MED628 - Neuroinflammation and Diseases of the PNS Flashcards

1
Q

Where are interlaminar astrocytes found?

A

in the granular layer of the cerebral cortex of primates, forming a visible palisade

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2
Q

What do perivascular astrocytes form?

A

glial boundaries around blood vessels

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3
Q

What are radial glial remnant cells?

A

transient population of embryonic cells that play an important role in axon guidance, neurogenesis and gliogenesis

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4
Q

What are tanycytes?

A

special ependymal cells found in the third ventricle that extend deep into the hypothalamus, thought to transfer chemical signals from CSF to the CNS.

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5
Q

What are muller cells?

A

radial glial cells of the retina

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6
Q

What do ependymocytes do?

A

contact the ventricular surface and help the flow of CSF with their microvilli

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7
Q

Describe astrocytes role in development

A

o Provide a structural framework for axon guidance (Silver et al, 1993)
o Secrete multiple neurotrophins and cytokines, which promote neuronal differentiation and prevent apoptosis

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8
Q

Describe astrocytes role in synaptic support

A

o Forms the tripartite synapse which helps determine the excitatory signalling the CNS
o Excess glutamate removed by the glutamate reuptake transporter (EAAT2) found exclusively on astrocytes

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9
Q

Describe astrocytes role in energy supply

A

o Glucose transporter (Glut-1) found on astrocytic end feet acts as a gatekeeper for glucose entry into the CNS

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10
Q

Describe astrocytes role in neuroprotection

A

o Have higher concentrations of anti-oxidant molecules (such as vitamin E) than neurons and can protect neurons from oxidative damage
o Secrete glutathione (GSH) which is taken up by surrounding neurons, protecting them from reactive oxygen species and reactive nitrogen species
o In response to oxidative stress, astrocytes increase the activity of the rate limiting enzyme in GSH production, whilst neurons are unable to do this

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11
Q

What is the astrocyte-neuronal lactate shuffle?

A

o Glucose stored as glycogen and transformed into lactate when needed as an alternative energy source by neurons (astrocyte-neuron lactate shuttle)

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12
Q

Describe astrocytes role in synaptic homeostasis

A

o K+ and H+ ions are taken up by astrocytes at the synapse and dissipated through many cells via gap junction coupling

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13
Q

What is the significance of GFAP deficiency in mice given a head trauma?

A
  • GFAP deficient mice suffer greater and delayed neuronal injury in response to blunt head trauma (Liedtke et al, 1996)
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14
Q

What happens if reactive astrogliosis in spinal cord injury is blocked?

A

o Greater neuronal and oligodendrocyte death
o Greater inflammatory infiltration and less recovery of the BBB
o Greater functional deficit
(Faulkner et al, 2004)

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15
Q

How do GFAP knockout mice mature?

A

o GFAP knockout mice mature normally but 50% develop hydrocephalus and white matter loss with impaired BBB function in later life

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16
Q

What happens to astrocytes in ageing?

A

increased astrocytes, especially reactive astrocytes

o Mitochondrial dysfunction results in failure of ATP-dependent processes
o But subpopulations such as fibroblast growth factor-2 positive astrocytes, which promote neurogenesis in the hippocampus, decrease from middle age onwards

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17
Q

Describe microglia

A
  • Not resident cell
  • Normally in repressed state in CNS – constantly surveying environment
  • Role in development
  • Role in adult organism
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18
Q

Describe the double edged sword of activated microglia inflammation

A
  • Injurious/toxic m1 (classically activated) state – Pro-inflammatory cytokine, chemokine, proliferation, phagocytosis, NO release (Nox2)
  • M2 (alternatively-activated) phenotype – Anti-inflammatory-tissue repair and extracellular matrix remodelling, neuroprotective
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19
Q

What happens to microglia as we age?

A
  • Increased activated microglia with age
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20
Q

What are the three populations of microglia in age?

A

o Normal resting microglia
o Hypertrophic microglia
o Dystrophic unhealthy microglia

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21
Q

Describe the natural history of normal myelination in the brain

A
  • ¬Brain is unmyelinated in the newborn
  • Myelination not completed until teens
  • Motor control is poor in newborns
  • Motor development occurs as myelin matures
  • The more maturation of myelin the more complex the motor movement e.g. riding a bike
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22
Q

Name some demyelinating diseases

A
  • Multiple sclerosis
  • ADEM
  • Transverse myelitis
  • Optic neuritis
  • Neuromyelitis Optica
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23
Q

What are some ways of of investigating disease pathophysiology

A
  • Animal models
  • In vitro cell lines
  • Biopsy material from humans
  • Post-mortem studies in humans
  • In vivo
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24
Q

What have studies taught us so far about disease mechanisms in MS?

