objects
- infections
symptoms begin acutely and include: decreased hearing, earache, drainage of blood/ pus, noise/ buzzing

A

perforated tympanic membrane

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158
Q

Infection that spreads from the middle ear to the mastoid
- primarily affects children
- symptoms include ear pain, drainage, hearing loss, erythema/ tenderness over mastoid bone, headache, fever
management includes antibiotics, surgery

A

Mastoiditis

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159
Q

Swelling/ irritation of the inner ear
- occurs following a middle ear infection/ upper respiratory infection
symptoms: vertigo, involuntary eye movement, dizziness, loss of balance, nausea/ vomiting, hearing loss, tinnitus
treatment is supportive

A

labrynthitis

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160
Q

Labyrinths within inner ear are swollen
S/S include begin acutely, vertigo/ dizziness, severe nausea. Hearing loss unilateral
no known cure

A

meniere disease

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161
Q

Nosebleed

A

Epistaxis

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162
Q

inflammation of the nose
- upper respiratory infection
- allergies
- similar condition
in infants: treat with humidification of air, saline nose drops, and bulb suctioning
in adults: treat with decongestants, antihistamines, nasal corticosteroids

A

rhinitis

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163
Q
  • red/ swollen throat
  • pus
  • enlargement/ tenderness of anterior nodes
  • head/neck pain
  • nausea/ vomiting
    viral- symptomatic treatment
    bacterial- antibiotics
A

pharyngitis/ tonsillitis

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164
Q

Fungal (yeast) infection of the mouth
- found in infants, diabetics with poor BGL control, AIDS pts, side effect to antibiotics.
- presents with white/ cream colored deposits inside mouth
- oral mucosa red/swollen
treatment is to correct cause, anti-fungal agents

A

oral candidiasis (thrush)

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165
Q

Collection of pus around the tonsils
- complication of tonsillitis
- swollen tissues block airway
- life threatening
symptoms include: flu like, difficulty opening mouth, swallowing, drooling, facial swelling, muffled voice, tender glands of jaw/ throat.

A

Peritonsillar Abscess

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166
Q

Lack of preventive dental care, restorative care, and trauma can be causes
- non-life-threatening
- S/S include: dental pain, exterior of tooth broken down, allowing sensitive interior structures (nerve) to be exposed
to Manage: alleviate pain, treat infection, dental care

A

dentalgia/ dental abscess

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167
Q

Oral bacterial cellulitis (floor of mouth, under tongue)
-occurs after infection of dental abscess, mouth injury
- develops quickly swelling can occlude airway, can be life threatening
S/S include difficulty breathing, confusion/ AMS, fever, neck pain, redness/ swelling of neck, weakness, fatigue, excess tiredness, difficulty swallowing, drooling, earache, speech that sounds like person has “hot potato” in mouth.
-Management: in severe cases, cricothyrotomy, cured with proper protection of airways + appropriate antibiotics

A

Ludwig’s angina

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168
Q

Inflammation/ infection of the epiglottis
- can be life threatening emergency
- S/S include fever, sore throat, drooling, stridor, hoarseness, difficulty breathing, cyanosis
-Management is to protect airway, antibiotics

A

epiglottis

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169
Q

Bacterial infection in the airway/ respiratory system component
- S/S include: deep cough, dyspnea, fever, stridor, pt may be hypoxic
- management is to prevent airway obstruction, ventilate the pt

A

Tracheitis

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170
Q

Problems with the joint between temporal bone/ mandible
- malocclusion of teeth
- orthodontic appliances
- difficulty/ pain in biting/ chewing/ clicking/ popping, of joint, dull facial pain, earache, jaw pain, headache

A

Temporomandibular Joint (TMJ)

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171
Q

Central herniated disc, compressing nerve roots
- pain radiating down one/ both legs
- weakness of legs
- lack of feeling in genitalia
- bladder/ bowel disturbance/ no urge/ inconsistency
treatment is supportive/ symptomatic, pain management, application of cold/ heat packs

A

cauda equina syndrome

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172
Q

Inflammation of tendon
- tennis elbow: inflammation of the extensor tendon on the lateral aspect of the elbow
- golfer’s elbow: inflammation of the tendinous sheath that inserts into the medial epicondyle

A

tendinitis

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173
Q

Inflammation of the bursae in elbow, knee, and hip

A

bursitis

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174
Q

Painful condition of various/ unknown causes during
lifting
moving
turning

A

chronic myalgia

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175
Q

Caused by pressure on median nerve in wrist
- S/S include tingling, numbness, weakness, pain felt in fingers/ hand

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

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176
Q

Disturbance in normal functioning of affected tissues/ organs systems
due to age/ wear/ tear
can affect virtually any body system
what type of condition ?

A

Degenerative conditions

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177
Q

Degenerative joint disease
- wear/ tear on joints
associated with aging- runs in families
exacerbated by obesity
can result from medical disorders (hemophilia, avascular necrosis, arthritic disorder)
S/S pain/ stiffness on arising in morning, becomes worse over time, may be swelling/ crackling of joints
routine movement/ activities painful
-chronic condition but improves with medications/ physical therapy

A

Osteoarthritis (OA)

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178
Q

Common form of bone disease
thinning of bone tissue
loss of bone density occurs over time
- body fails to produce enough new bone to replace bone being reobsorbed/ used
- calcium/ phosphate substances essential for normal bone formation
- primary causes is loss of estrogen in women during menopause
- drop in testosterone levels in men
- Increased risk groups: women over 50, men over 70, chronic arthritis, pts taking corticosteroids, hyperparathyriodism, vitamin D deficiency, bedridden pts
AS condition progresses, pts may present with:
- bone pain, tenderness, fx with little/ no trauma
- pt may lose body height
- prone to low back pain/ neck pain
- women tend to develop increased kyphosis of spine Treatment Includes pain control, medications/therapies, to reduce bone loss/ promote bone development, preventive strategies to minimize falls/ injuries. Calcium replacement, hormonal therapy, and exercise is often used

A

osteoporosis

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179
Q

Age- related changes in spinal discs
- discs dehydrate/ become stiff
- function less effectively as shock absorbers
- outer layer cracks causing disc to bulge/ rupture
- herniated portion of disc places pressure on spinal nerves, causing pain/ weakness
- does not have blood supply
- pain often worsened with movement

A

degenerative disc disease

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180
Q

Chronic disease that leads to the inflammation/ injury to joints/ surrounding tissues
- autoimmune disease
- women more often affected
S/S include: painful/ swollen joints, fatigue, low-grade fever, malaise, weakness
- chronic condition that has no cure although surgery can restore damaged joints to fairly normal level

A

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

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181
Q

Inflammatory arthritis of the spine
- extremely fragile and subject to fx with spinal cord injury
- important to pad underneath the head, neck, upper back, with sheets/ pillows.
- manage airway with techniques that do not extend neck

A

ankylosing spondylitis (AS)

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182
Q

inflammatory arthritis with uric acid accumulation in joints
- although not every pt with elevated uric acid will develop
- tends to occur in families
- symptoms include: severe pain, swelling, erythema
- treatment is medication for pain/ inflammation, dietary restrictions to help keep uric acid levels at a minimum.

A

Gout

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183
Q

Flesh eating disease
- bacterial infection that rapidly destroys skin, muscles, surrounding tissues
- causes widespread tissue damage
- bacteria resistant to potent antibiotics
- critically ill

A

Necrotizing fasciitis (NF)

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184
Q

Death of a tissue in part of body
- blood supply in affected tissue interrupted
- from: peripheral vascular diseases, diabetes, immunosuppressed, post-surgical procedures

A

gangrene

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185
Q

Widespread cause of pain in the body with an unknown cause

A

fibromyalgia

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186
Q
  • wear/ tear on joints
    associated with aging- runs in families
    exacerbated by obesity
    can result from medical disorders (hemophilia, avascular necrosis, arthritic disorder)
    S/S pain/ stiffness on arising in morning, becomes worse over time, may be swelling/ crackling of joints
    routine movement/ activities painful
    -chronic condition but improves with medications/ physical therapy
A

Degenerative joint disease

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187
Q
  1. Not a medical condition; symptom of ALL conditions gone bad; requires in-depth assessment to find cause
    A. Alcohol, epilepsy, infection, overdose, uremia, trauma, insulin, pregnancy, poisoning, stroke, shock
  2. Assessment
    A. Perform detailed history (pt, family, and by-standers); perform detailed physical exam; attempt to determine cause
  3. Management
    A. Treat specific cause if known; manage airway, breathing, and circulation; transport in lateral recumbent position if no trauma
    B. Appropriate use of pharmacology
    - Do not give blindly
    - Thiamine: for most patients is acceptable
    - Naloxone: for suspected narcotic overdose
    - Dextrose: for low blood sugar
  4. Concerns: Wernicke’s syndrome and Korsakoff’s psychosis
A

Altered mental status

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188
Q
  1. Reversible
  2. Loss of memory and orientation
  3. Associated with chronic alcohol intake and diet deficient in thiamine
  4. Symptoms: ataxia, nystagmus, diplopia, neuropsychiatric disorders
A

Wernicke’s syndrome

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189
Q
  1. Potentially permanent psychosis
  2. Characterized by disorientation, muttering delirium, insomnia, delusions, and hallucinations
  3. Symptoms: painful extremities, bilateral foot drop, bilateral wrist drop (rare), and pain on pressure over the long nerves
A

Korsakoff’s psychosis

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190
Q
  1. “Brain attack”
  2. Injury or death of brain tissue due to interruption of cerebral blood flow
  3. Atherosclerotic heart disease (and all cardiac risk factors) are associated with the onset
  4. Long-term use of birth control pills increases risk
  5. Predisposing factors: hypertension, diabetes, high blood lipids, sickle cell disease, atrial fibrillation
  6. Examples: TIA, occlusive, hemorrhagic, cerebellar infarct
  7. Assessment
    A. Perform complete detailed exam (Cincinnati, NIHSS, LAMS)
    B. Assure assessment of blood glucose level
    C. Monitor ECG, 12-lead if possible (12-lead abnormalities may mimic myocardial ischemia or injury)
  8. Signs: facial drooping, headache, aphasia/dysphasia, hemiparesis, hemiplegia, paresthesia, gait disturbances, incontinence
  9. Symptoms: confusion, agitation, dizziness, vision problems
  10. Management
    A. Assure airway, breathing, and circulation
    B. Oxygen to maintain SpO2 above 94%
    C. Ventilate carefully based on PetCO2 and SpO2
    D. Patient in position of comfort or lateral recumbent
    E. Begin IV of normal saline TKO
    F. Protect paralyzed or weakened extremities
    G. Transport to hospital with specific capabilities (draw blood samples; comprehensive vs. primary)
A

Stroke

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191
Q
  1. Temporary interruption of blood supply to the brain
  2. Resembles strokes in every way except that the patient recovers fully without interventions (within 24 hours)
A

Transient Ischemic Attack

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192
Q
  1. Caused by the occlusion of the cerebral artery, denying the flow of blood to parts of the brain
  2. Embolic and thrombotic strokes
A

Occlusive stroke

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193
Q

A solid, liquid, or gaseous mass carried to the brain from another part of the body

A

Embolic stroke

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194
Q
  1. Blood clot carried to the brain, usually from pulmonary tissues or the heart
  2. Atrial fibrillation is often a cause
A

Thrombotic stroke

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195
Q
  1. Rupture of blood vessels in the brain; in some cases, in the areas around the brain (subarachnoid)
  2. May present with sudden onset, severe headache (immediate thunderclap)
A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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196
Q
  1. Usually seen in patients under 50 years of age
  2. Dizziness (walk as if drunk), ataxia, can’t touch nose with fingers, vertical nystagmus, CT scans can’t pick up (requires MRI)
A

Cerebellar infarct

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197
Q

What is the criteria to transport to a comprehensive stroke center?

