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Clinical Foundations > Med Terms condensed > Flashcards

Med Terms condensed Flashcards

1
Q

Greek root word for heart

A

Cardi-

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2
Q

Latin root word for heart

A

Cor-

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3
Q

Sexually transmitted disease; Derived from Venus, the Roman goddess of love

A

Venereal disease

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4
Q

Root word for extremity, tip

A

Acro

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5
Q

Root word for cell

A

Cyt

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6
Q

Root word for cause

A

Eti

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7
Q

Root word for enlarged

A

Mega

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8
Q

Root word for vein

A

Phleb

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9
Q

Prefix meaning slow

A

Brady

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10
Q

Prefix meaning fast

A

Tachy

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11
Q

Prefix meaning difficult

A

Dys

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12
Q

Prefix meaning large

A

Macro

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13
Q

Prefix meaning small

A

Micro

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14
Q

Prefix meaning little, small, scanty, deficient

A

Oligo

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15
Q

Prefix meaning many, much

A

Poly

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16
Q

Prefix meaning together

A

Sym / syn

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17
Q

Absence of blood

A

Anemia

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18
Q

Action against a poison

A

Antidote

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19
Q

Slow heart rate (< 60 bpm)

A

Bradycardia

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20
Q

Bpm for bradycardia

A

< 60 bpm

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21
Q

Fast or rapid heart rate (>100 bpm)

A

Tachycardia

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22
Q

Bpm for tachycardia

A

> 100 bpm

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23
Q

Suffix meaning inflammation

A

-itis

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24
Q

Suffix meaning excision of (cut out)

A

-ectomy

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25
Q

Suffix meaning enlargement of

A

-megaly

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26
Q

Suffix meaning forming a new opening

A

-ostomy

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27
Q

Suffix meaning incision into

A

-otomy

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28
Q

Suffix meaning surgical repair

A

-plasty

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29
Q

Suffix meaning pain

A

-algia and -dynia

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30
Q

Suffix meaning puncture of a cavity

A

-centesis

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31
Q

Suffix meaning suffering, disease

A

-pathy

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32
Q

Suffix meaning deficiency, lack of

A

-penia

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33
Q

Suffix meaning productions, formation of

A

-poiesis

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34
Q

Inflammation of the tonsils

A

Tonsilitis

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35
Q

Removal of the tonsils

A

Tonsillectomy

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36
Q

Enlargement of the heart

A

Cardiomegaly

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37
Q

Surgical repair of the nose

A

Rhinoplasty

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38
Q

Prefix and suffix meaning one half

A

Hemi

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39
Q

Prefix and suffix meaning paralysis

A

Plegia

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40
Q

Paralysis of one side of the body. E.g. cerebrovascular accident

A

Hemiplegia

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41
Q

Bluish color of hands and feet

A

Acrocyanosis

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42
Q

Inequality or variation in cell size

A

Anisocytosis

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43
Q

Difficulty swallowing

A

Dysphagia

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44
Q

Large head

A

Macrocephaly

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45
Q

Large colon

A

Megacolon

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46
Q

Small tongue

A

Microglossia

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47
Q

Decreased or small amount of urine output

A

Oliguria

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48
Q

Excessive thirst

A

Polydipsia

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49
Q

Painful joints

A

Arthralgia

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50
Q

Puncture of the chest wall with drainage of fluid

A

Thoracentesis

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51
Q

Painful coccyx

A

Coccigodynia

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52
Q

Disease of the muscles

A

Myopathy

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53
Q

Low white blood cell count

A

Leukopenia

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54
Q

Production or formation of blood cells

A

Hematopoiesis

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55
Q

Inflammation of a tendon

A

Tendonitits

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56
Q

Around the eye

A

Periocular

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57
Q

What the patient complains about

A

Symptoms

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58
Q

What the physician finds on physical examination of the patient

A

Signs

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59
Q

Body orientation meaning around

A

Circum

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60
Q

inner, within

A

Endo

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61
Q

Outer side

A

Ecto or exo

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62
Q

Over, surrounding

A

Epi

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63
Q

Below, under

A

Hypo

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64
Q

Middle

A

Meso

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65
Q

Increased convexity of the thorax; e.g. osteoporosis caused wedge-shaped deformity of the vertebrae

