med surg test 2! Endocrine and integumentary Flashcards

1
Q

What are four different things that were discussed that have an effect on hormones?

A

Pain
Emotion
Sexual excitement
Stress

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2
Q

If a hormone acts in the opposite/inverse direction of another hormone, this is what kind of feedback system?

A

Negative feedback loop

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3
Q

What is an example of a negative feedback loop that was discussed in class?

A

Blood calcium levels and parathyroid levels

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4
Q

If the blood calcium levels are low in the body, parathyroid hormone will be ____

A

High

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5
Q

If parathyroid hormone is low in the body, blood calcium will be _____

A

High

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6
Q

If two hormones rise and fall together (move in the same direction) they are apart of what feedback system

A

Positive feedback loop

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7
Q

What are the examples of a positive feedback system that was discussed in class?

A

LH and Estrogen

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8
Q

LH and estrogen _____ and ____ together

A

RISE and FALL

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9
Q

What kind of hormones go in both directions (I really do not understand this)

A

Complex hormones

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10
Q

What two systems are super related when it comes to hormones?

A

Endocrine system and the Nervous system

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11
Q

What is the movement of calcium FROM the bones TO the bloodstream?

A

Reabsorption

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12
Q

What is the movement of calcium FROM the blood TO the bones for storage?

A

Absorption

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13
Q

_________ effects the absorption of what Calcium?

A

Cortisol

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14
Q

Cortisol is ________, so it is increased in the morning and then _________ in the evening

A

DIURNAL; decreased (peaks again by AM)

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15
Q

When do Cortisol levels need to be drawn?

A

Early at like 8am, because this is when it is at it’s highest

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16
Q

What two hormones peak during sleep?

A

Growth hormones and prolactin

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17
Q

What hormones are released in a cyclic fashion over approximately 28 days

A

Female reproductive hormones

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18
Q

What hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary?

A

Prolactin, FSH, ACTH, GH, TSH, and LH

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19
Q

Hormones from the anterior pituitary are “trophic” hormones and are secreted into the ___________

A

Bloodstream

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20
Q

The posterior pituitary STORES what two hormones?

A

ADH and Oxytocin

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21
Q

ADH and oxytocin are made where?

A

In the hypothalamus

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22
Q

What three hormones are secreted from the adrenal cortex
sugar, salt, and sex

A

Cortisol, aldosterone and androgens

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23
Q

What hormones are released from the adrenal medulla?

A

Catecholamines (Epi and NorEpi)

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24
Q

What are the targets organs that are associated with the hormones of the hypothalamus?

