Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

[Ther 201] 1st Exam Transes > Mechanisms of Drug Action (Cecilia A. Jimeno, MD) > Flashcards

Mechanisms of Drug Action (Cecilia A. Jimeno, MD) Flashcards

1
Q

Drugs are usually grouped according to what properties?

A

Pharmacodynamic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define: Pharmacodynamics

A

What the drug does to the body

It includes receptor interactions, dose-response phenomena and mechanisms of therapeutic and toxic action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define: Pharmacokinetics

A

What the body does to the drug

Study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of the drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

“Toxic effects are usually an (1) of the therapeutic effect.”

A

(1) extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What type of receptor does insulin interact with?

A

Tyrosine kinase receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What receptive substance did John Newport Langley investigate?

A

Atropine in pilocarpine induced salivation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does pilocarpine do?

A

It induces salivation in people with dry mouths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What term did Paul Ehrlich coin?

A

Receptor

“A drug will not work unless it is bound!”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe drugs, effectors and receptors in terms of composition

A

Drug - heterogenous
Receptor - homogenous
Effectors - heterogenous (i.e. ion channels or kinases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

“Receptors determine (1) relations between dose or concentrations of drug and pharmacologic effects.”

A

(1) quantitative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the relation between potency and quantity of a drug.

A

The more potent the drug, the less of it is needed to effect a change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe: Sigmoid Dose-response Curve

A

Saturation - total number of receptors may limit the maximal effect of a drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What properties of the ligand must be considered in receptor binding?

A
  1. Size
  2. Shape
  3. Electrical charge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of paracetamol

A

Only works in brain COX

Good anti-pyretic but poor anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the action of glucocorticoid

A

It is anti-inflammatory.

It can bind to mineralocorticoid receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

T/F: The same drug may be both an agonist and antagonist.

A

True

This may be the case for different receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the two major domains of a receptor?

A
  1. Ligand binding domain

2. Effector domain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are non-protein receptors?

A

DNA receptors

Anti-microbial and anti-tumor drugs bind to these.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Methods of identifying receptors

A
  1. Drug binding (radioisotope-tagged)

2. Molecular biology (gene sequencing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define: Orphan Receptor

A

Receptor with a structure similar to existing receptors but for which the endogenous ligand has not yet been determined.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Types of protein receptors

A
  1. Regulatory
  2. Enzymes
  3. Transport
  4. Structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What chemical signals do regulatory receptors deal with?

A

Neurotransmitters, autacoids and hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What ligands does dihydrofolate reductase bind?

A

Methotrexate and alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is methotrexate?

A

Anti-neoplastic drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are alpha-glucosidase inhibitors?

A

Anti-diabetic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the receptor for colchicines?

A

Tubulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are colchicines?

A

Anti-inflammatory agents used against gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the common receptor superfamilies?

A
  1. Ligand-gated Ion Channels (Ionophores)
  2. G-Protein Coupled Receptors (Metabotropic)
  3. Enzyme-linked Receptors
  4. Nuclear Receptor (in cytoplasm!)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What entity developed the nomenclature system for receptors?

A

International Union of Pharmacology (IUPHAR) Committee on Receptor Nomenclature and Drug Classification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of ligand-gated ion channels

A
  1. Signal binds
  2. Channel opens
  3. Ions flow across the membrane
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What can be said about neurotransmitters and ionophores?

A

Most neurotransmitters utilize ionophores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What neurotransmitters use ionophores?

A
  1. Acetylcholine
  2. GABA
  3. Serotonin
  4. Glutamate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the result of ionophore activation?

A

There is increased transmembrane conductance and alteration of membrane electric potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Describe the subunits of ionophores

A

4 - 5 transmembrane helical subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Describe the Nicotinic Ach receptor

A
  1. It possesses 5 subunits (2 alpha, 1 beta, 1 delta, and 1 gamma).
  2. Each subunit is made up of four polypeptides.
  3. Alpha-helices form the gate.
  4. Curved conformation when sealed; straight conformation when open.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the result of Nicotinic Ach receptor activation?