A
  1. Onset > 3 hours
  2. Surgery in last 14 days
  3. MI/previous stroke in last 3 months
  4. Hemorrhage in last 21 days
  5. Age < 18
  6. NIHSS > 8
  7. Posterior fossa infarct assessment failure (cerebellar infarct)
    A. Finger to nose test - right hand (normal/missed); left hand (normal/missed); vertical nystagmus (positive/negative)
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198
Q
  1. A temporary alteration in behavior due to the massive electrical discharge of one or more groups of neurons in the brain
  2. “Cerebral fibrillation”
  3. Epidemiology: alcohol, epilepsy, infection, overdose, uremia, trauma, insulin, pregnancy, poisoning, stroke, shock
  4. Generalized, partial, status epilepticus
  5. Assessment
    A. Obtain detailed history including: history; recent history of head trauma (subdural hematoma); alcohol or drug use; history of fever, headache, or stiff neck (meningitis); history of diabetes, heart disease, or stroke
    B. Check current medications - common anticonvulsants include: phenytoin (Dilantin), phenobarbital, carbamazepine (Tegretol), valproic acid (Depakote)
  6. Physical exam
    A. Assess for signs of head trauma, tongue injuries, evidence of alcohol or drug use, blood sugar, cardiac monitoring
  7. Signs and symptoms: convulsing activity; postictal may be: unconscious, bizarre behavior, tongue lacerations, incontinent
  8. Management
    A. Protect patient during active convulsing; assure airway; suction as needed; DO NOT force object between clinched teeth; administer O2, 15 L/min by NRB; establish IV, normal saline TKO
    B. If blood sugar was low, administer dextrose (give 100 mg thiamine with dextrose)
    C. Position patient in recovery position
  9. Treatment
    A. Diazepam up to 10 mg (0.2 mg/kg) - short duration (15-20 min)
    B. Midazolam 5-10 mg (0.1 mg/kg) - short duration (15-20 min)
    C. Lorazepam 4-10 mg (0.05-0.1 mg/kg) - long duration (45 min)
    D. Sodium bicarbonate 1 med/kg IV push - TCA overdose
    E. Magnesium sulfate 4 g over 5-10 min - pregnancy
    F. Naloxone up to 10 mg - narcotic overdose
A

Seizure

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199
Q
  1. Initial, localized electrical discharge of the brain, spreading to entire cortex
  2. Grand Mal (tonic-clonic) - generalized motor seizure (airway!)
    A. Aura - subjective sensation preceding the seizure
    B. Tonic phase - muscle rigidity and contraction
    C. Clonic phase - muscle spasms and rhythmic jerking
    D. Postictal - awakening phase, seen as slow improvement in mental status
  3. Petit Mal (absence seizure) - brief loss of awareness and pauses of activity
  4. Pseudoseizures (hysterical seizures) - psychological disorders, usually seen as an outburst
A

Generalized seizures

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200
Q
  1. Usually remain confined, but may march
  2. Simple (focal motor, Jacksonian, Jacksonian March)
    A. Chaotic movement localized to one area of the body; can march through body, ending with a focal motor seizure in a different site than that of origin
  3. Complex (psychomotor)
    B. Loss of contact with surroundings and unusual behavior or personality
A

Partial seizures

201
Q
  1. Recurrent seizures, unbroken by a lucid interval
  2. Also consider continuous seizures and several recurrent seizures
  3. Management
    A. Diazepam up to 10 mg (0.2mg/kg) - short duration (15-20 min)
    B. Midazolam 5-10 mg (0.1mg/kg) - short duration (15-20 min)
    C. Lorazepam 4-10 mg (0.05-0.1mg/kg) - long duration (45 min)
A

Status epilepticus

202
Q
  1. A transient loss of consciousness due to inadequate flow of blood to the brain with rapid recovery of consciousness upon becoming supine (commonly known as fainting)
  2. Cardiovascular causes: dysrhythmias, bradycardia, or tachycardia
  3. Non-cardiovascular causes: hypoglycemia, TIA, metabolic disorders, anxiety attack
  4. Management
    A. Differentiate possible cause
    B. Assure airway management
    C. Administer oxygen as needed
    D. Reassure
    E. Treat underlying cause
203
Q
  1. Vascular headaches - migraine, cluster
  2. Non-vascular - tension, organic
  3. Assessment
    A. Perform history - general health, previous medical conditions, medications, previous experience with complaint, time of onset
    B. Physical exam - evaluate neurological status and indications of recent injury
  4. Management
    A. Mostly supportive; consider rehydration and anti-emetics; narcotics can be used for severe headaches; patients may know what is needed
204
Q
  1. Disabling pain lasting minutes to days
  2. Characterized by intense or throbbing pain, photosensitivity, nausea, vomiting, and diaphoresis
  3. Frequently unilateral in presentation and may be preceded by an aura or warning
  4. More common in women than men
  5. Vascular headache
205
Q
  1. Occur as a series of one-sided headaches that are sudden and intense
  2. Symptoms may include: nasal congestion, drooping eyelid, and irritated watery eye
  3. More common in men than women
  4. Vascular headache
206
Q
  1. Brought about by stress and emotional tension
  2. Often begins as a mild headache in the morning, worsening throughout the day
  3. Non-vascular headache
207
Q
  1. Caused by tumors, infections, or other diseases of the brain, eye, or other body system
  2. Non-vascular headache
208
Q
  1. Assessment
    A. Symptomatic of many illnesses
    B. Focused assessment
    - Include a detailed neurological exam
    - Specific signs and symptoms: nystagmus, nausea and vomiting, dizziness
  2. Management
    A. Maintain airway and administer high-flow oxygen; position of comfort; IV access; determine blood glucose level; consider antiemetics
A

“Weak and dizzy”

209
Q
  1. Tumor to the brain and spinal cord
  2. Benign and malignant; brain abscess
  3. Assessment
    A. Perform history - general health, previous medical conditions, medications, previous experience with complaint, time of onset, seizure activity, headache, nosebleed; type and timing of prior treatment (chemotherapy, radiation therapy, holistic and other nontraditional approaches, experimental treatment)
  4. Management
    B. Mostly supportive; consider pain management; maintain compassion
210
Q
  1. Grow similarly to normal cells
  2. Grow relatively slow
  3. Confined by a membrane
  4. Pose a greater threat in the brain and spinal cord because of limited room for growth
  5. Can cause impaired function relatively easily, and death if untreated
A

Benign neoplasms

211
Q
  1. Cancerous tumors
  2. Can quickly metastasize (frequently the result of cancer elsewhere in the body)
  3. Risk factors - genetics, exposure to radiation, tobacco, occupational, pollution, medications, diet, viruses
A

Malignant neoplasms

212
Q
  1. A collection of pus localized in an area of the brain
  2. Will present much like a neoplasm
  3. Management is supportive
A

Brain abscess

213
Q
  1. Alzheimer’s disease, muscular dystrophy, multiple sclerosis, dystonias, Parkinson’s disease, central pain syndrome, Bell’s palsy, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, myoclonus, spina bifida, poliomyelitis
  2. Management
    A. Supportive; assure adequate ventilations; prepare for communication difficulties
A

Degenerative neurological disorders

214
Q
  1. Devastating neurologic disorder effecting elderly individuals
  2. Most common cause of dementia in the elderly
  3. Results from the death and disappearance of nerve cells in the cerebral cortex
  4. Causes marked atrophy of the brain
  5. Initially patients will have problems with short-term memory
  6. Progression
    A. Problems with thought and intellect; shuffling gait; stiffness of the body muscles
  7. Eventually aphasia and psychiatric disturbances
A

Alzheimer’s disease

215
Q
  1. A group of genetic diseases (Duchenne is the most common form)
  2. Characterized by progressive muscle weakness and degeneration of the skeletal muscle fibers
  3. May affect heart and other involuntary muscles
  4. May develop at any age
  5. Prognosis varies depending on the type
A

Muscular dystrophy

216
Q
  1. An unpredictable disease of the central nervous system
  2. Involves inflammation of the certain nerve cells and followed by the demyelination of the nerve sheath
  3. Signs and symptoms include:
    A. Weakness of one or more limbs, sensory loss, paresthesia, changes in vision; come and go over the years and range from mild to severe
A

Multiple sclerosis

217
Q
  1. A group of disorders characterized by muscle contractions that cause twitching and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, and freezing in the middle of an action
  2. Early symptoms include: deterioration in handwriting, foot cramps or a tendency of one foot to drag after walking; initial symptoms can be mild and may be noticeable only after prolonged exertion, stress, or fatigue
218
Q
  1. A chronic and progressive motor system disorder characterized by tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability
  2. Caused by a limited amount of dopamine available to the brain
  3. Patients with this disease may exhibit dementia or depression
A

Parkinson’s disease

219
Q

A condition resulting from the damage or injury to the brain, brainstem or spinal cord characterized by intense, steady pain described as burning, aching, tingling, or a “pins-and-needles” sensation

A

Central pain syndrome

220
Q
  1. The most common form of facial paralysis
  2. Involves inflammation of the facial nerve
  3. Characterized by one-sided facial paralysis, inability to close the affected eye, pain, lacrimation, drooling, hypersensitivity to sound and impaired taste
A

Bell’s palsy

221
Q

-endocrine disease
-inadequate insulin production
- affects body’s ability to metabolize glucose