A

Kyphosis

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66
Q

An acutely angled thoracic vertebrae (osteoporosis, metastatic disease, tuberculosis of the spine)

A

Gibbus

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67
Q

An abnormal increase in the concavity of the lumbar spine as viewed from the patient’s side; Can occur due to muscle spasm

A

Lordosis

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68
Q

A lateral tilt of the spine; e.g. herniated disc; muscle spasm

A

List

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69
Q

Position of the foot while standing

A

Semiflexed

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70
Q

Bending or tilting away from the mid-line; e.g. neck and back

A

Lateral bending/tilt

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71
Q

Rotation to turn the palm downward

A

Pronation

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72
Q

Rotation to turn the palm upward

A

Supination

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73
Q

The active or passive circular movement of a limb of the eye

A

Circumduction

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74
Q

Bony deformities at the DIP joints secondary to osteoarthritis

A

Heberden’s nodes

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75
Q

Bondy deformities at the PIP joints secondary to osteoarthritis

A

Bouchard’s Nodes

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76
Q

Fluid in a joint

A

Effusion (musculoskeletal)

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77
Q

Skin, hair and nails

A

Integument

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78
Q

Circumscribed, flat spot; e.g. freckle

A

Macule

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79
Q

circumscribed, elevated solid lesion, up to 0.5cm in diameter; e.g. small nevus (mole)

A

Papule

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80
Q

Circumscribed, elevated, solid lesion, >0.5cm but <1cm in diameter

A

Nodule

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81
Q

Circumscribed, elevated, solid lesion; > 1 cm in diameter

A

Tumor (derm)

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82
Q

Circumscribed, elevated, fluid filled lesion up to 0.5cm in diameter (tiny blister); e.g. herpes

A

Vesicle

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83
Q

Circumscribed, elevated, fluid filled lesion >0.5cm in diameter

A

Bulla

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84
Q

Circumscribed, elevated lesion containing pus; e.g. acne pimple

A

Pustule

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85
Q

Irregular, superficial area of localized skin edema. Elevated but flat topped; e.g. hive

A

Wheal

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86
Q

Loss of superficial epidermis

A

Erosion

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87
Q

Loss of epidermis extending into dermis

A

Ulcer

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88
Q

Linear crack in the skin; e.g. common with chronic contact dermatitis of the hands

A

Fissure

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89
Q

Dried residue of serum, pus, or blood; e.g. “scab”

A

Crust

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90
Q

Thin flake of exfoliated epidermis; e.g. psoriasis, seborrheic dermatitis of scalp (“dandruff”)

A

Scale

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91
Q

Thickened, roughened skin. Exaggerated skin creases (elephant skin); e.g. Lichen Simplex Chronicus (neurodermatitis)

A

Lichenification

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92
Q

Scratch mark, PHYSICAL FINDING (pruritus (itching) is what the patient complains of = symptom)

A

Excoriation

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93
Q

Protruding eyeballs; e.g. Grave’s disease (autoimmune disease that attacks muscles/tissues around the eyes)

A

Exophthalmos

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94
Q

Sunken eyeballs

A

Endophthalmos; e.g. severe dehydration, “blow out” fracture

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95
Q

Drooping of the upper lid; e.g. 3rd cranial nerve palsy, Horner’s Syndrome, Myasthenia Gravis

A

Ptosis

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96
Q

Margin of the lower eyelid is turned outward exposing the palpebral conjunctive. Result is constant tearing

A

Ectropion

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97
Q

Margin of the lower lid turns inward; e.g. more commonly seen in elderly; eyelashes irritate the conjunctiva and cornea

A

Entropion

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98
Q

Temporal (lateral) deviation of the eye; e.g. “walleyed”

A

Exotropia

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99
Q

Nasal (medial) deviation of the eye; e.g. “cross eyed”

A

Esotropia

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100
Q

Dilated pupil

A

Mydriasis

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101
Q

constricted pupil

A

Miosis

102
Q

Unequal pupiles

A

Anisocoria

103
Q

Tiny, round, red spots on the retina; e.g. diabetes mellitus (an aspect of diabetic retinopathy)