A

Thyroid
Kidneys
Bones
Gonads
Mammary glands
Smooth muscles
Tissue

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25
ADH is a ______________
Vasoconstrictor
26
ADH is AKA "_________" hormones
No pee
27
ADH stimulates the ____________ of water into the renal tubules
Reabsorption
28
LOTS of ADH =
LITTLE URINE OUTPUT
29
LITTLE ADH=
LOTS OF URINE OUTPUT
30
Increased ADH, little urine output will lead to?
Fluid overload
31
Decreased ADH, and lots of urine output will lead to
excessive output (Dry Inside)
32
Disorder when the body has too little ADH
Diabetes Insipidus
33
Disorder when the body has too much ADH?
SIADH
34
What hormones stimulates the ejection of milk and the contraction of smooth muscles?
Oxytocin
35
What inhibits Oxytocin?
Alcohol
36
Growth hormone targets which body cells?
All of them
37
What are the normal ranges of GH for a male
4-5
38
What are the normal ranges of GH in a female
10-18 (We need more because of menstration)
39
What are the normal ranges of GH after exercise
> 20
40
What is the diagnostic range of GH seen in acromegaly?
> 50
41
How is lab testing done for Growth Hormone
- Done with a treadmill test - NPO night before - 20-30 minutes of exercise - lab draw STAT
42
While looking at GH levels, and they have a heart issue, then what do you do to assess GH levels
They will take 50 grams of PO glucose (because they can't really do the treadmill thing)
43
How do you interpret lab draw results for GH?
GH will stay increased in they have acromegaly
44
What is a common reason why there is a GH increase?
Pituitary tumor
45
________ occurs BEFORE growth plate closure
Gigantism
46
_________ occurs AFTER growth plate closure
Acromegaly
47
What are the manifestations of GH excess ***essentially everything keeps growing and changing***
Enlarged bony structures Enlarged soft tissue Change in shoe size, change in voice, sleep apnea, HTN, cardiomegaly, and joint pain.
48
What are some ways that GH excess is tested for?
In a normal glucose test, the GH will fall but it won't if they have too much GH An MRI will show a pituitary tumor Increased IGF and GH
49
Surgery is used to remove a pituitary adenoma if it is <
10 mm
50
What is the basic outline of the surgery for a pituitary adenoma?
- Make incision of upper lip and gingiva - Approach sella turcica thru the floor of the nose and sphenoid sinuses - TRY TO ONLY REMOVE TUMOR AND NO GLAND
51
When a patient is having surgery for their pituitary adenoma removal, they surgeon had to remove the whole gland, what would the lifestyle change be?
He would need replacement hormones for life (ADH, CORTISOL, THYROID, SEX HORMONES)
52
What are the 6 pre-op considerations before a pituitary adenoma surgery
Bacitracin nose drops Education about mouth breathing (post-op their nose will be packed) They need oral care Q4 hours 6x daily Avoid coughing, sneezing, and Valsalva maneuvers Cluster care; Don't stimulate Watch for clear liquid and test for CSF
53
What are the post-op considerations for a patient who just had a pituitary adenoma removed?
- Increase HOB to decrease HA - Oral care Q 4 hours - No brushing teeth for 10 days (suture line) - Test any drainage for CSF
54
What are some additional post-op considerations for a pituitary adenoma removal?
- Persistent or severe generalized or supraorbital HA can indicate spinal fluid leakage into sinuses (usually resolves in 72 hours with HOB elevated and bed rest) - Possible daily spinal taps to decrease pressure and to help stop leaks - IV abx: decreases risk of infection if persistent leak or > 72 hours after surgery
55
What is used in conjunction with surgery for large pituitary adenomas?
Radiation therapy
56
What is the nursing care for radiation therapy?
Hold overnight for observation Monitor VS Monitor I and O Neuro checks
57
What are possible complications after radiation therapy?
N/V, HA, Seizures, DI, or SIADH (Because of a change in sodium levels)
58
What are the drug therapies that can be used for Pituitary adenomas
Dopamine agonist (decreased GH levels) Somatostatin (Decreases GH levels)
59
What is a decrease in one or more pituitary hormone?
Hypopituitarism
60
What are the causes for primary hypopituitarism?
Developmental, AI disorders, infections, vascular disease and destruction of a gland
