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PA Summer 1 > med phys exam 1 > Flashcards

med phys exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

normal range in ECF for oxygen both arterial and venous?

A

Arteriral 80-100 mmHg Venous 35-45 mmHg

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2
Q

normal range for carbon dioxide in ECF both arterial and venous?

A

Arterial 35-45 mmHg Venous 35-45 mmHg

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3
Q

Normal range for sodium ion in ECF?

A

136-142 mmol/L

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4
Q

Normal range for potassium ion in ECF?

A

3.5-5.0 mmol/L

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5
Q

Normal ionized calcium ion in ECF?

A

1.15-1.27 mmol/L

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6
Q

Normal range for Chloride in ECF?

A

118-132 mmol/L

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7
Q

Normal range for bicarbonate in ECF?

A

21-28 mmol/L

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8
Q

normal range for glucose in ECF?

A

70-110 mg/dl

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9
Q

normal range of pH in ECF?

A

7.35-7.45

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10
Q

what is a kinase?

A

An enzyme that catalyzes the phosphorylation of tyrosine or serine and threonine residues in proteins and in some cases lipids.

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11
Q

What is a phosphatase?

A

Proteins that remove phosphates from proteins or lipids.

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12
Q

What is defined as the movement of higher concentration to lower concentration?

A

Diffusion

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13
Q

what are three systems/organs that put nutrients back into the ECF?

A

Respiratory system, GI system, liver

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14
Q

what are the systems that remove waste from the ECF?

A
  1. respiratory system
  2. urinary system
  3. GI system
  4. Liver
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15
Q

the somatic nervous system deals with ________ muscle control

A

Voluntary

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16
Q

The autonomic nervous system deals with ______.

A

Automatic; involuntary

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17
Q

_______ is the return to homeostasis. the response is in the OPPOSITE direction of the stimulus.

A

Negative feedback

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18
Q

what is defined as the degree of effectiveness of control system to maintain homestasis?

A

Gain

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19
Q

what is the equation for how to calculate gain?

A

gain= value with control minus value without control
divided by
value with control minus normal value

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20
Q

gain will always be what kind of value for this specific type of feedback system.

A

Negative

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21
Q

how do you tell if a negative feedback system is effective or not?

A

higher the gain’s absolute value, the more effective the control system.

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22
Q

what is defined as continuing to go away from homeostasis; response being in the SAME direction of the stimulus.

A

Positive feedback

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23
Q

what is an example of a controlled positive feedback system?

A

Blood clotting, uterine contraction, start of nerve impuses (Na+ influx)

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24
Q

what is an example of an uncontrolled positive feedback system?

A

blood pressure changes with massive blood loss

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25
Q

what is described as a delayed form of negative feedback?

A

Adaptive control

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26
Q

How does adaptive control work?

A

Sensory input tells the brain whether movement was performed correctly. using the feed-forward control, the brain will correct for the next time,

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27
Q

what is termed as the stuff that makes up a cell?

A

Protoplasm

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28
Q

what are the 5 building blocks of the protoplasm?

A

1) water (70-85% of most cells)
2) ions
3) proteins
4) lipids
5) carbohydrates

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29
Q

what role does cholesterol play in cell membranes?

A

Influences permeability and flexibility, fluid phase and gel phase.

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30
Q

what important role do lipid rafts play a part in?

A

Cell signaling

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31
Q

what are the two major types of membrane proteins?

A

Integral and peripheral

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32
Q

what is the difference in integral and peripheral proteins?

A

Integral: goes all the way through cell membrane. most are glycoproteins

peripheral: only touch one surface

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33
Q

what is termed as a large carbohydrate that is bound o small protein cores?

A

proteoglycans

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34
Q

what is the glycocalyx?

A

a carbohydrate coat around the outer surface of the cell

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35
Q

what are the 4 functions of the glycocalyx?

