MED627 - Cerebrovascular Disease and Disorders of Consciousness Flashcards

1
Q

Define transient loss of consciousness

A
  • Spontaneous LOC with complete recovery

- TLOC/blackout/syncope

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2
Q

Describe the epidemiology of TLOC

A
  • Increases with age
  • Increase in incidence rate was steeper starting at 70yrs
  • Rates similar among men and women
  • Survival worst for patients with cardiovascular disease
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3
Q

What are the clinical challenges of TLOC?

A
  • Main witness unconscious
  • Eyewitness account unreliable but essential
  • Unpredictable, hence difficult to record
  • Occasionally life threatening
  • Driving restrictions, health and safety
  • Initial diagnosis often inaccurate - Results in a delay
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4
Q

What are the risks of TLOC?

A

Can be the first symptom of fatal arrhythmia - >100,000 deaths every year in the UK

Sudden deaths often attributed to cardiac arrhythmias - Inherited cardiomyopathies in people under the age of 30

Syncope may result in injuries to patients or others as a result of accidents

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5
Q

Name some differentials of TLOC

A

Neurally mediated (reflex) syncope
o Vasovagal
o Situational – cough/micturition
o Carotid sinus hypersensitivity

Cardiac syncope

Neurological
o	Epilepsy 
o	Sleep disorders
o	Raised ICP
o	Psychogenic non epileptic attacks 

Orthostatic hypotension
o Drugs
o Neurodegenerative disorders

Metabolic disorders

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6
Q

What would you include in a history following a TLOC?

A
Before the attack
o	Any warning? – typical aura
o	Any provoking features
o	Associated symptoms
o	In what circumstances the attacks occur 
o	Can the attacks be prevented?
During the attack
o	Actual LOC
o	Duration of attack
o	Change in complexion 
o	Verbal/tactile responsiveness
o	Movement/limb jerking
o	Injuries
o	Pulse
o	(Tongue biting and urine incontinence) – only indicative of epilepsy if very severe 
After an attack
o	Recovery – rapid/prolonged
o	Confused or sleepy
o	The duration
o	How much does the patient remember?
o	(muscle pain)

Frequency

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7
Q

Describe vasovagal syncope

A
  • No comprehensive theory for vasovagal syncope
  • 0.5% of the population faint per annum (women>men)
  • 1:200 referrals to A&E
  • 75,000 attendances per annum in UK
  • Posture, provocation, prodromal
  • Convulsive movements common
  • Diagnosis depends on history
  • Lack of post-ictal confusion, hearing people around you before you can respond and recurrence of blackout on regaining upright posture helpful in diagnosis
  • Common sense
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8
Q

Describe micturition syncope

A
  • Fainting shortly after or during urination
  • Micturition involves relaxation, not straining unless (male patient) has an enlarged prostate or stricture
  • Role of pelvic venous plexus
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9
Q

Describe cardiac syncope and give an example

A
  • Temporary but sudden reduction in blood supply and hence oxygen to the brain as a result of cardiovascular conditions
  • The temporary but sudden reduction in blood supply triggering syncope is caused by vasodilation, hypotension, arrhythmia
  • The onset of syncope is relatively rapid and recovery from LOC is spontaneous, complete and usually prompt
  • E.g. Long QT syndrome
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10
Q

What suggests epilepsy as the underlying cause of TLOC?

A
  • Description of an aura - Patient normally finds it difficult to describe
  • Brief attack
  • Prolonged post ictal confusion
  • Head turning or posturing of body
  • Stiffening of body and myoclonic jerking (not oscillation)
  • Abnormal behaviour of which patients do not remember
  • Severe tongue biting
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11
Q

What suggests a diagnosis of NEAD in a history? And what suggests a diagnosis of epilepsy?

A
NEAD
o	Scant description from patient
o	Frequent or long seizures
o	Different types of seizures
o	Crying during recovery
Epilepsy
o	Injury
o	Tongue biting
o	Incontinence
o	Seizures in sleep
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12
Q

Describe NEAD

A
  • Common – more likely to witness NEAD than an epileptic seizure
  • Gradual onset, undulating motor activity with pauses
  • Sinusoidal and asynchronous arm and leg movements
  • Prolonged atonia, rhythmic pelvic movements, side to side head movements
  • Post ictal crying, high anxiety in carers
  • Prolonged attack with prolonged/unexpected sudden recovery
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13
Q

How do you make of a diagnosis of NEAD?

A

o Description/nature of seizure changes with time – good documentation
o Unusually frequent, drug-unresponsive seizures, sometimes provoked by stress
o History of somatoform/multiple unexplained symptoms, multiple surgical procedures
o History of personality disorder, alcohol abuse, self har, parasuicide, childhood abuse, psychiatric treatment
o Video the attack

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14
Q

What are the risks of misdiagnosing NEAD?

A

o Inappropriate treatment – risk of adverse effects of anti-epileptic drugs, including teratogenicity
o Ineffective treatment – when there is an effective treatment
o Reinforcement of abnormal illness behaviour
 Evolution of functional symptoms
 Incapacity
 Financial and social dependency

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15
Q

What are some suitable investigations following a TLOC?

A

ECG
o Rule out cardiac causes
o Always do it

EEG
o Not normally used to distinguish epilepsy from other TLOC
o Non-specific abnormalities common
o Very useful if it captures the event

Neuroimaging
o Not normally used to distinguish epilepsy from other TLOC
o Nonspecific and co-incidental abnormalities common

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16
Q

Define seizure

A

the clinical manifestation of an abnormal, excessive excitation and synchronization of a population of cortical neurons

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17
Q

Define epilepsy

A

a tendency to recurrent seizures >24hrs apart which are not provoked by systemic or acute neurologic insults

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18
Q

What is an EEG?

A
  • Electroencephalography
  • Records cortical electrical activity – usually from the scalp
  • Most important neurophysiological study for the diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment of epilepsy
  • Electrodes usually attached in the 10/20 system
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19
Q

Briefly describe the 1981 ILAE classification of seizures

A

Partial

  • Simple partial
  • Complex partial
  • Secondarily generalised

Generalised

  • Absence
  • Myoclonic
  • Atonic
  • Tonic
  • Tonic-clonic
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20
Q

Describe absence seizures

A
  • Type of generalised seizure
  • Brief staring spells with impairment of awareness
  • 3-20 seconds
  • Sudden onset and sudden resolution
  • Often provoked by hyperventilation
  • Onset typically between 4 and 14 years of age, and resolve by age 18
  • Normal development and intelligence
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21
Q

What EEG finding would be seen during an absence seizure?

A

Generalised 3 Hz spike-wave discharges

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22
Q

Describe myoclonic seizures

A
  • Generalised
  • Brief, shock-like jerk of a muscle or group of muscle
  • Differentiate from benign, non-epileptic myoclonus (e.g. when falling asleep)
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23
Q

What EEG finding would be seen during a myoclonic seizure?

A

Generalised 4-6 Hz polyspike-wave discharges

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24
Q

Describe tonic seizures

A
  • Symmetric, tonic muscle contraction of extremities with tonic flexion of waist and neck
  • Not the same as the tonic phase of a tonic clonic seizures
  • Duration – 2-20 seconds
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25
Q

What EEG finding would be seen during a tonic seizure?

A

Sudden attenuation with generalised, low-voltage fast activity (most common) or generalised polyspike-wave

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26
Q

Describe atonic seizures

A
  • Sudden loss of postural tone
  • When severe often results in falls
  • When milder produces head nods or jaw drops
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27
Q

What EEG finding would be seen during a atonic seizure?

A

Sudden diffuse attenuation or generalised-polyspike wave

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28
Q

Described generalised tonic clonic seizures

A
  • Associated with loss of consciousness and post-ictal confusion/lethargy
  • Duration – 30-120 seconds
  • Tonic phase – stiffening and fall, often associated with ictal cry (caused by stiffening of pharynx muscles
  • Clonic phase – rhythmic extremity jerking
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29
Q

What EEG finding would be seen during a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

A

generalised polyspikes

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30
Q

Describe simple partial seizures

A
  • Same thing as an aura
  • Patient aware throughout
  • Diverse range, leading to diagnostic challenges
  • Symptoms depend on where in the brain is affected
    o Somatosensory
    o Motor
    o Visual/ auditory/ olfactory
    o Autonomic sensations
    o Psychic/ experiential
    o Clonic seizure
  • Seizure always the same for the patient – it does not change from seizure to seizure
  • Patients usually struggle to describe what happens
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31
Q

Describe complex partial seizures

A
  • Impaired consciousness – loss of awareness
  • Clinical manifestations vary with site of origin and degree of spread
    o Presence and nature of aura
    o Automatisms – semi purposeful movement
    o Other motor activity
  • Duration typically <2 minutes
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32
Q

Describe secondary generalised tonic clonic seizures

A
  • Begins focally, with or without focal neurological symptoms
  • Tonic and clonic phases with variable symmetry, typical duration 1-3 minutes
  • Post ictal confusion
  • Can have transient focal deficit after seizure – Todd’s paresis
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33
Q

What are epilepsy syndromes?

A
-	Grouping of patients that share similar
o	Seizure types
o	Age of onset
o	Natural history/prognosis
o	EEG patterns
o	Aetiology/ Genetics
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34
Q

What are epilepsy syndromes divided in to?

A

o Idiopathic – when the disorder was not associated with other neurological or neuropsychological abnormalities
o Symptomatic – when there was a neurological or neuropsychological abnormality, and the cause was known
o Cryptogenic – when there was a neurological or neuropsychological abnormality and the cause was unknown

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35
Q

Describe temporal lobe epilepsy

A
  • Common – temporal lobe most common location for localised seizure
  • Onset at any age
  • EEG shows temporal lobe epileptiform discharges
    o EEG changes when seizure not occurring
    o Not always seen
  • Simple partial, complex partial and secondary GTCS
  • May be symptomatic or cryptogenic
  • Hippocampus sclerosis can be a cause
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36
Q

Describe juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A
  • Juvenile onset
  • Myoclonic seizures, brief subtle absence, GTCS
  • Seizures have morning predominance, exacerbated by sleep deprivation and alcohol
  • Idiopathic
    o Otherwise well and neurologically intact
  • EEG shows generalised spike or polyspike/wave discharges
  • Often photosensitive (30-40%)
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37
Q

Describe West syndrome

A
  • Infantile onset
  • Hypsarrhythmic EEG
  • Infantile (epileptic spasms)
  • Cryptogenic vs symptomatic
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38
Q

Describe the development of epilepsy classification in 2010

A

Published in epilepsia 2010

  • Focal reconceptualised
    o Focal epileptic seizures are conceptualised as originating within networks limited to one hemisphere
    o These may be discretely localised or more widely distributed
  • Generalised reconceptualised
    o Generalised epileptic seizures are conceptualised as originating at some point within, and rapidly engaging, bilaterally distributed networks
    o Can include cortical and subcortical structures but not necessarily include the entire cortex
  • Introduced concept of networks
  • Language and structure for organising epilepsies
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39
Q

What was partial, simple partial and complex partial seizures changed to under the new classification (2010)?

A

Focal, focal with impaired awareness (for both simple and complex)

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40
Q

What was secondary generalised TCS changed to under the new classification (2010)?

A

Focal evolving to bilateral convulsive seizure

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41
Q

What was cryptogenic changed to under the new classification (2010)?

A

Unknown

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42
Q

What was symptomatic changed to under the new classification (2010)?

A

Structural/metabolic

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43
Q

What was idiopathic changed to under the new classification (2010)?

A

Genetic

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44
Q

What are the rules for classifying seizures (2017)?

A
  • Onset – Decide whether seizure onset is focal or generalised, using an 80% confidence level
  • Awareness – For focal seizures, decide whether to classify by degree of awareness or to omit awareness as a classifier
  • Impaired awareness at any point – a focal seizure is a focal impaired awareness seizure if awareness is impaired at any point during the seizure
  • Onset predominance – classify a focal seizure by its first prominent sign or symptom but do not count transient behaviour arrest
  • Behaviour arrest – A focal behavioural arrest seizure shows arrest of behaviour as the prominent feature of the entire seizure
  • Motor/non-motor – a focal aware or impaired awareness seizure maybe further sub-classified by motor or non-motor characteristics. Alternatively, a focal seizure can be characterised by motor or non-motor characteristics, with specifying level of awareness.
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45
Q

According to the 2017 classification of seizures, what are focal seizures now divided in to? Give examples

A

Motor onset

  • Automatisms
  • Atonic
  • Clonic
  • Epileptic spasms
  • Hyperkinetic
  • Myoclonic
  • Tonic

Non-motor onset

  • Autonomic
  • Behaviour arrest
  • Cognitive
  • Emotional
  • sensory
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46
Q

Describe EEG technique

A

Digital + video
o Patient is filmed – useful if they have a seizure

Electrodes
o Using 19 electrodes
o Prefrontal, Frontal, temporal, occipital, central regions
o Even numbers on right side of head, odd numbers on the left, zero (Z) in midline

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47
Q

Name some common variable seen in EEG

A
Age - EEG in child is chaotic
Artefacts - e.g. chewing
Conscious level - e.g. sleeping, anaesthetic 
Drugs
Cerebral pathology - e.g. cerebral palsy
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48
Q

Name some techniques that can be used to trigger a seizure when undertaking an EEG

A

Photic stimulation
o Strobe light used on patient
o If seizure triggered – photosensitive epilepsy

Hyperventilation
o Common trigger in childhood absence epilepsy

Sleep and sleep deprivation
o Sleep deprivation is known as a trigger of epilepsy

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49
Q

When can long-term monitoring be useful and describe the two types?

A
  • Useful if EEG is normal but seizures persist
  • Ambulatory
    o EEG monitoring for 24 or 48 hours
    o Takes measurements when not constricted to the examination room
  • Video-telemetry
    o EEG, microphone and camera set up around a hospital bed
    o Aim to capture 3 or more episodes to help diagnose epilepsy
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50
Q

What cannot an interictal EEG do?

A

o Exclude epilepsy

o Prove epilepsy

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51
Q

Describe the sensitivity of EEG

A
  • Poor sensitivity for routine wake EEGs – only around 50% of epileptic patients will have EEG changes on their first EEG
  • To increase yield
    o Sleep EEG increases sensitivity (80%)
    o Repeat wake and sleep EEG provides the best yield (92%) – but still not 100%
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52
Q

Describe the specificity of EEGs

A
  • Specificity of EEG (correctly excluding epilepsy) is better than sensitivity at around 78-98% (Smith, 2005)
  • EEG epileptiform is found in 0.5-4% of healthy adults
  • BUT population is not healthy
  • Other cerebral disease
    o Cerebrovascular disease, migraine, cerebral palsy Alzheimer’s disease
  • Drugs
    o Psychotropics
  • These factors can all cause abnormal EEGs
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53
Q

How is EEG useful for the classification of epilepsy?

A

Focal vs Generalised
o EEG can be helpful in determining whether the seizure is focal or generalised in origin
o Sometimes clinical diagnosis is difficult of focal seizures that cause a secondary generalised seizure

Syndrome identification
o Some types of epilepsies are classified into syndromes
o Use of EEG can identify a syndrome and help with specific treatment
o Inter-ictal, ictal and both

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54
Q

What is the role of EEG in the management of Status Epilepticus?

A

Convulsive
o Diagnosis if possibility of NEAD
o Monitoring of treatment if paralysed and ventilated

Non-convulsive
o Diagnosis
o Monitoring treatment

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55
Q

What is the role of EEG in the work up for epilepsy surgery?

A
  • EEG vs MRI abnormality
    o Does the EEG localise the seizure to the abnormality on EEG?
  • Epilepsy surgery only performed if high suspicion that an abnormality is the cause
  • EEG can help determine this
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56
Q

Describe the abuses of EEG in epilepsy

A
  • Monitoring of progress
    o Not usually helpful
    o EEG changes can still be present even if seizures well controlled
    o More useful to take history of seizure frequency
  • Anti-convulsant withdrawal in adults
  • Diagnosis in presence of intracerebral disease
  • Diagnosis where history is of syncope
  • Driving
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57
Q

Describe the EEG NICE guidelines

A
  • An EEG should be performed only to support a diagnosis of epilepsy in adults in whom the clinical history suggests that the seizure is likely to be epileptic in origin
  • An EEG should be performed only to support a diagnosis of epilepsy in children
    o If EEG considered necessary – should be performed after the second epileptic seizure
    o In certain circumstances, as evaluated by a specialist, it can be considered after a first epileptic seizure
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58
Q

What is rehabilitation medicine?

A
  • The process of helping a person reach the fullest physical/psychological/social/vocational/educational potential consistent with anatomic or physiological impairment, environmental limitations and desires and life plans
  • The process of active change by which a patient acquires knowledge and skills necessary for optimal physical, psychological and social function
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59
Q

What are some rehabilitation concepts?

A
  • Process of education and retraining
  • Disabled individual at the centre
  • Interdisciplinary approach
  • Goal setting is important
  • Concepts of activity (disability) and participation (handicap)
  • Role of personal and environmental factor
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60
Q

What is an acquired brain injury?

A
  • An injury to the brain, which is not hereditary, congenital, degenerative or induced by birth trauma
  • Injury to the brain that has occurred after birth
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61
Q

What are the types of acquired brain injury?

A
o	Traumatic brain injury (TBI)
o	Haemorrhagic brain injury (HBI)
o	Vascular brain injury (VBI)
o	Anoxic (and metabolic) brain injury (ABI)
o	Infective brain injury (IBI)
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62
Q

Define TBI

A
  • Defined as an alteration in brain function, or other evidence of brain pathology, caused by an external force (Common data elements 2013)
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63
Q

Describe the epidemiology of TBI

A
  • 1 million patients in the UK attend hospital every year
  • 50% are under 16
  • 275/100,000 are admitted every year
  • 10-20% likely to have some long-term disability
  • Physical recovery often better than cognitive or psychosocial recovery
  • About 1 in 4 adults with TBI is unable to return to work 1 year after injury
  • Annual acute care and rehab costs = $9-10 billion
    (NIH consensus development panel on rehabilitation 1999)
  • Estimated annual costs of survivors in 2000 = $60 billion (Finkelstein 2006)
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64
Q

Describe the aetiology of TBI

A
  • Leading cause – RTC (Approx 25-30%)
  • Falls - 30-35% (elderly)
  • Assaults – 9-10%
  • Sports and recreational – 10-20%
  • In USA – firearms (10%
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65
Q

What are contusions?

A
  • Bruising of the brain
  • Close to bony prominences
  • Inferior frontal and temporal poles
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66
Q

Describe diffuse axonal injury (DAI)

A
  • Severe rotation or deceleration force
  • Often RTC
  • Often loss of consciousness or prolonged low awareness
  • Little haemorrhage
  • Upon impact the neuron is stretched and compressed
  • Cell death may be delayed and not evident for up to 72 hours post injury
  • Only 20% seen on CT
  • Better seen on MRI
  • More widespread damage
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67
Q

What are the types of intracranial bleeds?

A
  • Extradural haematomas - Most dangerous but good recovery if drained
  • Subdural haematomas
  • Subarachnoid bleed
  • Intracerebral/intraventricular bleed
  • Basal skull fractures – infection, CSF leaks
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68
Q

What are the two mechanisms of injury in TBI?

A

Primary and Secondary

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69
Q

Describe primary injuries in TBI

A
injury at the moment of impact or immediately afterwards
o	Contusions, bleeding, skull fracture
o	Coup/contrecoup 
o	Stretch and shearing of neurons 
o	Limited scope for change
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70
Q

Describe secondary injuries in TBI

A

further injury caused by subsequent events including poor care
o Altered cerebral blood flow – autoregulation
o Hypotension – relation to ICP and CPP
o Release of neurotoxic compounds
 Cellular inflammatory response
 Cytokines
 Calcium influx
 Oxygen free radicals
o One episode of hypotension can increase mortality by 50%
o Hypoxia, hypotension, free radicals/cytokines/EAA, cerebral oedema, increase ICP, infection, hydrocephalus, herniation

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71
Q

When should a CT scan be performed within one hour of presentation with a TBI?