A

Microaneurysm

104
Q

An aspect of hypertensive retinopathy

A

AV nicking

105
Q

White or grayish with irregular borders (cotton wool patches); creamy or yellowish with well defined borders (waxy ____); e.g. cotton wool with hypertension, waxy ____ with diabetes mellitus

A

Exudates

106
Q

chalk-like scarring on Tympanic Membrane; e.g. recurrent otitis media; PE tubes

A

Tympanosclerosis

107
Q

Means redness - any place; e.g. Acute Otitis Media

A

Erythema

108
Q

Associated with prolonged Eustachian Tube Obstruction causing negative middle ear pressure

A

Inward displacement of tympanic membrane

109
Q

Marked retraction of Tympanic Membrane over middle ear ossicles from significant negative middle ear pressure. Ossicles look quite pronounced - clearly visible

A

Skeletonization of Tympanic Membrane

110
Q

Hole in the tympanic membrane; e.g. Spontaneous due to Acute Otitis Media, head trauma or trauma from placing something in ear canal; from previous PE tube placement

A

Perforation of tympanic membrane

111
Q

Typically is S-shaped; when the thin wall between nasal passages is displaced to one side; e.g. congenital or traumatic

A

Nasal septal deviation

112
Q

Small superficial ulceration of oral mucosa; e.g. “canker” sore

A

Aphthous ulcer

113
Q

White patch on the epithelium of mucous membranes (oral, genital, anal); e.g. Lichen planus, squamous cell carcinoma)

A

Leukoplakia

114
Q

Increased AP diameter of the chest; e.g. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

A

Barrel Chest

115
Q

Chest deformity characterized by depression of the lower portion of the sternum (“funnel chest”); e.g. congenital, Rickets, Marfan’s, Cobbler’s Chest

A

Pectus Excavatum

116
Q

Chest deformity characterized by the anterior displacement of the sternum (“pigeon chest”); e.g. congenital, Rickets, Marfan’s

A

Pectus Carinatum

117
Q

Palpable vibrations transmitted through the bronchopulmonary tree. Best appreciated by placing the palmar aspect of the metacarpal-phalangeal joints against the thorax. E.g. increased when there is consolidation as with pneumonia, decreased with bronchial plug or with pleural effusion

A

Tactile Fremitus

118
Q

Resonant, Hyperresonant, Dull, Flat

A

4 Percussion Notes

119
Q

Percussion notes over the normal chest

A

Resonant

120
Q

Percussion notes in COPD

A

Hyperresonant

121
Q

Percussion notes over the liver

A

Dull

122
Q

Percussion notes over the thigh muscle

A

Flat

123
Q

Breath sound where inspiration is longer than expiration (true over most of the thorax)

A

Vesicular

124
Q

Breath sound where inspiration equals expiration in length (between scapulae)

A

Bronchovesicular

125
Q

Breath sound where expiration is longer than inspiration (over suprasternal notch)

A

Bronchial or Tracheal

126
Q

Relatively brief, inspiratory (primarily) non-musical adventitial sounds heard on auscultation of the chest. Come from small airways and can relate to secretions or fibrosis.

A

Crackles

127
Q

Crackles that are soft, high pitched, e.g. CHF

A

Fine Crackles

128
Q

Crackles that are louder, lower in pitch, e.g. pneumonia

A

Coarse crackles

129
Q

Low pitched adventitial sounds heard on auscultation of the chest. They are of longer duration, snoring-like quality, and come from secretions in large airways. E.g. bronchitis

A

Rhonchi

130
Q

High pitched, musical adventitial sounds heard on auscultation of the chest. Longer duration than other 2, caused by air flow through narrowed airways. E.g. Asthma (bronchospasm), foreign body in bronchus

A

Wheeze

131
Q

An upper airway inspiratory sound caused from airway obstruction in the trachea or larynx. Louder and typically lower pitched than a wheeze. Commonly heard without the stethoscope. E.g. Acute Laryngotracheobronchitis (Group); foreign body in the trachea

A

Stridor

132
Q

Louder than normal and more clearly heard transmitted voice sound. E.g. “99” increased with consolidation as with pneumonia

A

Bronchophony

133
Q

The spoken letter “E” is heard as “A”. Somewhat of a nasal quality. E.g. heard with consolidation as with pneumonia

A

Egophony

134
Q

Whispered sounds are heard louder and more clearly. E.g. “99” heard with consolidation as with pneumonia.