A

diabetes mellitus

222
Q

Temporary, involuntary twitching or spasms of muscle or group of muscles

223
Q
  1. A neural defect that results from the failure of one or more of the fetal vertebrae to close properly during the first month of pregnancy
  2. Leaves a portion of the spinal cord unprotected
  3. Can usually be repaired after birth, but any nerve damage already done will be permanent
  4. Three most common forms
    A. Myelomeningocele - most severe form; the spinal cord and meninges protrude through the opening in the spine
    B. Meningocele - normal development of the spinal cord; meninges protrude through the opening
    C. Occulta - most mild form; skin covering the opening in the malformed vertebrae
A

Spina bifida

224
Q
  1. An infectious, inflammation viral diseases of the central nervous system
  2. Sometimes results in permanent paralysis
  3. It is characterized by fatigue, headache, fever, vomiting, stiffness of the neck, and pain to the hands and feet
  4. Because of available vaccines, polio is nearly eradicated from the western hemisphere
A

Poliomyelitis

225
Q
  1. Low back pain
  2. Causes - disc injury, vertebral injury, cysts and tumors, other causes
  3. Assessment
    A. Evaluate history - speed of onset; risk factors such as vibration or repeated lifting; determine if pain is related to a life-threatening problem
  4. Management
    A. Consider c-spine (immobilize if in doubt); consider analgesics
A

Back pain/spinal disorders

226
Q

An exaggerated response by the immune system to a foreign substance

A

Allergic reaction

227
Q
  1. An unusual or exaggerated (systemic) allergic reaction
  2. A life-threatening emergency causing nearly 1000 deaths each year (most from PCN injections and Hymenoptera stings)
A

Anaphylaxis

228
Q
  1. Immune response
    A. Isolates and destroys invading antigens in the body
    B. Cell-mediated immunity - phagocytosis of invading antigen
    C. Humoral immunity - releases antibodies to neutralize antigen
  2. Antibodies (Immunoglobulins)
    A. IgM - first produced antibody; largest immunoglobulin
    B. IgG - most prevalent antibody; has a memory to recognize repeat invasions
    C. IgE - least concentrated; it is the antibody of allergic and anaphylactic reactions
    D. IgA - present in mucous membranes
    E. IgD - present in very low concentrations
A

The immune system

229
Q
  1. Genetically predetermined immunity that is present at birth
  2. Inflammatory system
    A. Complement cascade and leukocytes
A

Innate immunity

230
Q
  1. Immune system
    A. Antibodies and activated T-cells
A

Adaptive immunity

231
Q
  1. Type of immunity that begins to develop after birth and is continually enhanced by exposure to new pathogens and antigens throughout life
  2. Contact with disease causing agent (catching chickenpox)
A

Natural acquired immunity

232
Q

Deliberate contact with disease causing agent (vaccination)

A

Artificial acquired immunity

233
Q
  1. Maternal passage of antibodies (MatAb)
  2. Nursing (IgA in breast milk)
A

Natural passive immunity

234
Q

Exposure to live pathogen (development of memory B-cells and T-cells)

A

Natural active immunity

235
Q
  1. Short-term immunity (temporarily-induced immunity)
    A. Transfer of antibodies (transfusion)
A

Artificial passive immunity

236
Q

Vaccination - stimulates immune response without causing disease; creates antibodies

A

Artificial active immunity

237
Q

Protection from infection or disease that is 1) developed by the body over time after exposure to an antigen (active acquired immunity) or 2) transferred to the person from an outside source such as from the mother through the placenta or as a serum (passive acquired immunity)

A

Acquired immunity

238
Q
  1. Initial entry of antigen
  2. Body responds by creating antibody
  3. After initial response, antibody attaches to basophil and mast cells to await repeat contact
  4. On second exposure, antibodies are released from basophil and mast cells; cells release histamine, heparin, leukotriene (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis)
  5. Result is bronchoconstriction, vasodilation, capillary permeability, angioedema (ACE inhibitors)
A

Sensitization

239
Q
  1. Mild allergic reaction
    A. Gradual onset, mild flushing, rash, urticaria, mild bronchoconstriction (mild wheezing), mild cramps, diarrhea
  2. Severe allergic reaction
    A. Sudden onset, severe flushing, rash, urticaria, severe bronchoconstriction and laryngospasm, severe cramps, altered vital signs, altered mentation
240
Q
  1. Causes: antibiotics, drugs, foreign proteins, foods, Hymenoptera stings, hormones, blood products
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. Skin - flushing, itching, hives (urticaria), edema
    B. GI - nausea/vomiting, cramps, diarrhea
    C. Nervous - dizziness, headache, convulsions
    D. Respiratory - dyspnea, sneezing, coughing, wheezing, stridor, laryngeal edema and spasm
    E. Cardiovascular - vasodilation, tachycardia, hypotension
  3. Management
    A. Scene safety - consider source of problem
    B. Assure airway, ventilation, and oxygenation
    - Supraglottic airways contraindicated
    - Cricothyrotomy may be indicated
    C. Begin IV of normal saline
    D. Pharmacological
    - Albuterol 2.5-5 mg every 20 min for max of 3 doses
    - Diphenhydramine (mild, moderate, severe) 25-50 mg IM, IV, or IO
    - Epinephrine (moderate and severe) 0.3-0.5 mg (1:1000 & 1:10,000 : allergic reactions & anaphylaxis)
    - Sodium methylprednisolone (severe, consider in moderate) 125mg IV or IO
A

Anaphylaxis

241
Q

what is the role of insulin?

A

It increases glucose for the cells of the general body.
It increases the production of glycogen, protein, and fat in the liver.
It is released when blood glucose levels are high

242
Q

what is the role of glucagon ?

A

In the liver, glucagon promotes the breaking of glycogen back into glucose (glycogenolysis)
Additionally, it promotes gluconeogenesis, or the converting of protein and fats into glucose.

243
Q

Can glucose be used as energy when insulin is not available?

A

No, the body turns to fat for fuel. The fat is broken down to fatty acids and waste products are collectively called ketones. BGL continues to rise

244
Q

Where is glucose filtered?

A

The kidneys

245
Q

What is an important test for diabetes, consisting of the average blood sugar over the past 2-3 months?

A

A1c, glycated hemoglobin. The higher the greater risk for diabetes

246
Q

what type is insulin dependent DM?

247
Q

What type of DM is non-insulin dependent and is rather controlled by hypoglycemic agents, diet, and exercise?

248
Q

what medical emergency is caused by missed insulin injections, stress/ catecholamine release, or binge eating leading to hyperglycemia with a BGL of approximately 400 mg/dL ?

A

Diabetic ketoacidosis ( DKA)

249
Q

signs and symptoms of DKA

A
  • polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
  • warm, dry skin
  • nausea vomiting, abdominal pain
  • tachycardia
    -hypotension
    -kussmauls respirations
  • fruity odor on breath
  • slow decline in LOC.
250
Q
  1. “Master Endocrine Gland”
  2. Divided into anterior and posterior lobes
  3. Posterior responds to nervous signals from hypothalamus
  4. Anterior responds to hormone signals from hypothalamus
  5. Anterior hormones
    A. Growth hormone, adrenocorticotropic hormone, thyroid-stimulating hormone, follicle-stimulating hormone, lutenizing hormone, prolactin
  6. Posterior hormones
    A. Antidiuretic hormone, oxytocin
A

Pituitary gland

251
Q
  1. “Third eye”; responds to light by releasing melatonin
  2. May have role in daily and lunar cycles, reproductive cycles, seasonal affective disorder
A

Pineal gland

252
Q
  1. Responsible for body’s metabolic rate
  2. Principle hormones: thyroxine, triiodothyronine, calcitonin
A

Thyroid gland

253
Q
  1. Located on posterior, lateral surfaces of thyroid
  2. Regulates blood calcium levels
  3. Principle hormone: parathyroid hormone
A

Parathyroid gland

254
Q
  1. In children, large gland responsible for cell-mediated immunity
  2. In adults, degenerates into non-distinct mass of fat and fibrous tissues
  3. Principle hormone: thymosin - matures T lymphocytes
255
Q
  1. Adrenal medulla
    A. Inner segment of adrenal gland; closely tied to autonomic nervous system
  2. Adrenal cortex
    A. Outer layers of endocrine tissue, which secrete steroidal hormones
  3. Adrenal medulla hormones
    A. Epinephrine and norepinephrine
  4. Adrenal cortex hormones
    A. Glucocorticoids (cortisol), mineralocorticoids (aldosterone), androgenic hormones (estrogen, progesterone, testosterone)
A

Adrenal gland

256
Q
  1. Combination organ
    A. Exocrine tissues called acini - secrete digestive enzymes into small intestine
    B. Endocrine tissues secrete hormones from islets of Langerhans
    C. Responsible for maintenance of blood sugar through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis
  2. Principle hormones
    A. Glucagon - released from alpha cells when blood sugar level drops
    B. Insulin - released from beta cells when blood sugar rises
    C. Somatostatin - released from delta cells; tells all to slow down
257
Q
  1. Produce hormones responsible for sexual maturity, gamete production, and pregnancy
  2. Principle hormones: estrogen and progesterone
258
Q
  1. Produce hormones responsible for sexual maturity and gamete development
  2. Principle hormone: testosterone
259
Q

What hormone does the placenta secrete?

A

Human chorionic gonadotropin

260
Q

What hormone does the kidneys secrete?

261
Q

What hormones does the digestive tract secrete?

A

Gastrin and secretin

262
Q

What hormone does the heart secrete?

A

Atrial natriuretic hormone

263
Q
  1. Disease of inadequate insulin production
  2. Affects body’s ability to metabolize glucose (glucose is essential in energy production)
A

Diabetes mellitus

264
Q

What is the normal blood sugar range?

A

80-100 mg/dL fasting
120-140 mg/dL following meal

265
Q

At what blood sugar level is a patient considered hypoglycemic?

A

< 80 mg/dL

266
Q

At what blood glucose level is a patient considered hyperglycemic?