A
  • Inflammation occurs
  • Axonal damage occurs
  • Recovery occurs too
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25
How does recovery occur in MS?
o Resolution of inflammation o Neuroaxonal redundancy - More nerves than is required o Remyelination occurs  Slow and lags behind clinical recovery  Not always complete o Neuroplasticity
26
What are some hypotheses for why some patients fail to recover from MS flairs?
- More severe inflammation? - More demyelination? - More neuroaxonal loss? - More damage elsewhere? - Less remyelination? - Less tissue reserve? (i.e. less redundancy) - Less neuroplasticity?
27
Name some in vitro research techniques
- Optical coherence tomography (OCT) o A measure of axonal damage - Optic nerve MRI o Gadolinium-enhanced MRI is a measure of inflammation - Diffusion-weighted MRI of the optic radiations o A measure of tract integrity - MRI measurements of cortical thickness and atrophy o A measure of neuroaxonal loss - Functional MRI o A measure of neuroplasticity
28
What are the key features of MS?
- Inflammatory, demyelinating disease - Specific to the central nervous system - Commonest cause of chronic neurological disease in young adults - Usually begins between ages 20-40 years - Early course is relapsing/remitting - Progressive disability over time
29
What are the factors that influence who gets MS?
- Environment - Genetics - Chance
30
Describe the epidemiology of MS
- Prevalence lower in regions closer to the equator o Prevalence is notably higher in south Australia when compared to the north - More common in females than males o Ratio of 3:1 for early onset o 2:1 for normal range o 2.4:1 for late onset - More common in white males when compared to black and ‘other’ males - Incidence peaks in the 3rd decade of life o Bell shaped curve
31
What can studies of migrants tell us about MS?
- MS prevalence rates can be altered by a change in environment o MS is not a purely genetic disease - Age at migration is critical for risk retention o The potential for developing MS may be established early in life o The younger the age of migration the bigger increase risk of developing MS - But are migrant populations directly comparable to populations in their native country or the population of their adoptive country?
32
Name some typical signs of MS
``` o Optic neuritis o Spasticity and other pyramidal signs o Sensory symptoms and signs o Lhermitte’s sign o Nystagmus, double vision and vertigo o Bladder and sexual dysfunction ```
33
Name some atypical signs of MS
``` o Aphasia o Hemianopia o Extrapyramidal movement disturbance o Severe muscle wasting o Muscle fasciculation ```
34
Where can MS plaques occur?
``` Cerebral hemispheres Spinal cord Optic nerves Medulla and pons Cerebellar white matter ```
35
What are the associated symptoms of MS plaques in the cerebral hemispheres?
o Large variety of symptoms such as changes to cognition and motor control o Also, many silent lesions
36
What are the associated symptoms of MS plaques in the spinal cord?
``` o Weakness o Paraplegia o Spasticity o Tingling o Numbness o Lhermitte’s sign – electric shock like sensation beginning in the neck and radiating to trunk and limbs, can be triggered by tilting head forwards o Bladder and sexual dysfunction ```
37
What are the associated symptoms of MS plaques in the Optic nerves?
o Impaired vision | o Eye pain
38
What are the associated symptoms of MS plaques in the Medulla and pons?
o Dysarthria o Double vision o Vertigo o Nystagmus
39
What are the associated symptoms of MS plaques in the cerebellar white matter?
o Dysarthria o Nystagmus o Intention tremor o Ataxia
40
Name the most common presenting symptoms of MS (from most common to least)
- Weakness - Paraesthesia - Visual loss - Incoordination - Vertigo - Sphincter impairment
41
Describe relapsing remitting MS
o Clearly defined disease relapses with full recovery or with sequelae and residual deficit upon recovery o Periods between disease relapses characterised by a lack of disease progression
42
Describe primary progressive MS
o Disease progression from onset with occasional plateaus and temporary minor improvements allowed
43
Describe secondary progressive MS
o Initial relapsing-remitting disease course followed by progression with or without occasional relapses, minor remissions and plateaus
44
Describe progressive/relapsing MS
o Progressive disease from onset, with clear acute relapses, with or without full recovery with periods between relapses characterised by continuing progression
45
What conditions are commonly misdiagnosed as MS?
- Autoimmune disorders such as SLE, Primary Sjogren’s syndrome, Polyarteritis nodosa, ADEM - Infectious diseases such as, Lyme disease, Syphilis, AIDS - Mitochondrial encephalopathy - Arnold-Chiari malformation - Cardiac embolic event
46
Describe the prognosis of MS
- Less than 5-10% of patients will have a clinically milder phenotype with no significant disability - More than 30% will develop significant disability within 20-25 years after onset - Life expectancy is shortened only slightly - Survival rate linked to disability - Death usually results from secondary complications (pulmonary or renal)
47
What is the Marburg variant of MS?
acute and clinically fulminant form of the disease that can lead to coma or death within days
48
What are some clinical indicators of poor prognosis in MS?
- Male gender - Late age at onset - Early motor, cerebellar, and sphincter symptoms - Short inter-attack interval - High number of early attacks - Early residual disability
49
What are some paraclinical indicators of poor prognosis in MS?
- Significant MRI disease burden at onset - Evidence of MRI disease activity - Positive CSF analysis for oligoclonal bands - Positive evoked potential exam
50
Briefly describe the management plan of MS
``` - Immunomodulatory therapy for o Acute relapses o Frequent relapses o Aggressive illness o Progressive illness ``` - Management of symptoms - Non-pharmacological treatments o Physiotherapy o Occupational therapy
51
What is first line treatment for acute relapses in MS?
- Oral or IV methylprednisolone can speed up recovery from a relapse o No evidence that this changes the overall disease progression
52
What can be used short term if steroids cannot be used for acute relapses in MS?
Plasmapheresis o The 2011 AAN guidelines for plasmapheresis states that it is ‘probably effective’ as second-line treatment for relapsing MS exacerbations that do not respond to steroids
53
How are frequent relapses treated in MS?
Disease modifying therapies - Shown beneficial effects in patients with relapsing MS inkling reduced frequency and severity of attacks - Appear to slow progression of disability and reduce accumulation of lesions within the brain and spinal cord
54
What are the disease modifying therapies currently approved by the FDA and EMA?
``` o Interferon beta-1a (Avonex, Rebif) o Interferon beta-1b (Betaseron) o Glatiramer (Copaxone) o Natalizumab (Tysabri) o Mitoxantrone (Novantrone) o Fingolimod (Gilenya) ```
55
What did the IFNB study group find?
- Double-blind, placebo-controlled study of 372 patients with RRMS (comparing no treatment with interferon beta 1b) o Decreased frequency of relapses by 34% after 2 years o In treated patients – MRI T2 lesion burden increased by 3.6% over 5 years, compared to 30.2% in the placebo group o At 5 year follow up – incidence of disease progression was lower in treatment group
56
What did the MS collaborative research group study and what were their findings?
Studied the efficacy of intramuscular interferon beta 1a Study of 301 patients o Annual exacerbation rate decreased by 29% o Over 2 years, disease progression occurred in 21.9% in treatment group compared to 34.9% of placebo group o MRI data showed a decrease in mean lesion volume and number of enhancing lesions
57
What is Glatiramer Acetate?
- Synthetic polypeptide which probably works by substituting itself as the target for the immune system
58
Describe the evidence for the use of Glatiramer Acetate?
- Double-blind trial of 251 patients with RRMS o Resulted in a 29% reduction in relapse rate over 2 years o Accumulation of disability was slowed - Follow up open-label study o Demonstrated efficacy over 6 years
59
What is natalizumab?
- Humanized monoclonal antibody that binds with the adhesion molecule alpha-4 integrin, inhibiting its adherence to receptors Second line therapy for MS
60
Describe the evidence for the treatment of MS with natalizumab
Placebo-controlled trial | o Reduced relapse rate (68%) and progression of disability (42%) over 2 years
61
Why should Natalizumab be used with caution?
- Associated with progressive multifocal leukocephalopathy (PML)
62
What is Fingolimod and what evidence for its efficacy is there?
- First oral disease modifying treatment - Two-year placebo-controlled study o Reduced relapse rates by 54-60%, and reduced disability progression by about 30% - A one-year study showed that it reduced relapse rates by 53% compared to beta interferon 1a
63
What are the adverse effects of Fingolimod?
o Transient, generally asymptomatic bradycardia o Atrio-ventricular block with the first dose o Reduction of lymphocyte count can lead to infection o Reversible, asymptomatic elevations of liver enzymes o Headache, diarrhoea, back pain
64
How should aggressive MS be treated?
- High dose cyclophosphamide
65
What did a study of 32 patients with aggressive MS show?
That those treated with cyclophosphamide followed by long term maintenance with Glatiramer Acetate – well tolerated and appeared to be effective in reducing risk of relapse, disability progression, and new MRI lesions
66
What are some adverse effects of cyclophosphamide?
o Leukaemia o Lymphoma o Infections o Haemorrhagic cystitis
67
What is an alternative of cyclophosphamide?
Mitoxantrone But o Risk of cardiotoxicity increasing with every dose o Risk of leukaemia
68
What is the treatment of primary progressive MS? What have studies shown?
- Currently no approved treatments - Previous trials using a number of DMTs o Including interferons, GA, Mitoxantrone, Methotrexate, IVIG, Cyclophosphamide o Show no effect on course of the illness - On-going trial using Fingolimod
69
What is Alemtuzumab?
Experimental agent for treatment of MS Monoclonal antibody that targets CD52 cells
70
What did a phase II trial show for the use Alemtuzumab?
Three-year phase II trial of 333 patients with early RRMS o 71% reduction in disability progression o 74% reduction in relapse rate
71
What is the ARE-MS I trial and what did it show?
phase III trial comparing Alemtuzumab with Rebif (Interferon beta-1a) in 581 patients o Alemtuzumab showed 55% reduction in relapse rates o No significant difference in disease progression
72
What is the CARE-MS II trial and what did it show?
larger phase III study involving 840 people comparing Alemtuzumab to Rebif o It reduced relapse rates by 49% o Reduced disability progression by 42%
73
What is BG12?
- Dimethyl fumarate | - Oral therapy
74
Describe the DEFINE trial
2-year phase III placebo-controlled trial of BG12 o Relapse rates reduced by 53% in twice-daily group, 48% in three-times daily o Disability progression reduced by 38% and 34% o MRI scans showed considerable decrease in new or newly enlarging lesions
75
Describe the CONFIRM trial