A

Whispered Pectoriloquy

135
Q

Pleural and Cardiac. Like pieces of leather rubbed together or a creaking sound. Heard during inspiration and expiration. E.g. pleuritis; pericarditis

A

Friction Rub

136
Q

Relatively prolonged extra heart sounds caused by a disruption in blood flow through and out of the heart. Some are “innocent” and non-pathogenic; others are pathogenic. Can be caused by a septal defect, valvular disease, etc.
Described as systolic and/or diastolic; also as early, mid, late, holo (pan). Described as flow or ejection.
Described by quality and pitch, duration, location and if radiation.
Loudness is graded:
Grade 1: Barely audible
Grade 2: Easily audible
Grade 3: Loud, no palpable thrill
Grade 4: Loud, palpable thrill
Grade 5: loudest requiring a stethoscope on the chest
Grade 6: Can be heard with stethoscope off the chest

A

Murmurs

137
Q

Palpable vibration over the chest. E.g. May accompany loud murmurs (4/6 or greater in intensity)

A

Thrill

138
Q

Extra systolic sound of short duration. E.g. Mitral Valve Prolapse

A

Click

139
Q

Murmur over a vessel. E.g. carotoid _____ in partial carotid artery occlusion
Systolic ____ may be heard normally over the aorta, in particular, and sometimes the renal arteries in thin individual.
Both systolic and diastolic ____ over a renal artery suggests renal artery stenosis.
E.g. Renal artery stenosis, abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

Bruit

140
Q

Gently rounded

A

Convex

141
Q

Not convex or concave

A

Flat

142
Q

Words describing Concavity

A

Concave or Scaphoid

143
Q

Streaks most often on abdomen. Collagen fibers disrupted.
E.g. stretch marks from pregnancy - pink and become silvery with time
E.g. ____ with Cushing’s Syndrome - purplish pink in color

A

Striae

144
Q

Prominence of flanks. E.g. Ascites - free fluid in the abdomen

A

Bulging Flanks

145
Q

Describes bowel sounds that are frequent and loud peristaltic sounds

A

Borborygmmi

146
Q

An abnormal finding on percussion of the abdomen - a characteristic physical finding of ascites

A

Shifting Dullness

147
Q

An abnormal palpable finding on examination of the abdomen - a characteristic of ascites

A

Fluid Wave

148
Q

Dullness over liver; tympanitic with gas in GI tract

A

Percussion

149
Q

Combining form that means unlike or unequal

A

Aniso

150
Q

Developmental anomaly in which the urethra opens below its usual placement at the tip of the penis. It may open anywhere on the undersurface (ventral aspect) of the penis or even on the perineum.

A

Hypospadias

151
Q

Undescended testicle

A

Cryptorchidism

152
Q

When the urethral opening is above its usual placement and anywhere along the upper surface (dorsal aspect) of the penis

A

Epispadias

153
Q

A nontender, fluid-filled mass that occupies the space within the tunica vaginalis. The mass will transilluminate.

A

Hydrocele

154
Q

Varicose veins of the spermatic cord. On examination, the mass feels like a “bag of worms” and is non-tender.

A

Varicocele

155
Q

A non-tender, cystic scrotal mass which contains sperm and can be palpated above the testis. It will trans-illuminate.

A

Spermatocele

156
Q

A weakness in the abdominal wall in the inguinal region of the body in which the intestine bulges our or into the scrotum.

A

Inguinal hernia

157
Q

Type of inguinal hernia that emerges medial to the inferior epigastric artery

A

Direct inguinal hernia

158
Q

Type of inguinal hernia that passes through the inguinal canal and emerges lateral to the inferior epigastric artery

A

Indirect inguinal hernia

159
Q

Orientation of the uterus that refers to whether the uterus is bent on itself (angulated)

A

Flexion of the uterus

160
Q

Two ways the uterus may be flexed (bent) on itself

A

Anteriorly (anteflexed) or posteriorly (retroflexed)

161
Q

Describes flexion of the uterus that is bent on itself anteriorly (upper part is bent forward)

A

Anteflexed

162
Q

Describes flexion of the uterus that is bent on itself posteriorly (upper part is bent backward)

A

Retroflexed

163
Q

The point of reference of the uterus when describing flexion/version. Can be bent forward or backward, and tilted forward or backward.