A
  • GCS <13 when first assessed or GCS <15 2 hours after injury
  • Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
  • Signs of base of skill fracture
  • Post-traumatic seizure
  • Focal neurological deficit
  • > 1 episode of vomiting
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72
Q

Describe the immediate management of TBI

A
  • ABCDE
  • Oxygenate/intubate
  • IV Fluids
  • Glucose
  • Seizures – diazepam PR/IV, consider prophylaxis
  • Drug or alcohol intoxication?
  • Electrolytes and acid base status
  • Sedation
  • Analgesia
  • Consult neurosurgeons/orthopaedics
  • CT scan once stable
  • Surgical treatment (<2%)
  • Treat ICP if suspected
  • Steroids have shown no benefits in acute TBI
  • Seizure prophylaxis beyond 1 week
  • Antibiotics or vaccine prophylaxis?
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73
Q

What should be given in the case of drug or alcohol intoxication? (Specifically to each drug)

A
o	Opioids – naloxone
o	Alcohol – thiamine 
o	Tricyclics (anticholinergics) – physostigmine 
o	Benzodiazepines – flumazenil 
Also do a toxic profile
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74
Q

How do you treat ICP?

A

o Mannitol/hypertonic saline
o CSF drain
o Tilt head by 30-40 degrees (better blood flow)

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75
Q

Describe the classification of head injuries

A

Mild

  • GCS 13-15
  • Coma <30mins
  • PTA <1hr

Moderate

  • GCS 9-12
  • Coma 30mins-6hrs
  • PTA 1-24hrs

Severe

  • GCS <9
  • Coma >6hrs
  • PTA >1day
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76
Q

Name some neurological sequelae of brain injury

A
  • Cranial nerves
    o Anosmia, vision, diplopia/strabismus, hearing and balance
  • Motor
    o Paralysis (mono-, hemi-, quadriplegia), ataxia, dyspraxia, tremor, spasticity
  • Sensory
    o Anaesthesia, pain syndromes
  • Autonomic
    o Bladder, bowels, cardiovascular, respiratory, gut, sexual function
  • Spinal cord injury
  • Peripheral nerve injury
  • Epilepsy
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77
Q

Name some cognitive changes after brain injury

A
  • Memory
  • Attention
  • Communication
  • Speed of processing
  • Visuospatial
  • Problem solving/planning
  • Mood/anxiety
  • Fatigue
  • Judgement
  • Emotional/behavioural control
  • Initiation of actions
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78
Q

Very briefly describe the evidence for early rehab following a brain injury

A
  • Strong (Grade A) evidence that intensive rehab leads to earlier functional gains
    o (Cochrane, RCT 351 studies)
  • Strong (Grade A) evidence that early rehabilitation leads to reduced length of stay in hospital and improved outcomes
    o (NSF Typology, Non-RCT 1905 studies)
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79
Q

Describe post-acute rehab following a brain injury

A
  • Primarily addresses regaining mobility and independence in self-care to allow the individual to manage safely at home
  • Interventions focus on improving ability and independence (reducing disability)
  • In-patient pathways to reduce variation
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80
Q

What are the ABCs of rehab?

A

Anticoagulation
o Medical
o Ted stockings
o Flowtron

Bladder/bowl

Chest complications
o PE
o Tubes
o Infections

(Neuro)disability assessment

Electrolytes and fluid

Feeding – NG, PEG

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81
Q

Describe medium to longer term rehab of brain injury

A
  • Best provided in the community
  • Functional gains to achieve independent living
  • Vocational rehab – return to work or alternative employment
  • Addressing emotional and psychological issues
  • Importance of individual wishes
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82
Q

What are some long term issues following a brain injury?

A
  • Employment
  • Dependents
  • Psychological support (family)
  • Cognitive sequelae
  • Behaviours including alcohol
  • Driving
  • Sex
  • Exercise
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83
Q

Name some post head injury symptoms

A
Poor concentration (most common)
Irritability 
Tired a lot
Depression 
Memory problems
Headaches
Anxiety 
Trouble thinking
Dizziness
Blurry or double vision
Sensitivity to bright light
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84
Q

What can post head injury symptoms be assessed by?

A

The Rivermead post-concussion score

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85
Q

What is post-concussion syndrome?

A

set of symptoms that may continue for weeks, months, or a year or more after a concussion – a mild form of traumatic brain injury

  • 25% of mild TBIs at 3 months, 10% at 1 year (King 2003)
  • Physical symptoms decline, psychological increase
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86
Q

What is the double insult theory?

A

mechanical trauma to the limbic circuits with a maladaptive response

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87
Q

What are the risk factors for post-concussion syndrome?

A
o	Previous brain injury
o	Female?
o	Educational level
o	Past psychiatric history 
o	Genetics? APOE4
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88
Q

What are the perpetuating factors for post-concussion syndrome?

A
o	Alcohol
o	Other drugs
o	Depression/Anxiety 
o	Lack of support
o	Secondary gain – litigation
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89
Q

Name some outcome measures for TBI

A
  • Glasgow outcome scale
  • FIM/FAM, Barthel
  • Disability rating scale
  • Handicap (participation restriction) – Rivermead HI FU questionnaire
  • Symptom measures – Rivermead post-concussion score
  • BIRCO-39
  • QoL measures
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90
Q

Describe the extended glasgow outcome scale

A

Death
- Dead

Vegetative state
- Unable to obey commands

Lower severe disability
- Dependent on others for care

Upper severe disability
- Independent at home

Lower moderate disability
- Independent at home and outside the home but some physical or mental disability

Upper moderate disability
- Independent at home and outside the home but with some physical or mental disability, with less disruption than LMD

Lower good recovery
- Able to resume normal activities with some injury related problems

Upper good recovery
- No injury related problems

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91
Q

Name factors that can affect prognosis pre-injury

A
  • Age
    o Increased mortality in elderly (>65 yrs) and children below 5 yrs
  • Female, ethnicity, education
  • Recurrent head trauma
    o Additive damage
  • Substance abuse
    o Increased acute complications, mortality, longer hospitalisations, worse discharge status
  • Psychosocial factors
    o Psychiatric illness/personality
    o Lack of family/social support
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92
Q

Name factors about the injury that can affect prognosis

A
  • Aetiology
  • Severity of injury
  • Care/resus delay (secondary injury extent)
  • Unilateral/bilateral
  • Scan findings
  • Associated injuries
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93
Q

Name factors that can affect prognosis post injury

A
  • Medical care
    o Delay in care or transportation increases the chances of secondary complications
    o Hypotension and hypoxia are avoidable complications
  • Complications
    o Pulmonary, cardiovascular, haematological or infectious problems associated with poor outcomes
  • Rehabilitation – both inpatient and community
  • Family support
  • Health behaviours e.g. substance abuse
  • Work – does it protect?
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94
Q

How are TBI patients’ health and life affected?

A
  • Life expectancy
    o At least 10 years reduction for severe (McMillan 2013)
  • People with TBI generally have a propensity towards poor health habits
    o Alcohol, smoking, substance use, diet, exercise
  • At risk for secondary complications (including social e.g. poverty, arrests)
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95
Q

Describe the SHEFBIT cohort study

A
  • From 2012 onwards
  • 1322 cases, 1191 at one year
  • Shows the affect of TBI on patients lives
  • Less than half of patients returned to full work a year after the injury

At 10 weeks
o 39.4% no work, 31.7% less work, 28.9% same
o 55% depression, 61% anxiety on HOADS
o High scores on Rivermead questionnaires

At 1 year
o 23.8% no work, 27.5% less work, 43.9% same
o Depression 41%, anxiety 43%
o Still high scores in Rivermead questionnaires

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96
Q

Describe seizure timing post TBI

A
  • Immediate seizures – occur <24hrs after injury
  • Early seizures – occur <1 week after injury
  • Late seizures – occur >1 week after injury and constitute the diagnosis of post traumatic epilepsy
  • Concussive seizures – immediately after and not epilepsy – no increased risk
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97
Q

What are the risk factors of post traumatic epilepsy?

A

Systematic review and meta-analysis (Xu et al, 2017)

o	Male
o	History of alcohol abuse
o	Post traumatic amnesia 
o	Focal neurological signs 
o	Loss of consciousness 
o	Skull fracture 
o	Midline shift
o	Brain confusion 
o	Subdural haemorrhage 
o	Intracerebral haemorrhage 
o	Mild brain injury
o	Severe brain injury 
o	Acute symptomatic seizure 
  • Also found that the aetiology of TBI (fall accident, traffic accident, others) and initial GCS were not a risk factor nor was the presence of a subarachnoid haemorrhage
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98
Q

Describe the risk of seizure following TBI

A

Population based study published in 1998 (Annegers et al) looked at the probably of seizures after severe, moderate and mild brain injury
o All injuries increased risk of epilepsy over 30 years post injury
o Severe injury was markedly higher than the other two (15% risk over 30 years)
o Mild injury almost the same as baseline

A further study published in Lancet in 2009 (Christensen et al) also looked at the long-term risk of epilepsy after traumatic brain injury
o Split into mild brain injury, severe brain injury and skull fracture
o Found that all groups increased risk
o Most increased with severe brain injury less than a year after injury then decreased as years after injury increased

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99
Q

Describe the relationship between temporal lobe injury and PTE

A
  • Longitudinal study by Tubi et al argues that early seizures and temporal lobe trauma predict PTE
  • 90 patients with moderate to severe TBI – 26.7% patients had acute symptomatic seizures, of which 75% had haemorrhagic temporal lobe injury on admission
  • 46 patients entered long term follow up, of which 45.7% developed PTE within 2 years
    o 85.6% had haemorrhagic temporal lobe injury on admission (compared to 30.6% who did not develop PTE)
    o 38.1% had seizures on continuous EEG during acute ICU stay
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100
Q

What is the risk of an early seizure following a TBI?

A

The risk of early seizures ranges from abut 2% (Temkin et al, 1990; Annegers et al, 1998) in population-based studies to 14-30% in patients with severe TBI (Temkin et al, 1990)

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101
Q

Describe the epileptogenesis theory following TBI

A
  • Latent period between injury and development of PTE
  • Proposed latent period events leading to PTE
Initial structural injury
o	Focal (contusions, haemorrhage, penetrating injury)
o	Diffuse – diffuse axonal injury
Secondary injury
Excitotoxicity 
o	Apoptosis 
o	Neuroinflammation
o	Oxidative stress

Spontaneous seizures
o Neuronal loss, and neurogenesis – network reorganisation
o Hippocampal sclerosis
o Chronic neuroinflammation

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102
Q

What are the risk factors for early seizures following a TBI?

A

Risk factors for early seizure have been reviewed by Temkin (2003), who reported that depressed skull fracture, intracerebral hematoma, and subdural hematoma were associated with about a 25% risk of immediate or early posttraumatic seizures

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103
Q

What are the significance of immediate and early seizures following a TBI?

A

Immediate seizures and early seizures are risk factors for the development of later epilepsy (Temkin, 2003) and seizures within the first 24 hours have been used to identify patients with a high risk of epilepsy after TBI to select for studies of prevention of PTE (Temkin et al, 1990)

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104
Q

Name the non-pharmacological treatment options of epilepsy

A
  • Vagal nerve stimulation (VNS)
  • Deep brain stimulation (DBS)
  • Resective surgery/Gamma knife surgery
  • Dietary approaches
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105
Q

What is VNS?

A
  • VNS is suitable for seizures with a focal or generalised onset
  • Involves implantation of a stimulator (pulse generator) into a pocket of skin, under the collar bone or close to the armpit
  • Wires, with electrodes, are connected inside the body to the left of the Vagus nerve -The electrodes encase the Vagus nerve in the neck
  • Aims to reduce seizure activity by interrupting and preventing the electrical irregularities on the surface of the brain that cause seizures
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106
Q

What are some additional benefits of VNS?

A

o Improved alertness
o Improved memory
o Fewer mood problems

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107
Q

What are some disadvantages of VNS?

A
  • Not beneficial across the whole spectrum of patients
  • Not possible to know in advance who will have seizure reduction
  • Can take anything from several months to 2yrs to achieve optimal seizure control
  • Mild side effects
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108
Q

What is DBS?

A
  • For patients with seizures of focal onset
  • May be appropriate for people unsuitable for resective surgery
  • Involves implanting electrodes into specific areas of the brain
  • Aims to control excess electrical activity in the rain using regular electrical impulses to reduce the frequency and severity of seizures
    o During DBS, a thin wire is implanted into the brain which is connected to an electrical stimulator, which is placed under the skin of the chest
  • Trials show that for some people their seizures become much less frequent while others it has little to no effect (Epilepsy society 2012)
  • DBS stimulation results in reduced seizure frequency of 69% (medtronic 2015)
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109
Q

What are some disadvantages of DBS?

A
  • Almost the same as for VNS
  • Not widely available in the UK at present – only available in Sheffield for dystonia and PD
  • The evidence on the efficacy of DBS for refractory epilepsy is limited in both quantity and quality
    o The evidence on safety shows that there are serious but well-known side effects
    o Should only be used with special arrangements for clinical governance, consent, and audit or research
    o (NICE Jan 2012)
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110
Q

Describe epilepsy surgeries

A
  • May be suitable for patients with focal onset seizures
  • If several AEDs trialled and none of them have stopped or significantly reduced seizure frequency (50%)
  • If a psychical cause for epilepsy, such as scarring on the brain or damage to the brain from a head injury, or following an infection such as meningitis, can be identified on scans and is only in one area of the brain
  • Around 70% of people become seizure free (Epilepsy society 2013)
  • Surgical intervention = resective and/or disconnected procedure
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111
Q

Describe resective procedures for epilepsy

A

o Different types of lobectomy (e.g. temporal, frontal etc)
o Topectomy – excision of a small area tailored to the seizure focus itself
o Hemispherectomy – the ultimate focal resection with the removal of one half of the brain
o More likely to result in a cure since they excise

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112
Q

Describe disconnective procedures for epilepsy

A

o Corpus callosotomy
o Multiple pial transections
o Tend to more palliative rather than curative as they interrupt the propagation of the seizures, limiting their generalisation

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113
Q

What are the disadvantages of epilepsy surgery?

A
  • Carries significant risks – death, stroke, paralysis, worsening of epilepsy
  • Implications for people previously requiring carers, becoming independent and losing their epilepsy
  • Approx 50% of patients recommended are unable to proceed after formal testing
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114
Q

What is gamma knife surgery?

A
  • Narrow beams of radiation targeted to precisely defined volume of tissue within the brain
  • Highly focused and destructive dose of radiation is given in a single session and avoids potentially harmful radiation to surrounding brain structures
  • Often a safer option than traditional brain surgery
  • Total treatment time varies from 45 to 90 minutes
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115
Q

What are some side effects of gamma knife surgery?

A

Almost no initial effects of radiosurgery
o Local pain to the scalp, responds to simple, oral pain medication

Long range effects after many months
o Swelling within the adjacent brain which may cause symptoms such as headache and neurological disturbances
o Treat with oral steroids and is self-limiting

Permanent cranial nerve dysfunction is rare with modern gamma ray doses

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116
Q

What are the benefits of gamma knife surgery?

A
  • Non-invasive
  • No incision, no need for head shaving, no scars to heal
  • No hair loss or nausea
  • Treatment is relatively painless and in most cases a GA is not needed
  • Patients make a fast recovery and can usually resume their normal activities in a day or two
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117
Q

What are ketogenic diet therapies?

A
  • Range of high-fat and low carbohydrate diets which mimic the metabolic effects of prolonged fasting
  • One treatment option for children whose seizures are not controlled with AEDs
  • Ketones are formed when the body uses fat for its source of energy
  • Because the ketogenic diet is very low in carbohydrates, fats become the primary fuel instead
  • Higher ketone levels often lead to more improved seizure control
  • Particularly recommended for children with Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
  • Not usually recommended for adults as the diet is very restrictive
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118
Q

Can a ketogenic diet ever be stopped?

A
  • If seizures have been well controlled for some time, usually 2 years, it might be suggested to go off the diet
  • Patient is gradually taken off over several months – seizures may worsen if the ketogenic diet is suddenly stopped
  • Children usually continue to take AEDs after stopping the diet
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119
Q

What are the potential side effects of a ketogenic diet?

A
  • Kidney stones
  • High cholesterol levels in the blood
  • Dehydration
  • Constipation
  • Slowed growth or weight gain
  • Bone fractures
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120
Q

What are some potential triggers of photosensitive epilepsy?

A

o Faulty florescent light strips that flicker
o Christmas tree lights (except those put up by public organisations)
o Flashing novelty badges
o Red flashing bicycle lights (when very close)
o Light seen through a fast-rotating ceiling fan
o Some films with flashing or flickering images
o Strobe lighting (night clubs, theme parks) – in the UK this is restricted
o Older TV screens – use LCD screen

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121
Q

What are some ways of avoiding a photosensitive seizure?

A

o Consider covering one eye – reduces the number of brain cells that are stimulated
o Any dizziness, blurred vision, loss of awareness or muscle twitching – stop looking at the screen immediately
o Take frequent rests

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122
Q

What are the psychological associations of epilepsy?

A
  • Co-morbid depression/anxiety – those with refractory epilepsy at high risk
  • Low self-esteem
  • Psychosocial problems
    o Education
    o Employment
    o Relationships
    o Social isolation
  • Psychosis
  • Self-harm
  • Anger issues and violence
  • Adjustment/acceptance issues
  • Suicidal thoughts, attempts and actual suicide
  • Sleep disturbance

(Dewhurst 2010)

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123
Q

What is the psychological management of epilepsy

A
  • Currently limited evidence for the effectiveness of interventions to improve the health and quality of life in people with epilepsy
  • Specialist nurse and self-management education have some evidence of benefit
  • At present it is not possible to advocate any single model of service provision

(Cochrane review 2016)

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124
Q

What is status epilepticus?

A

Maximum expression of epilepsy

Seizure that last longer than 5 mins or multiple seizures without recovery
o Most seizures last less than 5 minutes
o Those that last longer do no stop spontaneously
o Seizures become self-sustaining with neuronal injury within 15-30 mins

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125
Q

What are the types of status epilepticus?

A
  • Generalised status epilepticus
  • Complex partial status epilepticus
  • Epilepsia partialis continua
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126
Q

Describe the epidemiology of status epilepticus

A
  • Incidence 10-41/100,000
  • Lifetime risk 10% in patients with epilepsy
  • Mortality 9-60%
  • Severe neurological/cognitive morbidity – 11-16%
  • Status longer than 30mins = 20% mortality
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127
Q

Describe convulsive status epilepticus

A
  • Convulsions associated with rhythmic jerking
  • Generalised tonic-clonic movements
  • Mental status impairment
  • Focal neurological deficit
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128
Q

Describe non-convulsive status epilepticus

A

Seizures activity on EEG without clinical findings of GCSE
o Wandering confused, automatisms
o Acutely ill, obtunded (less than full awareness) ± motor abnormalities

Negative symptoms
o Anorexia, aphasia/mutism, amnesia, catatonia, coma, confusion, lethargy, and staring

Positive symptoms
o Agitation/aggression
o Automatisms, blinking, facial twitching
o Delusions, echolalia, laughter, nausea/vomiting
o Nystagmus/eye deviation
o Psychosis

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129
Q

Describe the process of seizure to status

A

Minutes
- Receptors move from synaptic membranes and endosomes
- GABAergic receptors destroyed – less responsive to neurotransmitter/GABAergic drugs
o Metabolic changes within cells
o Potency of benzodiazepines reduces by 20-fold after 30 minutes (GABAergic)
- NMDA and AMPA (glutamate) receptors move to the synaptic membrane causing further excitation

Minutes to hours
- Increased proconvulsive neuropeptides depletion of inhibitor neuropeptides – increased excitability

Hours to weeks

  • Long term gene expression changes as result of neuronal death and reorganisation
  • Seizures inhibit brain synthesis
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130
Q

What is the aetiology of status epilepticus?