61
What are the manifestations of primary hypopituitarism?
Weakness, fatigue, HA, dry skin, decreased stress tolerance, mental slowness, orthostatic hypotension, blindness and growth retardation
62
What is the post partum syndrome that affects the pituitary gland?
Sheehan's syndrome
63
What are risk factors for Sheehan's syndrome?
history of hemorrhage History of hypoxemic episodes during delivery
64
What are manifestations of Sheehan's syndrome?
Scant or Irregular menses Decreased secondary sex characteristics Hypothyroidism s/sx Glucocorticoid insufficiency s/sx
65
Pituitary dwarfism is when there is decreased GH levels, how is this fixed?
Give GH
66
What is the disorder caused by too much ADH and results in urine retention, but there is normal renal function?
SIADH
67
Manifestations of SIADH?
- Serum hypoosmolality - Hyponatremia and Hypochloremia -Weight loss (if you - edema)
68
Nursing care for SIADH?
- Declomycin (blocks ADH) - Fluid restriction 800-1000 cc/day - 3-5% hypertonic saline - Daily weight - Lasix-> If there is an intravascular overload - Albumin and then Lasix --> If extracellular overload
69
What is a normal serum osmolality?
285-295
70
What is the normal urine specific gravity?
1.005-1.030
71
If a patient has a high specific gravity, their urine will be ______
Dark/amber
72
If a patient has a low serum osmolality, their urine will be ______
Clear
73
In a patient with SIADH, their serum osmolality will ___ and their specific gravity will be ____
Serum osmolality will be LOW because there is fluid overload Specific gravity will be HIGH because they are putting out so little urine
74
Diagnostic Lab Tests for SIADH
Serum Sodium less than 134-135 Serum Osmolality is less than 280 Urine Specific Gravity greater than 1.025-1.030
75
A patient has Diabetes Insipidus, you will want to make them a priority and see them first, WHY?
Because it can cause clinically significant electrolyte abnormalities.
76
What are the clinical manifestations of diabetes insipidus
Polyuria (5-20 L/day) and polydipsia Urine specific gravity less than 1.005 (diluted) Elevated serum osmolality greater than 295 (concentrated) Fatigue, nocturia, and weakness
77
Central DI is _________ and there is increased ADH synthesis (in the hypothalamus) or release (in the pituitary)
Nerogenic
78
Nephrogenic DI is when the _______ do not respond to ADH like they are supposed to
KIDNEYS
79
Psychogenic DI is when there is a ______ disorder or a lesion in the thirst center
Psych
80
Nursing care for Diabetes Insipidus?
- Vasopressin- mimics ADH - IV D5W and gluc checks - Thiazide diuretics (nephrogenic) - UA to assess specific gravity - Daily weight and I&Os
81
What is used to determine the cause of DI?
Water deprivation Test
82
Steps to a water deprivation test
- Hold all fluids at midnight and get baseline SG and osmolality - Take 3 postural BP per hour/ hourly urine analysis - Weights at hours 4,6,7, and 8 - Give IV ADH
83
After a water deprivation test, if the urine SG and SO are normal it is _______
Psych; they need to stop drinking so much
84
After a water deprivation test, is the urine SG and SO are greater than 300 it is _______ and they need ___
Central; they need ADH
85
After a water deprivation test, if there is no or very little response, it is ________
Nephrogenic; total kidney issue so messing with ADH will do nothing
86
What is the normal T4 levels?
4.6-11
87
What are the normal T3 levels?
70-204
88
What are the normal TSH levels?
0.4-4.2
89
What is the hypermetabolism because of an excess of T3, T4, or both
Thyrotoxicosis
90
What is when there are antibodies that develop antigens to fight against the thyroid (TSAbs) and they produce more thyroid hormones
Hyperthyroidism/ ***Graves Disease***
91
What is the kind of hyperthyroidism that nodules secrete extra thyroid hormones and a toxic goiter
Nodular goiter
92
Nodular goiter can be caused after what?
A stressful event like a car crash, having a baby, chronic illness etc.
93
What are the diagnostic tests that are seen in hyperthyroidism?
High T3 and T4 and low TSH
94
What is the most sensitive indicator of thyroid function?
Free T4
95
What are some clinical manifestations of hyperthyroidism?