A

Superior (top) aspect of the organ

164
Q

Two ways the uterus may be tipped or tilted (as opposed to flexion)

A

Anteriorly (anteversion) or posteriorly (retroversion)

165
Q

Describes when the uterus is tipped/tilted anteriorly (upper part is tilted forward)

A

Anteversion

166
Q

Describes when the uterus is tipped or tilted posteriorly. The upper part is tilted backward.

A

Retroversion

167
Q

Describes when, due to weakness of the supporting structures, the uterus descends to variable degrees in the vaginal canal. In its greatest severity, the entire uterus protrudes beyond the vaginal introitus.

A

Uterine Prolapse

168
Q

When there is weakness of the supporting structures of the bladder, causing a bulging of the anterior vaginal wall and the bladder.

A

Cystocele

169
Q

When there is weakness of the supporting structures of the rectum, causing a bulging of the posterior vagina and the rectal wall behind it.

A

Rectocele

170
Q

Common benign uterine tumors. They may be single or multiple. They are firm nodules, may be very large and can cause marked enlargement and irregularity of the uterus.

A

Myomas

171
Q

Common benign ovarian cysts that are smooth and somewhat compressible

A

Serous cystadenoma and Mucus cystadenoma

172
Q

Common, benign tumors containing varying proportions of tissue from all three germ layers including hair, teeth and bone.

A

Der-moids

173
Q

Fluid buildup in the abdomen

A

Ascites

174
Q

Ovarian cancers examples that can be huge and ascites is often associated

A

Serous Cystadenocarcinomas and Mucus Cyst-adenocarcinoma

175
Q

Fluid in intercellular tissue spaces. May be pitting (depression caused by pressure) or non-pitting. Many causes. Grading typically 1-4+. E.g. dependent ____ with venous insufficiency, right heart failure

A

Edema

176
Q

Depression caused by pressure

A

Pitting

177
Q

Caused from lymphatic obstruction as for example when a lymph node dissection has been done or radiation for a malignancy. It is non-pitting. E.g. ____ of the arm after surgery for breast cancer

A

Lymphedema

178
Q

Generally described as normal, decreased or absent. “Bounding” peripheral _____ with Patent Ductus Arteriosis

A

Pulses

179
Q

Where light, simple, and gross touch are transmitted by fibers.

A

Anterior Spinal Thalmic Tract

180
Q

Transmitted by fibers in the Anterior Spinal Thalamic Tract. Test by wisp of cotton

A

Light/simple/gross touch

181
Q

Transmitted by fibers in the Lateral Spinal Thalamic Tract. Pin prick traditionally used to test

A

Pain and Temperature

182
Q

Where pain and temperature are transmitted by fibers

A

Lateral Spinal Thalamic Tract

183
Q

Fibers run in the dorsal (posterior columns) of the spinal cord. Three components: position sense, vibratory sensation, and tactile sense

A

Proprioception

184
Q

Three components of proprioception

A

Position sense, vibratory sensation, and tactile sense

185
Q

Where fibers for proprioception run

A

The dorsal (posterior columns) of the spinal cord

186
Q

The ability to recognize shape, size, and texture of objects by feeling. Also referred to as stereognosis.
The ability to recognize letters and figures drawn on the skin by touch. Also referred to as stereognosis and graphesthesia

A

Tactile sense/discrimination

187
Q

The ability to recognize two separate points (distinct from one single point) at which pressure is simultaneously applied on the skin. Also known as stereognosis. A proprioceptive function

A

Two point discrimination

188
Q

Ability to recognize objects placed in hand - a proprioceptive function. E.g. finding a dime in your pocket or keys in your purse

A

Stereognosis

189
Q

The inability to recognize objects placed in hand

A

Astereognosis

190
Q

Ability to recognize numerals or letters traced on the skin - proprioceptive function

A

Graphesthesia

191
Q

A test of position sense (of the posterior columns, NOT the cerebellum)

A

Romberg

192
Q

The rhythmic oscillation of the eyes - occurs with problem in inner ear and vestibular nuclei. Can be drug related, e.g. Dilantin

A

Nystagmus

193
Q

Inability to stop one movement and follow it immediately by the directly opposite action. That is to perform rapid alternating movements smoothly and in coordinated fashion.