A
  • Low levels of AED in epilepsy (34%)
  • Remote brain injury/congenital malformation (24%) - >1 week after an insult that could cause epilepsy
  • Cerebrovascular accident (22%)
  • Drug/alcohol withdrawal (10%)
  • Brain infections/inflammation (5%)
  • Metabolic problems e.g. low sodium (15%)
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131
Q

What problems arise from an ongoing seizure?

A
Sympathetic overdrive
o	Increased cardiac output
o	Increased blood pressure
o	Increased blood sugar
o	Increased blood lactate
Decompensation
o	Cardiorespiratory collapse
o	Electrolyte imbalance
o	Rhabdomyolysis (muscle breakdown) – acute tubular necrosis (kidney failure)
o	Hyperthermia
o	Major organ failure
o	Cerebral oedema
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132
Q

What is the management in the 1st stage of SE (0-10mins)?

A
  • ABCDEFG
  • Secure airway
  • High flow oxygen
  • Cardiac and respiratory function
  • Obtain IV access in a large vein
  • Check blood glucose levels
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133
Q

What is the management in the 2nd stage of SE (0-30mins)?

A
  • Regular monitoring
  • Consider the possibility of NEAD/pregnancy
  • Emergency AED therapy
  • Emergency investigations (bloods, arterial gasses)
  • Consider glucose (dextrose) ± high dose IV pabrinex (vitamin B and C) if low nutrition
  • Treat severe acidosis
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134
Q

What is the management in the 3rd stage of SE (0-60mins) - established status?

A

Seizures that resolve quickly suggest something is fuelling them
o What is the cause?
o Is there something else maintaining them?
o Are we giving the right treatment?

Prolonged seizures are dangerous
o Airway: obstruction, secretions, aspiration
o Breathing: hypoxia
o Cardiovascular instability: hypotension, cardiac arrhythmias
o Disability: neurological problems and risk of injury

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135
Q

What is the management in the 4th stage of SE (30-90mins) - refractory status?

A
  • ICU
  • Anaesthesia advantages
    o Powerful AED effects
    o Can protect the airways
    o Can get scans and treat easily
-	Anaesthesia disadvantages 
o	Pneumonia
o	Hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias
o	Not moving is bad – poorer outcomes 
o	Infection 
  • Give more AED?
    o 70% get inadequate loading dose of first AED
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136
Q

What are some consequences of coma/ICU as a result of SE?

A
-	Immobility 
o	Pressure sores
o	DVT
o	Pneumonia 
o	Muscle weakness
  • Organ dysfunction
    o GI tract
    o Immune system (including hospital acquired infections)
  • Psychological impacts (PTSD)
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137
Q

Why does the patient stopping moving not necessarily mean the seizure has stopped in SE?

A

o Usually anaesthesia induction requires a paralysing drug
o Often paralysis is needed for the ventilation of the patient
o After a long seizure movement diminishes

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138
Q

How can you determine a seizure has actually ceased in SE?

A

Use EEG
o Can see ongoing seizure activity
o Can suggest other causes e.g. Encephalitis, NEAD

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139
Q

What is the first line drug in SE?

A

Benzodiazepines (e.g. Lorazepam, diazepam, midazolam)
o Gaba receptor targets
o Slow all neurotransmission including consciousness and breathing
o Can last a while and can hide and accumulate
o Take some time to work
o Can be given IV, PR, buccal, IM, orally
o Grade A/B evidence – they work

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140
Q

What is the second line drug is SE?

A
  • Phenytoin (Ideally fosphenytoin)
    o Works well – grade B evidence
    o Risks including cardiac problems
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141
Q

What drugs should be given third line and beyond in SE?

A

o Evidence is limited
o Phenobarbitone, levetiracetam, valproate
o Anaesthesia – thiopentone, propofol

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142
Q

Describe the ongoing management of SE

A
  • Review/continue regular AEDs - Risk of recurrent seizures after status 41%
  • Get drug history
  • Drug levels
  • NG feed and drugs
  • Consider NEAD/maintaining factors
  • Consider out of hospital management of seizures
  • Consider compliance
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143
Q

How is refractory status defined?

A

Seizures that continue despite two
o Appropriate AEDs at
o Appropriate does

Duration not relevant – can go on for months

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144
Q

What is the mortality of refractory status?

A

23-60%

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145
Q

What are some predictors of refractory and non-refractory status?

A

Refractory

  • Encephalitis
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Longer duration
  • More seizure activity
  • Poor outcomes if Epilepsy or NICU stay

Non-refractory

  • Low AED levels
  • 44% admitted to ICU received inadequate prior doses
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146
Q

Name some other strategies that could be considered for refractory status

A
o	Valproate – risk of encephalopathy 
o	Keppra
o	Topiramate (via NG tube)
o	Ketamine
o	Steroids – if any suspicion of autoimmune encephalitis
o	Hypothermia – some case reports
o	Lidocaine
o	Paraldehyde
o	Chlormethiazole 
o	Clonazepam
o	Lacosamide
o	Ketogenic diet
o	Electroconvulsive treatment (case report/series)
o	Vagus nerve stimulation 
o	Surgery (case report, resect epileptogenic lesion)
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147
Q

What is primary healthcare?

A

o First point of contact for health care
o For new problems (including urgent and emergency) and for ongoing problems
o Places – GP practices, Walk-in centres, minor injury units, dentists, opticians, ?999, ?A&E
o Wide range of practitioners
o Not the same as general practice

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148
Q

What is expert medical generalism?

A
  • Provision of health care to all patients with any health care need
  • Its focus is on the person and not the disease – whole person medicine
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149
Q

Describe the relevance of diversity and breadth knowledgebase in GPs

A
  • The diversity and breadth of the GP knowledgebase it its essence
  • GPs have depth of knowledge in lots of high prevalence diseases
    o Asthma, COPD, diabetes, hypertension, headache
  • But they do not have deep knowledge of all conditions especially rare conditions
  • Therefore – GP requires decision making often without subject specific expertise
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150
Q

What clinical skills and clinical reasoning do GPs require?

A
  • History and examination are the essential foundations of good clinical judgement
  • Need to be able to rapidly take a focused clinical history
    o GP appointments are only 10 mins long
  • Need to understand the principles of epidemiology – incidence and prevalence
  • Pragmatic and rapid clinical examination of all body systems
  • Make clinical decisions and risk management an issue of shared decision making
  • Based on trust and longitudinal relationships
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151
Q

What is the quality outcome framework (QOF)?

A
  • Part of the GP contract since 2004
  • Sets targets (indicators) for clinical outcomes
  • Meeting targets is associated with additional income
  • This income reflects the resources required to achieve these targets
  • Conditions include
    o Atrial fibrillation
    o Secondary prevention of coronary heart disease
    o Hypertension
    o Diabetes
    o Dementia
    o Depression
    o Cancer
    o Epilepsy
    o Cardiovascular disease
    o Blood pressure
    o Obesity
    o Smoking
  • Important for neurological disease
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152
Q

What is the issue of multi-morbidity and evidence based medicine?

A
  • Most of evidence-based medicine is based on a single disease model
  • But increasingly patients have more than one long-term condition
  • Technical and practical challenges of managing multi-morbidity
    o How to manage inconsistencies between guidelines?
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153
Q

Describe general practice within the NHS

A
  • General practice is the largest medical/surgical speciality
  • 34,242 FTE GPs in England
  • Working in 7,500 practices
  • Average list size – 6,610-7,171
  • Patients per GP – 1,577
  • Estimated 372 million GP consultations each year
  • 90% of all NHS patient contacts occur in general practice
  • Average member of public sees GP six times per year
  • GPs make most diagnoses in the NH - Therefore, most neurological diagnoses
  • 8.39% of NHS funding
  • Comprehensive primary care lowers the overall cost of healthcare systems
  • £136 per patient per year for unlimited general practice care - About the same as the cost of a single visit to a hospital outpatient department
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154
Q

What is primary care neurology?

A
  • GPs as expert medical generalists
  • Working in extended teams to diagnose and manage neurological illness
  • Not a disease-based model but a person-centred model
  • Providing tailored personalised care
  • Characterised by on-demand access, continuity and individual relationships
  • Diagnosis and treatment of disease
  • But also, prevention of disease and promotion of health
  • Basing most practice on clinical skills (not investigations)
  • Clinically effective and cost-effective care
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155
Q

Define stroke

A

an acute onset of focal neurology (or global neurological dysfunction) leading to death, or lasting longer than 24 hours as a result of damage to the CNS that is vascular in origin

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156
Q

Define TIA

A

lasts less than 24 hours by definition but generally less than 1 hour

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157
Q

Describe the impact of stroke

A
  • 15 million people/year worldwide suffer a stroke
  • In UK, approximately 152,000 people have a stroke every year
  • 4th leading cause of death in UK and major cause of adult disability
  • Lifetime risk of suffering a stroke in men is 1 in 4 while it is 1 in 5 in women
  • Majority over the age of 65 but 25% occur in under 65
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158
Q

Name some modifiable risk factors for stroke

A
o	Hypertension
o	AF – increases risk by 7-8 times (anticoagulation reduces excess risk by 90%)
o	High cholesterol
o	Vascular disease
o	Diabetes and metabolic syndrome
o	Heart failure
o	Smoking/drug use/alcohol abuse
o	Physical inactivity/obesity/diet
o	Contraceptive pills
o	Thrombophilia
o	Hyperhomocysteinaemia
o	Obstructive sleep apnoea
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159
Q

Name some non-modifiable risk factors for stroke

A
o	Age
o	Gender
o	Ethnicity 
o	Genetic predisposition 
o	Previous TIA/stroke
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160
Q

Describe cerebral perfusion and its relation to brain health

A
  • CBF – 50ml/100g/min
  • About 20% of CO
  • Can compensate until CBF reduced to 20-25ml/100g/min
  • CBF relatively constant when mean arterial blood pressures are between 50-150mmHg
  • If CBF <10ml/100g/min all membranes and functions severely affected
  • Neurons cannot live long at <5ml/100g/min
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161
Q

What symptoms would indicate a frontal lobe lesion?

A
  • Disinhibition
  • Apathy
  • Irritability
  • Inappropriate placidity
  • Obsessional behaviour
  • Distractibility
  • Poor planning skills
  • Utilisation behaviour
  • Release of primitive reflexes (e.g. pout)
  • Gait apraxia
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162
Q

Name the two types of stroke

A
  • Ischaemic (85%)

- Haemorrhagic (15%)

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163
Q

What are the aetiologies of ischaemic stroke?

A
  • Carotid disease and vertebrobasilar disease
  • Carotid stenosis – chronic atherosclerosis disease
  • Plaque rupture with either thrombosis (causing stenosis/occlusion) or embolism
  • Dissection – usually history of trauma with neck pain and can be associated with Horner’s syndrome
  • Embolic sources
  • Prothrombotic states
  • Hypoperfusion
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164
Q

Name some embolic sources of stroke

A

o AF
o Paradoxical emboli and PFO (patent foramen ovale)
o SBE (subacute bacterial endocarditis)
o LV thrombus/post MI
o Mechanical valves (usually with suboptimal anticoagulation)
o Post-operative carotid/peripheral vascular/valvular/cardiac surgery

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165
Q

Name some prothrombotic states

A

o Antiphospholipid syndrome
o Polycythaemia and hyperviscosity syndrome
o Malignancy

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166
Q

Name some causes of hypoperfusion

A

o All causes e.g. sepsis, iatrogenic, hypovolaemia
o Must look for carotid stenosis – generally hypotension must have been prolonged and severe to cause stroke
o Also – inflammatory causes such as vasculitis

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167
Q

What are some aetiologies of haemorrhage stroke?

A

Rupture of vessels

o	Through excessive pressure (hypertension)
o	Or friable/damaged vessels
	Vasculitis 
	Amyloid angiopathy
	Vascular malformations
	Moyamoya
o	Trauma e.g. traumatic SAH
o	Malignancy
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168
Q

What is the presentation of an anterior circulation stroke?

A
o	Hemiplegia
o	Hemisensory loss
o	Neglect/inattention
o	Speech problems
o	Amaurosis fugax
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169
Q

What is the presentation of a posterior circulation stroke?

A
o	Balance problems
o	Visual field defects
o	Swallowing problems
o	Poor coordination
o	Drowsiness
o	Cognitive issues (thalamic involvement)
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170
Q

What is the presentation of haemorrhagic stroke?

A

Can be any of anterior and posterior circulation defects

More commonly associated with headache

Drowsiness can be prominent especially in a large bleed

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171
Q

Describe the pattern of motor weakness following a stroke

A

o Hemiparesis
o Focal single limb/facial weakness, could be proximal or distal
o Pyramidal in pattern
o Initially reflexes are down but as spasticity develops will become more pronounced
o Plantar reflexes
o Palatal weakness – dysphagia, dysarthria
o Unilateral

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172
Q

What is an example of a peripheral nerve distribution of weakness and therefore not a stroke syndrome?

A

 Bell’s palsy is not a stroke syndrome

 Stroke is a UMN lesion and therefore is forehead sparing – facial motor output as projection from both hemispheres

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173
Q

Describe the patterns of sensory loss in a stroke

A
o	Hemisensory loss
o	Confined to one limb
o	Unilateral 
o	Does not cross the midline
o	Generally multimodal
o	Look for cortical dysfunction such as stereognosis or graphesthesia
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174
Q

What sensory deficits would suggest it’s not a stroke?

A

o Positive sensory phenomena generally do not occur in stroke
o Peripheral nerve distribution
o Sensory levels
o Bilateral symptoms

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175
Q

Describe the oxford classification of stroke

A

Total anterior circulation syndrome (TACS)
o All 3 of unilateral weakness/sensory deficit, homonymous hemianopia, higher cerebral dysfunction (dysphasia, inattention/neglect)

Partial anterior circulation syndrome (PACS)
o Either 2 of the above or higher cerebral dysfunction alone

Posterior circulation stroke syndrome (POCS)
o Any of: ipsilateral cranial nerve palsy with contralateral motor and/or sensory deficit, bilateral motor and/or sensory deficit, disorder of conjugate eye movement, cerebellar dysfunction, isolated homonymous visual defect

Lacunar stroke syndrome (LACS)
o Pure hemi-motor, pure hemi-sensory-moor, ataxic hemiparesis

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176
Q

Why are TIAs important for stroke?

A
  • 20% of patients with stroke report a preceding TIA

- Identify and treat if possible high-risk individuals to prevent a subsequent more serious event

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177
Q

What is the ABCD2 score and what is it used for?

A

o Use for triaging high risk patients
o Target rapid intervene to high risk patients
o Age, Blood pressure, clinical symptoms, duration of symptoms, diabetes

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178
Q

What is deemed a high risk TIA?

A
  • AF
  • Known carotid stenosis
  • Crescendo TIAs
  • On anticoagulation
  • Give specialist review within 24 hours
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179
Q

What is large vessel disease?

A
  • Atherosclerosis of large and medium sized arteries
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180
Q

Describe the mechanisms for large vessel disease

A

o Thrombus on lesion causing local occlusion
o Embolisation of plaque debris or thrombus in distal vessel
o Small vessel origin occlusion by growth of plaque
o Severe reduction in diameter of vessel lumen leads to hypoperfusion and infarction of distal watershed areas

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181
Q

Describe small vessel disease

A
  • Small penetrating arteries of the brain
  • Occlusion of these causes infarction – Lacunar
  • Small vessel arteriopathy – hyaline arteriosclerosis
    o Muscle and elastic in arterial wall replaced by collagen
    o Wall thickening with subsequent lumen narrowing
  • Diabetes, hypertension, age
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182
Q

What are some causes of cardioembolism?

A
  • Atrial fibrillation (LA thrombus) – 80%
  • Myocardial infarction (anterior wall) with hypokinetic wall segment/LV aneurysm
  • Infective endocarditis
  • Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
  • Prosthetic heart valves (mitral)
  • Paradoxical embolus – PFO, ASD, VSD
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183
Q

What is the importance of AF in stroke?

A
  • Overall 5x increased risk of stroke
  • Around 25% of people over 80 having AF
  • AF strokes 3x more likely to be classed severe
    o Clots can form in the left atrial appendage
    o Can become large before embolising
    o Fibrin rich clots
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184
Q

Name some obscure causes of stroke

A
  • Arterial dissection and trauma
  • Inflammatory vascular disease
    o GCA, SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome, RhA
  • Haematological
    o Thrombophilia, leukaemia, lymphoma, polycythaemia, sick cell, TTP, DIC
  • Peri-operative
    o Anaesthetic – reduces CO, can precipitate irregular heart rhythm
  • Recreational drugs
    o Cocaine, amphetamines
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185
Q

What can cause primary intracerebral haemorrhage?

A
  • Intracranial small vessel disease – HTN
  • Cerebral amyloid angiography
  • AMVs
  • CNS neoplasms
  • Anticoagulation
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186
Q

What is the estimated cost of stroke in the UK?

A

At least £7 billion every year

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187
Q

Describe blood pressure and its effect on stroke risk

A
  • High = BP> 140/90
  • In most countries >30% adults suffer from high blood pressure
  • Most important modifiable risk factor for stroke
  • For every 10 deaths from stroke, 4 preventable if BP treated
  • Blood pressure linked to BMI, physical activity and dietary salt intake
  • BP tends to increase with age except where obesity is absent, salt intake low and physical exercise high
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188
Q

What is the population-based approach to stroke prevention?

A

Education regarding healthy lifestyle including
o Increased exercise
o Lower salt intake
o Better diet – more fruit and vegetables
o Reduced cholesterol intake
o Reduced alcohol intake
o Stop smoking

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189
Q

Describe smoking and stroke

A
  • Doubles the risk of stroke in men and women
  • Several mechanisms involved – damages endothelial lining, promotes atheroma, enhances clotting, raises LDL, lowers HDL, raised BP
  • Stopping smoking reduces cardiovascular risk to close of that of a non-smoker
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190
Q

Describe cholesterol and stroke

A
  • High total cholesterol, high LDL and low HDL are important risk factors for IHD
  • Causal association for stroke not so clear
  • Pooled data suggests high levels of cholesterol risk factor for ischaemic stroke but not ICH
  • Clear evidence from trials of benefit of lowering cholesterol in patients with history of IHD, PVD or prior stroke on preventing further events
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191
Q

Describe the treatment of high cholesterol

A

Statins!

o Reduce cholesterol and have effects on platelets and vascular endothelium
o Reduces the risk of MI, of stroke and of revascularisation by at least one third
o 5 years of statins prevents major vascular events in about 70 out of 1000 with previous stroke (Heart protection study 2001)

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192
Q

Describe social deprivation and its effect on stroke risk

A
  • People living in deprived areas are 3 times more likely to die from stroke than the least deprived
  • Been attributed to higher rates of smoking, poor diet, obesity, lack of exercise
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193
Q

Describe AF and its effect on stroke risk

A
  • NVAF associated with 6-fold increase in risk of stroke
  • Individuals risk is compounded by other risk factors (E.g. CHF, PVD, high BP, elderly, diabetes, female)
  • Treatment options include aspirin, warfarin or one of the NAOCs
  • CHADS2VASC score predicts risk of stroke
  • HASBLED score predicts individual risk of haemorrhage on treatment
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194
Q

Describe the primary prevention of stroke

A

Targeting at risk groups

  • Identify high risk population
  • Regular BP checks
  • Well man clinics
  • Diabetes/high cholesterol/AF
  • Assess overall cardiovascular risk prior to treatment
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195
Q

Describe some secondary prevention strategies for stroke

A
  • Rapid assessment of patients with TIA
  • Address cardiovascular risk factors
  • BP <130/80, <120/80 in diabetes
  • Statin for all patients
  • Antiplatelet – reduces risk by around 20% annually
    o Clopidogrel or aspirin and dipyridamole combination
  • Warfarin/DOACs for patients with AF
  • Carotid endarterectomy for patients with tight symptomatic stenosis
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196
Q

Name the two types of haemorrhagic stroke

A
  • Subarachnoid haemorrhage – occurs when a blood vessel on the brain surface ruptures (aneurysm/AVM)
  • Intracerebral haemorrhage – occurs when a blood vessel bleeds into the tissue deep within the brain
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197
Q

Describe intracerebral haemorrhage and its epidemiology

A
  • 10% of strokes
  • Within bran parenchyma
  • 12-15/100,000 per year
  • Incidence >55yrs increases and x2 with each decade until >80yrs then x25
  • Previous CVA risk increases risk x23
  • Onset usually during activity
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198
Q

What is the most common site of an intracerebral haemorrhage?