2-year phase III trial comparing BG-12 with Copaxone (GA) o Relapse rates reduced by 44% (2x daily) and 51% (3x daily) o Disability progression reduced by 21% and 24% o MRI scan showed significant decrease in new or newly enlarging brain lesions
76
What symptoms of MS should be managed either pharmacologically or non-pharmacologically?
``` o Fatigue o Spasticity o Bladder problems o Bowel problems o Cognitive dysfunction o Pain o Paroxysmal symptoms o Sexual dysfunction o Tremor ```
77
Describe the pathogenesis of MS
- Autoreactive lymphocytes become activated in the periphery and migrate to CNS - Form accumulations - Local inflammatory reaction mediated through inflammatory cytokines, complement and cell cytotoxic mechanisms leading to inflammation, axonal injury and demyelination - Patches of inflammation in eloquent areas causes symptoms (e.g. paralysis)
78
What do MS accumulations contain?
o CD8 T cells o Th17 cells – secrete IL 17 and 22 which disrupts the BBB o B cells o Macrophages
79
What do MS inflammation cause?
o Conduction block – lack of saltatory conduction o Demyelination – most common pathology, stops neuron from working as ion channels only at nodes of Ranvier o Axonal transection
80
Describe the clinical history of a MS relapse
o Relapse has to be experienced by patient o May be able to be confirmed by examination o Must last >48hrs (rules out other pathology such as seizure or TIA)
81
What are the symptoms and signs of a MS relapse?
o Cerebral hemispheres – cognitive changes, visual field loss, hemiplegia o Optic nerve – visual loss and eye pain (especially on eye movement) o Brainstem – eye movement disorders, vertigo, ataxia, cranial nerve palsies, hemi-, quadriplegias o Spinal cord – weakness, bladder, bowel and sexual difficulties
82
Describe the timescale of a MS relapse
o Relapsing remitting o Days to weeks onset o Weeks to months recovery o Not always full recovery especially if had MS for a while o Most will lead to secondary progressive
83
What lesions can be seen on MRI of patients with MS?
- Periventricular lesions (adjacent to ventricles) – common pattern - Juxtacortical lesions - Callosal lesions and Dawson’s fingers (project outwards on the veins into corpus callosum) - Posterior fossa and brainstem lesions - Temporal lobes lesions - Optic nerve lesions (only seen in good scans) - Spinal cord lesions
84
Describe the mcdonald criteria
An inflammatory demyelinating disease of the CNS where there is: o Dissemination in space o Dissemination in time o No alternative neurologic disease which may explain the symptoms and signs
85
Describe the WHO expanded model of illness
Organ – pathology o Disease, diagnosis Person – impairment o Observable abnormalities (signs) and subjective experiences (symptoms) Person in environment – disability/activity limitation o Inability to perform an activity o Mobility, communication, activities of daily living Person in society – handicap/participation o Inability to fulfils one’s role
86
Define impairment
- Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological, or anatomical structure or function
87
What are some impairments in MS?
- Loss of vision - Dysphagia - Ataxia - Spasticity - Weakness - Incontinence - Pain
88
Define disability. What can it affect in MS?
- Any restriction or lack of ability to perform an activity in manner or within the range considered as normal Can affect - Walking - Dressing - Washing
89
Define handicap. What main groups can a handicap in MS affect?
- A disadvantage for a given individual resulting from an impairment or disability that limits or prevents the fulfilment of a role that is normal for that individual - Unique to each individual and their personal situation E.g. student may have issues with studying and sport Affects - Family - Society - Vocation
90
Describe the process of assessment in MS rehab
- Identify the problems - Set goals - Decide on the setting - Interventions
91
Define spasticity
Disordered sensori-motor control resulting from an upper motor neuron lesion, presenting as intermittent or sustained involuntary activation of muscles o Pandyan et al, Disability and Rehabil 2005
92
What are the components of spasticity?
- Increased tone - Clonus - Spasms - Spastic dystonia - Spastic co-contractions
93
What are some uses of spasticity?
``` o Posture o Standing o Walking o Transfers o Prevent venous stasis ```
94
What are some problems associated with spasticity?
o Pain o Mobility o Seating o Hygiene – hand, genital area
95
What are some non-pharmacological treatments for spasticity?
Phsyiotherpay TENS Vibration
96
What are some pharmacological treatments for spasticity?
Motor neurons o GABA – inhibition – Baclofen o Intrathecal baclofen pump Inhibitory interneurons o Alpha-2 agonist – stimulation of interneurons – Tizanidine o Cannabinoid receptors – Sativex - Neuromuscular junction - Botox - Muscle – Dantrolene (muscle relaxant)
97
What is spasticity resistant to treatment?
- No response despite use of at least 2 oral anti spasticity drugs in combination - No other causes of spasticity such as pressure ulcers, UTI, calculi, any wounds/infections
98
What are some treatments of spasticity?
o Intrathecal baclofen – delivered directly in the subarachnoid space via silicone catheter through anterior abdominal wall o Phenol – injection o Alcohol – injection o Posterior Rhizotomy – severing spinal nerves in neck
99
What are the treatments for contractures?
o Serial casting o Splints o Surgery
100
Describe dropped foot
- Inability to activate ankle dorsiflexors in swing phase of gait - Lesion of central neurological origin – corticospinal tracts
101
What is the treatment of a dropped foot?
functional electric stimulation (FES)
102
What did Taylor et al show in their study of FES?
o Retrospective analysis of 23 MS patients in 2016 o Found both external and implanted devices significantly improved walking speed and walking distance o Indications that walking required less effort o Improved quality of life o (Taylor et al, International Journal of MS Care, 2016)
103
What are potassium channels?
inhibitory channels o Prevent back propagation of action potentials o Repolarisation
104
What does Dalfampridine do? Is there evidence for its use?
Inhibits potassium channels – better conduction along demyelinated axons o Review published in 2011 o Randomised, double-blind, placebo-controlled trials o Walking speed was improved in 1/3 of patients – was 25% above baseline o (Blight, 2011)
105
Describe some bladder problems in MS
- Detrusor overactivity – frequency, urgency, incontinence - Detrusor areflexia – flaccid, large bladder - Detrusor sphincter dyssynergia – incomplete emptying - Sphincter over activity – retention, hesitancy - Sphincter incompetence – dribbling
106
How can bladder overactivity be treated?
- Block parasympathetic nerves - Anticholinergic drugs – oxybutynin, fesoterodine - Block NMJ – Botox - Stimulate sympathetic – Mirabegron – Beta-3 adrenergic receptors - Artificial sphincter
107
How can problems with bladder emptying be treated?
- Tamsulosin – relaxes sphincter | - Catheter
108
Describe electromyography
- The recording of electrical activity from muscle - Disposable needle electrode inserted into the muscle - Record from the muscle at the rest - Record motor units following voluntary activation - Specialised techniques – single fibre EMG
109
What three things are measured in an EMG?
o Motor unit analysis o Interference pattern o Spontaneous activity
110
What are the basic functional elements of the peripheral nervous system?
o Anterior horn cell o Axon o Neuromuscular junction o Muscle fibres
111
Describe the steps in neuromuscular transmission
1. Action potential initiated by motor neuron, travels down myelinated axon via saltatory conduction 2. Activation of voltage gated calcium channels, influx of Ca2+, Ach release 3. Ach acts nAchR - influx of Na 4. Muscle membrane potentials: -90mv to -50mv = threshold for voltage-gated sodium channels 5. High influx of sodium – at +20mv, sodium channels become inactivated 6. Increased permeability of the muscle membrane to potassium – K+ leaves, repolarisation of the membrane 7. The AP across the muscle, release of Ca2+ from sarcoplasmic reticulum 8. Ca2+ acts with actin and myosin 9. muscle contraction
112
What is recorded from the motor unit action potential?
- Amplitude – size - Duration - Turns – the number of times it changes directions - Phases – number of times it crosses the baseline
113
What is interference pattern?
- Electric activity recorded from the muscle during maximal voluntary effort - It is the recruitment of all motor units to the point that no single MUAPs can be distinguished
114
What should looked for in an interference pattern?
Look to see if there is a reduced pattern – where there are areas of baseline with no activity despite maximal effort o Lose axons – activate fewer motor units o IP is reduced – you can see gaps in-between the MUAPs
115
What are the most common spontaneous abnormalities on an EMG?
o Fibrillations o Positive sharp waves o Fasciculations o Complex repetitive discharges
116
What does neurogenic mean?
Arising from the nerves - could be traumatic, toxic, metabolic, hereditary
117
What are fibrillation/positive sharp waves?
- Spontaneous discharge of muscle fibre, always pathological
118
What do fibrillation/positive sharp waves indicate and why?
- Indicate loss of innervation of muscle fibres (e.g. nerve transection) - Deinnervated muscle fibres remain viable but after 7-10 days they become supersensitive - Denervated fibres will have acetylcholine receptors over the entire membrane rather than being concentrated at NMJ
119
What are fasciculations?
- Spontaneous discharge of part or whole of the motor unit - Longer and more complex than fibrillations - Isolated discharges occurring at irregular intervals - May be visible at the skin if near surface - May be benign or pathological
120
Describe complex repetitive discharges
- Start and stop abruptly - May persist for several minutes - Constant frequency (1-100Hz) - Stereotyped group of single fibre potentials with complex morphology - Probable ephaptic transmission between adjacent muscle fibres - Seen predominantly in neurogenic disease
121
What are myokymia?
- Regular or irregular discharge of groups of motor units | - Can be seen as flickering in muscle
122
What is myokymia notably seen in?
Seen in central and peripheral pathology | o Notably – brainstem neoplasms or demyelination and sub clinically in episodic ataxia type 1
123
Describe the timescale of EMG and NCS findings post axonal injury
1 day – 2 weeks o May still have normal/near normal distal NCS (but EMG likely abnormal) o Poor recruitment on EMG, reduced pattern 3 weeks o Decreased NCS amplitude or absent (Fibrillations on EMG) 4-6 weeks o Nascent potentials on EMG 3 months o Some chronic neurogenic EMG change
124
What is myopathy?
Primary muscle pathology Damage to and loss of muscle fibres
125
What changes do you in MUAPs in myopathic disorders?
- Amplitude – reduced - Duration - <6ms - Phases – increased
126
What changes do you in the interference pattern in myopathic disorders?
- Full and early | - Low amplitude (the MUAPs are low amplitude)
127
What is myotonia seen in?
muscle fibre membrane channelopathies
128
Describe single fibre EMGs
- Recording individual muscle fibres - Used in diagnosis of NMJ transmission disorders - Looking at jitter - Blocking seen with more severe disorder
129