A

1) negative charge on cell surface
2) attach to the glycocalyx of other cells
3) receptor substances for binding hormones
4) some immune reactions

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36
Q

what are the functions of the ER?

A

1) transport of components around the cell

2) structure for a major share of cells metabolic functions (ie acts as a cellular factory)

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37
Q

what are the components of the ER?

A
  1. lipid bilayer and proteins
  2. network of tubular and flat vesicular structures
  3. endoplasmic matrix
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38
Q

what is the difference in the smooth and rough er?

A

Rough ER: contains ribosomes that synthesize proteins.

smooth ER: synthesizes lipids and other reactions that occur in the lumen.

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39
Q

whats the function of the Golgi apparatus?

A

further processing of ER generated substances, formation of unique glyxcosaminoglycans (hyaluronic acid, chondroitin sulfate), transport vesicles from the ER fuse with the GA, after processing in the golgi, secretory vesicles, lysosomes, or specific cytoplasmic components are made

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40
Q

what are the components that make up the golgi apparatus?

A
  1. lipid bilayer
  2. 4+ stacked layers of thin sacs on one side of the nucleus (cis and trans)
  3. prominent in secretory cells
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41
Q

what are the major functions of chondroitin and hyalyronic acid?

A
  1. major components of proteoglycans
  2. major components of ground substance (fillers between collagen fibers and cells)
  3. major components of organic matric of cartilage and bone
  4. important in many cell activities like migration and proliferation
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42
Q

what are the functions of secretory vesicles?

what is this process stimulated by?

A
  1. storage and secretion of special chemical substances

2. Ca2+

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43
Q

where are secretory vesicles formed? where are they located in cells?

A
  1. come from ER-Golgi system

2. near the cell wall where substances are secreted.

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44
Q

what is the function of the lysosomes?

A

intracellular digestive system. digest damaged cellular structures, food particles, and pathogens

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45
Q

what are the components of lysosomes?

A

Lipid bilayer surrounding many granules containing hydrolases

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46
Q

what are hydrolases?

A

enzymes that use water to split organic molecules (ex: proteins, nucleic acids, lipids) into many pieces

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47
Q

where do lysosomes bud from?

A

bud from golgi

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48
Q

what can happen if the lysosome membrane is compromised?

A

These digestive enzymes will come out and digest other cellular components

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49
Q

when does proteasomal degredation occur?

A

it occurs in the cytoplasm after ubiquitination of misfolded, mutated, damaged, or unneeded proteins has occurred

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50
Q

what do peroxisomes do?

A

oxidize harmful substances

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51
Q

what are the components of peroxisomes?

A

1) oxidases (form h2o2 from a reaction of o2 with hydrogen ions from substances)
2) catalase (reduces these peroxides to water

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52
Q

where are peroxisomes formed?

A

self replication OR possibly budding from smooth ER (NOT from golgi)

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53
Q

what is the function of filaments and tubular structures?

A

structural support for cell, cell movement, movement of components within cell

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54
Q

what is a nucleoli?

A

a collection of RNA and proteins that self-aggregate; play a role in assembling ribosomes

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55
Q

do nucleoli have a membrane?

A

no

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56
Q

what does the size of a nucleoli represent?

A

how much protein is being synthesized

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57
Q

what are the 5 functional systems of the cell?

A
  1. ingestion
  2. digestion, regression of tissue, autophagy
  3. formation of cellular structures
  4. extraction of energy from nutrients
  5. cell movement
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58
Q

what are the two ways a cell can ingest something?

A
  1. diffusion through lipid bilayer or pores

2. active transport through integral proteins

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59
Q

what are the two types of endocytosis?

A
  1. pinocytosis

2. phagocytosis

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60
Q

describe the process of pinocytosis?

A
  1. molecule attach to receptor in a clathrin coated pit
  2. clathrin + actin/myosin filaments cause pit to invaginate
  3. membrane breaks away, creating a pinocytotic vesicle that floats in the cytoplasm.
61
Q

does pinocytocis require ATP?