A

> 140 mg/dL

267
Q
  1. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (IDDM)
  2. Very low level of, or no, insulin production
  3. Often begins early in life (juvenile onset)
  4. Hereditary is the greatest risk factor
    A. Other causes: viral infections, autoimmune disorders
  5. Leads to heart disease, strokes, blindness, kidney failure, distal tissue necrosis
A

Type I diabetes mellitus

268
Q
  1. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) - controlled by hypoglycemic agents, diet, and exercise
  2. Decline in production of insulin and receptor site response
  3. Most common form of diabetes (approx. 90%)
  4. Hereditary and obesity are greatest risk factors
A

Type II diabetes mellitus

269
Q
  1. Hyperglycemia; blood sugar may exceed 400 mg/dL
  2. Causes: missed insulin injections, stress (catecholamine release), binge eating
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia; warm, dry skin; nausea/vomiting; abdominal pain; tachycardia; low blood pressure; deep, rapid respirations; fruity breath odor; slow decline in level of consciousness
  4. Management
    A. Treat dehydration - normal saline titrated to blood pressure
    B. Field administration of insulin not advised - not harmful, but ineffective; insulin does not correct emergent problem
    C. Correction of acidosis should occur in hospital
A

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

270
Q
  1. Pathophysiology
    A. Found in type II diabetics; results in blood glucose levels up to 1000 mg/dL
    B. Insulin activity prevents buildup of ketones
    C. Sustained hyperglycemia results in marked dehydration - often related to dialysis, infection, and medications
    D. Very high mortality rate
  2. Causes - physiological stress
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia; warm, dry skin; orthostatic hypotension; tachycardia; gradual mental impairment (may take days)
  4. Management
    A. Treat dehydration - normal saline titrated to blood pressure
    B. Field administration of insulin not advised - not harmful, but ineffective; insulin does not correct emergent problem
A

Hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic coma (HHNK)

271
Q
  1. Hypoglycemia
  2. Causes - excessive administration of insulin, excess insulin for dietary intake, overexertion resulting in lowered BGL
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Weak, rapid pulse; normal blood pressure; cool, clammy skin; weakness, incoordination; headache; irritable, agitated behavior; decreased mental function or bizarre; rapid onset unconsciousness
  4. Management
    A. Aimed at correcting blood sugar
    B. Pharmacological - D10, glucagon
A

Insulin shock

272
Q
  1. A thyroid disorder
  2. Pathophysiology - probably hereditary in nature
    A. Autoantibodies are generated that stimulate thyroid tissue to produce excessive hormone
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Agitation, emotional changeability, insomnia, poor heat tolerance, weight loss, weakness, dyspnea, tachycardia, new onset atrial fibrillation, protrusion of eyeballs or goiters
  4. Management - supportive
A

Grave’s disease

273
Q
  1. A thyroid disorder
  2. Pathophysiology
    A. Worst case scenario of hyperthyroidism
    B. Life-threatening emergency, usually associated with severe physiologic stress or overdose of thyroid hormone
    C. Results when thyroid hormone moves bound state to free state within the blood
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. High fever (106F or higher)
    B. Reflected in increased activity of sympathetic nervous system
    - Irritability, delirium, or coma; tachycardia and hypotension; vomiting and diarrhea
  4. Assessment and management
    A. Support airway, breathing, and circulation
    B. Monitor closely and expedite transport
A

Thyrotoxic crisis (thyroid storm)

274
Q
  1. A thyroid disorder
  2. Pathophysiology
    A. Can be inherited or acquired
    B. Chronic untreated hypothyroidism creates myxedema
    - Thickening of connective tissue in skin/other tissues
    - Infection, trauma, CNS depressants, or cold environment can trigger progression to myxedemic coma
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Fatigue, slowed mental function; cold intolerance, constipation, lethargy; absence of emotion, thinning hair, enlarged tongue; cool, pale dough-like skin; coma, hypothermia, and bradycardia
  4. Management - supportive
A

Hypothyroidism and myxedema

275
Q
  1. An adrenal disorder; hyperadrenalism
  2. Pathophysiology
    A. Often due to abnormalities in anterior pituitary or adrenal cortex
    B. May also be due to steroid therapy for non-endocrine conditions such as COPD or asthma
    C. Long-term cortisol elevation causes many changes
    - Atherosclerosis, diabetes, hypertension; increased response to catecholamines; hypokalemia and susceptibility to infection
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Weight gain; “moon-faced” appearance; fat accumulation on upper back; skin changes and delayed healing of wounds; mood swings; impaired memory or concentration
  4. Management - supportive
A

Cushing’s syndrome

276
Q
  1. An adrenal disorder; adrenal insufficiency
  2. Pathophysiology
    A. Due to destruction of adrenal cortex; often related to heredity; stress may trigger crisis
    B. May be related to steroid therapy - sudden withdrawal can trigger crisis
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Progressive weakness, fatigue, decreased appetite; unintentional weight loss; hyperpigmentation of skin and mucous membranes; vomiting or diarrhea; hyperkalemia and other electrolyte disturbances; unexplained cardiovascular collapse; salt craving
  4. Management - supportive
A

Addison’s disease

277
Q
  1. An adrenal disorder
  2. Genetic defect of adrenal glands
    A. Cannot produce vital corticosteroids; treated with hormone replacement; requires extra attention to common illnesses and stress inducing situations (injury, exercise, etc)
  3. In emergencies, fever, vomiting, cardiorespiratory depression; needs solu-cortef IM; may be off protocol
  4. Off-protocol care
    A. Confronted with need for “patient provided” medication - contact medical control; assist patient, parent, caregiver; listen to caregiver
A

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

278
Q

What are respiratory causes of dyspnea?

A

Aspiration, asthma, COPD (chronic bronchitis and emphysema), pneumonia, pleuritis, non-cardiac pulmonary edema, pleural effusion, pulmonary embolism, toxic inhalation

279
Q

What are upper airway causes of dyspnea?

A

Foreign body
Infections: croup, epiglottitis, Ludwig’s angina

280
Q

What are neuromuscular causes of dyspnea?

A

Muscular dystrophy, Guillain-Barre’s syndrome, myasthenia gravis, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

281
Q

What are miscellaneous causes of dyspnea?

A

Anemia, hyperthyroid disease, metabolic acidosis, psychogenic hyperventilation

282
Q

What are intrinsic factors that would exacerbate underlying respiratory conditions?

A

Genetics, stress, upper respiratory infection, exercise

283
Q

What are extrinsic factors that would exacerbate underlying respiratory conditions?

A

Tobacco smoke, allergens, drugs, occupational hazards

284
Q

What are the functions of the upper airway?

A

Warm, filter, humidify, conduct

285
Q

What is the pathway of air, starting from the nares/mouth?

A

Nares/mouth, turbinates/oral cavity, nasopharynx/oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea, primary bronchi, secondary (lobar) bronchi, tertiary (segmental) bronchi, quaternary (subsegmental) bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles, respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

286
Q

What makes up the nasal cavity?

A

Nares and turbinates

287
Q
  1. Parallel to nasal floor
  2. Provide increased surface area
    A. Filtration, humidifying, warming
A

Turbinates

288
Q
  1. Cavities formed by cranial bones
  2. Appear to further trap bacteria, and act as tributaries for fluid to/from Eustachian tubes/tear ducts
  3. Commonly become infected
  4. Fracture may cause CSF leak
  5. Extremely delicate and vascular tissues
    A. Improper or overly aggressive placements of tubes or airways will cause significant bleeding which may not be controlled by direct pressure
289
Q
  1. Large muscle attached at the mandible and hyoid bones
  2. Most common airway obstruction
290
Q
  1. Lined with mucous membranes and cilia
  2. Nasopharynx - from the nasocavity to the soft-palette
  3. Oropharynx - soft palate to the hyoid bone
  4. Hypopharynx (laryngopharynx) - from the hyoid bone to the larynx
291
Q
  1. Lymph tissue - filters bacteria
  2. Frequently infected and swollen
  3. Posterior tongue
A

Tonsils/adenoids

292
Q
  1. Attached to hyoid bone - “horseshoe-shaped” bone between the chin and mandibular angle
  2. Supports trachea
  3. Made of 9 cartilages
293
Q
  1. First tracheal cartilage; “shield-shaped”; cartilage anterior; smooth muscle posterior
  2. Laryngeal prominence - “Adam’s apple” anterior prominence of thyroid cartilage
  3. Glottic opening directly behind
A

Thyroid cartilage

294
Q
  1. “Drops” to protect airway
  2. Leaf-like structure
A

Epiglottis

295
Q
  1. Narrowest part of adult trachea
  2. Patency heavily dependent on muscle tone
  3. Contain vocal bands
  4. White bands of cartilage
  5. Produce voice
A

Glottic opening

296
Q
  1. “Pyramid-like” posterior attachment of vocal bands
  2. Important landmark for endotracheal intubation
A

Arytenoid cartilage

297
Q

“Hollow pockets” along the lateral borders of the larynx

A

Pyriform fossae

298
Q
  1. First tracheal ring
  2. Completely cartilaginous
  3. Compression occludes esophagus (Sellick maneuver)
A

Cricoid ring

299
Q
  1. Fibrous membrane between cricoid and thyroid cartilage
  2. Site for surgical and alternative airway placement
A

Cricothyroid membrane

300
Q
  1. Located below cricoid cartilage
  2. Lies across trachea and up both sides
A

Thyroid gland

301
Q

Oxygenated vessels that branch across and lie closely alongside trachea

A

Carotid arteries

302
Q

Deoxygenated vessels that branch across and lie closely to the trachea

A

Jugular veins

303
Q

What is the function of the lower airway?

A

Exchange of O2 and CO2

304
Q

What is the location of the lower airway?

A

From the fourth cervical vertebrae to xiphoid process; from glottic opening to pulmonary capillary membrane

305
Q
  1. A cartilaginous structure; 4-5” long
  2. Uniformly stacked “C” shaped cartilaginous rings
  3. Smooth muscle and a ciliated columnar epithelium compose the internal lining
  4. Posterior wall separates the trachea from the esophagus
306
Q
  1. Cartilaginous structures
  2. Composed of incomplete, randomly arranged, cartilaginous rings
  3. Covered with smooth muscle, elastic bands, and ciliated columnar epithelium
  4. Primary, lobar, segmental, and subsegmental
307
Q

Which primary main stem bronchi is angled at 30 degrees and results in more FBAO and ETT failures?

A

Right main stem bronchi

308
Q

How many lobar bronchi are on the left side? The right side?

A

2 on left, 3 on right

309
Q
  1. Conducting ducts
  2. Lost of the cartilaginous rings
  3. Smooth muscle and columnar epithelium (mostly without cilia) remain
A

Bronchioles

310
Q
  1. Last of the bronchiole structures which SOLELY conduct air
  2. Remaining bronchioles are small enough in size and close enough to the alveolar capillaries that gas exchange begins to occur
A

Terminal bronchioles

311
Q
  1. Bronchioles where gas exchange is able to take place
  2. Start of the respiratory unit - also composed of alveolar ducts and alveoli
A

Respiratory bronchioles

312
Q

What alveolar cells are involved in gas exchange?