- Increased HR, palpitations, Afib, angina, increased RR and DOE - Increased appetite, thirst, decrease weight, diarrhea, increased bowel movements, splenomegaly and hepatomegaly
96
What are some manifestations of Thyroid Storm?
- Severe tachycardia (Betablockers) - Heart failure - Shock - Hyperthermia - Agitation and deliruim
97
What are drug therapy options for a patient with hyperthyroidism
- PTU - Taprazole (see benefits in 1-2 weeks and max effects in 4-8 weeks) - Iodine (benefits in 1-2 weeks) - Beta blockers - Radioactive Iodine- Given to the 2/3 who do not go into remission after normal meds
98
Med considerations for hyperthyroidism?
***They are not long term solutions***. 1/3 of patients will return to normal thyroid function after meds but 2/3 will need surgical resection etc.
99
What is the nutrition therapy for hyperthyroidism?
- 4000-5000 calories day - 6 meals a day - High protein and low caffeine - ***Avoid lots of spices and high fiber foods***
100
What is the sign when there is carpal spasm when there is increased pressure in the BP cuff?
Trousseau's sign
101
What is the sign when there is facial spasm with a stroke or tap on the facial nerve?
Chvostek's sign
102
If meds do not put a hyperthyroidism patient back into remission, they will need surgery. If too much of the gland is removed, they can be sent into _______________
Hypothyroidism
103
What are some complications of thyroid surgery?
Laryngeal Nerve Damage
104
What are post op considerations for a thyroid removal surgery?
Fix the dressing for the family High semi-fowlers Assess for bleeding Q2 checks Urine output Low BP and assess H&H
105
What are some warning signs after a thyroidectomy?
- Paralysis of cords - Swelling -ABC's - Stridor- tetany --> Treat with Ca+ gluconate - Assess for bleeding.
106
Pre-op considerations for before a thyroidectomy?
They need to hold their neck when they turn Do neck ROM Place O2, suction, and trach set in room just in case.
107
What are the diagnostics that you will see in hypothyroidism?
High TSH, low T3 and T4
108
Primary hypothyroidism is caused by what?
Destructed thyroid tissue, genetic issues, and AI disease
109
Secondary hypothyroidism is caused by what?
Disease of the pituitary with low TSH or hypothalamic disease with abnormal TRH
110
What are the manifestations of hypothyroidism?
Bradycardia Lethargy and cold intolerance Bad memory and dry/brittle nails Amnesia and menorrhea weight gain and constipation ***Possible myxedema***
111
What is the emergency that is associated with low thyroid hormone?
Myexedema coma
112
What are the manifestations of myxedema coma?
Subnormal temperature Hypotension Low RR
113
Treatment for Myxedema coma?
Life support IV thyroid hormone
114
Treatment for hypothyroidism?
- Low calorie - Levothyroxine - Monitor cardiac changes - Increase hormones at weeks 1 and 4 intervals - Supportive care
115
What causes primary hyperparathyroidism?
Increased secretion of PTH
116
What causes secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Compensatory response to other causes of hypocalcemia ***(Because calcium and parathyroid hormone of in a negative feedback loop, if ca is consistently low the body is secreting a lot parathyroid hormone)***
117
What are the manifestations of hyperparathyroidism?
Dysrhythmias, HTN, delirium, confusion, stupor, coma, hyperreflexia, kidney stones, UTI, osteoporosis, skeletal pain and long bone fractures.
118
What are the causes of Iatrogenic Hypoparathyroidism?
Removal of the parathyroid glands during a thyroidectomy
119
What causes idiopathic hypoparathyroidism?
Unknown
120
What are the manifestations of hypoparathyroidism?
+ Chvostek sign and Trousseau's sign. Disorientation, HA, seizures, depression Urinary frequency, low CO, low cardiac contractability
121
What is the treatment for tetany? ***Caused by low Ca+, so give __________***
Calcium Gluconate
122
What is the syndrome where there is too much glucocorticoid in the body?
Cushing's
123
What are some possible causes of Cushing's?
Pituitary tumor Adrenalectomy
124
What are the manifestations of Cushing's syndrome?
- Weight gain, HTN, weakness, virilization - Moon face and buffalo hump and red striae - Hirsutism, abnormal periods, thick skin, and bruising. - Osteoporosis and increased blood glucose.