Give an example, other than MNJ transmission disorders, in which single fibre EMG may be abnormal
denervation-reinnervation can also result in immature collateral nerve terminals and instability of neuromuscular transmission seen in (for example ALS)
130
What parts of of the nervous system can NCS assess?
- Anterior horn cell - Nerve root - Plexus - Peripheral nerve - Neuromuscular junction - (Muscle)
131
What conditions is NCS used in?
``` o MND o Polio o Radiculopathy o Brachial neuritis o Peripheral neuropathy o Entrapment neuropathy o Myasthenia Gravis o Lambert Eaton Syndrome o Polymyositis o Muscular dystrophy ```
132
What measurements are taken from a NCS?
``` Latency Amplitude Area Duration of negative phase Total duration ```
133
What common motor nerves are examined in a NCS?
o Median o Ulnar o Peroneal o Tibial
134
What common sensory nerves are examined in a NCS?
o Median o Ulnar o Radial o Sural
135
How do you calculate sensory conduction velocity?
CV = Conduction distance/conduction time
136
What are adult normal values for sensory conduction velocity?
o Arm >48m/s | o Leg >38m/s
137
Why motor conduction velocity more complex? How do you calculate it?
- More complex due to the presences of neuromuscular junctions - Need to isolate simply nerve fibres to calculate velocity
138
What technical considerations are there for NCS?
Temperature o Conduction velocity decreases with decreasing temperature o Try and warm all patients to 32degrees Averager o Taking multiple recordings to cancel out noise as trace stays constant while noise is random Supramaximal response
139
What abnormalities are seen in NCS for demyelinating nerve pathology?
Slowed CV Conduction block  Some fibres do not conduct but not all  Reduction in area under curve and amplitude together Dispersion  Reduction in amplitude but area under curve remains the same  Some fibres conduct more slowly due to demyelination which spreads the wave out
140
What abnormalities are seen in NCS for degenerating/axonal nerve pathology?
o Reduced amplitude (Normal sensory ≥ 5uV) | o Absent potential
141
What are F waves? Why do they occur?
- Motor response - Second of the two voltage changes seen in nerve conduction studies - Occurs after supramaximal stimulation of nerve o Stimulation travels in both directions (towards muscle fibre and towards motor cell body) - When stimulus reaches cell body and small proportion backfire and stimulus travels back down the neuron seen as the F wave - Due to a different population of anterior horn cells stimulated every time, each F wave has a different shape, amplitude and latency
142
What is repetitive stimulation?
Electrical stimulation is delivered to a motor nerve several times a second
143
What can repetitive stimulation assess?
- By observing changing in electrical response – can assess for pathology of neuromuscular junction and differentiate between presynaptic and postsynaptic conditions - Most commonly used to diagnose myasthenia gravis
144
Name the different types of evoked potentials
- Somatosensory evoked potentials (upper and lower limb) - Visual evoked potentials (VEP)/ectroretinography (ERG) - Auditory - Motor evoked potential (MEP)
145
What are somatosensory evoked potentials? (SSEPs)
- Responses after electrical stimulation of mixed or cutaneous peripheral nerves - Mixed nerves-electrical stimulation sufficient to produce a visible twitch
146
How electrodes placed in SSEPs?
o The 10-20 international systems o Electrodes are placed at sites that are 10% or 20% of a measured length from a known landmark on the skull o Same as EEGs
147
What abnormalities can be seen in SSEPs?
o Slowing CV o Reduced amp or loss of responses o Asymmetries between sides
148
What are the uses of SSEPs?
Suspect demyelination and myelopathy and can help in  Distinguishing central and peripheral process  Prognostication of coma and brainstem death
149
What would be seen in an SSEP in MS?
Asymmetries, prolonged central conduction time, absent responses
150
What would be seen in an SSEP in spinal cord lesions?
markedly prolonged
151
What would be seen in an SSEP in cortical myoclonus?
Giant SSEPs
152
What does an intact VEP usually suggest?
Continuity of the visual pathways
153
What could an absent VEP indicate?
o Technical error (e.g. electrodes in wrong place) o Poor visual fixation o Severe optic atrophy
154
What does a unilateral VEP latency prolongation indicate?
slowing of conduction in one optic nerve (optic neuritis)
155
What does a hemifield prolongation of VEP latency indicate?
a conduction defect behind the optic chiasm but | o Specificity and sensitivity not good to confirm posterior lesions
156
What does a reduced VEP amplitude indicate?
ischaemic and compressive disease of the eye and optic nerve | o Amblyopia and glaucoma
157
What are the 5 waves of Brainstem Auditory Evoked Potentials (BAEPs)?
o I – Auditory nerve o II – Cochlear nuclei – lie at rostral pole of medulla o III – Superior olivary complex – in pons o IV – Lateral lemniscus o V – Inferior colliculus – midbrain
158
What are BAEPs used for in clinical practice?
o Screening hearing in infants o Evaluation of possible acoustic neuroma o MS o Evaluate peripheral and central auditory pathways in sedated and anaesthetised patients
159
What are motor evoked potentials used for?
Diagnostic use – mainly connection between primary motor cortex and various muscles o Pathology from MS, CVA, ALS-PLS o Assess intracortical inhibition etc
160
Name some causes of inflammation
- Infection o Bacterial o Viral o Post -viral - Autoimmune o MS o SLE and connective tissue diseases - Ischaemia - Neoplasia
161
Name the classical features of inflammation
``` Celsus (30 BC to 38 AD) o Calor – heat o Rubor – redness o Dolor – pain o Tumor – swelling ``` Galen (130-200 AD) o Functio laesa – loss of function
162
What are the classical MR features of inflammation?
- Vascular changes in inflammation - BBB - Consequent changes in tissue water content o T2 signal, DWI
163
What are the vascular changes in inflammation?
- Increased flow - Increased permeability – the BBB - Increased inflammatory cell adhesion and recruitment
164
How can increased flow be measured?
o Can be measure by perfusion imaging ``` o MR perfusion  Contrast enhanced  Arterial spin labelling  Indirect: BOLD imaging o CT perfusion – contrast enhanced ``` o Nuclear medicine
165
What two features are measured in perfusion weighted MR imaging?
o Transit time (MTT, or TTP) | o Cerebral blood volume (CBV)
166
What are some classical signs of MS on an MRI scan?
``` Periventricular predominance Corpus callosum involvement Temporal lobe involvement Posterior fossa involvement U-fibre involvement Cortical involvement T1 black hole Cord lesions - but MR is relatively inconsistent for this ```
167
Describe a typical MS lesion
o Typical lesions are flame shaped | o Fired egg appearance in fresher lesions
168
What are Dawson's fingers?
Ovoid lesions perpendicular to the ventricles typical for MS and are the result of inflammation around penetrating venules
169
What is essential to look for corpus callosum involvement?
o Sagittal FLAIR and/or T2
170
Why is corpus callosum involvement a good differentiating factor for MS?
o Not see in leukoaraisosis (Small vessel disease)
171
What part of the posterior fossa is involvement in MS common?
Cerebellar peduncle
172
What are U-fibres?
o U fibres located right next to cortex, between grey matter and the white matter
173
What are T1 black holes?
o Hypointense lesions and indicates the chronic stage with white matter destruction, axonal loss and irreversible clinical outcome
174
ADEM often looks very similar to MS however, what are you more likely to get in ADEM?
- More likely to get large lesions | - More likely to get lesions affecting the basal ganglia/thalamus
175
How may microglial activation be demonstrated?
- Can be demonstrated with iron oxide nanoparticles or Fluorine 19 rich nanoparticles on MR - Human studies have been undertaken - Can show macrophage recruitment - A negative contrast – loss of signal
176
What does the recurrent nerve of Luschka innervate?
 Posterior annulus  Facet joints  Para vertebral muscles  Anterior dura
177
What do non-myelinated fibres sense in the spinal cord?
 Tissue tension |  Chemical irritants
178
What can cause pain in the spine?
- Distortion in fascial attachments and muscles - Muscle fatigue causing local accumulation of metabolites - Stress in facet joint and Sacro iliac joint capsules - Inflammation of facet joints (OA) - Irritation of perivascular and periosteal nerves due to collapse, tumours, fractures and infection - Distortion of posterior annulus and PLL by discs
179
Describe the forces on the disc
- Highest when sitting - Maximal at lowest end of spine - In healthy disc - end plate more likely to rupture than annulus under pressure
180
Describe the ageing of the intervertebral disc
- Dehydration - Invasion of fibro cartilage by nucleus - Loss of elasticity - Fissuring - Uniform cartilage plate - Caused by decreased blood supply from the end plate
181
What can disc degeneration lead to?
- In ageing disc dehydration and fissuring cause annulus to give way - Annulus rupture can occur in any direction by only symptomatic if posterior
182
When is the peak incidence of acute disc disease?
Peak incidence of acute disc disease in early middle age | o High level of activity and early degenerative changes
183
What is spondylosis?
Chronic disc disease Occurs later in life Disc flattening and dehydration
184
What are the secondary changes that occur in chronic disease disease?
o OA of facet joints o Osteophytes o Ligamentous thickening o Deformity – spondylolisthesis
185
Describe the incidence of spondylosis
- 4,253 cadavers - 50-year olds o 69% of women and 80% of men - 70-year olds o 95% of men - Gross changes even in those with no complaints (Schmorl 1929)
186
Describe cervical cord radiculopathy
o Nerve root o Common o Self-limiting o Not recurrent
187
Describe cervical spin myelopathy
``` o Spinal cord o Often stabilises o Some milder cases spontaneously improve o Not fully explained by compression  Vascular, congenital, ligamentous? ```
188
What are the clinical features of cervical radiculopathy?
- Neck pain and stiffness - Headaches - Limb o Pain and paraesthesia o Sensory loss o Weakness o Reflex loss
189
What are the clinical features of cervical myelopathy?
- Slow onset or sudden with trauma - Upper limbs o Numb and clumsy o Muscle wasting - Lower limbs o Stiff heavy legs o Poor balance and falls
190
What are some differentials of cervical spinal radiculopathy?
- Carpal tunnel syndrome - Ulnar nerve palsy - Thoracic outlet syndrome - Shoulder girdle problems - Brachial neuritis
191
What investigations would you perform for suspected spondylosis?
``` X-ray o AP o Lateral o Oblique o Flexion-extension canal dimensions ``` MRI o Good resolution of soft tissue o High cord signal in T2 weighted image correlates to myelopathy and poor outcome CT/myelogram o Bony detail o Cord and roots seen EMG/NCS o To exclude double crush (compression at 2 more locations on a peripheral nerve) o E.g. nerve root and carpal tunnel
192
What is the conservative management of spondylosis?
o Analgesia o Physiotherapy – avoid manipulation of the neck o Collar – for 4-6 weeks
193
What is the surgical management of spondylosis?
o Decompress cord/roots and remove osteophytes | o Anterior/posterior approach depending on where compression is