A

Type I cells

313
Q

What alveolar cells secrete surfactant?

A

Type II cells

314
Q

What structures make up the conducting system?

A

Nares/mouth, turbinates/oral cavity, nasopharynx/oropharynx, laryngopharynx, larynx, trachea, primary bronchi, lobar bronchi, segmental bronchi, subsegmental bronchi, bronchioles, terminal bronchioles

315
Q

What structures make up the respiratory unit?

A

Respiratory bronchioles, alveolar ducts, alveoli

316
Q

The process of air movement

A

Ventilation

317
Q

The process of diffusion and movement of gases

A

Respiration

318
Q
  1. An active process
  2. Diaphragm contracts and moves down and outward, intercostal muscles contract and pull ribs up and outward, lungs expands, negative pressure in the lung cavity, positive pressure in the atmosphere, air flows in
A

Inspiration

319
Q
  1. A passive process
  2. Diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, intercostal muscles relax and ribs go back to normal position, lungs recoil, positive pressure in the lung cavity, negative pressure in the atmosphere, air flows out
A

Exhalation

320
Q
  1. Located in carotid bodies, arch of the aorta, and medulla
  2. Stimulated by decreased PaO2, increased PaCO2, and decreased pH
  3. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) pH is primary control of respiratory center
A

Chemoreceptors

321
Q

What nervous system control is the main respiratory center that initiates impulses to produce respiration?

A

Medulla oblongata

322
Q

Which center is located in the lower pons and assumes respiratory control if the medulla fails to initiate impulses?

A

Apneustic center

323
Q

Which center is located in the upper pons and controls breathing rates and patterns?

A

Pneumotaxic center

324
Q
  1. Hypoxemia is a profound stimulus of respiration in a normal individual
  2. Hypoxic drive increases respiratory stimulation in people with chronic respiratory disease
A

Hypoxic drive

325
Q

What is the stretch receptor that is the back up structure located in the pleural apices and is responsible for the prevention of over expansion of the lungs?

A

Hering-Breuer reflex

326
Q

What are the requirements for pulmonary perfusion?

A

Adequate blood volume (hemoglobin), intact pulmonary capillaries, efficient pumping action by the heart

327
Q

Respectively, what are volumes of total lung capacity? Vital capacity? Inspiratory reserve? Tidal volume? Expiratory volume? Residual volume?

A

6000mL, 4800mL, 3000mL, 500mL, 1200mL, 1200mL

328
Q

What are the regulatory structures/functions of ventilation?

A

Medulla oblongata, stretch receptors, changes in PCO2, COPD patients

329
Q

What are some upper airway obstructions that cause problems with ventilation?

A

Trauma, epiglottis, FBAO, inflammation of the tonsils

330
Q

What are some lower airway obstructions that cause problems with ventilation?

A

Trauma, obstructive lung disease, mucous accumulation, smooth muscle spasms, airway edema

331
Q

What are chest wall impairments that cause problems with ventilation?

A

Trauma, hemothorax, pneumothorax, emphysema, pleural inflammation, neuromuscular diseases (such as multiple sclerosis or muscular dystrophy)

332
Q

What are neurological control issues that cause problems with ventilation?

A

Brainstem malfunction (CNS depressant drugs, CVA or other medical neurologic conditions, trauma), phrenic/spinal nerve dysfunction (trauma, neuromuscular diseases)

333
Q

What are some alveolar pathologies that cause problems with diffusion?

A

Asbestosis and other environmental lung diseases; blebs/bullaes associated with COPD; capillary bed pathology (severe atherosclerosis)

334
Q

What are some inhalation injuries/interstitial space pathologies that cause problems with diffusion?

A
  1. Pulmonary edema
    A. High pressure (aka cardiogenic) - left heart failure; idiopathic pulmonary hypertension
    B. High permeability (aka non-cardiogenic) - ARDS, asbestosis, environmental lung disease, near-drowning, post-hypoxia, inhalation injuries
335
Q

What are some problems of perfusion?

A
  1. Inadequate blood volume/hemoglobin levels
    A. Hypovolemia and anemia
  2. Impaired circulatory blood flow
    A. Pulmonary embolus
  3. Capillary wall pathology
    A. Trauma
336
Q
  1. Altered but effective difficulty breathing with increase work effort and sustained air movement
  2. Indicators:
    A. Normal mental status with mild anxiety, minimal or mild cyanosis, altered breath sounds, chest tightness, slight tachycardia, decreased SpO2 that improves with oxygen, altered high or low EtCO2
  3. Management
    A. Supplemental oxygen, inhaled bronchodilators, anti-inflammatory medications
    B. Assisted ventilations and intubation NOT INDICATED
A

Respiratory distress

337
Q
  1. Ineffective difficulty breathing with maximum work effort and minimal air movement
  2. Indicators
    A. Alterations in mental status, severe cyanosis, pallor and diaphoresis, absent breath sounds, audible stridor, 1-2 syllable dyspnea, fatigue, tachycardia > 130 bpm, the presence of retractions/use of accessory muscles, decreased SpO2 with supplemental oxygen, altered (almost always low) EtCO2
  3. Management
    A. Start with basics - supplemental oxygen, inhaled bronchodilators, anti-inflammatory medications
    B. Assess effectiveness
    C. Consider aggressive action - assisted ventilations, intubation (PA), IV access, IV bronchodilators, IV steroids, chest percussion
A

Respiratory failure

338
Q
  1. Bronchial - loud, high pitched; expiratory phase usually longer
  2. Bronchovesicular - softer, medium pitched; equal phases
  3. Vesicular - soft, low pitched
A

Normal breath sounds

339
Q
  1. Snoring - partial upper airway obstruction (tongue)
  2. Stridor - harsh, high pitched inspiratory sound; edema to trachea and upper airway
  3. Wheezing - partial obstruction of bronchi or bronchioles; from edema, bronchoconstriction, foreign objects
  4. Rhonchi (low wheezes) - rattling sounds in larger airways (fluid, mucus)
  5. Rales (crackles) - fine crackling sounds in smaller airways
  6. Pleural friction rub - rubbing sound; breakdown of pleural fluid (pleurisy)
A

Abnormal breath sounds

340
Q
  1. High pitched, heard at end of inspiration
  2. Discontinuous
  3. Not cleared by cough
  4. Caused by fluid in lower airways
A

Fine crackles (fine rales)

341
Q

Type of abdominal pain that originates in the walls of the abdominal cavity
- described as sharp and localized
- usually seen in bacterial and chemical irritations

A

Somatic pain

342
Q
  1. Lower, more moist sound heard during the mid-inspiration
  2. Not cleared by cough
  3. Caused by fluid in lower airways
A

Medium crackles (rales)

343
Q

Type of abdominal pain that:
- originates in the walls of hollow organs
- described as dull, poorly localized
- usually seen with bacterial infections
- ex: appendicitis, pancreatitis, cholecystitis

A

Visceral Pain

344
Q

Type of abdominal pain that originates in an area other than where felt
- caused by an embryonic origin of nerves
-ex: diaphragmatic injury, AAA, appendicitis

A

Referred pain

345
Q

Ecchymosis in periumbilical region only

A

Cullen’s sign

346
Q

Ecchymosis in the flank and periumbilical region, often associated with a pancreatic injury

A

Grey-Turner’s sign

347
Q

The term for hemorrhaging of the proximal esophagus, stomach, and duodenum
Causes:
- peptic ulcer disease
- gastritis
- varix rupture
- Mallory-Weiss tear
- esophagitis
- duodenitis
S/S:
-general abdominal discomfort
- hematemesis
- melena
- classic signs and symptoms of shock
- changes in orthostatic vital signs

A

Upper Gastrointestinal Bleeding

348
Q

An Upper GI disease involving portal hypertension caused by liver cirrhosis from alcoholism/ ingestion of caustic substances.
S/S
- hematemesis
- dysphagia
- painless bleeding
- hemodynamic instability
- classic signs of shock

A

Esophageal Varices

349
Q

GI disease where damage to the mucosal GI surfaces occurs
- there is pathological inflammation causing hemorrhage and erosion of the mucosal and submucosal layers of the GI tract
S/S:
- rapid onset of severe vomiting/ diarrhea
- hematemesis, hematochezia, melena
- diffuse abdominal pain
-classic signs of shock

A

Acute gastroenteritis

350
Q

GI disease that stems from LONG term mucosal changes/ permanent damage

A

Chronic gastroenteritis

351
Q

GI disease caused by erosions caused by gastric acid. Terminology is based on the portion of the tract that is affected.
- S/S:
-abdominal pain
- observe for signs and symptoms of hemorrhagic rupture

A

Peptic ulcer

352
Q

Bleeding distal to the ligament of Treitz
- diverticulitis
- colon lesions
- rectal lesions
- inflammatory bowel disorder
S/S:
- determine acute vs chronic
- quantity/ color of blood in stool
- abdominal pain
- signs of shock

A

Lower Gastrointestinal bleeding

353
Q

A lower GI disease with an unknown cause. S/S include abdominal cramping, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, fever, weight loss

A

Ulcerative colitis

354
Q

Lower GI disease that occurs with pathologic inflammation that can affect the entire GI tract.
- The mucosa may be damaged.
-hypertrophy and fibrosis of underlying muscle may also be damaged

A

Crohn’s disease

355
Q

The lower GI disease that includes the inflammation of small out-pockets in the mucosal lining of the intestinal tract
S/S:
- abdominal pain/ tenderness
-LLQ sharp/ rapid onset
- fever, nausea, vomiting
- signs of lower GI bleeding

A

Diverticulitis

356
Q

lower GI complication that includes a mass of swollen veins in the anus or rectum
- idiopathic
- may present with with limited bright red bleeding and painful stools

A

Hemorrhoids

357
Q

Blockage of the hollow space of the small or large intestine

A

Bowel obstruction

358
Q

Inflammation of the appendix, lack of treatment can cause rupture and subsequent peritonitis
S/S:
- nausea, vomiting, low grade fever
- pains localized to RLQ (McBurney’s point)
- radiates to umbilicus

A

Appendicitis

359
Q

Inflammation of the gallbladder
S/S:
- URQ abdominal pain (Murphy’s sign)
- nausea, vomiting
- pain occurs after a meal high in fats
- pain radiates to right shoulder

A

Cholecystitis

360
Q

Gall stone
“ fat, forty, fertile, fair skinned, flatulent, female”

A

Cholelithiasis

361
Q

Inflammation of the pancreas
- can be from alcohol abuse, gallstones, elevated serum lipids, or drugs
S/S for mild:
-epigastric pain
-abdominal distention
- nausea/ vomiting
- elevated amylase and lipase levels
S/S for severe:
- refractory hypotensive shock and blood loss
- respiratory failure

A

Pancreatitis

362
Q

Inflammation or infection of the liver that causes injury to liver cells
S/S include:
- URQ abdominal tenderness
- loss of appetite, weight loss, malaise
- clay- colored stool, jaundice, scleral icterus
- photophobia, nausea, vomiting

363
Q

Dysfunction BEFORE level of the kidneys
- most common and easiest to reverse
- caused by hypovolemia, cardiac failure, cardiovascular collapse, renal vascular anomalies

A

Pre-renal acute renal failure

364
Q

Dysfunction within the kidneys themselves
- caused by a small vessel/ glomerular damage
- tubular cell damage (ischemic or toxic)
- interstitial damage ( acute pyelonephritis, allergic reactions)

A

Renal Acute Renal Failure

365
Q

Dysfunction distal to the kidneys
Causes:
- abrupt obstruction to both ureters
- abrupt obstruction to the prostate
- abrupt obstruction to the urethra

A

Post-Renal Acute Renal failure

366
Q

What medications are used to treat hyperkalemia and acidosis?