A

Dysdiadochokinesis

194
Q

Involuntary oscillating movement or trembling in an extremity. There are resting, postural, and intention _____. E.g. resting ____ in Parkinson’s Disease

A

Tremor

195
Q

Tested in both upper and lower expremities, both proximally and distally; flexion, extension, etc. Graded 0-5 (e.g. 3/5)

A

Strength

196
Q

Weakness on one side of the body. E.g. cerebrovascular accident

A

Hemiparesis

197
Q

Stretch reflexes, grading 0-4+
Clonus = sustained series rhythmic jerks = 4+

A

Deep Tendon Reflexes

198
Q

Abnormal reflex of sustained series rhythmic jerks of the deep tendon reflexes graded 4+

A

Clonus

199
Q

Pathological reflex test using a blunt object (e.g. handle of reflex hammer, key), stroke the plantar surface of the outer border of the foot from the heel extending distally and then curving medially across the distal foot.
Normal response = downgoing (plantary flexion) great toe
Abnormal response = upgoing (dorsiflexion) great toe with spreading of the toe. sign of upper motor neuron disease (e.g. CVA)
Normal in infants

A

Babinski

200
Q

Normal response to the Babinski reflex

A

A downgoing (plantar flexion) of the great toe

201
Q

Abnormal response to the Babinski reflex.
Sign of uper motor neuron disease (e.g. CVA)

A

An upgoing (dorsiflexion) of the great toe with spreading of the toes

202
Q

Can refer to any constricted portion of an organ or part like the cervix of the uterus

A

Cervix

203
Q

Latin word that refers to the neck region

A

Cervical

204
Q

Large or swollen lymph glands

A

Adenopathy

205
Q

Prefix meaning gland, frequently referring to lymph glands or lymph nodes

A

Adeno

206
Q

The region adjoining the uterus that contains the ovaries and fallopian tubes, as well as associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue.
Latin for appendages; the parts adjoining an organ

A

Adnexa

207
Q

Cessation of breathing for more than 10-20 seconds, or for any duration if associated with bradycardia or cyanosis (a bluish-purple color of the skin)

A

Apnea

208
Q

Suffix that refers to breathing

A

-Pnea

209
Q

When there is bluish-purple color of the skin

A

Cyanosis

210
Q

Pale gray, color of ash; referring to a patient’s skin

A

Ashen

211
Q

Tool for lung assessment where you auscultate the lungs while the patient is saying “99”.
This should sound soft and muffled in normal lungs.
This is louder and clearer in a lobe with consolidation (alveoli are filled with fluid produced by inflamed tissue).

A

Bronchophony

212
Q

Tool for lung assessment where the patient says “E-E-E-E”
If it sounds like “A-A-A-A”, consider lung consolidation as a differential.

A

Egophony

213
Q

Tool for lung assessment where the patient whispers “1-2-3” while listening with your stethoscope.
Unusually clear transmission of the whispered word suggests consolidation

A

Whispered Pectoiloquy

214
Q

Tool for lung assessment where the patient says loudly “99” several times while you feel with your hands for vibrations produced by the voice and transmitted to the chest wall.
More vibrations over consolidations, less over pleural effusions and mucus plugs

A

Tactile Fremitus

215
Q

Blister-like swelling of the conjunctiva, the clear membrane that covers the whites of your eyes.
This symptom is most likely to happen with infections, allergies, or injuries.

A

Chemosis

216
Q

The clear membrane that covers the whites of your eyes

A

Conjunctiva

217
Q

Heart sound that gradually increases in loudness. Usually referred to a heart murmur that gets louder with time. E.g. mitral prolapse

A

Crescendo

218
Q

Heart sound that gradually decreases in loudness. Usually referred to a heart murmur that gets softer with time

A

Decrescendo

219
Q

Sweating, especially to an unusual degree as a symptom of disease or a side effect of a drug.
Excessive sweating or perspiration due to a medical, pharmacological, or health reason, not necessarily for thermoregulation.
Classically a symptom of a heart attack but can be due to an endocrine problem, medications, etc.