125
How is Cushing's syndrome diagnosis?
24 hour urine (free cortisol) and Dexamethasone suppression test.
126
How is a Dexamethasone suppression test done? ***Done to test for Cushing's***
- 2mg Dexamethasone given at 11 pm to suppress CRH - Plasma cortisol levels are drawn at 0800 - Cortisol levels should be low
127
What are the possible results of a Dexamethasone suppression test?
Cortisol < 3 mcg- 50% suppression Normal cortisol- 5-23 ***If there is no suppression of Cortisol they likely have Cushing's***
128
What is the drug therapy where it is considered a "medical adrenalectomy"
Lysodren
129
What drug is used for Cushing's and inhibits cortisol synthesis?
Cytadren
130
What is some nursing care for Cushing's syndrome?
Q8 VS Daily weights Infection Gluc checks Change in LOC Assess for bone pain and possible falls
131
What is the disorder where there is an under functioning of the adrenal cortex?
Addison's
132
What are the manifestations of Addison's Disease?
- Hyperpigmentation in skin folds - Low BP, low Na, high K+, N/V, diarrhea
133
What is the sudden intense drop in hormones after a stressful event?
Addison's Crisis
134
How is Addison's diagnosed?
- Low cortisol levels - Low Na, high K+ - ACTH stimulation test
135
What are the steps to a ACTH stimulation test? ***This is done to test for Addison's***
-Draw levels at 60 minutes and they should be higher than baseline by >7 mcg/dL. If a patient has an insufficiency the levels won't rise at all...
136
What is the treatment for Addison's disease?
- Daily cortisol replacement - Daily mineralocorticoid replacement - Salt additives in excess heat and humidity
137
What are patient education points for Addison's disease
- Wear a medical alert bracelet - Increase medication at times of stress and infection - Educate about the s/sx of the meds
138
What is the disorder where there is too much salt and is also known as primary hyperaldosteronism?
Conn's syndrome
139
What is the hallmark of Conn's syndrome?
HTN, increase Na, low K, and alkalosis
140
What normally causes Conn's syndrome?
Adrenalcorticol tumor
141
How is Conn's disease treated?
Adrenalectomy.
142
what is the disorder where the adrenal medulla tumor produces too many catecholamines (Epi and Norepi)
Pheochromocytoma
143
How is pheochromocytoma treated and cared for?
Remove the tumor and care for the patient emotionally and physically
144
What is the leading cause of adult blindness, kidney disease and amputations?
DIABETES
145
Diabetes is a contributing factor to what diseases?
Heart disease Stroke HTN Lipid metabolism
146
What disorder is characterized by a total absence of insulin and beta cells and an autoimmune disease?
type 1 DM
147
What is the disorder where there is some insulin but it is poorly used?
type 2 diabetes
148
What are the 4 aspects of diabetes patho?
1. Insulin resistance 2. Low insulin production 3. Inappropriate hepatic glucose production 4. Altered production of hormones and cytokines by adipose tissue
149
What labs characterize prediabetes
IGT= 140-199 IFG= 100-125
150
What is the A1C diagnostic for DM2
6.5% or higher
151
What is the fasting glucose for DM
Higher than 126
152
What is the OGTT for DM?
200 mg/dL
153
What are the treatments for DM1
- they are insulin dependent - ADA diet - exercise - check glucs and A1C - FOOT CARE - medical alert bracelet
154
What are the treatment for DM2
- ADA diet - lifestyle changes - PO hypoglycemics - insulin - glucs and monitoring A1C - FOOT CARE and medical alert braclet
155
WHAT IS THE ANNUAL TESTING FOR A DIABETIC
A1C Albumin-to-Creatinine Ratio and eGFR (kidney damage) Ankle-Brachial Index (PAD) BP (Heart disease) Bone Mineral Density (Osteoporosis) Cholesterol and Triglycerides Dilated eye exam
156
What are some problems with insulin therapy?
Possible allergy lipodystrophy Somogyi effects Extreme hypoglycemia and rebound effects.
157
If a patient complain of HA on awakening with nightmares, night sweats, you should do what?
This is the Somogyi effect... Treatment is to lower insulin dose
158
What is the phenomenon that releases GH/cortisol and it leads to increased BG and ketonuria on awakening
Dawn Phenomenon; Need to increase insulin or alter the timing of the insulin
159