A

Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/ kg + calcium chloride 1g

367
Q

Causes similar to Renal Acute Renal Failure
– Microangiopathy, glomerular injury
– Tubular cell injury
– Insterstitial injury
• Congential causes
– Polycystic diseases
– Renal hypoplasia
• May impair other essential functions of the kidney
– Maintenance of blood volume with proper balance of
water, electrolytes, and pH
• Increased sodium, water, and potassium retention
– Retention of key compounds such as glucose with
excretion of wastes such as urea
• Loss of glucose and buildup of urea within the blood
– Control of arterial blood pressure
• Disruption of the renin-angiotensin loop resulting in HTN
– Regulation of erythrocyte development
• Development of chronic anemia

A

Chronic renal failure

368
Q

Renal complication when “ too much insoluble stuff accumulates in the kidneys
Findings include:

– Severe pain in one flank that increases in intensity and
migrates from the flank to the groin
– Painful, frequent urination with visible hematuria
– Prior history
• Physical Exam
– Difficult due to patient discomfort
– Often fell need to walk, usually in slumped position
– Tachycardia with pale, cool, and moist skin

A

Renal Calculi / kidney stones

369
Q

Infection of this tract that presents with:

– Abdominal pain
– Frequent, painful urination
– A “burning sensation” associated with urination
– Difficulty beginning and continuing to void
– Strong or foul-smelling urine
– Similar past episodes
And this is found upon examination:

– Restless, uncomfortable appearance
– Presence of a fever
– Vital signs vary with degree of pain

A

Urinary Tract Infection

370
Q

Twisting of spermatic cord
– Disrupts blood supply to the
testicle
– Results in severe pain
– A significant EMERGENCY
because the testicle will die
after a few hours

A

Testicular Torsion

371
Q

Antidote for acetaminophen OD

A

N-acetylcysteine, 140 mg/kg

372
Q

Antidote for atropine OD

A

Physostigmine, 0.5 to 2 mg IV

373
Q

Antidote for benzodiazepine OD

A

Flumazenil, 0.2 mg q 1 min to total of 1 to 3 mg

374
Q

Antidote for cyanide poisoning

A

– Amyl nitrite, inhaled 20 to 30
seconds each minute
– Hydroxocobalamine (cyano-kit)

375
Q

Antidote for Ethylene glycol / Methyl Alcohol

A

Ethyl alcohol, 1 mL/kg of 80 to 100
proof

376
Q

Antidote for nitrates

A

Methylene blue, 0.2 mL/kg of 1%
solution over 5 min

377
Q

Antidote for Opiate OD

A

Naloxone, 0.4 to 2.0 mg IV

378
Q

Antidote for Organophosphates / Nerve Agent exposure

A

– Atropine, 2 to 5 mg
– Pralidoxime, 1 g

380
Q
  1. Loud, course sounds; most often continuous
  2. Coughing may clear sounds
  3. Caused by mucus accumulation in larger airways
381
Q
  1. Musical noise; heard continuously during inspiration or expiration
  2. Caused by partial airway obstruction
382
Q
  1. Dry, rubbing or grating sound
  2. May be localized or over lateral anterior surface
  3. Caused by pleurisy
A

Pleural friction rub

383
Q

“Eupnea”

A

Normal breathing pattern

384
Q
  1. Cyclic wax and wane
  2. Usually involves periods of apnea
  3. Seen in stroke, head injury, CHF
A

Cheyne-stokes respirations

385
Q
  1. Deep, rapid respirations
  2. Seen in metabolic disease
A

Kussmaul’s respirations

386
Q
  1. Rapid respirations
  2. Seen in cerebral injury and increased ICP
A

Central neurogenic hyperventilation

387
Q
  1. Irregular rate and depth
  2. Seen in CNS dysfunction and increased ICP
A

Ataxic (Biot’s) respirations

388
Q
  1. Deep, gasping inhalation with long slow exhalation
  2. Brief periods of apnea
  3. Seen in pons damage and brain stem stroke
A

Apneustic respirations

389
Q

What does the pulse oximetry percentage reflect?

A

The amount of saturated hemoglobin

390
Q

What causes the oxygen dissociation curve to go left?

A

Decreased temperature, alkalosis (increased pH), decreased CO2

391
Q

What causes the oxygen dissociation curve to go right?

A

Increased temperature, acidosis (decreased pH), increased CO2

392
Q

What does end-tidal CO2 measure and correlate to?

A

Measures carbon dioxide in expired air and correlates to carbon dioxide in arterial blood

393
Q

What is the normal range for EtCO2? What are the waveform phases?

A

Range: 35-45 mmHg
Phase I - baseline, initial exhalation (dead air)
Phase II - expiratory upstroke
Phase III - alveolar plateau, extended expiration
Phase IV - end of expiration, onset of inspiration

394
Q

What causes elevated EtCO2?

A
  1. Respiratory - respiratory depression, COPD, hypoventilation, partial blocked airway
  2. Circulatory - increased cardiac output, ROSC
  3. Metabolic - pain, hyperthermia, malignant hyperthermia, shivering, muscle exertion, acids/acidosis, bicarbonate admin, seizure
395
Q

What causes decreased EtCO2?

A
  1. Respiratory - hyperventilation, bronchospasm, mucus plugging, shunting, COPD
  2. Circulatory - cardiac arrest, pulmonary embolism (dead air space), hypovolemia, hypotension
  3. Metabolic - hypothermia, sedation/anesthesia
  4. Circuit problems - airway disconnection, deflated ET cuff, dislodged tube, kinked/obstructed tube
396
Q

What causes a sudden drop in EtCO2 to zero?

A

Esophageal intubation, ventilator disconnection or defect in ventilator, defect in CO2 analyzer, kinked endotracheal tube

397
Q

What causes a sudden decrease in EtCO2?

A

Leak in ventilatory system, obstruction in ventilation system, partial disconnection of ventilator system, partial airway obstruction (secretions or mucus)

398
Q

What causes an exponential decrease in EtCO2?

A

Pulmonary embolism, cardiac arrest, hypotension (sudden), severe hyperventilation

399
Q

What causes a gradual lowering over time of EtCO2?

A

Hypovolemia, decreasing cardiac output, decreasing body temperature, hypothermia, drop in metabolism

400
Q

What causes a sudden increase in EtCO2?

A

Accessing an area of lung previously obstructed, release of tourniquet (arterial), sudden increase in blood pressure

401
Q

What causes a gradual increase over time of EtCO2?

A

Rising body temperature, hypoventilation, partial airway obstruction (foreign body), reactive airway disease

402
Q

What would cause a flat EtCO2 waveform?

A

Hypopharyngeal intubation; a missed or dislodged intubation

403
Q

What causes a shark fin EtCO2 waveform?

404
Q

What causes a declining alveolar plateau EtCO2 waveform?

A

Emphysema - ineffective exhalation

405
Q

What happens to the EtCO2 waveform when ROSC occurs?

A

Causes “jump” in carbon dioxide release which causes an increase in EtCO2; sudden rise indicates improvement in circulation

406
Q

What should the EtCO2 waveform look like in order to consider the termination of effort?

A

Carbon dioxide levels consistently less than 10 mmHg for over 20 minutes
Non-statistical ability to survive

407
Q
  1. Don’t just measure EtCO2, we drive it
  2. PaCO2 35-39 mmHg optimizes cerebral blood flow
  3. Correlates to an EtCO2 of 32
    A. Typically accomplished with 10-12 VPM
    B. Hypoventilation (VR < 10) - hypercapnea and engorgement of blood
    C. Hyperventilation (VR of 18-20) - hypocapnea and profound vasoconstriction; is beneficial with increased ICP by restricting blood flow; use only with s/s of increased ICP or herniation (Cushing’s triad, pupillary abnormalities, posturing)
A

Traumatic brain injury

408
Q
  1. Helps to keep airway open during and after inhalation
  2. Eases/assists patient’s own breathing
  3. Used in the treatment of CHF, COPD, asthma
409
Q
  1. Augments patient’s own breathing
  2. Uses two levels of positive pressure
    A. Exhalation - variably positive or near ambient
    B. Inspiration - variably positive, and is always higher than the expiratory pressure
  3. Intended to be used with room air (can have oxygen supplement)
410
Q

What part of the nervous system contains the brain and spinal cord?

A

Central nervous system

411
Q

What part of the nervous system innervates the body?

A

Peripheral nervous system

412
Q

Which part of the nervous system controls sensory and motor neurons?

A

Somatic nervous system

413
Q

Which part of the nervous system controls regulatory nerves?

A

Autonomic nervous system

414
Q

What is the basic unit of the nervous system that operates through the same system as the cardiac conduction system?

415
Q

Which type of neuron is the efferent nerve?

A

Motor neuron

416
Q

Which type of neuron is the afferent nerve?

A

Sensory neuron

417
Q

What cranial nerve provides sensory input for the ophthalmic (forehead), maxillary (cheek), and mandible (chin) regions, as well as the motor input for the chewing muscles?

A

Trigeminal CN V

418
Q

What cranial nerve provides motor input to the lateral rectus muscle of the eye?

A

Abducens CN VI

419
Q

What cranial nerve provides sensory input to the tongue and motor input to the facial muscles?

A

Facial CN VII

420
Q

What cranial nerve provides sensory input for hearing and balance?

A

Acoustic CN VIII

421
Q

What cranial nerve provides sensory input for the posterior pharynx and taste of the anterior tongue, as well as motor input for the facial muscles?