A

Basal ganglia/ Putamen/ Lentiform Nucleus/ Internal capsule/ Globus pallidus in 50%

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199
Q

Name some common arterial feeders

A
  • Lenticulostriates – sources of Putaminal haemorrhages
    o Possibly secondary to microaneurysms of Charcot Bouchard (caused by chronic hypertension)
  • Thalamoperforators – supplies thalamus
  • Paramedian branches of Basilar artery
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200
Q

What can cause increased CBF? (and therefore haemorrhagic stroke)

A

o Haemorrhagic transformation – type 1 and 2 (post ischaemic stroke)
o Migraine
o Exercise
o Cold

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201
Q

Name some vascular anomalies

A
o	AVM
o	Aneurysm
o	Cavernoma
o	Amyloid angiopathy
o	Cerebral venous thrombosis
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202
Q

What types of tumours can cause a hemorrhagic stroke?

A
Metastatic malignant melanoma, 
renal, thyroid and lung carcinoma, 
choriocarcinoma, 
Oligodendroma
ependymoma
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203
Q

Describe the presentation of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Putaminal
o Most common type – especially in hypertensive haemorrhage
o Contralateral hemiparesis or hemiplegia

Thalamic
o Motor and sensory loss
o Presentation depends on what part of the thalamus is affected

Delayed deterioration can occur
o Rebleeding, oedema, hydrocephalus, seizures

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204
Q

What investigation should be performed if a haemorrhagic stroke is suspected?

A
  • CT is sensitive diagnostically

- MRI may help to differentiate between hypertensive haemorrhage from other causes

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205
Q

Briefly describe the management of haemorrhagic stroke

A

Standard medical support
o Stop antiplatelet drugs, reverse anticoagulation

Surgical evacuation depends on location, age and premorbid performance status of patient

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206
Q

What are the STICH trials and what did they show?

A

o Aim- relative benefits and risks of surgery in haemorrhagic stroke
o Results – no real benefit in early surgery over conservative (medical) treatment
o Infratentorial haematomas are special cases – may warrant surgical evacuation or shunt insertion for hydrocephalus

207
Q

What would indicate surgical treatment for haemorrhagic stroke?

A
  • Symptomatic
  • Mass effect, oedema, midline shift
  • 10-30mls
  • Persistent raised ICP
  • Rate of deterioration
  • Favourable location
  • Age young
  • Surgery <24 hours
208
Q

What would indicate medical treatment (rather than surgical) in haemorrhagic stroke?

A
  • GCS>10+, awake and subtle hemiparesis
  • Massive dominant hemisphere haemorrhage
  • GCS<5, loss of brain stem function
  • Severe comorbidity and coagulopathy
  • Age>75, poor tolerance to surgery
  • Basal ganglia haemorrhage
209
Q

What is cerebral amyloid angiopathy?

A
  • 10% of ICH
  • Amyloid beta protein is deposited in the walls of small to medium blood vessels of the CNS and meninges
  • Identical to plaques of Alzheimer’s
210
Q

Describe the epidemiology of subarachnoid haemorrhage

A
  • Spontaneous 75-80%
  • No cause found in 14-22%
  • 10/100,000
  • Peak age 55-60
  • F>M (just)
  • 50-60% die in 1 month with no treatment
  • 50% of survivors have a major disability
  • 7% die and 7% have a severe deficit from spasm
  • 70-80% aneurysmal, 4-5% AVM
  • 30% have warning signs 6-20 days before
211
Q

What are the locations of aneurysmal SAH?

A
  • 85-90% carotid system
  • 5-15% vertebrobasilar system
  • 30% Anterior communicating artery
  • 25% Posterior communicating artery
  • 20% Middle cerebral artery
212
Q

What are the symptoms of SAH?

A
  • Headache
  • Nausea
  • Vomiting
  • Brief LOC
  • Hemiparesis
  • Vertigo
  • Faintness
  • Confusion
213
Q

What are the risk factors for SAH?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Smoking
  • Family history of PCOS
  • OCP
  • Diurnal variation in BP
  • Pregnancy
  • LP/cerebral angiogram
  • Age
  • Cocaine
214
Q

What are some disease states associated with intracranial aneurysm formation?

A
  • Increased blood pressure
    o FMD, APKD, Aortic coartication
  • Increased blood flow
    o AVM, aplastic, hypoplastic, ligated contralateral vessel, persistent carotid-basilar anastomosis
  • Blood vessel disorders
    o Granulomatosis angiitis, SLE, Moya Moya disease
  • Genetic
    o Ehlers-Danlos, Marfans, OWR syndrome
  • Congenital
    o Persistent fetal circulation, hypoplastic arterial circulation
  • Tumours metastatic to cerebral arteries
    o Atrial myxoma, choriocarcinoma, undifferentiated carcinoma
  • Infectious
    o Bacterial, fungal
215
Q

What are some non-aneurysmal causes of non-traumatic SAH?

A
  • Intracerebral arterial lesions
  • AV shunts
  • Vascular lesions in the spinal cord
    o Spinal AVM, Saccular aneurysms of the spinal artery, cavernous angioma into the cervical cord
  • Cardiac myxoma
  • Sickle cell disease
  • Vasculitis
  • Unsuspected trauma
  • Infections
  • Tumours
  • Drugs
    o Cocaine, anticoagulants
  • Idiopathic perimesencephalic non-aneurysmal SAH
  • Unknown
216
Q

Describe the Hunt and Hess classification of SAH

A

0- No SAH
1- Asymptomatic or mild headache, mild nuchal rigidity
2- Moderate to severe headache, nuchal rigidity, no neurological deficit except cranial nerve palsy
3- Drowsiness, confusion, or mild focal deficit
4- Stupor or mild to moderate hemiparesis, possible early cerebral rigidity
5- Deep coma, decerebrate posturing, moribund

217
Q

Describe the Fisher Grade of CT findings

A

1- No blood detected
2- Diffuse thin layer of SAH (vertical layers <1mm thickness)
3- Localised clot or thick layer of subarachnoid clot
4- Intracerebral or intraventricular blood with diffuse or no subarachnoid blood

218
Q

What is the management of SAH?

A
  • Resuscitation (ABCDE) – continuous monitoring BP, SpO2
  • Monitor ECG – arrhythmias common
  • Inset IV cannula – take bloods and commence IVI
  • Bloods
  • Strict bed rest until diagnosis determined
  • CT
    o If CT negative proceed to LP
  • CT/LP positive
    o Commence nimodipine (calcium channel blocker)
    o CT angiogram
  • If aneurysm found
    o Neurosurgical clipping or endovascular coiling depending on aneurysmal site, clinical condition, comorbidities, local practice
219
Q

What are some of the complications of SAH?

A
  • Rebleeding
  • Vasospasm
  • Hydrocephalus
  • Hyponatraemia
  • Infarction
220
Q

Describe rebleeding as a complication of SAH

A

o 30% rebleed first 28 days with no drugs
o 70% of these die
o More severe clinically than initial bleed – 2x mortality
o Risk down to 3.5% per year after around 6 months

221
Q

Describe vasospasm as a complication of SAH

A

o Risk factors include – young, smoking, raised ICP, dehydration, hypotension, hypoxia, hydrocephalus, hyponatremia, hyperthermia
o Clinical vasospasm – 20-30%
o Radiographic vasospasm – 30-70%
o When two correlate – symptomatic vasospasm
o Ischaemic complications 7%, fatal 7%
o Day 3-17 (peaks at day 6-8), usually resolved by day 12
o Treat with nimodipine, triple H therapy (induced hypertension, hypervolemia, haemodilution), angioplasty

222
Q

Describe infarction as a complication of SAH

A

o 4-12 days post SAH
o 25% clinical signs and 25% die as result, 10% survivors permanently disabled
o Weakness, confusion, dysphasia, incontinence
o Multifactorial – vasospasm, hypovolaemia, reduced CPP, renal Na excretion

223
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of early surgery for SAH?

A
Advantages 
o	Prevention of rebleeding
o	Aggressive management of vasospasm 
o	Removal of subarachnoid blood 
o	Evacuation of ICH
o	Early ambulation 
o	Reduced medical complications
o	Shorter hospital stay
o	Psychosocial reassurance 
o	Possible prevention of hydrocephalus 
Disadvantages
o	Swollen brain
o	Unstable patient
o	Scheduling difficulties 
o	Inexperienced surgeon?
224
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of delayed surgery for SAH?

A
Advantages 
o	Slack brain
o	Stabilised patient
o	Easier dissection
o	Flexibility in rescheduling
o	Experienced operative team
Disadvantages
o	Rebleeding
o	Less aggressive management of vasospasm
o	Delayed ambulation
o	Additional medical complications
o	Longer hospital stay
o	Psychosocial stress
225
Q

What is a arteriovenous malformation?

A
  • Developmental abnormalities of intracranial vasculature
    o Capillary telangiectasias
    o Cavernous malformation
  • Not neoplastic
  • Raised pressure may cause aneurysmal appearance
  • Middle meningeal territory
226
Q

What is the presentation of arteriovenous malformations?

A
  • Haemorrhage (40-60%)
    o Bleed in younger patients 20-40 years
    o Less severe than SAH bleeds – 10-20% mortality
    o Small more likely than large
    o 15% 5 year risk if previously unruptured
    o Raised risk 1st year then back to unruptured risk
  • Epilepsy
  • Neurological deficit
  • Headache
  • Cranial bruit
227
Q

What investigations should be performed for arteriovenous malformations?

A
  • CT shows most AVM
  • MRI choice
  • Angiography – shows feeder vessels
228
Q

What is the management for arteriovenous malformations?

A
  • Avoid initial bleed/prevent rebleed
  • Surgical risk vs likely course untouched
  • 3% rupture risk from ruptured/unruptured
  • Morbidity + mortality 40% per bleed
  • Operation – complete excision
  • Stereotactic radiosurgery (SRS) – obliterate up to 80% <3cm
    o SRS option preferred for those in eloquent areas and <3cm diameter
229
Q

What is the immediate management of a suspected stroke?

A

ABCDE assessment + Bloods, BM
Brief Hx and exam (time of onset, risk factors, contraindications to thrombolysis)
BP (permit moderate hypertension)
NIHSS (grade the severity)

230
Q

What is the immediate investigation of choice for a suspected stroke?

A

Urgent CT head (± CT angiography)

231
Q

What (briefly) is the treatment of a ischaemic stroke?

A

Thrombolysis ± Mechanical thrombectomy if indicated or Aspirin 300mg

232
Q

What is the secondary management of a ischaemic stroke (following thrombolysis)?

A

Investigate the cause (history, examination, bloods, imaging)
Screen and prevent complications (dehydration, aspiration, VTEs, pressure sores, infection, depression)
Establish secondary prevention (lifestyle, medical, surgical)
Rehabilitation (physiotherapy, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy)

233
Q

What is the NIHSS?

A
  • National institute of health stroke scaled
  • Grade and track severity
  • Monitor response to acute treatments
  • The higher the score the more severe of a stroke
234
Q

What are the pros and cons of CT in stroke?

A
Pros
o	Quick
o	Readily available 24/7
o	Sensitive to haemorrhage 
o	May see a hyperdense vessel

Cons
o Cannot usually diagnose an infarct in the acute phase
o Less sensitive than MRI for picking up other abnormalities (demyelination, mass lesions, microhaemorrhages) and for lacunar and posterior circulation infarcts

235
Q

What is thrombolysis?

A
  • Breaking down an acute clot
  • Intravenous administration of a tissue plasminogen activator e.g. Alteplase 0.9mg/kg
  • Potentially lifesaving
  • Timing – within 4.5 hours of symptom onset (or time they were last seen well)
  • Diagnostic uncertainty – ischaemic stroke isn’t confirmed
236
Q

What is the ischaemic penumbra?

A
  • Area surrounding the ischaemic core – mild to moderate ischemia
  • Blood flow reduced
  • Spreading depression
  • Possible reversible damage in case of recirculation
  • Ischaemic core – permanently damage brain tissue even after recirculation
237
Q

What care is required post-thrombolysis?

A
  • More aggressive blood pressure monitoring
  • Vigilance for complications (bleeding)
  • 24 hour CT head – haemorrhagic transformation
238
Q

What is mechanical thrombectomy?

A
  • Mechanical recanalisation of the culprit vessel
  • Proximal stenosis
  • 6-hour time window for anterior circulation stroke (later for basilar thrombosis)
  • Can be used alongside intravenous thrombolysis
  • Limited resource
239
Q

What are the purposes of investigations in stroke?

A
o	Diagnosis
o	Rule out stroke mimics
o	Identify aetiology
o	Guide risk factor modification
o	Prevent and treat complications
240
Q

What blood tests should be requested for a stroke?

A

o FBC – Hb (anaemia, hypo-oxygenation), MCV (haemoglobinopathies), WCC (infection), platelet count
o ESR – vasculitis, autoimmune disease
o U&Es – hydration status, guide drug treatment
o Lipid profile
o LFTs
o CRP – infection
o Clotting screen – APTT, PT, Fibrinogen
o Glucose and HbA1C – hyper/hypoglycaemic – mimic/risk factor

241
Q

What investigations (other than blood tests) may be useful for stroke?

A
  • EEG (MI, atrial fibrillation/flutter) ± 72 hour tape (paroxysmal AF)
  • Carotid doppler USS – carotid stenosis
  • Echocardiogram – endocarditis/thrombus
  • MRI – confirm diagnosis, look for multi-territory infarcts (delayed CT head if MRI contra-indicated)
242
Q

What may an MRI reveal in the case of stroke?

A
  • Acute/subacute infarcts (up to 2 weeks)
  • Multiple infarcts in the same vascular territory - ?culprit vessel
  • Multi-territory infarcts - ?cardioembolic
  • Absent flow void in vessels – arterial occlusion/dissection
243
Q

What further investigations should be considered in young patient or atypical strokes?

A

Bloods
o HIV and vasculitic screen
o Thrombophilia screen
o Homocysteine

Cardiac investigations
o 7 day Holter recorder/implantable loop recorder
o Transcranial dopplers
o TOE

Vascular imaging
o CT angiography
o MR angiography

244
Q

What healthcare professionals are involved in the treatment of stroke?

A
  • Nursing
  • Physiotherapy
  • Occupational therapy
  • Speech and language therapy
  • Dieticians
  • Orthoptics
245
Q

What medical management should be undertaken to prevent complications following a stroke?

A
-	VTE assessment
o	Intermittent pneumatic compression devices
-	Hydration 
-	NG feeding ± PEG feeding
-	Spasticity 
o	Physiotherapy
o	Botox 
-	Monitoring for infection
246
Q

What medical management should be undertaken for secondary prevention following a stroke?

A
  • Antiplatelets
    o Aspirin for 2 weeks, clopidogrel lifelong
  • Anticoagulation
    o If in AF or evidence of pAF – may need to wait up to 2 weeks
    o HASBLED and CHADSVASC scores
    o Randomised controlled trials currently being undertaken to compare early vs late anticoagulation (DOACs) in AF related stroke – results expected 2021
-	Hypertension 
o	Acute (3-4 days without thrombolysis) – risk of hypoperfusion 
o	Chronic – long term blood pressure target <130/80 (higher if severe bilateral carotid stenosis)
  • Cholesterol
    o Statin therapy – aim 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol
247
Q

When should a CEA be performed for carotid stenosis?

A

o USS carotid dopplers ± CTA/MRA
o Ipsilateral (symptomatic) carotid stenosis
 70-99% - carotid endarterectomy (CEA) recommended
 50-69% - consider CEA
o Alternative – carotid artery stenting

248
Q

What is the treatment of malignant MCA syndrome?

A

Decompressive hemicraniectomy

249
Q

What does a posterior circulation infarct pose a risk of?

A

o Risk of hydrocephalus

o Treatment - External ventricular drain (EVD)/posterior fossa decompression

250
Q

What is the ABCD2 score?

A
  • Estimates the 7-day risk of stroke following a TIA
  • Age over 60, High blood pressure, Clinical features, duration and diabetes
  • Perry 2011 – large prospective cohort study of 2000 subjects found it performed poorly in the acute setting
251
Q

What investigations should be performed for a TIA clinic?

A
  • ECG – to look for atrial fibrillation and other arrhythmias
  • TIA imaging
    o CT
    o Ultrasound doppler of Carotids – if show stenosis – MR angiography
    o MRI – most sensitive for TIA mimics
252
Q

What are some cardioembolic causes of TIA?

A
  • Atrial fibrillation
  • Mural thrombus
  • Septic embolus (SBE)
  • Malignancy-atrial myxoma, marantic endocarditis
  • Thrombosis on a mechanical heart valve
  • Calcific embolus from aortic valve
  • Paradoxical embolus/PFO
253
Q

What cardiology investigations could be performed following a TIA?

A
  • Echocardiography
  • Transcranial doppler
  • Holter monitor
  • Heart Brain MDT
254
Q

What are the basic principles of TIA treatment?

A
  • Transient impaired blood supply
  • Local blockage vs embolus from elsewhere
  • Unblock the narrowed pipe – endarterectomy
  • Make blood less sticky – antiplatelets
  • Prevent thrombosis – anticoagulants
  • Reduced – atheroma – statins
255
Q

Describe the pharmacological treatment of TIA

A
  • Antiplatelets
    o Clopidogrel – P2Y12 inhibitor
    o Aspirin - COX-1 inhibitor
    o Studies suggest that most benefit is both combined
  • Statins
    o Inhibit HMG-CoA reductase
    o Blocking cholesterol production by cells
  • Antihypertensives
    o Under 55 – ACE inhibitor or ARB
    o Over 55 or black people – CCB
  • Anticoagulants
    o Vitamin K antagonists
    o Direct thrombin inhibitors
256
Q

Describe the RCP guidelines for stroke and TIA (2016)

A
  • Discussion of lifestyle factors
  • Clopidogrel 300mg loading dose followed by 75mg daily
  • High intensity statin therapy with atorvastatin 20-80mg daily
  • Blood pressure lowering therapy
  • Anticoagulants in all patients with AF unless contraindicated
257
Q

Describe the oxford vascular study

A
  • Change in stroke incidence, mortality, case-fatality, severity, and risk factors in Oxfordshire from 1981 to 2003
  • Age-specific incidence of major stroke has fallen by 40% over the past 20% years
  • In association with increased use of preventive treatments and major reductions in premorbid risk factors
258
Q

What are two types of uncommon causes of stroke?

A

Arterial and venous

Arterial 
o	Inflammatory 
o	Infective
o	Genetic
o	Toxic 
o	Cardiac – non-AF 
o	Degenerative 
o	Traumatic 
o	Post radiation

Venous
o Infective
o Inflammatory
o Haematological

259
Q

What are some uncommon haematological causes of stroke?