A

Diaphoresis

220
Q

Painful intercourse.
Persistent or recurrent genital pain that occurs just before, during, or after intercourse.

A

Dyspareunia

221
Q

Word that refers to sexual intercourse

A

Pareunia

222
Q

Medical term for bedwetting or urinary incontinence while sleeping

A

Enuresis

223
Q

Latin for pulley, refers to a grooved structure, like the grooves around the elbow

A

Trochlea

224
Q

Lymph nodes around the grooves of the elbow

A

Epitrochlear lymph nodes

225
Q

Describes one of the bony prominences toward the near end of the thighbone (femur). There are two: the greater and the lesser

A

Trochanter

226
Q

Refers to tissue that is easily irritated, which makes it more prone to bleeding, tearing, or inflammation

A

Friable

227
Q

A method of testing for blood in bodily substances like stool.
Uses ____ paper (a resin) and hydrogen peroxide to oxidize heme molecular in blood, causing a blue color to appear (positive result)

A

Guaiac test

228
Q

A brand name for a popular fecal occult blood test (FOBT)

A

Hemoccult

229
Q

Noninfectious obstruction of a meibomian gland

A

Chalazion

230
Q

An acute, localized swelling of the eyelid, involving the follicles that may be external or internal. Usually is a pyogenic (pus-producing) infection or abscess

A

Hordeolum (stye)

231
Q

Pus-producing

A

Pyogenic

232
Q

Descriptive term for yellowing of the skin, mucus membrane, and/or whites of the eyes
Indicative of jaundice when it is due to elevated levels of bilirubin in the blood (can result from various causes including liver disease, hemolytic anemia, bile duct obstruction, or inherited metabolic disorders)

A

Icterus

233
Q

When the vein that runs down the right side of the neck is swollen. Occurs when blood is unable to flow as it should, so the blood backs up in the vein, increasing _____ ____ pressure (usually a sign of heart failure, which often involves high blood pressure)

A

Jugular Vein Distension (JVD)

234
Q

Involves the positioning of an individual’s feet above or at the same level as the hips (often in stirrups), with the perineum positioned at the edge of an examination table

A

Lithotomy position

235
Q

A misalignment or incorrect relation between the teeth of the upper and lower dental arches when they approach each other as the jaw closes

A

Malocclusion

236
Q

Refers to the way opposing teeth meet

A

Occlusion

237
Q

A net or web-like pattern on the skin.
Has spots or patches with different shades or colors, like the reddish blotches that can appear on your skin if it’s exposed to extreme temperatures.
Pattern usually appears red, bluish, purple, or brown.
Believed to develop with there is a lack of blood flow to the skin.

A

Mottled Skin

238
Q

Acronym for assessing pupils

A

PERRLA
Pupils are Equal, Round, and Reactive to Light and Accommodation

239
Q

The point where there is a palpable impulse against the chest that can be felt.
Most often is from the apex or tip of the heart and is also referred to as the apical impulse.
Usually, 5th intercostal space along the left mid-clavicular line (just below the nipple).
Displaced laterally - can indicate cardiomegaly.

A

Point of Maximal Impulse (PMI) for the heart

240
Q

Descriptive terminology of the physical exam findings for a bunion (hallux valgus), especially if it involves the first metatarsal-phalangeal joint

A

Prominent Metatarsal Head

241
Q

The term given to an inward concavity of the anterior abdominal wall

A

Scaphoid abdomen

242
Q

Commonly used to describe a neck that is flexible, agile, and able to move freely

A

Supple neck

243
Q

Word that means flexible or able to perform bending or twisting movements with ease

A

Supple

244
Q

Fainting or passing; A sudden temporary loss of consiousness

A

Syncope

245
Q

An instrument measuring the pressure in a part of the body, such the eyeball to test for glaucoma

A

Tonometer

246
Q

Prefix meaning pressure

A

Tono

247
Q

Latin word that means twisted

A

Tortus

248
Q

Latin word meaning neck

A

Collum

249
Q

A painful, dystonic condition defined by an abnormal, asymmetrical head or neck position, which may be due to a variety of reasons.
Congenital muscular ____ is the most common that is present at birth

A

Torticollis

250
Q

Refers to a bilateral restriction in mouth opening from any cause

A

Trismus

Clinical Foundations (5 decks)

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