A

Glossopharyngeal CN IX

422
Q

What cranial nerve provides sensory input for the taste to posterior tongue, as well as motor input to the posterior palate and pharynx?

A

Vagus CN X

423
Q

What cranial nerve provides motor input to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles?

A

Accessory CN XI

424
Q

What cranial nerve provides motor input to the tongue?

A

Hypoglossal CN XII

425
Q

What structure exits the skull through the foramen magnum and carries impulses down to the body and up to the brain?

A

Spinal cord

426
Q

Which route has efferent (motor) fibers?

A

Ventral route

427
Q

Which route has afferent (sensory) fibers?

A

Dorsal route

428
Q

What set of nerves leave the spinal cord in 31 pairs between the vertebral discs?

A

Peripheral nerves

429
Q

What nervous system contains somatic (voluntary) and visceral (autonomic) innervations?

A

Peripheral nervous system

430
Q

Which part of the PNS contains somatic sensory (afferent) nerves that transmit sensations of touch, pressure, pain, temperature, and position?

A

Somatic sensory

431
Q

Which part of the PNS contains somatic motor (efferent) nerves that carry impulses to skeletal muscles?

A

Somatic motor

432
Q

Which part of the nervous system contain the visceral innervations, the sympathetic nervous system, and the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Autonomic nervous system

433
Q

Which part of the ANS has afferent tracts that sense when the bladder is full and signal the need to defecate?

A

Visceral sensory

434
Q

Which part of the ANS has efferent tracts that innervate the involuntary cardiac and smooth muscles?

A

Visceral motor

435
Q

Which part of the ANS is the “fight-or-flight” mechanism that branches from thoracic and lumbar nerves that increases heart rate and blood pressure, pupillary dilation, increased blood sugar, and bronchodilation?

A

Sympathetic nervous system

436
Q

Which part of the ANS branches from the cranial and sacral nerves that decreases heart rate, causes bronchoconstriction, pupillary constriction, and increases digestive activity?

A

Parasympathetic nervous system

437
Q

What is decorticate posturing?

A

Arms are flexed, legs are extended; lesion at or above upper brain stem

438
Q

What is decerebrate posturing?

A

Stiff and extended extremities; retracted head; brainstem lesion

439
Q

What is a carotid bruit?

A

Carotid arteriosclerosis decreases cerebral blood flow

440
Q

What are 12-lead changes associated with increased ICP?

A

Wide ST segments, broad T waves
Deep S waves in V1-V3

441
Q

What is the myelinated sheath that wraps around the axon and acts as an insulator?

A

Schwann cell

442
Q

What is at the end of an axon terminal that releases neurotransmitters that are received by the next neuron’s dendrite or by the site of action?

443
Q

What part of the brain is responsible for conscious thought and sensory interpretation, has two hemispheres separated by the central sulcus, and is connected by the corpus callosum?

444
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for coordination and balance, fine motor movement, equilibrium, posture, and muscle tone?

A

Cerebellum

445
Q

Which part of the brain is located along the walls of the third ventricle; is the site of the thalamus, hypothalamus, and the limbic system; and regulates temperature, water balance, sleep, stress, and emotions?

A

Diencephalon

446
Q

Which part of the brain contains the mesencephalon (mid-brain) that controls some motor coordination and eye movement; the pons that acts as the connection pathway and controls the respiratory and cardiac rates; and the medulla oblongata that controls respiratory and cardiac regulation?

A

Brain stem

447
Q

What part of the mid-brain is the connection center and controls respiratory and cardiac rates? What centers are found in the structure?

A

Pons; Apneustic and pneumotaxic center

448
Q

What part of the mid-brain controls respiratory and cardiac regulation, and contains the cardioinhibitory center, cardioacceleratory center, and vasomotor center?

A

Medulla oblongata

449
Q

What sensory and motor interpretations is controlled by the frontal lobe?

A

Personality, association, speech, smell, taste, and motor interpretations in the leg, trunk, arm, hand, and face

450
Q

What sensory and motor interpretations are controlled by the parietal lobe?

A

Visual association area, and sensory interpretations in the leg, trunk, arm, hand, and face

451
Q

What sensory and motor interpretations are controlled by the temporal lobe?

A

Hearing and speech

452
Q

What sensory and motor interpretations are controlled by the occipital lobe?

A

Vision and primary visual area

453
Q

What system is located along the brainstem and maintains consciousness and response to stimuli?

A

Reticular Activating System (RAS)

454
Q

What arteries and structure assures cerebral perfusion?

A

Carotid and vertebral arteries; Circle of Willis

455
Q

What cranial nerve is provides sensory input for smell?

A

Olfactory CN I

456
Q

What cranial nerve provides sensory input for sight?

A

Optic CN II

457
Q

What cranial nerve provides motor input for pupil constriction and innervates the rectus and oblique muscles of the eye?

A

Oculomotor CN III

458
Q

What cranial nerve provides motor input for the superior oblique muscles of the eye?

A

Trochlear CN IV

459
Q

What questions do you want to ask someone who is processing toxins/ foreign substances through gastric absorbtion?

A
  • ask patient:
    – What, when and how much, was ingested?
    – Did you drink any alcohol?
    – Have you attempted to treat yourself?
    – Have you been under psychiatric care? Why?
    – What is your weight?
460
Q

S/S + management for an anticholinergic OD.
Ex: incidental anticholinergic such as antihistamines, phenothiazines, TCA, cold medicines

A

Signs and Symptoms
– Dry skin and membranes
– Thirst
– Dysphagia
– Blurred near vision
– Fixed, dilated pupils
– Hypertension, tachycardia
– Hyperthermia
– Seizures
– Respiratory failure
• Management
– Supportive care
– Benzodiazepines as
needed for seizures
– Physostigmine (not
generally used
prehospital)

461
Q

S/S and management of phenathiazines.
These medications are used to treat serious mental and emotional issues but may be for other purposes such as antiemetics.
Ex: haloperidol, promethazine, thioridazine

A

Signs and Symptoms
– Parkinsonian
appearance
– Dystonia
– Dysphagia
– Eye muscle spasm
– Rigidity / Tremors
– Neck spasms
– Shrieking
– Jaw spasm
– Laryngospasm
• Management
– Supportive care
– Diphenhydramine, 25
to 50 mg IV bolus

462
Q

S/S and management for a sympathomimetic OD
Ex: amphetamines, cocaine, aminophylline

A

Signs and Symptoms
– CNS excitation
• Excited delirium
– Seizures
– Extreme hypertension
– Hypotension with
caffeine
– Tachycardia
– Hyperthermia
• Management
– Maintain airway and
ventilation
– Begin IV access
– Administer diazepam for
excited states
– Consider use of
chemical restraint (PAI /
RSI)
– If hyperthermic, begin external cooling

463
Q

Management for ingestion/ surface absorption of caustic substances

A

– Acids
• Cause significant damage at sites of exposure
• Are rapidly absorbed into the bloodstream
– Alkalis
• Slower onset of symptoms allows for longer contact and more
– Perform standard toxicologic emergency procedures
– Maintain an adequate airway
• Esophageal airways are contraindicated
Rinse external contact with copious amounts of water
• 5 minutes minimum for acid
• 15 minutes minimum for alkali

464
Q

S/S and management for a TCA overdose

A

Signs & Symptoms of Severe Toxicity
– Confusion, hallucinations, hyperthermia
– Respiratory depression, seizures
– Tachycardia, hypotension, cardiac dysrhythmias,
widening of QRS complex
• Management
– Bicarbonate may be indicated for seizures
– Monitor and treat cardiac dysrhythmias
– Avoid use of flumazenil, which may precipitate seizures

465
Q

Serotonin syndrome

A

Triggered by increasing the dose or by adding selected drugs, typically in newer antidepressants such as trazodone, bupropion, and SSRIs
• Marked by agitation, anxiety, confusion, insomnia, headache,
coma, salivation, diarrhea, abdominal cramps, cutaneous
piloerection, flushed skin, hyperthermia, rigidity, shivering,
incoordination, and myoclonic jerks.

466
Q

S/S for lithium OD

A

Prescribed to treat bipolar disorder.
– Narrow therapeutic index
• Signs & Symptoms
– Thirst, dry mouth, tremors, muscle twitching, and
increased reflexes
– Confusion, stupor, seizures, coma, nausea, vomiting,
diarrhea, bradycardia, and dysrhythmias
• Treatment
– Activated charcoal is not effective with lithium

467
Q

S/S and management for salicylates

A

Common Overdose Drug
– Includes aspirin, oil of wintergreen.
• Signs & Symptoms
– Tachypnea, hyperthermia, confusion, lethargy, coma,
cardiac failure, and dysrhythmias
– Abdominal pain, vomiting, pulmonary edema, ARDS
• Treatment
– Standard toxicologic emergency procedures
• Activated charcoal is indicated.

468
Q

S/S for an NSAID OD

A

Includes
– Ibuprofen, keterolac, naproxen sodium.
• Signs & Symptoms
– Headache, tinnitus, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain,
drowsiness
– Dyspnea, wheezing, pulmonary edema, swelling of
extremities, rash, itching

469
Q

Problems with inhaled toxins

A

Displace oxygen
– Atmospherically
– Hematologically
• Pulmonary tissue burns
– Gas reacts with water to form acid/alkali
• Absorbed as systemic toxins
– Immediate effects
– Long-term effects

470
Q

S/S and management of inhaled toxins

A

History and physical exam
– Central nervous system effects:
• Dizziness, headache, confusion, seizure, hallucinations, coma
– Respiratory effects:
• Cough, hoarseness, stridor, dyspnea, retractions, wheezing,
chest pain / tightness, pulmonary edema, rales, rhonchi, apnea
– Cardiac effects
• Dysrhythmias
Management
Initiate supportive measures
– Oxygenation
– Ventilation
• Poison Control may recommend specific
treatment if HazMat is not indicated
• Transport considerations
– Hyperbaric therapy

471
Q

S/S of hemoglobinopathies such as carbon monoxide and methemoglobin

A

Signs and Symptoms
– Headache, nausea,
vomiting, dizziness,
dyspnea, seizures,
coma, death
– Cutaneous blisters,
gastroenteritis
– Epidemic occurrences
with carbon monoxide
– Cyanosis, chocolate
blood, with non-
functional hemoglobin