194
What results can be achieved following surgery for radiculopahty and for myelopathy?
o Radiculopathy – relieved in 80% | o Myelopathy – improved in 60% (complete resolution unlikely)
195
What are some implications for surgery of spondylosis?
- Intractable pain - Progressive neurodefecit - Cord/root compression on imaging - Failure of conservative treatment
196
What are some complications of spondylosis surgery?
- Haemorrhage, infection, CSF leak - Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage - Tracheal, oesophageal damage - Carotid, vertebral artery damage - Root and cord damage – quadriplegic - Failed fusion - Painful hip wound and thigh - Bowel perforation
197
Describe the epidemiology of lumbar spine issues
- Low back pain (50 to 90%) during their lifetime - 70% improve in 3 weeks - 90% in 2 months - 1% continue to have symptoms after 1 year - Peak incidence in 3rd and 4th decade of life - Nachemson’s review o 4.8% male, 2.5% female population beyond 35yrs experience sciatica
198
Name some risk factors for lower back problems
Smoking Pregnancy Certain professions
199
Name some differential for lumber spine issues
- Congenital o Meningeal cyst o Tethered cord syndrome o Conjoined nerve root - Acquired o Spinal stenosis o Spondylolisthesis o Juxtafacet cyst - Infectious o Discitis o Caries spine - Neoplastic o Spine/spinal cord tumours
200
What diagnostic studies should be performed for lumber spine pathology?
- Plain radiography - MRI - CT scan - Myelography - EMG - Epidural venography - Discography
201
What would you see on a plain radiograph for lumbar spine pathology?
o Loss of lordotic curve o Scoliosis o Disc space narrowing o Main reason is to exclude other conditions
202
What are the principles of non-operative treatment for lower back pain?
o Protect abnormal disc from strain | o Put the part at rest to encourage healing
203
What is the non-operative treatment for lower back pain?
- Decrease in general activity - Non-narcotic analgesics/NSAIDs - Muscle relaxant - Lumbosacral corset - Programme of back exercises
204
What are the indications for surgical treatment for lower back pain?
- Cauda equina syndrome with bladder and bowel deficit - Progressive motor deficit - Significant neurologic deficit with reduced straight leg raising - Failure of adequate conservative treatment - Recurrent episodes of sciatica
205
What are surgical options for the lumbar spine?
- Microdiscectomy - Fenestration - Hemilaminectomy - Decompressive laminectomy
206
What are some of the complications following lumbar spine surgery?
- Nerve injury - CSF leak - Infections - Spinal instability - Post laminectomy kyphosis - Urinary retention - Injuries to great vessels/viscera - Chronic adhesive arachnoiditis - Spasm - Failed back surgery syndrome
207
What did the Weber series show for surgical vs medical treatment of the lumbar spine?
o At 1 year 92% of surgical patients improved compared to 60% for non-surgical o However, at 4yrs and 5yrs no significant differences between the 2 groups with 60% improved
208
What did the Hakelius series show for surgical vs medical treatment of the lumbar spine?
o Immediate surgical results better o At 6 months no difference between the groups o At 7 years patients who did not receive surgery had more episodes of lower back pain and sciatica and more lost time from work
209
What are peripheral nerves?
Axons originating from anterior horn cells
210
How can neuropathies be classified?
- By cause - Acute vs chronic - Symmetrical vs asymmetrical (?multifocal) - Sensory vs motor vs mixed - Axonal vs demyelination - Large fibre vs small fibre
211
What the generic causes of neuropathy?
- Unknown – 30% - Endocrine diseases - Inflammatory diseases - Infective - Nutritional - Metabolic - Genetic - Neoplastic and paraneoplastic - Toxic and pharmacological agents
212
Name some endocrine diseases that can cause neuropathy
Diabetes | Hypothyroidism
213
Name some inflammatory diseases that can cause neuropathy
``` Guillain-Barre syndrome SLE Sjogren's Vasculitis Sarcoidosis ```
214
Name some infective causes of neuropathy
Lyme disease Leprosy HIV
215
Name some nutritional causes of neuropathy
Vitamin B12, B1, vitamin E, B6 toxicity
216
Name some metabolic causes of neuropathy
Porphyria Copper deficiency Zinc toxicity
217
Name some genetic causes of neuropathy
Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease Friedreich's ataxia Fabry disease
218
Name some neoplastic and paraneoplastic causes of neuropathy
POEM disease MGUS SSCA
219
Name some toxic and pharmacological agents that may cause neuropathy
``` Vincristine Phenytoin Amiodarone Metronidazole Alcohol Statins ```
220
What are the three distributions of neuropathy?
- Mononeuropathy - Mononeuropathy multiplex - Polyneuropathy
221
Name some extra neurological symptoms of peripheral neuropathy
- Loss of appetite/Loss of weight - Rashes o Especially non-blanching - Skin discolouration - Diarrhoea - New autonomic features o Bladder dysfunction, erectile dysfunction, dry mouth and eyes, cardiac symptoms - Family history
222
What findings on examination may you find in someone with peripheral neuropathy?
- Small muscle wasting - Inverted champagne bottle wasting in legs - Hammer toes, high arched feet - Skeletal abnormalities – short fourth toe (Refsum’s disease) - Weakness – usually distal, but can be proximal as well (CIDP, GBS) - Reduced reflexes
223
What are some unusual and rare but important pointers to the cause of peripheral neuropathy?
- Angular stomatitis – B12, Folate - Glossitis – B12/Folate - Dentures/denture cream – Zinc toxicity - Mees lines – arsenic poisoning - Corkscrew hair – Menkes disease, Vitamin C deficiency - Burning/painful neuropathy – Amyloidosis, Alcohol - Orange tonsils – Tangiers disease - AIDS defining findings – HIV neuropathy
224
What investigations should be performed for suspected peripheral neuropathy?
- FBC – indicates effects of vitamin deficiencies, alcohol, inflammation - ESR – Raised in inflammation, infection, neoplastic processes - RBC – Raised in DM - TFT – hypothyroidism - Serum immunoglobulin fixation – MGUS neuropathy, POEMS - B12 folate - EMG/NCS
225
Name the different types of diabetic peripheral neuropathies
Diabetic peripheral neuropathy - most common (75) o Diabetic autonomic neuropathy o Cranial neuropathy o Mononeuritis multiplex o Mononeuropathy o Treatment-induced neuropathy in diabetes (TIND)
226
Describe diabetic peripheral neuropathy
- Symmetrical, length dependent sensorimotor - Attributable to metabolic and micro vessel alterations - Result of chronic hyperglycaemia exposure
227
Describe the management of diabetic peripheral neuropathy
o Pain management  Duloxetine and Pregabalin  Capsaicin/Lidocaine patches  Opiates – tramadol/codeine (ideally avoided) o Exercises – help improved nerve fibre regeneration o Diabetic foot management o Falls risk – 3 times more likely to fall
228
What are some causes of multiple mono neuropathies?
o Vasculitides o Connective tissue disorders o Granulomatous inflammation – Sarcoid o Diabetes
229
What is the management of vasculitis neuropathy?
o Treatment should be as you treat renal involvement o Cyclophosphamide + IVMP o Non systemic – less aggressive – Management of the cause
230
Briefly describe Charcot Marie Tooth neuropathy
o Slow, over many years o Length dependent o Motor or sensory o Sometimes very little symptoms but signs present
231
When should you refer to a specialist for peripheral neuropathy?
- Acute, subacute in onset - Rapidly progressive - Severe limitation in function - Length independent/asymmetrical - Multifocal - Motor predominant - Associated with dysautonomia - Demyelinating - Associated paraprotein/MGUS - Family history
232
What is the prevalence of peripheral neuropathy in the UK?
up to 80 per 1000
233
What is the difference between neuropathy and neuronopathy?
- Neuropathy = disease of axons and myelin, long vulnerable to attack by ischaemia or autoimmunity - Neuronopathy = whole cell e.g. neurodegenerative, paraneoplastic
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What are the sensory symptoms of peripheral neuropathy?
``` o Proprioception o Light touch, pressure vibration o Pain o Warm o Cold ```
235
What are the motor symptoms of peripheral neuropathy?
``` o Weakness o Wasting o Fasciculation o Cramps o Neuropathic tremor o Cranial nerve manifestations e.g. double vision ```
236
What are the autonomic symptoms of peripheral neuropathy?
o Bladder/bowel dysfunction o Blood pressure dysregulation o Syncope o Sexual dysfunction
237
What are some common mononeuropathies in the limbs?
o Carpal tunnel syndrome (Median nerve) o Ulnar neuropathy (entrapment at cubital tunnel) o Peroneal neuropathy (entrapment at the fibular head)
238
What is compression susceptibility enhanced by?
increased by systemic conditions e.g. hypothyroidism, pregnancy, acromegaly, HNPP
239
Describe Bells palsy
Idiopathic VII palsy Common, lifetime risk Can affect any age, gender Viral in some cases
240
What is the treatment of bells palsy?
``` o Exclude central cause o Steroids if presenting >72hrs o Treat underlying viral infection o Eye care o Surgery/Botox ```
241
What is common peroneal nerve palsy often caused by?
Often compression/trauma | o Habitual leg crossing, fibular head fracture, knee surgery
242
What are the signs of common peroneal nerve palsy?
- Complete or partial foot drop ± numbness
243
What is the treatment of common peroneal nerve palsy?
o Exclude L5 radiculopathy o Treat underlying cause o Physiotherapy o Splints
244
How do you differentiate between a surgical vs medical third nerve palsy?
o Parasympathetic fibres on outside of nerve therefore more susceptible to compression o Autonomic involvement = blown pupil o Usually needs imaging
245
What are the medical causes of oculomotor palsy?
microangiopathic (HTN, T2DM)
246
What are some surgical causes of oculomotor palsy?
berry aneurysm of posterior communicating artery (classic), basal skull fracture
247
Describe the pattern on mononeuritis multiplex
- Usually not length dependent or symmetrical Progressive motor and sensory deficit Most commonly caused by vasculitis
248
Describe symmetrical polyneuropathies
- Length dependent o Longer fibres affected first - Initially sensory, but eventually sensorimotor - Most common type of neuropathy - Mostly talking about large fibre polyneuropathies - Small fibre – often idiopathic, investigations may be normal, occasionally autoimmune
249
Define muscular dystrophy
A group of muscle diseases that result in increasing weakness and breakdown of skeletal muscles over time
250
Describe the mechanisms of muscular dystrophies
- Loss of structural proteins - Defective enzymes - Disruption of sarcolemma-repair mechanisms - Loss of signalling molecules - Noncoding region mutations - Defective post translational modifications
251
Describe muscular dystrophies
- Over 30 inherited diseases - Causing progressive weakness and wasting of muscles - Replacement of muscle tissue with fibrous connective tissue - Cardiac involvement, respiratory involvement seen in some - CNS tissues not usually affected
252
What is the classification of muscular dystrophies?
Historical classification - e.g. Duchenne muscular dystrophy Clinical phenotype – e.g. facioscapulohumeral dystrophy, dystrophia myotonica Based on inheritance – AD, AR, X-linked Underlying genetic cause – e.g. DMD – dystrophinopathy