A

Bleeding
o Thrombocytopenia
o Dysfunctional platelets
o Too much platelet breakdown
o Von Willebrand’s – missing or defective clotting protein
o Clotting factor cascade – poor production, congenital low levels, haemophilia, lack of vitamin K

Thrombosis/arterial
o Thrombocytosis
o Hereditary or acquired ADMATS13 deficiency

Thrombosis/venous
o Lack of clotting cascade inhibitors - Protein C and S deficiency

260
Q

What is giant cell arteritis?

A

o Large vessels including aorta
o Acute phase response is induced by pro-inflammatory cytokines, mainly IL 1, 6 and TNF alpha
o Produced by activated macrophages in the vessel wall
o Symptoms - Headache, jaw claudication, visual symptoms, amaurosis fugax, with blindness, rarely stroke
o Diagnosis – raised ESR, temporal artery biopsy

261
Q

What is Takayasu’s Arteritis?

A

o Variant of GCA affecting people younger than 50

262
Q

What is Primary angiitis of the central nervous system?

A

o Rare disorder affecting medium and small sized vessels
o Major symptoms – stroke, headache, encephalopathy
o Treatment – combination of high dose steroids and pulsed cyclophosphamide (CYC)
o Damage inflamed blood vessels lead to local thrombosis and ischaemia but can also become leaky and cause bleeding

263
Q

What is arterial dissection?

A
  • Carotid artery dissections begin as a tear which allows blood under pressure to enter the wall of the artery and splits its layers
  • Result is either intramural haematoma or an aneurysmal dilatation – can be a source of microemboli
    o Aneurysm can cause mass effect on surrounding structures
  • Occurs most frequently in the fifth decade of life
  • Can be intracranially and extracranially
    o Extracranial more common
    o ICA dissection can be caused by major or minor trauma or it can be spontaneous (genetic, familial or heritable disorders are likely)
264
Q

What infections can cause strokes?

A

HIV
o Vasculitis

Varicella zoster virus
o Vasculopathy
o Altered lipid status
o Antiphospholipid antibodies

Syphilis

265
Q

What are the symptoms of cerebral venous sinus thrombosis?

A

Symptoms may include thunderclap headache, focal neurological symptoms or seizures

266
Q

What is the investigation of choice for a venous sinus thrombosis?

A

CT venogram

267
Q

85% of venous sinus thrombosis patients have identifiable risk factors, name them

A

o Thrombophilia
o Chronic inflammatory conditions e.g. IBD, lupus
o Pregnancy
o Blood disorders with hyperviscosity
o Infections of ENT areas e.g. mastoiditis, sinusitis
o Direct injury to the venous sinuses (bull horn)

268
Q

What is the treatment for venous sinus thrombosis?

A

Heparin infusion to unblock vein and reduce pressure

269
Q

What is antiphospholipid antibody syndrome?

A
  • Autoimmune hypercoagulable state
  • Antibodies against cell membrane phospholipids
  • Promotes venous and arterial thrombosis
  • Treatment – anticoagulants – heparin, warfarin
270
Q

What is a toxic cause of stroke? Explain

A
  • Cocaine
  • Exact mechanism of cocaine related stroke remains unclear
  • Vasospasm – possible via endothelin-1
  • Cerebral vasculitis
  • Hypertensive surges – altered cerebral autoregulation
  • Cocaine is a potent vasoconstrictor due to its sympathomimetic action, preventing the reuptake of noradrenaline, serotonin and dopamine at pre-synaptic nerve terminals
  • Also has direct effects on calcium channels – promoting intracellular calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
271
Q

What is amyloidosis (CAA)?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

  • Deposition of amyloid in vessel walls
  • Reason unclear – possible excess production or reduced clearance proposed mechanisms
  • Amyloid usually cleared by endocytosis by astrocytes and microglia
  • Vessels are friable and bleed, microbleeds or lobar haemorrhage
272
Q

What is Moya Moya?

A
  • Premature large vessel arteriopathy of terminal carotids and vessels of circle of Willis
  • More common in Asian populations
  • Results in – ischaemia, seizures, haemorrhage
273
Q

Nme two mitochondrial disease? How can they cause stroke?

A

o MELAS, MERRF
o Metabolic stroke like episodes may be non-vascular and due to transient oxidative phosphorylation (OXPHOS) dysfunction within the brain parenchyma

274
Q

What is homocystinuria?

A

o Cystathionine beta synthetase deficiency
o Autosomal recessive inherited disorder of methionine metabolism
o Patients tall and thin, some learning problems, seizures, young onset vascular disease
o Treatment – folic acid and low methionine diet

275
Q

What is Fabry’s disease?

A

o Results from abnormal deposits of a fatty substance in blood vessel walls
o X linked recessive inherited deficiency of galactosidase A
o Leads to decreased blood flow and decreased nourishment of the tissues
o Particularly affecting vessels in the skin, kidneys, heart, brain and nervous system
o Begins in childhood with episodes of pain and burning sensations in the hands and feet
o Slowly progressive

276
Q

What is CADASIL?

A

o Cerebral autosomal dominant arteriopathy with sub-cortical infarcts and leukoencephalopathy
o Inherited
o Thickening of the blood vessel walls blocks the flow of blood to the brain
o Affects small blood vessels in the white matter of the brain
o Migraines and multiple strokes progressing to dementia

277
Q

What is myxoma?

A

o Most common type of primary heart tumour
o Signs and symptoms – dyspnoea, syncope, mild fever, weight loss
o Untreated – may result in thrombus formation
o Surgical removal is completely curative

278
Q

What cardiac causes, other than myxoma, cause stroke?

A

Endocarditis

PFO

279
Q

Define stroke rehabilitation

A

stroke care that aims to reduce disability and promote active participation in ADL, to prevent deterioration, preserve remaining function and train patients to help them achieve their objectives

280
Q

Define stroke recovery

A

improvements across a variety of outcomes in performance in activity based behavioural measures

281
Q

What are the mechanisms of stroke recovery?

A
  • Adaptation
  • Regeneration
  • Neuroplasticity
282
Q

What is adaptation in stroke rehab?

A
  • The reliance on alternative physical movements or devices to compensate for poststroke deficits
  • E.g. training left hand in right hemiplegia, using stick or shower chair, and using a prism in hemianopia
283
Q

What is the learned disuse phenomenon?

A

o Patients do not use their affected limb because they have developed habits to complete tasks bypassing the affected limb, even though they have capacity to use it
o Harmful to the recovery process

284
Q

What is regeneration in stroke rehab?

A
  • Damage tissue grows back in brain – a limited process
  • Sprouting of neurons (predominantly dendrites)
    o Lack of Schwann cells (which lead sprouting)
    o Gliosis barriers
    o Oligodendrocytes incomplete myelination and production of inhibitory factors
    o Low production of growth factors
285
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A
  • The dynamic potential of the brain to reorganise itself in response to training, injury, rehabilitation, pharmacotherapy, electrical and magnetic stimulation, and stem cell and gene therapy
  • Rewiring or development of new networks – the key in stroke recovery
286
Q

What is the scientific theory behind neuroplasticity?

A
  • Vicariation – different area of the brain takes over the function
  • Plasticity of areas of cortical representation – early compensation by recruitment of secondary motor areas (premotor cortex and SMA), followed by reorganisation with more focused brain activity reminiscent of normal pattern
  • Collateral sprouting – to receive new synaptic dendritic input from sprouting neurons
  • Synaptic plasticity – cells that fire together wire together (Hebb 1994)
  • Diaschisis – a focal lesion can lead to changes in brain function far away from the lesion
    o E.g. cortical infarct can lead to enhance contralateral cerebellar activity
287
Q

What drives the neuroplasticity?

A
  • Rehabilitation interventions must be task specific and goal directed rather than general and nonspecific movements
  • The goal directed tasks must be challenging and interesting enough to maintain an individual’s attention
  • The task should allow for repetition through multiple attempts
288
Q

Describe motor recovery following a stroke

A
  • Motor recovery starts proximally (shoulder - elbow – wrist - fingers)
  • Swallowing, facial movement and gait – better recovery (bihemispheric representation)
  • Language, spatial attention and dominant hand movement – are more lateralised and therefore recover more slowly
289
Q

What is EPOS? What did it show?

A

Early prediction of functional outcome in stroke study

o Recovery of UL at 6 months is predicted by voluntary shoulder abduction and finger extension
o If present after 48hr – good outcome in 98%
o If not present by day 9 – only 14%

290
Q

What hinders stroke recovery?

A
  • Natural history of stroke – recovery plateaus in 3-6 months
  • Depression
  • Medication – BZD
  • Comorbidities – C spine disorders
291
Q

What is the best time to begin stroke rehab, and how intensive?

A
  • Uncertainty
  • AVERT trial – early mobilisation within 24 hours regardless of stroke intensity, but worse outcome
  • Subgroup analysis – early, shorter sessions with less intensity – good outcome
  • Animal model – stroke size increased when they were pushed to do intensive therapy very early
292
Q

Where should stroke patients be treated?

A

In a specialised stroke unit

Stroke unit treatment reduces death and dependency (NNT – 7 for thrombolysis and 9 for HASU-ASU)
o Early rehabilitation
o Interdisciplinary management
o Structural organisation

Meta-analysis – of every 100 patients, extra independent 5 returned home when there were treated in stroke units compared to general wards
o Langhorne P, Stroke 2001

293
Q

What additional therapies are they for stroke rehab? Are they effective

A

Gait training with rhythmic acoustic pacing showed better stride length and better walking speed

Mirror therapy
o Patient gets the visual impression that the limb in the mirror is fully functioning
o Weak evidence
o Can work through enhancing connections between visual input and the premotor area

Device-based therapies, such as robotic arms and bodyweight supported treadmills were not superior to currently used therapies

Electric stimulation technique
o Applying electrical stimulation to muscles of interest to help produce the desired movements (proved by RCT)
o Repetitive stimulation improves motor function
o Portable and can be used at home

294
Q

What is constraint induced therapy?

A
  • The unaffected extremity is constrained with a device (mitt) which forces the patient to use the affected side in task specific and repetitive methods
  • Prevents learned disuse which reduces recovery
295
Q

How should dysphasia be treated?

A

Speech and language therapy

  • Integration of available language-related brain regions is more effective than recruiting new brain regions
  • Total hours of therapy was directly related to outcome (Bhogal et al, Stroke 2003)
296
Q

What is melodic intonation therapy?

A

o To improve language production
o Language is in the dominant hemisphere but singing and melody are in the nondominant hemisphere
o Patient retains ability to sing and carry out melody – helps with speech recovery
o Most helpful in expressive aphasia

297
Q

Describe dysphagia in stroke. What should be looked for and how should it be managed?

A

50% of patients, up to 78% when examined by FEES (widespread involvement of different brain area – sensory, motor and premotor cortex, brainstem)

Lead cause of mortality in acute stroke – aspiration pneumonia, malnutrition and airway blockage

Look for 
o	Gurgling voice 
o	Coughing after drinking 
o	Bubbling respiration 
o	Recurrent respiratory tract infections 

Management
o Modify
o NGT/PEG

298
Q

What is spatial neglect?

A
  • Predominantly in right parietal strokes

- Deficit in attention and awareness to space and/or personal perception

299
Q

What therapies can be given for spatial neglect?

A

o Enforcing perception via the affected side
o Alertness training
o Visual, proprioception and vestibular stimulation techniques
o Cortical stimulation – inhibitory rTMS over the unaffected posterior parietal cortex – showed benefit in a small pilot study (Shindo et al)

300
Q

What is pusher syndrome?

A
  • A misperception of the body’s orientation in the coronal plane – patients use the unaffected side to push away and resist any attempt to passively correct their posture
  • Seen after posterior thalamus, insula, or post central gyrus unilateral strokes (more in the right)
  • Treatment (prolonged) – by enhancing sensory-motor input from the collateral side
301
Q

What is apraxia?

A

Motor agnosia

  • Patients are not paretic but have lost information about how to perform skilled movements
  • Affected area - Left inferior parietal lobule, the frontal lobes or the corpus callosum
  • Severely hinders ADL
  • Apraxia of speech
  • Improves with OT
302
Q

Describe the pharmacology of stroke rehab

A

Flame (USA) or focus – Fluoxetine daily 5-10 days post stroke – improves UL motor function
o Likely through neuroplastic mechanisms

Neuromodulation improves aphasia
o Cholinesterase inhibitors
o Glutamergic agents

Dopaminergic medications – used to help depression and attention deficit

  • Insufficient evidence but can be tried clinically as safe profile
303
Q

What medications should not be used in stroke rehab?

A
  • Diazepam, phenytoin, phenobarbital – impede synaptic formation by effect on neurotransmitter
  • Antihistamine – neuroplasticity
  • Pain medication and sedatives
  • Dopamine blockers – typical antipsychotics
304
Q

Describe post-stroke depression

A
  • Very common (30%)
  • Patients do worse compared with no depression patients even if similar severity
  • Can manifest as fatigue, reduced motivation and loss of confidence, concentration and attention
305
Q

Describe spasticity in stroke recovery

A
  • Beneficial or harmful
    o Stiff leg can be useful in some patients or use it to walk
  • In chronic phase – limits motor function
  • Pain – decrease QALY
-	Treatment
o	Conservative PT and casting
o	Baclofen orally
o	Botulinum toxin
o	Intrathecal baclofen pumps in severe
306
Q

Describe driving following a stroke

A
  • Medical clearance – physician makes sure deficit is not interfering with driving
  • No seizures
  • No cardiac conditions that can affect driving
  • Functional assessment – formal driving assessments (private driving test, driving instructor, mock driving test)
307
Q

What are some novel interventions and advances in rehab?

A
  • Telerehabilitation for patients with no access to therapy – assess rehabilitation needs and focus and wellness and self-training
  • Pharmacologic agent to stimulate recovery
  • Stem cells and growth factors
  • TMS, TDCS
  • Develop biomarker to help patient rehab techniques depending on stroke type, patient goal
308
Q

What is intravenous thrombolysis?

A
  • IV t-PA
  • Thrombolytic agent - given to promote acute recanalisation of the occluded artery through lysis of the occlusive thrombus
  • Approved by the FDA in 1996 - remains only approved treatment of acute stroke
309
Q

Describe the NINDS t-PA study

A

NEJM 1995

  • Multicentre, randomised, double blind placebo-controlled trial
  • 624 patients with acute ischaemic stroke within 3 hours of onset
  • At 3 months – treatment with IV t-PA within 3 hours increases the chance of excellent recovery by 30%
310
Q

What is the number needed to treat for IV t-PA?

A
  • 8 patients within 3 hours to achieve 1 additional patient with near complete recovery
  • 3 patients for a 1-point improvement on the modified Rankin scale at 3 months
  • (Saver JL 2003)
311
Q

Describe the evidence for going IV thrombolysis up to 4.5 hours after stroke onset

A
  • ECASS III – multicentre, double-blind, placebo-controlled trial in Europe
  • Between 3-4.5 hours of onset
  • Favourable outcome at 3 months (52.4% vs 45.2%)
  • Increased risk of symptomatic intracranial haemorrhage (7.9% vs 3.5%)
  • Slightly lower incidence of death (7.7% vs 8.4%)
  • NNT = 14 to achieve 1 additional patient with near complete recovery
312
Q

What are the limitations of IV thrombolysis?

A
  • Time window = 4.5hrs (IST study did not reveal any benefits to 6hrs)
  • Many contraindications
  • <10% of all stroke patients receive IV t-PA
  • Unlikely to break down large clot in proximal vessel
313
Q

What are the goals of intra-arterial treatment for acute stroke?

A
  • Increase time window
  • Increase efficacy
  • Increase safety
314
Q

What are the intra-arterial treatment options for acute stroke?

A
  • Intra-arterial t-PA - applying thrombolysis directly to the clot
  • Mechanical thrombectomy
  • Intracranial angioplasty and stenting
315
Q

Describe the PROACT II trial

A

Intra-arterial thrombolysis vs heparin alone

  • Randomised trial of 180 patients within 6 hours from onset with large artery occlusion
  • Recanalisation rates improved – 66% vs 18%
  • Favourable outcomes improved at 3 months – 40% vs 25%
  • Symptomatic ICH increase – 10% vs 2%
  • No difference in mortality
316
Q

What is the bridging protocol?

A
  • IV t-PA started within 3 hours – 2/3 of standard dose

- Angiography performed and IA t-PA given within 6 hours of onset if thrombus still present

317
Q

Describe the IMS study

A
  • Interventional management of stroke study
  • IMS I and II
  • Using the bridging protocol
  • Compared results to NINDS t-PA and placebo groups
  • Improved good outcomes vs placebo and IV t-PA
  • Reduced mortality
  • No significant different in symptomatic ICH when compared to IV t-PA
  • (Stroke 2004)
318
Q

Describe some studies which do not support the use of intra-arterial therapies for stroke before the second generation thrombectomy devices

A

IMS III – stopped early as results due no differences

Synthesis expansion study – negative
o Endovascular vs IV
o Concluded endovascular therapy is not superior

MR-rescue study – negative
o Phase 2b study
o Medical vs endovascular therapy
o Randomisation based on whether there was a favourable penumbral pattern or non-penumbral pattern (penumbral pattern = 70% infarct)
o Conclusion - A favourable penumbral pattern on neuroimaging did not identify patients who would differentially benefit from endovascular therapy for acute ischemic stroke, nor was embolectomy shown to be superior to standard care

319
Q

Name two second generation thrombectomy devices

A

SWIFT - Significantly better outcomes than MERCI retriever (Slaver 2012

Trevo 2

320
Q

Outline the MR CLEAN study

A
  • 502 patients underwent randomisation between 2010 and 2014 in 16 Dutch centres
  • Thrombolysis vs thrombolysis and IA treatment
  • Time from onset to groin puncture was 260 mins
  • Functional independence (MRS 0 to 2) in favour of the intervention
  • No significant difference in mortality or the occurrence of symptomatic ICH
321
Q

Outline the extend IA study

A
  • IV t-PA vs IV t-PA and endovascular thrombectomy with solitaire device
  • Stopped early due to efficacy
  • Reperfusion – 100% vs 37%
  • Early neurological improvement 80% versus 37%
  • MRS 90 days (0-2) 70% vs 40%
322
Q

Outline the ESCAPE trial

A
  • IV t-PA vs endovascular treatment
  • Stopped early due to efficacy
  • Primary outcome favoured intervention 53% vs 29%
  • Reduced mortality
  • No difference in SICH
323
Q

Outline HERMES paper

A
  • Pools patient-level data from 5 trials (MR CLEAN, ESCAPE, REVASCAT, SWIFT PRIME, EXTEND IA) done between 2010 and 2014
  • NNT with endovascular thrombectomy to reduce disability by at least one level on MRS for 1 patient was 2.6
  • Mortality at 90 days and risk of parenchymal haematoma and SICH did not differ between populations
  • Effect sizes favouring endovascular thrombectomy were present in several groups including those aged over 80
324
Q

What are the current NICE guidelines for thrombectomy?

A
  • Thrombectomy should be offered as soon as possible (and within six hours of symptom onset to patients with confirmed ischaemic stroke with occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation)
  • If there is potential to salvage brain tissue (as shown by imaging) the patients above should also be considered for thrombectomy between 6 and 24 hours after symptom onset, if they were known to be well beforehand.
  • Should also be offered as soon as possible (and within 24 hours) for patients with confirmed ischaemic stroke of posterior circulation if there is potential to salvage brain tissue.
  • Only for people with a large vessel occlusion (from angiogram).
  • People who are functionally well; no biological age limit.
  • Thrombectomy should usually only be considered in patients with:
    o A pre-stroke functional status of less than 3 on the Modified Rankin Scale.
    o A score of more than 5 on the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale NIHSS
325
Q

Define stroke mimic

A

Stroke like symptoms that have acute onset and cause transient or persistent focal signs

326
Q

How common are stroke mimics?