What is the treatment for the Dawn phenomenon?
Increase of change the insulin dosing
160
DKA is more common in what DM?
type 1
161
What are the manifestations of DKA?
- dehydration - N/v - Kussmalls breathing and fruity breath - renal failure and electrolyte imbalances - coma and death.
162
What is the treatment for DKA?
- insulin - fluid replacement - electrolytes - K+ imbalances- THIS IS CRITICAL
163
What are the labs that are used to diagnose DKA
BG > 250 mg blood pH < 7.30 Bicarb < 16 KETONES IN URINE ADN DEHYDRATION
164
Hypoglycemia is when there is a BG of less than
50!!
165
What are the manifestations of hypoglycemia
numbness, high HR, unsteady gait, coma and seizures
166
What are possible causes of hypoglycemia
Too much insulin Too much exercise
167
What is the treatment for hypoglycemia
Immediate ingestion of 5-20 grams of simple carbs. Repeat as needed as call for medical help if it presists.
168
What are environmental hazards to the skin?
Sun exposure Irritants and allergens RAdiation
169
What are healthy factors that help the skin?
Rest and sleep Exercise Hygiene Nutrition Self treatment and SPF
170
What is the minimum SPF?
15; reapply every 2-3 hours
171
Cancer of the _______is the most common malignant condition and accounts for 40% of all new cancer diagnosis
Skin
172
What are risk factors for skin cancer?
Fair skin Chronic sun exposure Smoking/carginogen Family history
173
Pale white skin (type 1) is extremely _______ always burns and never tans.... Score is 0-____
EXTREMELY SENSITIVE! Score 0-6
174
White skin (type 2) is still very sensitive skin. Burns _________ and tans __________; score 7-__
Burns easily and tans minimally; score 7-13
175
Light brown (type 3) skin is sensitive, sometimes ____ and slowly tans to light brown... Score 14-20
Sometimes burns
176
Moderate brown skin (type 4) is mildly sensitive and _______ tans to moderate brown! Score 21-27
ALWAYS TANS
177
Dark brown skin (type 5) is resistant skin and ____ well! Score 28-34
TANS
178
Deeply pigmented dark brown to black skin (type 6) is very _________! Very rarely burns and is deeply pigmented. Score 35+
Resistant
179
What skin condition is a precursor to cancer?
Actinic Keratosis
180
Where does squamous cell carcinoma begin?
In the squamous layer of the skin
181
Where does basal cell carcinoma start?
In the basal cell layer of the skin
182
Where does melanoma start?
In the melanocytes
183
What is the condition that is characterized by papules and plaques that occur on sun exposed areas?
Actinic Keratosis
184
Actinic Keratosis is also known as _______ ______
solar keratosis
185
Actinic keratosis is the premalignant form of _______ cell carcinoma
squamous
186
What do lesions in actinic keratosis look like?
Irrugular shaped flat and red indistinct borders with a hard keratotic scale
187
What is the treatment for actinic keratosis?
- Cryosurgery - 5-FU - Surgical removal - dermatological agents
188
What is a malignant neoplasm of keratinizing epidermal cells?
Squamous cell carcinoma
189
Where does SCC occur?
In sun exposed areas
190
Superficial SCC is when there is ____ scaly erythematous without invasion of the dermis
THIN
191
Early SCC included firm nodules with ________ borders; scaling and ulceration?
INDISTINCT
192
Late SCC is the covering of lesion with scale or horn from ______________?
Keratinization
193
Where is late SCC normally occur?
Face and hands
194
What is the treatment for SCC?
Electrodessication Radiation 5-FU Surgery
195
What is the locally invasive malignancy arising from epidermal basal cells?
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)
196
What is the most common type of skin cancer and the least deadly?
BCC
197
Nodular BCC is small slow growing papules; with _____ boarders, erosion, ulceration and depression at the center?
Rounded?
198
Superficial BCC is erythematous, sharply defines, barely _______ multinodular plaques with varying scaling and crusting? (Looks like eczema)
elevated
199
What is the treatment for BCC?
Electrodessication Surgical excision Cryosurgery 5-FU Intralesional alpha-interferon
200
What is a tumor arising in melanocytes and has the ability to metastasize to any organ in the body?
Malignant Melanoma
201