253
What gene is implicated in Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD)?
- X-linked recessive – Xp21
254
Describe the pathophysiology of DMD
- Dystrophin localised at the sarcolemma – dystrophinopathy - Dystrophin links the ECM and cytoskeleton of each muscle fibre - Absence of dystrophin results not only reduced support in the muscle fibre but also results in excess calcium to penetrate sarcolemma o Due to alterations in calcium and signalling pathways – water enters mitochondria which burst o Results in a complex cascading process, oxidative stress within the cell damages the sarcolemma eventually causing cell death
255
How do you get Becker phenotype of DMD?
o Large deletions, duplications, and point mutations that disrupt the reading frame cause of absence of dystrophin – DMD o BMD phenotype occurs when dystrophin is produced but abnormal – in frame deletions o Exceptions to reading frame rule – point mutations in binding areas BMD is milder than DMD as dystrophin is still present
256
Describe DMD presentation
``` o Usually presents with motor delayed milestones o Wheelchair by 13 years old o Cardiac involvement (100% after 18) o Respiratory involvement o Survival beyond 30 is unusual ```
257
Describe Becker's muscular dystrophy
o Later onset and ambulant into 20s o Worse cardiac involvement o Mean age of death – mid 40s
258
Describe the treatment of DMD
o Supportive – MDT approach to promote function and independence o Scoliosis corrective surgery as children o Manage cardiac failure and arrythmias – Beta blockers, ACEi, transplantation o NIV and cough assistance/physio o Steroids o Gene therapy – anti sense oligonucleotides weekly s/c injections o Family support o Female carriers
259
What are the two different types of myotonic dystrophy?
- DM1 – 1 in 7,400 | - DM2 – less common
260
Describe the genetics of myotonic dystrophy
- Most common genetic disease of muscle - Autosomal dominant DMPK (DM1) - Codes for myotonic dystrophy protein kinase  CTG repeats  Normally 5-37  DM1 – Over 50 repeats ZNF9 (DM2)  CCTG  Normally 10-33  DM2 - usually around 5000 repeats
261
Describe anticipation in myotonic dystrophy
o Disease onset younger and more severe in each generation | o CTG is unstable, growing by 200 per generation
262
What is the most common presentation of DM1?
Myotonia most common presentation o Pronounced after rest o Eases with warm up o Cranial, trunk and distal muscles
263
Describe muscle wasting and weakness in DM1
o Ptosis, wasting of temporalis, masseter, facial weakness o Tongue weakness o Long finger flexors and ankle dorsiflexors o Ocular motility can be affected o Diaphragm weakness, respiratory failure
264
Describe cardiac symptoms in DM1
o Cardiac dysrhythmia 2nd leading cause of death o Heart block, atrial tachycardias, ventricular tachycardia o Progressive conduction defects o Heart failure not uncommon – rare under 40, 30% at 70yrs o Prospective risk of sudden death 1.1% per year
265
What ocular problem can you get in DM1?
Cataracts
266
Describe CNS symptoms in DM1
o Sleep disturbance o Behavioural and cognitive change o White matter changes on MRI – cause uncertain
267
Describe GI symptoms in DM1
o Gall bladder problems o Intestinal dysmotility  Urgency  Diarrhoea  Constipation
268
What cancers are patients with DM1 more at risk of?
o Thyroid, ovary, colon, endometrium, brain, eye
269
Describe hypogonadism in DM1
o Testicular atrophy o Reduced fertility o Erectile dysfunction
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What metabolic problems can you get in DM1?
o Diabetes, insulin resistance o High cholesterol and triglycerides o Abnormal LFTs – no action unless other symptoms o Balding – men and women
271
Describe the treatment of myotonic dystrophy
Myotonia o Anticonvulsants, mexiletine Pain o Analgesic ladder Monitor o EEG, Glucose, lipids, cataracts, respiratory failure Erectile dysfunction Genetic counselling
272
Briefly describe myasthenia gravis
- Prototypical disease of the neuromuscular junction - Antibody-mediated o Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibody identified and shown to pathogenic - Fatigable weakness
273
Describe the pathophysiology of MG
- Autoantibodies against acetylcholine receptors on post synaptic membrane o Produce complement mediated damage and increase the rate of AChR turnover - Leads to weakness and fatiguability of skeletal muscle - Thymus gland is involved in most patients - In a small proportion of patients who lack AChR antibodies, antibodies to muscle specific kinase (MuSK) or related proteins such as agrin can be found
274
How do you prove causality in MG as an antibody-mediated disease?
- Antibodies present at site of pathology (i.e. the NMJ) - Antibodies from MG patients cause MG symptoms when injected into rodents - Immunisation of animals (i.e. with Ach) reproduces the disease - Therapies that remove antibodies ameliorate the disease
275
Describe the epidemiology of MG
- UK – 15 per 100,000 - Europe – 4.5-10 per 100,000 - USA – 20 per 100,000 - Relatively rare - More females than males at young age o Although more men later in live o Biphasic and bimodal curve
276
Describe pure ocular MG
o Ptosis o Diplopia o Pupil always spared o Must follow up to ensure it doesn’t progress to generalised MG
277
What crises can occur in MG?
o Myasthenic crisis | o Cholinergic crisis
278
What investigations should be undertaken for suspected MG?
``` Clinical examination Antibody tests EMG CT thorax Tensilon test ```
279
What should you look for on clinical examination of MG?
Muscle fatigue
280
What antibody tests should be ordered for MG?
AChR - positive in 80% generalised, 50% ocular Anti-MuSK - in 7% No antibodies in 7% Thyroid - to rule out thyroid conditions
281
What would see on an EMG of an MG patient?
o Decrement – train of stimuli (electrophysiological fatigability) o Single fibre EMG – Jitter (95% sensitive)
282
What are you looking for on a CT thorax of an MG patient?
o Look for thymoma (usually benign tumour)
283
What is a tensilon test?
Adminsitering edrophonium o AChE inhibitor o Can temporarily reverse MG signs o Administered IV and in a double-blind fashion o Not done anymore as can cause symptomatic bradycardia
284
What are the treatment principles in MG?
o Increase the synaptic cleft acetylcholine concentration o Avoiding immune mediated end-plate damage o Removing antibodies and their production
285
Describe first line management of generalised MG?
Association of British Neurologist Guidelines 2015: (5) - Pyridostigmine + Prednisolone (if still symptomatic) acutely - Prednisolone at lowest effective dose to maintain remission - Alternative immunosuppression only introduced if there is failure to respond to prednisolone, or due to significant side effects
286
What is pyridostigmine?
Anti cholinesterase inhibitor
287
What is second and third line therapies for maintaining remission in MG?
Second line  Azathioprine – slow working  Mycophenolate  Methotrexate Third line  Cyclosporin  Rituximab
288
What is the treatment of a myasthenia crisis?
o Intravenous immunoglobulin o Maximise steroids o Plasma exchange o Ventilation
289
Describe the prognosis of MG
- Generally good but improvement takes months - Risk of iatrogenic side effects - 10% have brittle disease that can be very difficult to manage
290
What is Guillain-barre syndrome?
- It’s a neuropathy - Acute (rare for a neuropathy) - Usually demyelinating (and potentially treatable) - Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
291
What is the presentation of GBS?
- ¬Acute ascending symmetric weakness hour to days, at its worst by 4 weeks - Pain in 2/3rds - LMN ± mild sensory signs - Facial weakness ± other CN signs in ½ - Respiratory weakness 1/3 - Bulbar involvement ½ - CVS instability 2/3 - (Sphincter signs) – rare in GBS but can happen
292
Describe lumbar puncture findings in GBS
- First thing to become abnormal o Compared to NCS - CSF: Usually <5 WCC, protein <0.45 g/L, glucose >2/3rds blood concentration - In GBS – protein elevated but normal cells
293
Describe NCS findings in GBS
- F wave first to become abnormal in an NCS | - Test of the conduction of the most proximal part of the nerve
294
Describe the pathology of GBS
- “Friendly fire” - T-cells mistakenly identify myelin epitopes as foreign “molecular mimicry” - Both cellular and humoral mechanisms - Interleukon-2 and TNF may be involved - Cytokine attract macrophages attack myelin - Complement-fixing anti-myelin antibodies are present - Ganglioside antibodies – attack axons
295
How is the diagnosis of GBS made?
- What is it? o Clinical o Lumbar puncture o NCS after first week (can be normal, or delayed F waves) – can inform progress - What isn’t it? o Consider MRI to exclude acute cord lesion - What is complicating it? o Measure FVC o ECG - What’s the antibody? o Ganglioside antibodies (special circumstances)
296
What is a GBS chameleon?
A condition that is GBS but doesn't look like it - it presents atypically
297
Name some GBS chameleons
- AMAN etc - Miller-fisher syndrome - Bickerstaff’s - Pharyngeal-cervical-brachial - Paraparetic
298
What two types of complications can you get in GBS?
- Respiratory | - Cardiac
299
Describe the treatment of GBS
Intravenous immunoglobulin or plasmapheresis if unable to walk o Most people Best supportive care o Respiratory support in 1/3 o Arrhythmias o NG feeding Prevent/treat secondary complications o LMWH, infections, pain etc
300
Are steroids effective in GBS?
Steroids ineffective | o (GBS steroid trial group. Lancet 1993)
301
Describe the prognosis of GBS
- Most patients fully recover - >60% but can take up to 18 months - Death <5% - Residual disability - Poor prognostic factors – age, diarrhoea, weak arms (time to max disability?) - Recurrent GBS 2-5% - does this exist?
302
What is CIDP?
- Chronic inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy | - It’s demyelinating not axonal (potentially treatable)
303
Describe the classical CIDP patient
- Like GBS but slower - Like GBS but relapses - Behaves more like a normal neuropathy - Not usually prodrome or the dramatic respiratory failure - LMN signs - LP high protein, NCS demyelination - Treatable with immunosuppressants
304
What is the different definitions of GBS and CIDP?
- Guillain-Barre syndrome progresses to nadir in <4weeks - CID progresses to nadir in >8 weeks - Between 4 and 8 weeks = Subacute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy A spectrum?
305
Describe the presentation of CIDP
- Slowly progressive – at least 8 weeks to nadir in 2/3 - Relapsing in 1/3 - Can present acutely - Symmetrical or asymmetrical - Gait problems - ICP headaches - LMN signs as in GBS - Large fibre sensory signs more frequent - Bulbar symptoms less frequent - Facial weakness and ophthalmoparesis can occur - Autonomic symptoms and respiratory weakness can occur - Can rarely be fatal - Many variants
306
Describe investigations of CIDP
- Similar to GBS - Look for alternative causes of demyelinating neuropathy o Paraproteins o Inherited o Drugs o HIV - NCS more useful - Antibodies can be useful in variants (e.g. anti-MAG) - Consider CMT genetics - Rarely nerve biopsy
307
What is the treatment for for CIDP?
- Evidence for steroids (Pred 60, or pulsed dex, van Schaik et al, Lancet neurol 2012) - Steroid-sparing agents may be used (azathioprine, mycophenolate, methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, cyclosporin) - IV immunoglobulin, PE