A
  • Prehospital or acute hospital admission – stroke diagnoses are 70-85% correct
  • After a few days picture is more complete – 95%
  • Long time after event – a challenge
  • TIA – Oxfordshire study found 60% were not TIA
  • > 300 patients who present with suspected stroke found mimics 31% at the time of final diagnosis (Hand et al, 2006)
    o The most important variables associated with a correct diagnosis were a definite history of focal neurological symptoms and NIHSS score greater than 10
327
Q

What makes up a good history of a stroke?

A
  • Mode of onset, circumstances of onset
  • Type of symptoms, temporal course
  • Any trauma?
  • Any suggestion of seizures?
  • Information from witnesses and relatives
  • Symptoms prior to onset
328
Q

What is the rosier scale?

A
  • Recognition of stroke in the emergency room
  • 7-point scoring system
  • Sensitivity 83-97%
  • Specificity 18-93%
329
Q

How can brain tumours mimic stroke?

A

One study (Snyder et al, 1993) found that 6% of patients with brain tumours present to an emergency department had symptoms of less than 1 day’s duration

Can cause a sudden onset or worsening of symptoms due to
o Haemorrhage into tumour
o Seizure activity
o Displacement of brain tissue in some tumours which are outside the brain like meningiomas

330
Q

How can brain abscesses mimic stroke?

A
  • Can cause sudden onset focal neurologic symptoms and signs
  • Usually associated with – fever, headache, and seizures
331
Q

How can herpes encephalitis mimic stroke?

A
  • Often prodromal symptoms during a few days – fever, headache, fatigue, nausea
  • Then – confusion, cognitive symptoms, focal neurological symptoms and signs, seizures (often partial complex)
332
Q

What is Nonketotic hyperosmolar hyperglycaemia?

A
  • Type 2 diabetes
  • Stupor often associated with focal neurological signs
    o E.g. hemiparesis, gaze deviation, global aphasia, homonymous hemianopia
  • There may be a focal region of brain oedema on brain imaging tests
  • Treatment – Potassium replacement and insulin
333
Q

What can hypoglycaemia present with?

A
o	Confusion 
o	Altered behaviour 
o	Deteriorating LOC
o	Seizures 
o	Or sudden neurological deficit (hemiparesis, aphasia, cerebellar signs)
334
Q

What metabolic disorders can mimic a stroke?

A
  • Hypo/hyperglycaemia (focal symptoms)
  • Hyponatraemia (encephalopathy, seizures, focal deficit)
  • Hypercalcaemia (encephalopathy, seizures)
  • Hepatic encephalopathy
    o Due to the livers inability to efficiently remove toxins
    o E.g. increased tissue concentration of manganese secondary to portal-systemic shunting
  • Wernicke’s encephalopathy (confusion, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia)
335
Q

What are paroxysmal symptoms of MS?

A

o Episodes of motor or sensory phenomena
o Brief, stereotypic, frequent, triggered by movement or sensory stimuli
o Non-synaptic transmission of nerve impulses at previous demyelination site
o Not a true exacerbation of MS
o Within the brainstem – may cause paroxysmal diplopia, facial paraesthesia, trigeminal neuralgia, ataxia, and dysarthria
o Motor system can cause painful tonic spasms of muscles of limbs, trunk and occasionally the face
o Typically responds to low doses of carbamazepine
o Spontaneously remit after several weeks to months

336
Q

What is a chronic subdural haematoma?

A
  • Symptoms may be transient or fluctuating
  • Insidious onset of headaches, cognitive impairment, apathy, somnolence, and occasionally seizures
  • Focal deficits may be either ipsilateral or contralateral
337
Q

What is cervical cord neuropraxia?

A
  • Transient neurologic symptoms following minor trauma in young athletes who have congenital or acquired cervical spine stenosis
  • Symptoms – sensory (burning, pain, numbness, tingling and loss of sensation), and motor (weakness to quadriplegia)
  • Complete recovery within 10 to 15 minutes or occasionally over a period of 48 hours
338
Q

Describe HINTS

A

Head impulse test of skew

Used to determine if vertigo has a central cause (such as a stroke)

Any 1 of 3 indicates central cause (sensitivity 100%, specificity 98%, better than early DWI-MRI)
o Head impulse test (vestibular ocular reflex)
o Direction changing horizontal nystagmus
o Skew deviation (vertical ocular misalignment)

339
Q

How can you distinguish between stroke and psychological disorders?

A
  • No hard signs – reflexes normal
  • Voluntary effort intermittent – collapsing weakness
  • Simultaneous activation of agonists/antagonists
  • Hoover’s sign
  • Inconsistencies in performance
340
Q

What is the Hoover’s sign?

A

feel a pressure in the non-paretic leg when the paretic leg is attempted to be raised indicates a organic cause

341
Q

How can you distinguish migraine with aura from a TIA?

A
  • Positive and/or negative symptoms
  • Most often visual and sensory
  • Evolving gradually over ≥5 minutes (slower onset than TIA or focal seizure)
  • Slow spread of positive followed by negative symptoms
  • Gradual offset sensory symptoms – often arm + perioral
  • Duration – 5-20mins (less than 60 mins)
  • Usually followed by headache up to 1 hour later
  • Personal or family history of migraine
342
Q

Describe panic attacks

A
  • Palpitations, dyspnoea, chest pain, light-headedness, sense of impeding doom,
  • Associated hyperventilation may result in perioral and distal limb paraesthesias
  • Minutes to hours
  • History of anxiety or depressive symptoms, triggering events or stressors
343
Q

What is transient global amnesia?

A
  • Prominent anterograde amnesia (inability to form new memories) and variable retrograde amnesia
  • Patient is disorientated in time, asking repetitive questions, able to recognise familiar places and individuals
  • Other cognitive and motor functions spared
  • Rare in adults younger than 50
  • Usually 1 to 10 hours (mean 6 hours) resolves within 24 hours
  • Clinical diagnosis – diagnosis impossible if no witness available
  • Negative MRI and toxicology screens
344
Q

What Features that help distinguish cerebral amyloid angiopathy (CAA) from TIA?

A
  • Recurrent, brief (minutes), stereotyped episodes of weakness, numbness, paraesthesias, or other cortical symptoms that can spread smoothly over contiguous body
  • The present of small haemorrhage in corresponding area (best shown with gradient-echo MRI)
  • May reflect abnormal activity caused by irritation of the surrounding cortex by the small haemorrhage (focal seizure or spreading depression)
  • Response to anticonvulsants supports this hypothesis
  • Starting antithrombotics for a presumed TIA in a patient with CAA can result in bleeding
345
Q

Describe the epidemiology of brain tumours

A
  • 10,981 new cases per year in UK
  • Incidence 17 per 100,000
  • 55% malignant
  • 3% of all cancers
  • Commonest cause men under 45 and women under 35
  • GP <5 new cases in working lifetime
  • Common differential diagnosis
  • Frequent concern is headache is due to a brain tumour
346
Q

Name some types of brain tumour

A

Over 150 types

Meninges – meningiomas

Germ cell tumours
o Rare paediatric usually cancerous tumours in the pituitary/pineal region

Sellar region
o E.g. Craniopharyngiomas, a usually benign, cystic tumours

Gliomas
o	Oligodendlgial cells
o	Astrocytic cells
o	Ependymal cells
o	Neuronal cells
Cranial nerves (schwannoma)
o	E.g. eighth nerve – acoustic neuroma

Haematopoietic
o Lymph cells – primary CNS
o Lymphoma

347
Q

What cancers can spread to the brain to cause a secondary tumour?

A
o	Lung
o	Breast
o	Colorectal
o	Testicular
o	Renal cell
o	Malignant melanoma
348
Q

Describe the grading of brain tumours

A
  • Use WHO classification – histology
  • Do not use TMN system
  • Grade using morphology into four grades of malignancy
  • I – most benign, IV – most malignant
  • WHO classification 2016 – combines histological features with molecular genetic features
349
Q

What are gliomas?

A
  • Most common primary brain tumour
  • Tumour of glial cells
    o Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, ependymal cells
  • WHO grade I and II – low
  • WHO grade III and IV – high
350
Q

How are gliomas characterised? WHat are the survival rates?

A

Characterised histologically

o Cellularity/mitotic activity/vascular proliferation/necrosis
o Grade II – 10 year survival
o Grade III – 3.5 years
o Grade IV – 12 months

351
Q

Describe low grade gliomas (grade II).

A
  • Slow growing but will undergo anaplastic transformation
  • Astrocytomas – 3-5 years
  • Oligodendroglioma – 7-10 years
  • Median age 35
352
Q

What are the prognostic factors for low grade gliomas?

A
o	Histology type 
o	Age
o	Size of tumour
o	Rate of growth
o	Location
353
Q

Describe high grade gliomas (Grade III and IV)

A

Most common type of brain tumour

o 85% of all new cases of malignant primary brain tumour
o Either as primary tumour or from pre-existing low grade
o Median age of onset 45 for III, 60 for IV

354
Q

What are the causes of brain tumours?

A
  • Majority no cause found
  • Ionising radiation
  • 5% family history
    o Associated genetic syndromes – neurofibromatosis, tuberose sclerosis, von Hippel-Lindau disease
  • Immunosuppression (CNS lymphoma)
  • No evidence to link mobile use
355
Q

What are the broad symptoms of a brain tumour?

A

o Headache
o Seizures
o Focal neurological symptoms
o Other non-focal symptoms

356
Q

What are the characteristics of a headache caused by a tumour?

A
  • Woken by headache
  • Worse in the morning
  • Worse lying down
  • Associated with Nausea and Vomiting
  • Exacerbated by coughing, sneezing
  • Drowsiness
  • 24% first symptom, at presentation 46%
  • At hospital presentation only 2% isolated headache
357
Q

Name some focal and non-focal symptoms of a brain tumour

A
Focal (progressive over days – weeks)
o	Weakness
o	Sensory loss
o	Visual/speech disturbance
o	Ataxia

Non-focal
o Personality change/behaviour
o Memory disturbance
o Confusion

358
Q

What signs may you find in a patient with a brain tumour?

A
  • Papilloedema
  • Focal neurological deficit
    o Hemiparesis
    o Hemisensory loss
    o Visual field defect
    o Dysphasia
359
Q

What red flags would trigger an urgent neurology referral for a suspected brain tumour?

A

Headache
o With features of raised ICP (including papilloedema)
o With focal neurology – check for field defect

Other urgent referrals
o New onset focal seizure
o Rapidly progressive focal neurology (without headache)
o Past history of other cancer

360
Q

What is the difference in presentation between high and low grade tumours?

A

Low grade – typically present with seizures (but also can be an incidental finding)

High grade – rapidly progressive neurological deficit, symptoms of raised intracranial pressure

361
Q

What investigations should be performed for a patient with a suspected brain tumour?

A

Brain imaging

  • CT (with contrast)
  • MRI - more sensitive
Brain biopsy (if tumour identified) 
- Histology and molecular markers
362
Q

What would you see on a brain scan of a high grade tumour?

A

irregular mass with vasogenic oedema, enhancement often seen

363
Q

What is the low grade glioma scanning protocol?

A

o Cerebral blood volume
o MR spectroscopy
o Rate of growth
o Enhancement

364
Q

What are some molecular markers for brain tumours?

A

 IDH mutation – important in prognosis
 Chromosome 1p19q co-deletion
 ATRX loss
 TP53 mutation

365
Q

What is the survival for brain tumours?

A
  • Treatment is non-curative (except for grade I)
  • Only 19% survive 5 years or more
  • Only 14% of all brain tumours survive 10 or more years
366
Q

What is the treatment for high grade gliomas?

A
  • Steroids – reduce oedema
  • Surgery – biopsy or resection
    o For tissue diagnosis, relief of raised ICP,
    prolongation of survival
  • Radiotherapy – mainstay of treatment
    o Radical vs palliative
  • Chemotherapy – Temozolomide, PCV
  • Prognosis – 6 months non treatment/18 months with
367
Q

What is the treatment for low grade gliomas?

A
  • Surgery – early resection or biopsy
    o Awake craniotomy
    o With mapping much more successful
  • Radiotherapy alone – delays disease transformation not overall survival
  • Radiotherapy and chemotherapy – evidence improves long-term survival
368
Q

What are pituitary tumours?

A
  • Tumours – almost always benign and are usually curable
  • Excessive hormone production
  • Local effects of the tumour
  • Inadequate hormone production by the remaining pituitary gland
369
Q

Describe the epidemiology of sleep disorders

A
  • General sleepiness – 0.5-36%
  • Insomnia – 4-19% for more chronic forms
  • Obstructive Sleep Apnoea (OSA)- 2-4% middle aged adults
  • Delayed sleep phase syndrome – 7% of adolescents
  • Narcolepsy – 0.03-0.16%
  • Sleep walking – 1-15% adults
  • Sleep terrors – 3% children

(American Academy sleep medicine 1997)

370
Q

Why are sleeping disorders a serious problem?

A

Mortality - accidents

  • 1 in 6 crashes
  • 1500 fatalities per annum
  • Patients with obstructive sleep apnoea make more errors than control and drunk group (George 1996)

Morbidity

  • Obesity
  • Depression
  • Suicide

Poor performance

  • Work
  • Relationships
371
Q

Define sleep and coma

A
  • Sleep – unconsciousness from which the person can be aroused by sensory or other stimuli
  • Coma – unconsciousness from which the person cannot be aroused
372
Q

Describe stage 1 of sleep

A
  • Lightest stage of NREM sleep
  • Presence of slow eye movements
  • Can easily be disrupted causing awakenings or arousals
  • Muscle tone throughout the body relaxes and brain wave activity begins to slow from that of wake
373
Q

Describe stage 2 of sleep

A
  • First actual stage of defined NREM sleep
  • Slow moving eye movements discontinue
  • Brain waves continue to slow with specific bursts of rapid activity known as sleep spindles intermixed with sleep structures knowns as K complexes
    o Both are thought to serve as protection for the brain from awakening from sleep
  • Body temperature begins to decrease and heart rate begins to slow
374
Q

Describe stage 3 of sleep

A
  • Deep NREM sleep
  • Most restorative stage of sleep, consists of delta waves or slow waves
  • Parasomnias (sleepwalking, sleep talking, somniloquy and night terrors) occurring during the deepest stage of sleep
375
Q

Describe REM sleep (including the 2 stages)

A
  • Rapid eye movement – dreaming stage
  • Eye movements are rapid, moving from side to side and brain waves are more active
  1. Tonic stage – desynchronised EEG – low voltage, increased frequency, muscle atonia
2.	Phasic stage – rapid eye movements
o	Fast saccadic eye movements
o	Irregular breathing 
o	Increased heart rate 
o	Myoclonus
o	Apnoea
o	Hyperpnea 
o	Dreaming
376
Q

What are arousals and what are the criteria that define them?

A
  • An abrupt shift in EEG frequency, which may include theta, alpha, beta waves but no spindles
  • Criteria
    o Subject must be asleep with a minimum of 10 continuous seconds of sleep
    o The EEG frequency shift must be 3 seconds or longer
    o Arousals may occur without concurrent increases in submental EMG
    o Arousals cannot be scored based on increases of submental EMG alone
377
Q

What are the two theories of sleep?

A
  • Passive theory of sleep – excitatory areas of reticular activating system (RAS) in the upper brain stem fatigue and become inactive
  • Active inhibitory process – stimulation of centre located below the midpontine level of the brainstem inhibiting excitatory areas (RAS) in the upper brainstem leading to sleep
378
Q

What two timings are important for the regulation of sleep?

A

Circadian timing – lasts about 24 hours
o Hypothalamus – suprachiasmatic nucleus
o Pineal gland – melatonin

Ultradian timing – lasts less than 24 hours 
o	Cycling of sleep stages 
o	Prepontine nuclei
o	Raphe nuclei
o	Locus coeruleus
379
Q

What should be included in a childhood sleep history?

A
  • Onset of symptoms
o	Hypersomnia 
o	Insomnia 
o	Behavioural attacks in sleep 
o	Restlessness/limb movements
o	Sleep disordered breathing 
o	Dreams/nightmares/hallucinations 
o	Emotional trauma
380
Q

What should be included in an adult sleep history?

A

o Bedtime
o Sleep onset latency

o	Arousals 
	Attacks 
	Breathing problems
	Kicking/restlessness 
	Dreams/nightmares/hallucinations
	Enuresis/nocturia 
	Other

o Rising time
o Refreshment
o Daytime somnolence (sleepiness) – Epworth Sleepiness score
o Daytime dreams
o Cataplexy – strong emotion or laughter causes collapse with retained consciousness

381
Q

Name some sleep questionnaires and rating scales

A

The Epworth sleepiness scale
o Rank likelihood of falling asleep in certain situations

Restless legs syndrome rating scale
o Assess severity of restless leg

Parkinson’s disease sleep scale
o Assess sleep in PD

382
Q

What are two objective measures of sleep quality?

A
Outpatient neurophysiology studies
o	Pulse oximetry
o	Ambulatory EEG
o	Limited outpatient respiratory monitoring 
o	Actigraphy 

Inpatient telemetry studies – Polysomnography
o Prolonged video EEG telemetry
o Respiratory monitoring
o Movement detection – EMG, Actigraphy

383
Q

What is the multiple sleep latency test (MSLT)?

A

o Measures time to fall asleep in a darkened room on at least 4 separate occasions across the day following an instruction to fall asleep
o Analyse EEG for sleep onset/REM onset
o Severe sleepiness – mean sleep latency <5 mins
o Mild-moderate sleepiness – mean sleep latency 6-8 mins
o Normal >8 mins
o 2 or more sleep onset REM periods compatible with narcolepsy (but not totally specific

384
Q

What is the maintenance of wakefulness test?

A

o Measures the ability to keep awake (by EEG criteria) during 4 planned naps throughout the day following an instruction to keep awake
o The test is stopped at sleep onset or after 40 mins
o Severe sleepiness – mean sleep latency <10 mins
o Moderate – mean sleep latency 11-20 mins
o Mild – mean sleep latency 21-30 mins
o Normal – mean sleep latency >31 mins

385
Q

What are vigilance tests?

A

o Computer based assessment of sustained visual attention
o Measures the reaction time take to press a button in response to a stimulus that is presented on a screen at random intervals over a given time period

E.g. Olser test, Psychomotor vigilance test (PVT)

386
Q

What is the international classification of sleep disorders?

A
  • Insomnia
  • Hypersomnia
    o Sleep disordered breathing
    o Hypersomnia of central origin
  • Circadian rhythm disorders
  • Parasomnias
  • Movement of disorders of sleep

(American academy of sleep medicine 2005)

387
Q

What is insomnia?

A
  • Commonest sleep disorder in the industrialised world
  • Inability to achieve and maintain sleep
  • Complaint of poor-quality sleep
  • > 1-month duration
  • Associated with fatigue, poor memory and concentration is short term sufferers
  • Transient insomnia may be associated with stress, shift work, jet lag, pain, alcohol, drug withdrawal
  • Chronic insomnia is usually associated with psychiatric disorders (depression, alcohol/drug abuse, caffeine excess, physical illness (pain, breathlessness), cat naps
  • PSG/MSLT are usually normal in chronic cases
388
Q

What is the treatment of insomnia?

A

o Exclude other sleep disorders
o Good sleep hygiene
o Short term prescription (4 weeks) of hypnotic sedatives (e.g. zolpidem, temazepam)
o CBT – treatment of first choice for chronic insomnia (70-80% of patients benefit)
o Often difficult to treat

389
Q

What are the differential diagnosis of excessive daytime tiredness?