A

yes

62
Q

describe the process of phagocytosis

A
  1. particle or antibody attach to phagocyte receptor
  2. edges Evaginate to surround particle to form phagocytic vesicle
  3. contractile fibrils push the vesicle inward
  4. fibrils then pinch stem of vesicle so that the vesicle separates
63
Q

what types of phagocytes usually perform phagocytosis?

A

macrophages, neutrophils, and dendritic cells.

64
Q

describe how digestion occurs

A

lysosome attaches to the vesicles formed from pino/phagocytosis and a digestive vesicle forms
2. products of digestion diffuse through the vesicle membrane into the cytoplasm or are exocytosed

65
Q

what is the result of glycolysis?

A

glucose to pyruvic acid

66
Q

what is the result of the citric acid cycle?

A

acetyl-coA to NADH

67
Q

what is the result of oxidative phosphorylation?

A

H+ from NADH reacts with O2 and energy released forms atp

68
Q

where does glycolysis happen?

A

cytoplasm

69
Q

where does the citric acid cycle happen?

A

mitochondrial matrix

70
Q

where does oxidative phosphorylation happen?

A

inner mitochondrial membrane

71
Q

what are the 3 major uses for ATP in the cell?

A
  1. transport of substances through membranes of cell
  2. synthesis of chemical compounds
  3. mechanical work
72
Q

what is termed as “movement of the entire cell”?

A

ameboid locomotion

73
Q

what are the steps of ameboid locomotion?

A
  1. initiated by chemotaxis
  2. protrutind pseudopodium
  3. partial securing to new area through receptors
  4. rest of cell follows attachment site
74
Q

what does ciliary movement require?

A
  1. source of ATP

2. ions. (mg2+ and Ca2+)

75
Q

what makes up a nucleotide?

A
  1. phosphoric acid
  2. deoxyribose
  3. ntrogen base
76
Q

what two places are nucleotides located?

A

nucleus and mitochondia

77
Q

what do triplets of bases in dna structure encode?

A

the codons of rna

78
Q

what makes up rna?

A
  1. phosphate
  2. ribose
  3. nitrogen base
79
Q

what are the different types of rna?

A
  1. mRNA
  2. tRNA
  3. rRNA
  4. microRNA
80
Q

what are the major steps in dna coding to make mRNA

A
  1. promoter sequence in dna is recognized by rna polymerase
  2. rna polymerase unwinds and pulls dna apart
  3. build the rna chain
    • hydrogen bonding of dna to rna nucleotides
    • 2 phosphates liberated, generate covalent linkage between phosphate and ribose
  4. chain terminating sequence on the dna
  5. release of the rna and the dna reforms
81
Q

tRNA does what?

A

brings AA to the ribosome to form proteins

82
Q

where is rRNA processed?

A

nucleolus

83
Q

when mRNA passes through a ribosome, what happens?

A

protein is synthesized.

84
Q

what are the steps for translation?

A
  1. aa+ ATP make AA-AMP
  2. AA-AMP + tRNA make tRNA-AA
  3. Hydrogen bond of tRNA-AA to mRNA
  4. peptidyl transferase links AAs together using GTP
85
Q

how many bonds are needed to add one AA?

A

4

86
Q

are ribosomes specific in what kind of mRNA it can translate?

A

no

87
Q

gene function can be regulated in what two ways?

A
  1. genetic regulation

2. enzymatic regulation

88
Q

what is defined as the regulation of gene function that occurs anytime from the transcription to translation o the protein?

A

genetic regulation

89
Q

what are the DNA sequences involved in genetic regualtion?

A
  1. basal promoter - area where RNA pol binds; contains TATA box
  2. Upstream promoter - contains binding sites for pos or neg transcription factors
  3. enhancers - bind transcription factors to increase transcription and are located far from the gene
  4. insulators - provide barrier to separate genes
90
Q

what are the rna sequences involved in genetic regualtion?