Malignant Melanoma is __ times more prevalent in white people than African Americans
10
202
What are the clinical manifestations of Malignant Melanoma?
Approximately 1/4 in the existing nevi Often brown or black
203
What are the things that need to be monitored for in Melanoma (ABCDE)
Asymmetry Border Color Diameter Evolving Appearance
204
What are the care considerations for melanoma
Assess any progressive changes Excisional biopsy Removal Chemo, radiation, alpha interferon
205
Bacterial skin infections are usually caused by what bacteria?
- Staph. A Group A beta hemolytic strep
206
What are predisposing factors for bacterial infections?
Moisture Obesity Skin disease Corticosteroids Chronic disease Diabetes
207
What are common infections of the skin?
Impetigo Folliculitis Furnicle Erysipelas Furunculosis Carbucle ***Cellulitis***
208
What are the most common viral skin infections?
HS 1 HS 2 Herpes Zoster Warts- if its not getting better in 72 hours go to provider. If self treatment is making it worse go to provider
209
A patient think he may have been exposed to Herpes Simplex, the nurse should educate that the first symptoms will occur how many days after contact?
3-7 days
210
Reoccurrence of HSV is secondary to what?
Stress Sunlight Trauma Menses Infection
211
HSV lasts a ________
LIFETIME
212
How is HSV transmitted by what?
Respiratory droplets or virus containing fluid (Saliva or cervical secretions)
213
What is the treatment/managment for HSV?
Antiviral agents Soothing creams Compresses
214
Herpes Zoster is _______
Shingles
215
Herpes Zoster is the _______ of varicella zoster as an adult?
activation
216
Herpes Zoster looks like what?
Linear distribution along a dermatome of vesicles on a red base along trunk, face, or lumbosacral areas
217
What are the manifestations for Herpes Zoster?
Burning pain Neuralgia Pain Rash- obviously.
218
How is Herpes Zoster treated?
Antivital agents Topical creams Mild sedation at bedtime
219
A 50 y/o patient presents and says that he had chicken pox when he was a kid and is concerned about getting shingles. What is something you could recommend him talking to a provider about?
Vaccine!!
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What is a common fungal infection?
Candiadiasis (caused by candida albicans)
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Where does thrush normally occur?
Mouth Vagina Skin
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Thrush is associated with _____ mediated immunity depression
cell-mediated
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Tinea Unguium is fungus of the
nail bed
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Tinea Corporis is
ringworm
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Tinea Cruris is
Jock itch
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Tinea Pedis is
On the foot/ Athlete's foot
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Just be aware that bug bites can lead to
Anaphylaxis
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What is the condition where there are red papules 3-7 days after contact with a allergen?
Allergic Contact dermatits
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What is an allergic phenomenon caused by the histamine response?
Urticaria
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Some _______ reactions can cause rashes
Drug interations
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What is an immunologic inflammatory response?
Atopic Dermatitis
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What are methods of collaborative care of dermatologic problems?
- Phototherapy - Radiation therapy - Laser technology
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What are some drug therapy options for skin problems?
- ABX - Corticosteroids - Antihistamines - 5FU - Immunomodulators
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What are possible diagnostic/surgical therapy for skin probems?
- Skin scraping - Electrodessication - Curettage - Punch biopsy - Cryosurgery - Excision
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Nursing care for skin problems?
Wet dresssings Baths Topical meds Control of proritus Stop secondary infection Specific skin care Psych and physiologic effects of chronic skin issues