A
  • Sleep disordered breathing
    o Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome
    o Central sleep apnoea
    o Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
  • Hypersomnia of central origin
    o Narcolepsy with cataplexy
    o Narcolepsy without cataplexy
     Secondary narcolepsy (MS, PD, Head injury, encephalitis, tumour)
    o Idiopathic hypersomnia
    o Recurrent hypersomnia – Klein Levin Syndrome
  • Insufficient sleep syndrome
  • Drug induced hypersomnia
  • Hypersomnia due to medical conditions
  • Depression and anxiety syndromes
390
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA)?

A
  • Obstructive sleep apnoea - repeated upper airway collapse during sleep
  • Apnoea – ten second pause in breathing activity
  • Hypopnea – ten second period in which ventilation is reduced by at least 50%
391
Q

What can be used to measure the severity of OSA?

A

o Apnoea-hypopnea index (AHI)

392
Q

What are the day symptoms of OSA?

A
o	Excessive daytime sleepiness
o	Unrefreshing sleep
o	Memory disturbances
o	Morning headache 
o	Depression 
o	Decreased libido 
o	Stomach ache
393
Q

What are the night symptoms of OSA?

A
o	Snoring 
o	Apnoea
o	Choking, gasping
o	Arousals 
o	Sweating
o	Dry mouth
o	Palpitation 
o	Nocturia
394
Q

What are the risk factors for OSA?

A
o	Obesity 
o	Age
o	Male gender
o	Positive family history 
o	Alcohol consumption before bedtime
o	Race
o	Smoking
o	Sedatives
o	Craniofacial anomalies
o	Hypothyroidism, acromegaly
395
Q

What are treatment options for OSA?

A
CPAP
o	Benefits (randomised controlled trial evidence)
o	Sleepiness
o	Cognition
o	Health status
o	Driving 
o	Blood pressure 

MAD/MRS
o MAD – mandibular advancement devices
o MRS – mandibular repositioning splints
o Controlled trial evidence in mild to moderate OSA – reduces AHI, symptoms, sleepiness and BP
o RCTs show CPAP gives better outcomes

Surgery
o Controlled trial evidence that maxillomandibular advancement improves AHI, vigilance to similar extent as CPAP

396
Q

What is narcolepsy? What are its features?

A

Nocturnal sleep quality is poor – this contributes to excessive daytime sleepiness
o Several night-time awakenings
o Dreams occur immediately on falling asleep

Hypnagogic (sleep onset) and hypnopompic (upon awakening) hallucinations
o Auditory, visual, somaesthetic
o Feeling of a threatening stranger in bedroom
o Scary
o Patients are fearful of going to bed

Sleep paralysis
o	Inability to move the limbs, head or breath properly 
o	Terrifying, suffocating 
o	Duration – seconds to minutes
o	Associated with REM intrusion 
o	Can be terminated if patient is moved
397
Q

What is the age of onset for narcolepsy?

A

o Mean age is 30-40yrs
o Bell shaped age of onset graph
o Age of onset in middle ages

398
Q

What is cataplexy?

A

o Sudden drop in muscle tone triggered by emotions
o Worsens with poor sleep and fatigue
o May affect all striated muscles
o May be limited to face or affect entire body
o Consciousness is retained
o Duration of attack varies – seconds – minutes
o Attack occasionally last hours – status cataplecticus – precipitated by withdrawal of anticataleptic drugs

399
Q

How is narcolepsy diagnosed? (with and without cataplexy)

A

With cataplexy
o Excessive day time sleepiness – almost every day for at least 3 months
o Cataplexy episodes
o Presence of HLA DQB1*0602
o Overnight polysomnogram followed by MSLT – short sleep latency

Without cataplexy
o Excessive day time sleepiness
o Nocturnal polysomnogram followed by MSLT to confirm
o Hypersomnia not explained by another condition

400
Q

What is the pathophysiology of narcolepsy?

A
  • Precise cause is unknown – both environmental and genetic factors may play a part
  • The peptide hypocretin (orexin) may be involved – derived from the hypothalamus
    o Thought to be involved in sleep/wake cycles, food intake and pleasure-seeking behaviour
    o Narcolepsy may be caused by the loss of a relatively few neurons that are responsible for producing it in the CNS
    o Possibly – immunological mechanisms may lead to loss of hypocretin
  • Possible triggers include – head trauma, infection and change in sleep habits
401
Q

What is the treatment of narcolepsy?

A
  • Planned naps – early afternoon
  • Good sleep hygiene
  • Stimulants
    o Modafinil
    o Methylphenidate
    o Amphetamines
402
Q

How can cataplexy be treated?

A

o SSRIs – fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline
o Noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor – Venlafaxine
o Other antidepressants – Effect is immediate but more side effects
 TCAs – imipramine, clomipramine, protriptyline

403
Q

Name the movement disorders of sleep

A
  • Restless leg syndrome
  • Periodic limb movements of sleep
  • Propriospinal myoclonus
  • Rhythmic movement disorder of sleep
404
Q

What is restless leg syndrome (RLS)?

A
  • Sensorimotor disorder of extremities
  • Irresistible urge to move legs
  • Relieved by movement of legs
  • Worse towards evening
  • Common yet frequently undiagnosed
405
Q

Describe primary RLS

A

o Genetic predisposition
o Tends to be earlier onset and more severe than secondary causes
o Natural history poorly understood – long delays in seeking attention and few longitudinal studies

406
Q

What can cause secondary RLS?

A

o Iron deficiency
o End stage renal failure
o Pregnancy
o Drugs – TCAs, antipsychotics

407
Q

What is the treatment of RLS?

A
o	Iron 
o	Dopamine agonists
o	L-dopa
o	Clonazepam 
o	Pregabalin 
o	Gabapentin 
o	Opiates
408
Q

What are the disorders classed as parasomnias?

A
  • Nightmare disorder
  • Sleepwalking disorder
  • REM sleep behaviour disorder
    o Enactment of dreams during REM sleep
    o Kicking, flailing, shouting, talking, sitting up
    o Can have underlying cause – drug/alcohol withdrawal, tumours, Parkinson’s, Alzheimer’s
409
Q

Name 3 causative organisms of bacterial meningitis

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis (most common)
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Listeria monocytogenes
410
Q

What are the clinical features of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Typically, with headache, fever, photophobia, neck stiffness
  • Cranial nerve palsies (III, IV, VI, VII)
  • Focal neurological deficits – usually in S. pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
  • Raised ICP – altered conscious level, hypertension, bradycardia, abnormal respiratory patter, papilloedema (late)
  • Non blanching rash
  • Septic shock
411
Q

What investigations should be performed for suspected bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Lumbar puncture – ideally within one hour of presentation
  • Blood cultures and PCR
  • CXR for evidence of TB
412
Q

What is the prognosis for bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Fatal in approx. 10% with disease
    o Approx. 5% with meningitis
    o Up to 50% with septicaemia
    o Approaching 100% if untreated
  • If survive – 1 in 8 suffer long term morbidity
    o Headache, joint stiffness, epilepsy, hearing loss, learning difficulties
  • Early antibiotics improve prospect of recovery
413
Q

What is the main treatment of bacterial meningitis?

A

Prompt antibiotics
o IV ceftriaxone or cefotaxime
o After blood cultures ± lumbar puncture
o Delay associated with increased morbidity

414
Q

Should steroids be used in the treatment of bacterial meningitis?

A
  • Dexamethasone for 4 days if
    o Organism unknown
    o Streptococcus pneumoniae confirmed
  • Vancomycin CSF penetration may be reduced
  • Efficacy varies developed vs developed countries

(De Gans J, et al. Dexamethasone in adults with bacterial meningitis. N Engl J Med 2002)

However

Adjunctive dexamethasone in bacterial meningitis – a meta-analysis

  • Van de Beed D, et al. Lancet Neurology 2010
  • N=2029, 5 RCTS included, 81% with confirmed bacterial meningitis
  • Concluded dexamethasone does not seem to reduce death or neurological disability
  • Benefit for all or any subgroup of patients remains unproven
415
Q

What are the current NICE guidelines regarding the use of steroids in meningitis?

A

2010, updated 2015

Give dexamethasone for suspected or confirmed bacterial meningitis if LP reveals –
o Frankly purulent CSF
o CSF WBC count greater than 1000
o Raised CSF WBC count with protein concentration greater than 1g/L
o Bacteria on gram stain

416
Q

What is the epidemiology of neisseria meningitidis?

A
  • England – predominantly groups B, C, W, Y
  • Predominantly children <4 years old
    o Peak in 5 to 6 months
  • 2nd highest incidence in 15-19-year olds
  • Mostly sporadic cases
  • 747 reported cases of invasive meningococcal disease in England 2016/2017
    o Decreasing
    o Due to the introduction of vaccination
417
Q

What is the carriage and transmission of neisseria meningitidis?

A
  • Throat carriage in approx. 10% population
    o 25% of 15 to 19 years
  • Person-person spread
  • Inhalation of respiratory secretions
  • Close prolonged contact e.g. household members
  • Direct contact (kissing)
  • Disease in minority
418
Q

Describe pneumococcal meningitis

A
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae
  • Main cause of bacterial meningitis in elderly
  • Contiguous spread – sinuses, middle ear
  • Neurological sequelae more common
  • Treatment as for meningococcal meningitis
  • Alternative antibiotics for penicillin resistant pneumococcus
    o Think if travelled abroad
    o E.g. vancomycin
419
Q

Describe listeria monocytogenes meningitis

A
  • 60 cases per year in England and Wales
  • Acquired by ingestion e.g. meats, dairy
  • Haematogenous spread in at risk groups
    o Adults (>55yrs) and immunocompromised
    o Pregnant women
    o Neonates
  • Meningitis in 55-70%
  • Mortality approx. 25%
  • Treatment - IV amoxicillin ± gentamicin
420
Q

Name some cause of viral (aseptic) meningitis

A
  • Enteroviruses – most common
  • Herpes simplex virus
  • Mumps
  • Measles
  • Adenovirus
  • HIV
  • Non-viral – lyme disease, syphilis, drugs
421
Q

Describe enterovirus meningitis

A
  • Incubation 2-5 days
  • Replication in respiratory or GI epithelial cells
  • Transmission – respiratory or conjunctival secretions – faeco-oral
  • Diagnosis – PCR (CSF, throat swab, faeces)
  • Self-limiting
  • Symptomatic treatment
422
Q

What is the causative agent in TB?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

423
Q

Name some risk factors of TB

A
  • HIV, alcoholism,
  • Diabetes, steroids
  • Anti-TNF agents
  • Immigration from area of high prevalence
424
Q

Describe the presentation of TB meningitis

A
  • More chronic presentation – days to weeks
  • Associated symptoms
    o Weight loss
    o Night sweats
    o Cough
425
Q

What investigations should be undertaken for suspected TB meningitis?

A
  • CXR – suggestive of active or previous pulmonary TB in 50%
-	Contrast enhanced CT brain
o	Hydrocephalus 
o	Basal enhancement
o	Infarction
o	Tuberculoma 
  • TB culture
    o Sputum sample
    o CSF sample
426
Q

What is the management of TB meningitis?

A
  • 12 months treatments
    o Rifampicin, Isoniazid, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol
  • Dexamethasone (Thwaites regimen)
  • Acetazolamide + frusemide, or repeated LP for communicating hydrocephalus
  • Consider early ventriculo-peritoneal shunting for non-communicating hydrocephalus
427
Q

What is the causative agent of cryptococcal meningitis?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

428
Q

What is the epidemiology of cryptococcal meningitis?

A
-	Usually only seen if immunocompromised (CD4 <100 cells/ul)
o	Most common – HIV infection 
-	Global distribution – bird droppings
-	Inhalation of yeasts
-	Uniformly fatal if untreated
429
Q

What is the presentation of cryptococcal meningitis?

A
  • Onset usually insidious
  • Classic meningitis symptoms and signs usually absent
  • Signs of immunodeficiency
430
Q

What is the management of cryptococcal meningitis?

A
  • Treat HIV
    o Anti-retroviral therapy
  • Serial lumbar punctures
  • Liposomal amphotericin B (AmBisome) and Flucytosine (2 weeks)
  • Subsequent 8 weeks fluconazole
    o Can be reduced after 8 weeks for secondary prophylaxis
    o Continued until CD4 >100 cells/microlitre
  • Aggressive control of raised ICP one of the most important factors in reducing mortality and morbidity
  • No evidence for use of corticosteroids
431
Q

How is encephalitis distinguished from meningitis?

A
Distinguished from meningitis by abnormalities in brain function
o	Altered mental status
o	Motor or sensory deficits
o	Altered behaviour/personality 
o	Speech or movement disorder
432
Q

List some infectious causes of encephalitis

A

Viruses
o Direct invasion of CNS
 Herpes viruses
 Arboviruses (arthropod-borne viruses)
o Immune-mediated post-infection/vaccination
 ADEM (acute disseminated encephalomyelitis) – focal neurological signs on MRI
 Mumps, measles, rubella, influenza

Bacteria
o Listeria, mycoplasma, Lyme, syphilis

TB

Parasites
o Cerebral malaria, toxoplasmosis,
parastrongylus

Fungi

433
Q

List some causes of viral encephalitis

A
Herpes viruses
o	Herpes simplex 1 and 2
o	Varicella zoster virus
o	Epstein-Barr virus
o	Cytomegalovirus
o	Human herpes virus 6, Human herpes virus 7

Enteroviruses
o Coxsackie, echoviruses, enteroviruses 70 & 71, parechovirus
o Poliovirus

Paramyxoviruses
o Measles, mumps

Others (rarer)
o Influenza, adenovirus, parvovirus, rubella

434
Q

Give some examples of geographically restricted viral encephalitis

A
The Americas
West nile encephalitis
La Crosse
St Louis 
Rabies

Europe middle/east
Tick-borne encephalitis
West nile encephalitis
Rabies

Africa
West nile encephalitis
Rabies

Asia
Japanese encephalitis
West Nile encephalitis
Rabies

Australasia
Murray valley encephalitis

435
Q

What is the epidemiology of HSV encephalitis?

A
  • 1-2 cases /250,000/year
  • Affects all age groups
  • Mortality 70% if untreated
-	2/3 survivors have significant neuropsychiatric sequalae 
o	69% memory impairment 
o	45% personality/behavioural change 
o	41% dysphasia 
o	25% seizures
436
Q

What is the clinical presentation of HSV encephalitis?

A
  • Acute presentation (May be slower in immunocompromised)
  • Flu-like prodrome
  • Fever (90%)
  • Headache
  • Altered consciousness
  • Disorientation (76%)
  • Seizures in 1/3 of patients with HSV-1 encephalitis
  • Focal neurological signs common
  • Speech disturbance (59%)
  • Behavioural change e.g. hypomania, irritability (41%)
  • Memory impairment
437
Q

How do you confirm a HSV-1 encephalitis diagnosis?

A

CSF HSV-1 DNA PCR
o Sensitivity and specificity >95% between 48 hours and 10 days between onset
o Can be negative initially

CSF HSV antibody
o Detectable from 10 days approx. (sensitivity 50%)

Imaging –
o CT may be normal initially (50% sensitivity at early stages)
o MRI more sensitive

EEG
o Non-specific focal findings in >80% HSV encephalitis
o Diffuse high amplitude slow waves
o Periodic lateralised epileptiform discharges

438
Q

Describe the use of acyclovir in the treatment of encephalitis

A
  • Reduces risk of mortality from 70% to 28%
  • Limits severity of postencephalitic impairment
  • Poor outcome if delay ≥2 days between hospitalisation and commencing treatment
  • In suspected encephalitis – perform urgent LP then commence aciclovir ± antibiotics
  • If LP likely to be delayed or patient deteriorating start presumptive aciclovir ± antibiotics at once
439
Q

When can you stop aciclovir in the treatment of encephalitis?

A
  • 14-21 days in confirmed HSV encephalitis
  • If clinical suspicion of HSV encephalitis is high but initial CSF PCR negative, continue aciclovir and repeat LP after 48 hours
  • If repeat PCR negative but clinical suspicion persists then continue IV aciclovir for at least 10 days
  • If clinical suspicion low or alternative diagnosis apparent, then stop aciclovir after second negative PCR
440
Q

Should corticosteroids be used in the treatment of encephalitis?

A
  • Retrospective non-randomised data – corticosteroid administration improved outcome in 22 of 45 patients with HSV encephalitis given steroids at the same time as aciclovir was initiated
  • Efficacy not yet proven
  • Optimal timing unclear
  • Often used if significant brain oedema or if deterioration despite appropriate antiviral treatment

(Kamei et al. Evaluation of combination therapy using aciclovir and corticosteroid in adult patients with HSV encephalitis. J Neurol Neurosurg Psychiatry 2005;76:1544-9)

441
Q

Describe HAND

A

HIV associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND)

  • AIDS dementia complex (ADC) / HIV encephalopathy
  • Minor neurocognitive disorder (MND)
  • Asymptomatic neurocognitive impairment (ANI)
  • Treatment – Antiretrovirals to treat HIV
    o Different antiretrovirals have different amount of CNS penetration
442
Q

What is the classification of infectious causes of encephalitis?

A

o Acute sporadic – e.g. HSV
o Acute parainfectious/post vaccinal – following childhood vaccinations such as measles
o Acute epidemic – e.g. JE, WNV
o Subacute, chronic and slow – e.g. HIV or CMV, EBV in the immunocompromised

443
Q

What is anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis?

A
  • A multi-centre, population-based study in the UK found 4% of anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis
  • Young female patients with psychiatric symptoms, amnesia, seizures, frequent dyskinesias, autonomic dysfunction and decreased GCS
  • All had ovarian or other teratomas
    o Recently found in patients with no known tumour and in males
  • Better outcomes if tumour resected
  • No controlled trial data available – treat with IV methylprednisolone and IV Ig and/or plasma exchange
444
Q

Define awareness and wakefulness

A
  • Awareness – the ability to have, and the having of, experience of any kind
  • Wakefulness – is a state in which eyes are open and there is a degree of motor arousal – contrasts with sleep – a state of eye closure and motor quiescence

(RCP national guidance, 2013)

445
Q

Describe the anatomy of wakefulness

A
  • Ascending reticular activating system in the midbrain and pons projections to the thalamus and cortex
  • Interlaminar nuclei of thalamus maintains arousal
  • ARAS contains cholinergic neurons in the medial pontine tegmentum to the thalamus and monoaminergic neurones projecting from the upper brainstem to the thalamus, basal forebrain and cortex
446
Q

Where in the brain is usually damaged in an unresponsive patient?

A
  • Brainstem – disrupt ascending reticular system
  • Thalamus – most common
  • Bilateral hemispheres
447
Q

Describe a coma

A
o	Unrousable
o	Unresponsive 
o	>6 hours
o	Cannot be wakened
o	Lacks normal sleep-wake cycle
o	No voluntary actions
448
Q

Describe vegetative state (VS)

A

o Can be diagnosed after 4 weeks (continuing)
o Considered permanent if >1 year following traumatic brain injury or >6 months in other mechanisms
o Controversial language – permanent vs continuing

449
Q

Describe minimally conscious state (MCS)

A

o Severely altered consciousness
o Minimal evidence of self and environmental awareness
o Inconsistent but reproducible responses to surroundings – e.g. crying every time they see a relative
o Follow simple commands – yes/no
o Crying, smiling, laughing in response to emotional stimuli
o Reaching for objects with intent
o Eye movement pursuit
o Can be diagnosed after 4 weeks of PDOC – continuing
o Permanent if >5 years in most cases
o Permeant if >3-4 years in diffuse injury, no improvement seen

450
Q

What are the preconditions for the diagnosis of VS or MCS?