A

IRES, 5’, 3’, UTR, 5’ cap, poly a tail

91
Q

what are non coding RNAs that regulate gene expression?

A

microRNA

92
Q

when microRNA bind with mRNA, what happens?

A

mRNA degredation or inhibition of translation

93
Q

what is termed as regulation of gene expression that is not caused by changes in DNA sequence?

A

epigenetic gene regulation

94
Q

what factors are involved in epigenetic gene regulation?

A
  1. euchromatin vs heterochromatin
  2. histone acetylation
  3. histone methylation
  4. histone phosphorylation
95
Q

what does histone acetylation on lysines do?

A

open up DNA and promotes transcripiton

96
Q

what does histone methylation at specific lysines do?

A

promote or repress expression

97
Q

what does histone phosphorylation at specific serine residues do?

A

can promote or repress expression

98
Q

what can high levels of dna methylation cause?

A

transcriptional silencing

99
Q

enzyme inhibition is an example of what?

A

negative feedback control

100
Q

what is enzyme inhibition?

A

a chemical substance produced binds to the first enzyme in the sequence and inactivates it

101
Q

what is enzyme activation?

A

build up of a breakdown product causes enzyme to be activated.

102
Q

cell receptors with kinase activity examples:

A
  1. receptor tyrosine kinases
  2. non-receptor tyrosine kinases
  3. serine-threonine kinases
  4. lipid kinases
103
Q

in a gpcr, how is the g protein activated?

A

conformational change in the gpcr activates it.

104
Q

what is termed as a network of interstitial proteins between cells?

A

extracellular matrix

105
Q

what are the two basic forms of ECM?

A
  1. interstitial matrix - between cells in connective tissue, between parenchymal epithelium and underlying supportive vascular and smooth muscle structures
  2. basement membrane - around epithelial cells, endothelial cells, and smooth muscle cells. major constituents are type 4 collagen and laminin.
106
Q

what are the components of the ECM?

A
  1. fibrous structural proteins for tensile strength and recoil
  2. water-hydrated gells for compressive resistance and lubrication
  3. adhesive glycoproteins which connect ECM to ECM and ECM to cells
107
Q

what molecules bind to the ECM?

A
  1. integrins
  2. immunoglobulins
  3. cadherins
  4. selectins
108
Q

what is the purpose of CDK Inhibitors (CDKIs)

A

to inhibit a single or set of CDKs to allow for checkpoints to ensure dna integrity prior to cell reproduction

109
Q

what is cell reproduction controlled by?

A
  1. growth factors
  2. available physical space
  3. inhibition by products from cells in environment
110
Q

what is cellular senescence?

A

end of cell reproduction due to loss of telomeres and accumulated chromosomal damage.

111
Q

how are ion concentrations changed between the ICF and ECF?

A

Diffusion and active transport

112
Q

what is defined as random motion of molecules driven by kinetic energy?

A

diffusion

113
Q

what are the 3 different ways diffusion can occur?

A

through a lipid soluble membrane, through a channel protein, and facilitated diffusion

114
Q

in order for facilitated diffusion to occur, what is required for the substrate to be able to go through?

A

a carrier protein.

115
Q

what are the two forms of simple diffusion?

A
  1. lipid soluble substance passes through molecules in the lipid bilayer
  2. through an integral protein that is large enough and has the right characteristics to allow the particle to pass
116
Q

what are features of an integral membrane that can influence permeability?

A
  1. size of the opening in the channel
  2. shape of the channel
  3. nature of the exposed surface (ex: pos or neg charge)
117
Q

what are the 3 ways to control gating in ion channels?

A
  1. chemical ligand gating
  2. voltage gating
  3. postranslational gating
118
Q

what is chemical (ligand) gated channel?