472
Q

S/S of cyanide poisoning with treatments

A

Signs & Symptoms
– Odor of almonds
– Burning sensation in the mouth and throat
– Headache, confusion, and combativeness
– Hypertension and tachycardia
– Seizures and coma
– Pulmonary edema
Management
– Ensure rescuer safety
– Initiate supportive care
– Administer antidote:
• Amyl nitrite
– 20 to 30 seconds per
minute, inhaled
• Sodium nitrite
• Sodium thiosulfate
Hydroxocobalamine
• Vitamin B-12
• Converts cyanide to be excreted in urine
• 5g over 15 minutes (repeated once as if needed)

473
Q

S/S and management of Carbon Monoxide inhalation

A

Signs & Symptoms
– Headache
– Nausea and vomiting
– Confusion or other altered mental status
– Tachypnea
– 100% oxygen saturation (saturated with CO)
Management
– Ensure rescuer safety
– Remove the patient from the
contaminated area
– Initiate supportive measures
• High-flow oxygen
• Monitor SpO2
– Low saturation is cause for
concern
– Hyperbaric therapy

474
Q

S/S for Acetylcholinesterase Inhibition
- organophosphates such as parathion, malathion, diazanon, and trithion
- nerve agents such as sarin (GB), so an (GD), tabun (GA), GF, and VX

A

SLUDGE and DUMBBELLS
Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Diarrhea, Gastritis,
Emesis
• (Diarrhea, Urination, Miosis, Bradycardia, Bronchospasm,
Emesis, Lacrimation, Lethargy and Salivation / seizures)
– Bradycardia or tachycardia
– Hypotension or hypertension
– Muscle cramps and weakness
– CNS Alterations
– Respiratory and cardiovascular depression

475
Q

S/S and treatment for scorpion stings

A

Signs & Symptoms
• Localized burning and
tingling sensation
• Slurred speech,
restlessness, muscle
twitching, salivation,
nausea, vomiting, and
seizures
– Treatment
• Supportive

476
Q

Snakebite treatment

A

Keep the patient supine and calm
• Wash site
• Immobilize limb, neutral or below level of heart
• Apply high-flow oxygen
• Establish IV access
• Controversial
– Constricting bands or tourniquets
– Ice, cold packs
• DO NOT apply electrical
stimulation

477
Q

Treatment for marine animal injuries

A

Treatment
– Wash area with Sea Water
– Old treatments (no longer recommended)
• Flush with:
– Vinegar
– 1/4 strength ammonia
– Baking soda solution
– Alcohol
– Urine
– Apply meat tenderizer paste

478
Q

Treatment for marine animals that puncture such as spine fish and animals.
-Usually stepped on by a victim

A

Treatment
– Supportive care, assure ventilation and circulation
– Place injured area in HOT water, 105-115 degrees
(avoid pain medications initially)
– If patient has severe spasms:
• Administer Calcuim Gluconate, 10mL of 10% solution, IV push

479
Q

Treatment for marine animals that bite and cause envenomation

• Most cause respiratory paralysis
• Some can be deadly in less than five minutes
• Includes:
– Blue-ringed octopus, sea snakes, cone shells

A

Treatment
– Supportive
– Assure ventilations and
circulation
• May have to continue
resuscitation for hours
– Pressure immobilization
technique still
recommended

480
Q

S/S and management for contact dermatitis
- poison oak
- poison ivy
- poison sumac

A

Signs & Symptoms
– Itching
– Rash
– Vesicles
Treatment
– Supportive
– Topical cortisone cream

481
Q

Management for insect bites and stings

Most from hymenoptera
– Wasps, bees, fire ants
– Venom causes pain, edema, and
local irritation
– Systemic problems are anaphylactic

A

Management
– Wash the area
– Remove stingers, if present
• Use care not to disturb the venom sac
– Apply cool compresses to the injection site
– Observe for and treat allergic reactions and/or
anaphylaxis

482
Q

S/S and symptoms for Black Widow Spider
– Dime sized, shiny black
– Red, reddish orange
hourglass shaped mark
on ventral abdomen
– May have stripes or
spots matching spot
– Neurotoxin

A

Signs & Symptoms of Bite
– Immediate pain, redness, and swelling
– Progressive muscle
spasms of all large
muscle groups
– Nausea, vomiting,
sweating, seizures,
paralysis, and altered
level of consciousness
Treatment
– Follow general treatment guidelines
– Provide supportive care
– Consider using muscle relaxants to
relieve severe muscle spasms
• Diazepam 2.5–10mg IV
• 0.1–0.2 mg/kg of a 10% calcium
gluconate solution IV

483
Q

S/S and management for Brown Recluse Spider
– Found primarily in the
South and Midwest
– Small, brown, spindly
spider with dark brown
fiddle shape on the back
or thorax
– Necrotoxin

A

Signs & Symptoms of
Bite
– Localized, white-ringed
maculae
– Progresses to localized
pain, redness, and
swelling over next 8
hours
– Chills, fever, nausea,
vomiting, and joint pain
may develop
– Tissue necrosis develops
over subsequent days
and weeks
Treatment
– Supportive
– Transport for excision of
necrotic area

484
Q

What is the three most common addictions?

A

Tobacco, alcohol, marijuana

485
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Known carcinogen, COPD, testosterone reduction, breast enlargement in men, cognitive dysfunction
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. Euphoria, dry mouth, green and/or brown residue on back of tongue, dilated pupils, body tremors, altered sensation
  3. Management
    A. Supportive, speak quietly, oxygen if respiratory impairment is noted
486
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Brain dysfunction, cardiac myopathy, cognitive functioning reduction
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. CNS depression, slurred speech, disordered thought, impaired judgement, nystagmus, diuresis, stumbling gait, stupor, coma
  3. Management
    A. ABCs, respiratory support, oxygen, IV access, Thiamine 100 mg IV, D10W if low blood sugar
487
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Apathy, organ damage, tolerance, habituation
  2. Signs and symptoms
    B. AMS and coordination, nystagmus, hypotension, respiratory depression
  3. Management
    A. Support respirations, oxygen, IV access
  4. Examples: thiopental, phenobarbital, primidone
A

Barbiturates

488
Q

What is an involuntary jerking of the eyes, whether stationary or moving?

489
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Tolerance, habituations, liver complications
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. AMS, hypotension, slurred speech, respiratory depression, bradycardia, seizures
  3. Management
    A. Protect the airway, support respirations, oxygen, IV access, benzodiazepines as needed for seizure activity
  4. Examples: secobarbital (Seconal), diazepam (Valium), chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride (Librium), triazolam (Halcion), phenobarbital, alprazolam (Xanax)
490
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Tolerance, habituations, bone pain, generalized weakness, jaundice
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. Respiratory insufficiency, AMS, slurred speech, dysrhythmias, decrease/loss of reflexes, decreased body temp, nystagmus
  3. Management
    A. Require large overdosage before serious toxicity occurs, support respirations, consider Flumazenil (1-10mg)
  4. Examples: diazepam (Valium), chlordiazepoxide hydrochloride (Librium), alprazolam (Xanax), triazolam (Halcion), lorazepam (Ativan), flunitrazepam (Rohypnol)
A

Benzodiazepines

491
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Apathy, organ damage, respiratory arrest, brain damage
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. Severe respiratory depression, aphasia, loss of muscle tone/paralysis, hypothermia, seizures, death
  3. Management
    A. Aggressive airway intervention (intubate), 100% oxygen (support ventilations), IV access, transport
A

GammaHydroxyButarate (GHB)

492
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Apathy, end organ damage, infectious diseases, death
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. CNS depression, pupil constriction, respiratory depression, hypotension, bradycardia, hypothermia
  3. Management
    A. Support respirations (do not intubate until Naloxone has been given), establish IV access, consider Naloxone (0.4-2.0 mg)
  4. Examples: heroin, codeine, propoxyphene (Darvon), meperidine (Demoral), morphine, methadone
493
Q
  1. “Starter heroin” - combination of heroin and ground up cold medicine (Tylenol PM; acetaminophen and diphenhydramine)
  2. Effects
    A. Euphoria, disorientation, lethargy, sleepiness, hunger
  3. Withdrawal
    A. Begins within twelve hours, headache, chills, muscle pains, muscle spasms, anxiety, agitation, disorientation, disassociation
494
Q
  1. Powdered form
  2. Effects
    A. Structural degradation of the upper airway, cardiac myopathy, infectious diseases, psychosis, end organ damage, death
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Euphoria, hyperactivity, dilated pupils, psychosis, HTN, tachycardia, chest pain, hyperthermia, vasoconstriction
  4. Management
    A. ABCs, support respirations, oxygen, IV access, violent patients can have heart attacks during struggle, cardiac arrest likely (monitor ECG carefully)
A

Cocaine hydrochloride

495
Q
  1. Crack
  2. Effects
    A. Excitability, aggressiveness, scarring of mid-to-lower airways, organ damage, cardiopulmonary arrest
  3. Signs and symptoms
    A. Euphoria, hyperactivity, dilated pupils, psychosis, HTN, tachycardia, chest pain, callouses or burn marks on dominant thumb and forefinger
  4. Management
    A. ABCs, support respirations, oxygen, IV access, violent patients can have heart attacks during struggle, cardiac arrest likely (monitor ECG closely)
A

Cocaine free-base

496
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Psychosis, infectious diseases, cardiac myopathy, end organ damage, death
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. Exhalation, hyperactivity, dilated pupils (dark glasses), hyperthermia, HTN, tachycardia, psychosis, seizures
  3. Management
    A. Supportive, patient may “crash”, treat threats to life, consider benzodiazepines for excited delirium and hyperthermia
A

Methamphetamine

497
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Hypovolemia, dehydration, hyperthermia, psychosis, stroke, organ damage, death
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. Dilated pupils, bruxism, cracked teeth, hyperthermia, HTN, tachycardia, psychosis, dysrhythmias, death
  3. Management
    A. Remove external stimuli, initiate controlled cooling (consider benzodiazepines), oxygen via NRB (12-15 liters), initiate IV access, transport
A

3,4 - Methylinedioxymethamphetamine (Ecstasy)

498
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Excitability, aggressiveness, organ damage, hyperthermia, delusional or hallucinatory behavior
  2. Signs and symptoms
    A. Psychosis, nausea, dilated pupils, rambling sounds, headache, dizziness, hallucinations, distorted senses
  3. Management
    A. Safety first (patients can be violent), reassure the patient, provide dark and quiet transport
  4. Examples: LSD, PCP, mescaline, mushrooms, ketamine
A

Hallucinogens

499
Q
  1. Effects
    A. Excitability, aggressiveness, organ damage, hypothermia, ventricular irritability, CPR
  2. Classes
    A. Volatile solvents - model glue, cleaning fluids, fuels
    B. Aerosols - freons, lubricants, hydrocarbons
    C. Anesthetics - amyl nitrate, nitrous oxide (N2O)