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Describe the prognosis of CIDP
- Relapsing better than progressive? - 70% recover well from relapses - 90% respond to treatment initially, 70% sustained - Mortality - Chronic disease - Much is unknown
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Describe the pathophysiology of CIDP
- Precise mechanism unknown - Cellular and humoral mechanisms - Perivascular inflammation with macrophages and lymphocytes - Evidence of chronic demyelination/remyelination on biopsies o Onion bulbs
310
What are the presenting features of vasculitis of the CNS?
- Based on 70 consecutive neurology cases - Systemically unwell (57%) - Headache (46%) - Stroke like episodes (41%) - Additional organ involvement (27%) - Mononeuropathy multiplex (17%) - Cranial nerve palsies (11%) - Seizures (11%) - Purely cognitive (5%) - Muscle involvement (3%)
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What are some common neurological presenting features of vasculitis?
- Headaches - Stroke like episodes/focal neurological deficit - Encephalopathic o Confusion, agitation, decreased level of consciousness - Foot drop/asymmetric neuropathy
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Name some types of vasculitis
- Based on 70 neurology cases - Isolated to CNS (26%) - Giant cell arteritis (23%) - Wegener’s spectrum (18%) - Associated with CTD (11%) - Isolated pachymeningitis (6%) - Churg Strauss (5%) - Isolated to PNS (3%) - PAN (2%) - Takayasu’s’ (2%)
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Name some differential diagnoses of vasculitis
- CNS infection o HSE, TB, viral encephalitis, HIV - CNS malignancy o Malignant meningitis, lymphomas - Venous sinus thrombosis - Subarachnoid haemorrhage/vasospasm - Embolic strokes due to SBE - Reversible cerebral vasoconstriction
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What are some secondary causes of CNS vasculitis?
- HIV, Varicella zoster, TB, syphilis, Hep C - In association with malignancies - In association with connective tissue diseases
315
What would find on blood tests of someone with CNS vasculitis?
- Raised inflammatory markers at baseline - ESR (80%) - CRP (70%) - Low albumin (57%) - High platelet count (46%) - But up to 20% - no abnormalities
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What immunology results would you find in a CNS vasculitis patient?
- One or more abnormalities in <50% - Rheumatoid factor - P or C ANCA - Lots of patients have MGUS o Monoclonal gammopathy of underdetermined significance o Asymptomatic o Premalignant condition
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What would find on a LP in a patient with CNS vasculitis?
- Abnormal in up to 80% of patients with CNS vasculitis - Raised protein most common (50%) - Lymphocytes (25%) - OCBs (20%) - Matched bands (25%) - Blood (15%)
318
What general observations can be made about imaging in CNS vasculitis?
- If the MRI scan is normal it is highly unlikely that the patient has CNS vasculitis o 100% sensitivity in biopsy proven cases - MRI usually normal in GCA at presentation - Imaging the arteries (MRA, CTA, 4 vessel angiogram) can be helpful but an abnormal result does not diagnose CNS vasculitis - DWI can be helpful in dating vasculitic strokes
319
Describe the evidence surrounding MRI vs angiogram in CNS vasculitis
- 18 patients with biopsy proven CNS vasculitis - All had abnormal MRI - Only 65% have abnormal angiograms (Pomper et al, AJNR, 1999) - In other series the sensitivity of angiograms was as low as 20% - Angiograms not helpful in small vessel vasculitis
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When should a patients with suspected vasculitis receive a brain biopsy?
- In patients with suspected primary angiitis of the CNS but with inconclusive imaging
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What is the sensitivity and safety of brain biopsies?
- Sensitivity is somewhere between 53-74%, but can be increased to over 80% by targeting areas of imaging abnormalities - Not always positive but may reveal different underlying cause on further examination - Relatively safe and effective o (Beuker et al, Therapeutic advances in neurological disorders, 2018)
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What are some precipitant factors of reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome?
o Drugs e.g. cannabis, cocaine, amphetamines but also ergotamine, SSRI, IVIgs o Pregnancy and puerperium o Idiopathic
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What are some distinguishing features of reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome
``` o Female predominance o Acute onset of headache (mimics SAH) o Usually no prodromal illness o Usually no focal neurology o Abnormal angiogram or CTA or MRA o Usually normal MRI but may have cortical SAH, intracerebral bleed, or CVA ```
324
What did Ducros et al study?
67 consecutive cases of cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome over 3 years ``` o Spontaneous in 37% o Cannabis use in 32% o SSRI use in 21% o Postpartum in 12% o Cortical SAH in 22% o Intracerebral haemorrhage in 6% o Angiograms normal by 3 months (Brain, 2007) ```
325
What is better for monitoring CNS vasculitis - MRI vs Angiogram?
- Some angiographic changes in vasculitis are permanent so not good for monitoring - May be useful in reversible cerebral vasoconstriction syndrome as by definition angiography becomes normal by 3 months (without any treatment) - MRI much more sensitive but beware of timing or MRI vs clinical state of patient
326
What is the treatment of CNS vasculitis?
- Should be tailored to each case - Cyclophosphamide is not always essential - Adjust frequency of pulses according to patient’s clinical state - Avoid using steroids for too long - Mycophenolate seem the best choice for maintaining remission - Rituximab for resistant cases
327
Describe the cerebellum
- The little brain - The number of neurons in the cerebellum (100 billion) exceeds the total number in the remaining parts of the brain - Contains complete motor and sensory representation of the whole body - Controls the timing and pattern of motor activation during movement - Dysfunction causes ataxia (Greek for lack of order)
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What are the outputs of the cerebellum?
Purkinje cells are the only output
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What are some symptoms of cerebellar dysfunction?
- Slurring of speech (staccato speech) - Oscillopsia (not very common) - Sensation that the surrounding environment is moving when it is not - Clumsiness (arms and legs) - Loss of precision of movement - Intention tremor - Unsteadiness when walking - Falls - Unsteadiness worse in the dark - Cognitive problems
330
What are the signs of cerebellar dysfunction?
- Gait ataxia - Truncal ataxia - Limb ataxia - Action tremor - Dysdiadochokinesia - Nystagmus - Dysarthria
331
What are the classifications of ataxias?
- Congenital ataxias E.g. cerebellar dysgenesis - Diseases where ataxia is one of many features - Usually autosomal recessive disorders - Episodic ataxias (e.g. EA1, 2) - Autosomal recessive ataxias (e.g. FA) - Autosomal dominant ataxias (SCAs) - Sporadic ataxias (e.g. MSA-C, gluten ataxia)
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What ataxias are not included in the classification?
Ataxias due to structural damage are not included in the classification
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What things would you include in an ataxia history?
``` o Age of onset o Rate of progression o Additional features (genito-urinary, postural) o Pattern of involvement o Detailed family history o Alcohol intake o Exposure to drugs toxic to cerebellum ```
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What would you include in an ataxia examination?
o Eye involvement (nystagmus, broken pursuit) o Limb ataxia o Gait ataxia o Symmetrical vs unilateral o Evidence of peripheral neuropathy or sensory o Neuronopathy (e.g. sensory ataxia) o Evidence of postural blood pressure fall
335
What does imaging with MRI exclude in ataxia?
 Cerebrovascular damage (posterior circulation stroke)  Primary tumours  Secondary tumours  Hydrocephalus  MS (Primary progressive)  White matter involvement in leukodystrophy  Cerebellar dysgenesis/malformations
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What is the most common causes of sporadic ataxia? Include evidence
idiopathic sporadic ataxia Sheffield ataxia clinic 1996-2010, total of 640 patients assessed
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Name some causes of sporadic ataxia
- Most common – idiopathic sporadic ataxia - Gluten ataxia - Clinically probable MSA-C - Genetic diagnosis - Alcohol related - Paraneoplastic ataxia - Anti-GAD associated ataxia - Least common – opsoclonus myoclonus
338
Define gluten sensitivity
A state of heightened immunological responsiveness to ingested gluten in genetically susceptible individuals (Marsh 1995)
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Do you have to enteropathy to gluten sensitive?
No | Spectrum of mucosal damage ranges from normal to hypoplastic atrophic (Marsh Scanning Mricrosc, 1988)
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What are the neurological manifestations of gluten sensitivity? (From 694 patients seen in gluten/neurology clinic 1994-2014)
- Ataxia most common - Peripheral neuropathy o Sensorimotor axonal neuropathy o Sensory ganglionopathy - Encephalopathy - Myoclonic ataxia (hyperexcitable brain) - Less common manifestations o Myopathy, myelopathy, epilepsy, chorea, migratory neuritis, stiff person syndrome
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What is gluten ataxia?
- Sporadic idiopathic ataxia but some familial cases described - Presence of serological markers of sensitivity to gluten
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Describe the prevalence of gluten ataxia
Based on antigliadin antibodies o 15% of all ataxias o 42% of all idiopathic sporadic ataxias o 12% of genetically characterised ataxias o 12% in healthy controls
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What is the treatment of gluten ataxia?
Dietary treatment o Improvement of ataxia within a year of strict gluten free diet even in those patients without enteropathy o (Hadjivassiliou et al, J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry, 2003)
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Describe gluten neuropathy
- Symmetrical sensorimotor length dependent neuropathy - Accounts for 26% of all neuropathies and 34% of idiopathic neuropathies - Neuropathy was found in 21% of patients with known coeliac disease on gluten free diet
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What is the effect of a gluten free diet on gluten neuropathy?
o Neurophysiological evidence of improvement of the neuropathy within a year of adherence to a strict gluten free diet o Irrespective of the presence of enteropathy o (Hadjivassiliou et al, Dietary treatment of gluten neuropathy, Muscle and Nerve 2006)
346
Describe gluten encephalopathy
- Episodic often severe and intractable headaches rarely with focal deficits - White matter abnormalities on MRI - Headache improves on gluten free diet; the white matter changes do not progress but do not resolve either