A

chemical binds the integral protein which causes a conformational change

119
Q

What is voltage gated channel?

A

Changes in potential across the cell membrane

120
Q

what is postranslational modification?

A

phosphorylation

121
Q

what is a type of diffusion that uses a carrier protein that has a selective receptor for the substance?

A

facilitated diffusion

122
Q

what are two of the most important molecules that are transported via facilitated diffusion?

A

glucose and amino acids

123
Q

what are the key factors that can affect diffusion rate across cell membranes?

A
  1. concentration difference

2. effect of membrane electrical potential (nernst potential).

124
Q

describe osmotic pressure

A

the pressure required to stop the osmosis determined by the concentration of the solution.

125
Q

what is osmotic pressure determined by? give one example

A

determined by the NUMBER of particles. ex is a small ion like Na+ exerts the same osmotic pressure as a large protein.

126
Q

true/false: regardless of mass, each particle exerts the same pressure on the membrane when looking at osmotic pressure.

A

true

127
Q

what is defined as the movement of molecules across membrane against a concentration, electrical, or pressure gradient?

A

Active transport

128
Q

what are the two types of active transport?

A

Primary and secondary

129
Q

Which type of active transport directly requires energy from ATP for movement of a substace?

A

Primary active transport

130
Q

which type of active transport uses established ionic concentration differences to move a substance against its concentration gradient?

A

secondary active transport

131
Q

the sodium potassium pump caused what kind of result inside the cell?

A

an electrogenic result, makes the inside more negative.

132
Q

what activates the sodium potassium pump?

A

osmotic pressure.

133
Q

what three things does the sodium potassium pump help to establish?

A
  1. Sodium and potassium differences across membrane
  2. a negative voltage inside the cell
  3. cell size limits (prevents cellular swelling)
134
Q

what are three functions that can occur due to a normally functioning sodium-potassium pumps?

A
  1. transmission of nerves and muscle signals
  2. absorption of nutrients in GI tract
  3. reabsorption of substances in kidney
135
Q

what are two more types of primary active transport pumps?

A

Ca2+ ATPase, H/K+ ATPase

136
Q

in a ca2+ ATPase transport pump, where are the two places that ca2+ is being pumped?

A

Out of the cell or in to the mitochondria or sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle.

137
Q

what types of cells contain the H/K+ ATPase transport pumps?

A

Parietal cells of the stomach; intercalated cells of the renal tubules.

138
Q

what are the two facotrs that contribute to the RMP of neurons?

A

Leakage of potassium and sodium through the neuron membrane and the sodium potassium pump

139
Q

concentration of what ion is the main determinant in RMP?

A

Potassium

140
Q

what is the RMP for large peripheral sensory neurons?

A

-70mV

141
Q

what are the three types of stimuli that can disturn the normal resting state of the membrane?

A
  1. electrical stimulation
  2. mechanical compression of nerve
  3. application of chemicals
142
Q

what are the three stages of an action potential?

A
  1. resting stage
  2. depolarizaton
  3. repolarization
143
Q

what is the threshold potential?

A

-55mV

144
Q

when the threshold potential is met, what is the concentration of sodium vs potassoium exiting the nerve fiber?

A

the number of sodium ions entering is greater than the number of potassium ions exiting the nerve fiber.

145
Q

in the repolarization stage, what happens to the sodium channels?

A

they close

146
Q

what re-establishes the RMP in the repolarization stage?

A

rapid diffusion of potassium out of the cell

147
Q

the repolarization process is facilitate by specific sodium and potassoium ?????

A

voltage gated channels

148
Q

what are the differences in sodium vs potassium voltage gated channels?

A

sodium: open around -55mV, closes a few 10,000th of a second later, inactivation gate closes and does not reopen until repolarization occurs
potassium: opens way slow, opens when sodium channel is closing

149
Q

what is defined as the time to repolarization?

A

absolute refractory period

PA Summer 1 (4 decks)

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