A

Cause of condition is known
- Cause of the condition should be established as far as possible e.g. brain injury

Reversible causes excluded

  • Influence of drugs
  • Metabolic causes
  • Treatable structural causes e.g. collection of blood, hydrocephalus

Careful assessment

  • Assessed by a trained assessor
  • Under appropriate conditions
  • Using validated tests
451
Q

Describe some terms used for alteration of consciousness

A
  • Clouding of consciousness – reduced wakefulness and attention, excitability and irritability
  • Confusion – misinterpreted stimuli associated with a shortened attention span
  • Delirium – disorientation, fear, irritability, misperception of sensory stimuli and (visual) hallucinations
  • Obtundation – mental blunting or topidity
  • Stupor – Rousable unresponsiveness
  • Coma – total absence of awareness of self and the environment
452
Q

List some common causes of PDOC

A

Trauma
o Direct impact or deceleration injury

Vascular
o ICH, SAH, CVA

Hypoxic or hypo-perfusion
o Cardiac arrest, shock

Infection or inflammation
o Encephalitis, vasculitis

Toxic or metabolic
o Drug or alcohol poisoning, severe hypoglycaemia

453
Q

Name some chronic states of altered consciousness

A
  • Dementia
  • Hypersomnia
  • Akinetic mutism
    o Silent, alert, immobile, sleep wake cycles, no external evidence of mental activity and no spontaneous motor activity
  • Apallic syndrome (another name for Persistent vegetative state)
    o Absent neocortical and preserved brainstem activity
454
Q

Give an example of a coma mimic

A

Locked in syndrome

o Conscious – aware of self and the environment
o No voluntary movement
o High brainstem pathology with retention of blinking and vertical eye movements
o Central pontine myelinolysis
o Rapid overcorrection of hyponatraemia
o Often iatrogenic

455
Q

Describe the assessment of PDOC

A
  • History
    o Pursue collateral history – relatives etc
-	General examination
o	Skin
o	Temp
o	BP
o	Breath – e.g. pear drops smell = ketones
o	CVS
o	Abdomen 
-	Neurological examination 
o	GCS Meningism 
o	Trauma?
o	Fundoscopy/pupils
o	Tone
o	Reflexes
o	Brainstem reflexes
456
Q

Explain the glasgow coma scale

A
Eye opening 
o	Eye-opening spontaneously (4 points)
o	Eye-opening to sound (3 points)
o	Eye-opening to pain (2 points)
o	No response (1 point)
Verbal response
o	Orientated (5 points)
o	Confused conversation (4 points)
o	Inappropriate words (3 points)
o	Incomprehensible sounds (2 points)
o	No response (1 point)

Motor response
o Obeys command (6 points)
o Localised to pain (5 points)
o Withdraws to pain (4 points)
o Abnormal flexion response to pain (decorticate posturing) (3 points)
o Abnormal extension response to pain (decerebrate posturing) (2 points)
o No response (1 point)

  • Minimum point score of the three
  • Must report with broken down numbers – e.g. GCS:12, E:4, V:2, M:6
457
Q

Name 3 signs of meningism

A
  • Nuchal rigidity
  • Brudzinski sign
  • Kernig’s sign
458
Q

What are you looking for in a fundoscopy/pupil section of neurological exam?

A
  • Papilloedema on fundoscopy – raised ICP
  • Third nerve palsy
    o Eyes down and out
    o Can be caused by uncal herniation
  • Horner’s syndrome (miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis)
    o Damage to hypothalamus, cervicothoracic spinal cord, internal carotid
459
Q

What are different breathing patterns seen in a unresponsive patient and what do they signify?

A

o Cheyne strokes – apnoea followed by hyperpnoea – forebrain
o Central neurogenic – hyperpnoea ± neurogenic pulmonary oedema – midbrain/thalamus
o Apneustic – inspiratory hold – lower pons
o Cluster – clustering of breathing – lower pons
o Ataxic – completely random

460
Q

What do different gazes indicate in a unresponsive patient?

A
o	Vertical gaze 
	Rostral brainstem
	Hydrocephalus
o	Lateral gaze
	Structural 
	Irritative
	Brainstem
461
Q

Name some eye movements that can be seen in a unresponsive patient

A
o	Roving – toxic/bi-hemispheric 
o	Ping pong – extreme form of roving eye movements 
o	Retraction nystagmus – tegmental
o	Nystagmoid jerks – pontine 
o	Ocular bobbing – pontine
462
Q

What is the oculocephalic reflex?

A

o Eye stays fixated when head is moved

o Think of it as quality doll vs cheap doll – quality one eyes will move to stay fixated

463
Q

Describe a brainstem assessment

A

Breathing
Gaze
Eye movements

464
Q

Describe localisation in a coma

A

Supratentorial mass lesion e.g. tumour
o Unilateral signs
o Third nerve palsy

Brainstem
o	Asymmetric 
o	Eye movement disorder
o	Large pupils – downward shift
o	Small pupils – upward shift
o	Normal CT – basilar artery occlusion
Metabolic 
o	Normal pupils
o	Roving eye movements
o	Absent vestibular-ocular reflex and oculocephalic reflex 
o	Multifocal myoclonus 
o	Asterixis 
o	Odd forms of rigidity
465
Q

What investigations should be performed for a unresponsive patient?

A
-	Lab tests 
o	Acidosis, anion gap, osmolar gap (antifreeze)
-	Drug screen
-	Blood cultures
-	Imaging, EEG and CSF
466
Q

What is the immediate management of an unresponsive patient?

A
  • Oxygenation
  • ABC
  • Correct BP, temperature
  • 50ml 50% glucose
  • Naloxone (for opioids), flumenazil (for benzos)
  • Correct Na, Ca and eliminate toxins
  • Neurosurgery and ICP
  • Infection
467
Q

What is the long term management of an unresponsive patient?

A
  • Tracheostomy, PEG, bladder, bowel, infection and DVT prevention
  • Wean from ventilator
  • Avoid MRSA and vancomycin resistance
  • Prevent contractures
  • Protect skin
  • Avoid neurostimulation including drugs
468
Q

What indicates a poor prognosis in an unresponsive patient?

A
  • Myoclonic status
  • Absent corneal/pupil at 3 days
  • Absent motor at 3 days
  • Absent SEP
  • Increased serum neurone specific enolase
469
Q

What defines a brainstem death?

A
  • Known cause
  • No drugs and >36.5C > SBP 100 mmHg
  • Eu-volaemia, capnia, oxaemia, BP
  • Absent brainstem reflexes
  • Apnoea with no CO2 response when off ventilator
470
Q

How common is a headache as a clinical presentation?

A
  • GP – 4.4 consultations per 100 registered patients
  • Neurology – 25% referrals
  • A&E – 1-2% acute presentations
  • One-year prevalence of headache disorders is 50%
471
Q

Describe the classification of a headache

A
  • Primary – independent disorders not caused by another disease or trauma
  • Secondary – Headache is a symptom of underlying disease or injury that needs to be treated
  • Cranial neuralgias – headache that occurs due to a sudden burst of activity in sensory cranial nerves – predominantly the trigeminal nerve

(ICHD-3 (2018))

472
Q

Describe the types of pain

A
  • Nociceptive – pain proportional to stimulus
  • Inflammatory – pain out of proportional to stimulus
  • Neuropathic – pain out of proportional to stimulus
  • Headache/neurovascular – how does the pain start? Is it a nociceptive pain with sensitisation?
473
Q

How do we feel pain?

A

Acute pain
o Modulation of nociception occurs via a series of ascending and descending neural networks which supress or facilitate signals
o Brain relies on attention, context, emotion and mood for pain perception
o Pain matrix – regions active during acute pain, includes primary and secondary somatosensory cortex, insula, anterior cingulate and prefrontal cortices, thalamus but other regions can be active depending circumstances for the individual

Chronic pain
o May involve different regions of the brain to acute pain

474
Q

Does migraine have a vascular aetiology?

A
  • Many issues with this theory
  • Stimulation of vessels was focal external stimulation or mechanical dilation
  • No evidence of physiological relaxation of smooth muscle and resultant dilation can cause pain

Timing and topography of cerebral blood flow, aura, and headache during migraine attacks (Jes Olsen et al 1990)
o Headache not temporally correlated with either hypo- or hyperperfusion
o Migraine begins during hypoperfusion phase
o Hyperperfusion may outlast pain

475
Q

Describe the diagnosis of migraine without aura

A
A.	5 attacks fulfilling B-D
B.	Attacks last 4-72 hours
C.	Two of the following:
a.	Unilateral
b.	Pulsing 
c.	Moderate/severe
d.	Aggravation by routine physical activity 
D.	During headache at least one of 
a.	Nausea and/or vomiting 
b.	Photophobia and phonophobia
E.	Not attributed to another disorder
476
Q

What can head pain be evoked by?

A

o Lesions or electrodes in the periaqueductal gray in absence of vasodilation
o Stimulation of insular cortex in the absence of vascular change

477
Q

What is migraine now considered?

A

A disorder of brain excitability

478
Q

Describe the vulnerability to migraine attacks

A
  • Inherited tendency has been noticed
  • Twin studies have demonstrated the importance of genetics
  • Now several rare familial hemiplegic migraine genes have been found
    o FHM1 – Ch19, Calcium channel
    o FHM2 – Ch1, Sodium/potassium-ATPase
    o FHM3 – Ch2, sodium channel
479
Q

Describe the theories of how pain is initiated in migraine

A

Central mechanisms activate peripheral nociception that initiates pain?
o Unknown mechanisms activate deep brain structures
o Deep structures activate the sensory nerves around the head
o Sensory nerves become sensitised due to local release of signal molecules
o Sensory nerve activation causes pain

Cortex (via cortical spreading depression) activates trigeminal nerve afferents?

Brainstem is the migraine generator?

Sterile neurogenic inflammation?
o But inhibitors of neurogenic protein extravasation clinically not effective

Abnormal central interpretation of normal sensory input?

480
Q

What initiates migraines?

A
  • Activation of ipsilateral pons has been seen in migraine
  • Hypothalamic activation has been seen in migraine
  • Cortical ‘waves’ have been seen in migraine with aura
  • Spreading reduction in regional cerebral blood flow seen in migraine without aura (Woods et al, 1994)
481
Q

Describe cortical spreading depression

A
  • In animal models of migraine, it is a wave of activity followed by reduced activity that spreads across the brain surface
  • Spreads with characteristics that are very similar to clinical symptoms and PET and MRI changes of migraine seen in humans

BUT
o Classical EEG findings of CSD rarely seen in humans
o Most patients do not have neurology expected with classical CSD

482
Q

How is cortical spreading depression related to migraine in humans?

A

o Migraine may involve waves that are related, but not identical to CSD
o Different types of cortical waves may be produced by distinct cellular mechanisms

483
Q

Describe how a migraine attack may be modulated

A
  • Trigeminal nociceptive afferents innervate pain sensitive structures, including vessels, meninges and peri cranial muscles
  • Activation of TG nociceptive terminals stimulates release of neuropeptides (e.g. CGRP) which can increase the sensitivity of perivascular nociceptors and dilate cranial vessels
  • Central TG neurons terminate at the trigeminocervical complex (TCC) and CGRP release here can facilitate nociceptive trigeminovascular input
  • Plastic changes at the TG and TCC result in both peripheral and central activation and is thought to play roles in development of headache caused by sensitisation
  • TCC is modulated by ascending and descending pain modulation systems at the cortical and subcortical level
484
Q

Describe the theories of the pathophysiology of chronic migraines

A

Atypical pain processing
o Failure to regulate descending pathways modulating pain processing
o Cutaneous allodynia is an example (pain to non-painful stimuli to skin)
o Recurrent migraine attacks lead to central sensitisation
o Cortical hyperexcitability

Atypical processing in other brain regions
o Sensory, affective and cognitive pain processing

Neurogenic inflammation
o Excessive release of vasoactive peptides such as CGRP
o Excessive levels in chronic migraine vs episodic migraine (consequence or cause?)

485
Q

Describe the pathophysiology behind a medication overuse headache

A
  • Overall the pathogenesis is not clear but
  • Based on evidence from human and basic science experiments
  • MOH leads to increased excitability of cortical and TG neurons
  • May facilitate cortical spreading depression and trigeminal sensitisation
  • Underlying mechanisms maybe due to central neurotransmitter derangement affecting nociceptive modulating systems and other vegetative functions in vulnerable nervous systems in patients with primary headache syndromes
    o E.g. serotonin
    o Low levels may increase CGRP activity in TG ganglion
    o Low levels may increase expression of cortical receptors and increase CSD
486
Q

What is a chronic daily headache?

A
  • This is only a descriptive term for a headache on ≥15 days per month
  • A broad differential diagnosis exists
487
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of a primary headache?

A
o	Chronic migraine 
o	Chronic tension-type headache
o	Chronic cluster headache
o	Chronic paroxysmal hemicranias 
o	Hemicrania continua 
o	New daily persistent headache
488
Q

What are the differential diagnoses of a secondary headache?

A
o	Medication overuse headache 
o	Chronic post-traumatic headache
o	Raised intracranial pressure
o	Low CSF pressure headache
o	Chronic meningitis
489
Q

What is the diagnosis of a medication overuse headache?

A
  • Headache present on ≥15 days/month in a patient with a pre-existing headache disorder
  • Regular use for >3 months of one or more drugs that can be taken for acute and/or symptomatic treatment of headache
  • Not better accounted for by another ICHD-3 diagnosis

NICE 2012
o Triptans, opioids, ergots or combination analgesics on ≥10 days/month
o Paracetamol, aspirin or NSAID, either alone or in any combination, on ≥15 days/month

490
Q

Describe the diagnostic criteria of chronic migraine

A
  • Headache (tension type and/or migraine) ≥15 days/month for at least 3/12
  • On ≥8 days/month for at least 3 months headache has fulfilled migraine without aura criteria
  • No medication overuse and no other causative disorder
491
Q

Give a brief overview of migraine treatment

A

Episodic or criteria?

Episodic
o Lifestyle measures to reduce chance of triggering
o Acute attack treatment – hit early and hard, then stop
o Consider preventive strategy if ≥5 headache days/month

Chronic
o Detox (will worsen 1-4/52)
o Continued foundation of lifestyle
o Preventative strategy

492
Q

What are the foundations of a good lifestyle?

A
  • Avoid overuse of acute attack treatment
  • Stop all caffeine
  • Fluids ++ (2.5-3 litres per day)
  • Regular meals
  • Regular sleep – same times to bed and to get up
493
Q

Describe the chronic migraine approach to treatment

A

Good lifestyle (initially worse with detox)
o Stop acute attack drugs
o Stop caffeine
o Hydration (2-3L), regular food and sleep times
o Possible 40% response rate

Preventative drug
o 6-12 months
o Maximum tolerated dose

Consider other treatments
o Botox
o Nerve blocks etc

494
Q

What are migraine preventative drugs according to NICE?

A
  • Topiramate
  • Propranolol
  • Acupuncture
  • Riboflavin 400mg per day
  • Consider 3 monthly cranial Botox if poor response to 3 preventative drugs and MOH adequately treated (¾ respond to a varying degree, ¼ no response)
495
Q

Name some emerging treatments for migraine

A
  • CGRP modulation
  • Neurostimulation
    o Occipital nerve stimulation
    o Transcranial magnetic stimulation
    o Vagal nerve stimulation
496
Q

Name some examples of a non-enzyme inducing AED. What contraceptive should be offered?

A

Gabapentin, Pregabalin, sodium valproate

Contraception the same as other women

497
Q

Name some examples of enzyme inducing AEDs

A

carbamazepine, phenytoin, topiramate

498
Q

What contraception should be considered in women taking enzyme inducing AEDs?

A

Reduces the effectiveness of oral contraceptives (combined and mini pill), transdermal patches, the vaginal ring and progestogen-only implants

Progesterone injections, IUD or IUS is the recommended contraception

The preferred emergency contraception is a copper IUD

499
Q

What does lamotrigine interact with?

A

oestrogen-based contraceptives

o Evidence that it lowers lamotrigine levels in the blood
o Some evidence that lamotrigine can lower the amount of progesterone in blood but not oestrogen – but no conclusive evidence that it reduces the effectiveness of the pill

500
Q

What does treatment of sodium valproate in women require?

A

o Need to be on pregnancy prevention programme
o Highest chance of teratogenicity
o 4 in 10 babies are at risk of developmental disorders
o 1 in 10 are at risk of birth defects

501
Q

What seizure type poses the most risk to pregnancy? What are these risks?

A

Tonic-clonic

o Trauma from falls or burns
o Risk of premature labour
o Miscarriages
o Lowering of the fetal heart rate

502
Q

What happens to seizure frequency in pregnancy?

A
  • Seizure frequency declines or remains the same in the majority of women

o However, 15-30% of women may have an increased frequency

503
Q

Why might seizure frequency increase in pregnancy?

A
  • Physiological changes during pregnancy alter the pharmacokinetics of AEDs which may result in lower levels and seizures deterioration
    o Physiological changes in absorption, increases in renal clearance, altered hepatic clearance, increases in plasma volume distribution and hepatic enzyme induction from female sex steroid hormones
  • Poor sleep can increase seizures
  • Increased stress
  • Possible poor drug compliance during pregnancy
504
Q

What is the management of epilepsy pre-conception?

A
  • Discuss risk of AEDs causing malformations and possible neurodevelopmental in an unborn child – assess the risks and benefits
  • Likelihood of a woman taking AEDs having a baby with no malformations is at least 90%
    o Do not stop taking treatment
  • Prescribe folic acid – to reduce the risk of neural tube defects
    o 5mg per day
505
Q

What are potentially some antenatal problems seen in women with epilepsy?

A
hyperemesis gravidarum
gestational hypertension
mild preeclampsia
vaginal bleeding
anaemia
506
Q

What difficulties during labour may women with epilepsy face?

A

premature labour
failure to progress
an increased rate of caesarean sections

507
Q

What is the management of epilepsy intrapartum?

A
  • Women should deliver in a centre with adequate facilities for maternal and neonatal resuscitation.
  • Women should continue to take their anti-epileptic medication in labour.
  • Birthing pools are not recommended for women with epilepsy.
  • Intravenous access (in case of seizure).
  • Hyperventilation and maternal exhaustion should be avoided.
  • GTC seizures are associated with hypoxia. Continuous cardiotocography (CTG) tracing is recommended in the event of a seizure.
  • An intravenous benzodiazepine (e.g. lorazepam or diazepam) is recommended to terminate any seizures.
  • In the event of benzodiazepine being used to terminate the seizure, loss of baseline variability of the fetal heart rate tracing can be expected for approximately one hour
508
Q

What is the management of women with epilepsy postnatally?

A
  • Withdrawal effects in the newborn may occur with some AEDs
    o Especially with benzodiazepines and phenobarbital
  • Routine injection of vitamin K at birth minimises the risk of neonatal haemorrhage associated with AEDs
  • Breastfeeding for most women taking AEDs is generally safe and should be encouraged
  • Could be an increased risk of seizures due to lack of sleep – advise to get adequate sleep
509
Q

How can a mother reduce the risk of injury to a baby if a seizure occurs?

A

o Change or feed baby on the floor
o Avoid baby slings
o Where possible, minimise climbing of stairs
o Avoid bathing the baby when alone

510
Q

What are some non-genetic causes of epilepsy?

A

o Stroke
o Head injury
o Infections
o Metabolic problems

511
Q

What are two types of inherited epilepsy syndromes?

A

Chromosomal conditions

Single gene disorders

512
Q

Name some single gene disorders

A

 Neurofibromatosis
 Tuberous sclerosis
 Autosomal dominant frontal lobe epilepsy
 Mitochondrial disorders

513
Q

What are the different risks to a child of inheriting epilepsy?

A
o	Population risk – 1%
o	Dad has IGE – near 1%
o	Parent with focal epilepsy – 3%
o	Sibling with inherited epilepsy – 5%
o	Mum has IGE – 4-8%
o	Parent has photosensitive IGE – 50%
o	AD nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy – 50%