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What did neurological examination of established coeliac patients show?
- Study on 33 consecutive patients with established CD - All patients underwent neurological examination and brain imaging - Abnormal cerebellar MR spectroscopy in over 50% - Significantly less cerebellar volume when compared to controls
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What a did a 3 year prospective study of newly diagnosed coeliac patients show>
- All patients underwent neurological examination followed by brain imaging - 100 consecutive patients - 61% had neurological symptoms o 45% headache, 26% balance, 14% sensory - 42% had evidence of neurological dysfunction on clinical examination o 38% evidence of cerebellar dysfunction including 9 with nystagmus, 5% sensory signs and 1 had myoclonus - Imaging o 44% had abnormal MR spectroscopy of the cerebellum (3% controls) o 56% of patients with abnormal MRs had clinical evidence of balance problems
349
What are the differences between CD patients presenting with ataxia vs GI symptoms?
- Patients presenting with neurological symptoms are likely to be diagnosed with CD much later (61 vs 47 years) - They are neurologically more severely affected at the time of presentation (clinical and imaging) - Diet has a stabilising effect, but they remain disabled if they had the ataxia for many years
350
Why might a patient with classical GI presentation of GI may have less neurological deficit?
Patients with the classical GI presentation have the advantage of early diagnosis and thus prevention of extraintestinal manifestations
351
Define non-coeliac gluten sensitivity
Patients who benefit (GI or neurological symptoms) from a gluten free diet in the absence of enteropathy
352
What proportion of gluten neurology patients have gluten enteropathy on biopsy?
- Only 41% of the neurology patients have enteropathy on biopsy - 37% no enteropathy but have the HLA DQ2 or DQ8 (potential CD) - 22% no enteropathy and HLA other than DQ2/DQ8 Distribution of ataxia in the 3 groups was similar
353
What is the autoantigen in CD?
Transglutaminase 2
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What is the autoantigen in dermatitis herpetiformis?
TG3
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What is thought to be the autoantigen in gluten ataxia?
TG6 o 73% of patients with positive antigliadin antibodies and ataxia were also positive for TG6 o 40% of UK patients with newly diagnosed CD were positive for anti-TG6 but only 14% in a Finish cohort of patients with CD
356
What is the role of semicircular canals?
o Provide sensory input about head velocity | o Enables vestibula-ocular (VOR) to generate eye movements that matches the velocity of the head movement
357
What is the role of otolith organs?
o Register forces related to linear acceleration o Utricle – horizontal translation with constant centre of gravity o Saccule – vertical translation with shifting centre of gravity
358
What reflexes does the balance system generate?
- Both generate the vestibulospinal reflex and the vestibulocollic reflex
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What components (other than the vestibule) make up the balance system?
o Processing of balance perception is a central process o Starts from the vestibular nerve o Is a complex interplay between the optical system, the proprioceptive system, the motor system and the cognitive centres
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What is the functions of the balance system?
- Maintains posture | - Produces kinetic contractions to generate ocular stability and helps maintain muscle tone
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What is the main principles of assessing the balance system?
- Distinguish between central and peripheral causes of imbalance - Formulation of effective management regimen including compensation, adaptation and habituation protocols with customised rehabilitation exercises - Particle repositioning manoeuvres - Exclusion/inclusion of vestibular pathology in solitary/multifactorial conditions
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What should be included in a balance history?
``` Different presentations Type - vertigo or otherwise Duration LOC Trigger Postural instability Visual vertigo ```
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What are the difference presentations of balance disorders?
``` o Episodic o Sustained o Visual vertigo o Positional o Oscillopsia o Hearing o Central symptoms/ataxia o Headache o Postural instability ```
364
What does an episodic presentation of a balance disorder suggest?
Vestibular pathology
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What does loss of consciousness in a balance disorder suggest?
Non-vestibular pathology
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What triggers are suggestive of vestibular pathology?
Movement, aural pressure changes and darkness induced
367
What suggests postural hypotension as a cause of a balance disorder?
Triggered by movement from dependent position
368
What is a headache in a balance disorder suggestive of?
Suggestive of migraine variant
369
What is postural instability in a balance disorder suggestive of?
Suggestive of TIA or central syndromes
370
How are the semi-circular canals examined?
``` o Nystagmus o Head impulse test o Provocation tests o Head shake test o Dynamic visual acuity ```
371
How is the CNS examined in balance disorders?
o Non-vestibular nystagmus o Pursuits and saccades o VOR cancel
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How are otolith organs examined?
o Head heave test o Subjective visual vertical o Ocular counter rolling o Skew deviation
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What are the vestibulo spinal/cervical tests?
``` o Romberg tests o Unterberger and Fukuda – Stepping on spot with eyes closed o Quix and Barany tests o Gait tests o Lateral flexion ```
374
What are the characteristics of vestibular nystagmus?
- Usually horizontal with fast and a quick phase - May have a latent period - Sustained by does not change direction on gaze eccentricities and may fatigue after some time - Follows Alexander’s law o Nystagmus is increased with the eyes directed to the fast phase direction o E.g. down in a downbeat nystagmus - Abolished or decreased by optic fixation - Does not rebound on spontaneous gaze - Any nystagmus or eye movement which does not follow the above may be central
375
What are the investigations of balance disorders?
- Pure Tone Audiometry (PTA), Tympanometry and Otoacoustic Emissions (OAE) o To assess the function of the ear - Quantification of vestibular hypofunction – Videonystagmography o Nystagmus o Dix Hallpike test – to exclude BPPV o Caloric tests – tests function of lateral semi-circular canals o Smooth pursuit and saccades - Rotatory chair tests and video head impulse test (vHIT) - Dynamic posturography for assessing central sensory organisation o Also useful for prognosis - Subjective visual vertical and Visual evoked myogenic potential (VEMP) o Assesses otolith function - Imaging studies – CT, MRI, Doppler - Blood tests when indicated
376
What can cause the decompensation or manifestation of balance disorders?
- Poor eye/head stabilisation - Inadequate/inappropriate CNS activity - Psychological dysfunction/age - Medicines/illness - Inadequate/impaired musculoskeletal activity - Impaired/inappropriate CNS balance strategies - Impaired sensory inputs - Fluctuating vestibular activity - Disordered perception of stability
377
Describe the epidemiology of balance disorders
- 17% at all ages, 40% from 60yrs - 26% are disabled - 40% are otological - 33% of falls due to peripheral vestibular problem
378
Name the 5 major subtypes of peripheral vestibular disorders
- Acute vestibular event o Infection or vascular - Intermittent decompensation following acute event o Traumatic fibrosis, tumour, space occupying lesion - Paroxysmal irritation of the vestibular system o BPPV, endolymphatic hydrops, vestibular paroxysmia, cervical causes - Mal De Debarquement (MDD) like syndrome and visual vertigo - Bilateral vestibular failure
379
Name some causes of peripheral vestibular disorders
- Inflammation - Trauma - Infection - Tumour - Idiopathic - Degeneration - Ototoxic - Others – e.g. hyperviscosity, anaemia, metabolic
380
What is the relative prevalence of different peripheral vestibular disorders according to Brandt and Strupp 2004
- Benign paroxysmal positioning vertigo (18.3%) - Phobic postural vertigo (PPV) (15.9%) - Vestibular migraine (9.6%) - Vestibular neuritis (7.9%) - Meniere’s disease (7.8%) - Bilateral vestibulopathy (3.6%) - Psychogenic vertigo (3.6%) - Vestibular paroxysmia (2.9%)
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What is an acute vestibular event?
infection, inflammatory, vascular or SOL – sudden onset lasting for days followed by intermittent and episodic if decompensated o Includes neuritis, labyrinthitis and TIA
382
Describe BPPV
Sudden onset, intermittent, positional lasting few seconds, recurrent and 7 types
383
Describe endolymphatic hydrops
sudden onset lasting for minutes to days, fluctuating with audiological features
384
Describe vestibular paroxysmia
sudden and pole axing lasting for few seconds, due to vestibular neuralgia as a result of compression in cerebellar pontine angle
385
What is migraine variant vertigo?
migrainous features with dizziness lasting for minutes to hours with other autonomic features
386
What is Mal de Debarquement?
sensation of rocking after travel, possible otolith related
387
What are the clinical features of central vestibular/balance disorders?
- Chronic non episodic dizziness as difficult decompensation - Alleviated on eye closure - Neurological signs and central derangements of VOR control - Ataxia or movement disorders including tremors - May show signs of peripheral vestibular insufficiency in AICA infarction - Diagnosis by imaging and specific blood markers if indicated - Treatment of cause and physiotherapy o Vestibular physiotherapy effective in 30%
388
What is psychogenic vertigo?
- With or without overt vestibular or central illness - Associated with somatisation - Continuous feeling of dizziness - Includes phobic postural vertigo and anxiety related vertigo - Treated by management of psychiatric condition if any, stress and relaxation exercises and CBT
389
What are the management principles of balance disorders?
- Treatment of active or acute condition with anti-labyrinthine medication or anti migraine therapy - Carbamazepine for vestibular neuralgia - Customised vestibular and frequency and site-specific rehabilitation - Particle repositioning for BPPV - Treatment for cause for decompensation - Surgery for space occupying lesions, vestibular paroxysmia - Stress management and CBT
390
What is the current state of management of balance disorders?
- Paucity of dedicated vestibular services with limited access to integrated MDT - Referrals primarily directed to specialities with general training in vestibular sciences - Unavailability of dedicated medical expertise to patients presenting in a general service - An average of 4.5 physician visits per patient before receiving correct diagnosis - Cost of delay is significant – circa £2000 per patient - (Data from RCP London)