A

Local excitatory postsynaptic potential resulting in depolarisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the barbiturate receptor targeted for?

A
  1. Inducing sleep

2. Used as anaesthesia for convulsions and seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the barbiturate receptor?

A

It causes hyperpolarization by allowing entry of Cl- ions. There is failure of action potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of benzodiazepine?

A

Allosteric activator of GABA receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What substances bind to the barbiturate receptor?

A

Barbiturates and benzodiazepine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Enumerate four anti-seizure medications that close Na+ channels.

A
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Phenytoin
  3. Lamotrigine
  4. Valproate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Describe the time course of action of ionophores

A

Rapid (milliseconds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How are ionophores regulated?

A
  1. Phosphorylation

2. Endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T/F: CNS acting drugs are examples of ionophores.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What cardiac effects does verapamil have?

A
  1. Anti-arrythmia

2. Reduce BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of verapamil

A

Inhibits voltage-gated Ca2+ channels in the heart and vascular smooth muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the largest superfamily of receptors?

A

G Protein Coupled Receptors (GPCRs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are other names for the GPCR?

A

7-transmembrane receptors or metabotropic receptors

49
Q

GPCRs are usually utilised by what substances?

A

Peptide hormones

50
Q

What are the results of GPCR activation?

A

1) Closing/opening of ion channels

2) Activation of enzymes

51
Q

T/F: GPCRs have the C-terminal end extracellularly and N-terminal end intracellularly.

A

False

It’s the opposite.

52
Q

What is the secondary structure of the protein subunits in the GPCR?

A

Alpha helix

53
Q

What happens to the G Protein when a ligand binds to the GPCR?

A

GDP on the G Protein is replaced by GTP

54
Q

What are the 3 components of GPCR trans-membrane signalling?

A
  1. Binding
  2. Activation
  3. Effector
55
Q

Enumerate the major effector pathways of the GPCR

A
  1. Adenylyl cyclase pathway

2. Phospholipase C/inositol pathway (involves ion channels and Rho A/Rho kinase)

56
Q

What processes does cAMP regulate?

A
  1. Cellular metabolism
  2. Cell division
  3. Cell differentiation
57
Q

Enumerate the different second messengers involved in GPCR signalling

A
  1. cAMP
  2. Phosphoinositides
  3. Ca2+
  4. cGMP
58
Q

Where is cGMP important?

A

Vascular endothelium

59
Q

What channels does Gas open in the myocardium and skeletal muscles?

A

Ca2+ channels

60
Q

What opens K+ channels in the heart and smooth muscles and closes neuronal Ca2+ channels?

A

Gi

61
Q

How do opiate analgesics open K+ channels?

A

Through the beta-gamma G Protein complex

62
Q

What molecule does cAMP act on?

A

Phosphokinase A (PKA)

63
Q

What cleaves PIP2 into DAG and IP3?

A

Phospholipase C-beta (PLC-beta)

64
Q

What is the action of IP3?

A

Opens Ca2+ channels

65
Q

What is the action of DAG?

A

Activates phosphokinase C (PKC)

66
Q

What is the largest family of GPCRs?

A

Rhodopsin family

67
Q

T/F: Receptor tyrosine kinases are also cytokine receptors

A

True

68
Q

What substances utilise receptor tyrosine kinases?

A

Growth factors

69
Q

What are the first molecules to be phosphorylated by an activated RTK?

A

Docking proteins (Insulin receptor substrate 1 to 6)

70
Q

What do IRS molecules activate?

A

Other kinases such as PI-3-K, growth factor receptor-binding protein 2, guanine nucleotide releasing factor, GTP binding protein RAS and the MAPK system.

71
Q

What popular hormone utilises receptor tyrosine kinases?

A

Insulin

72
Q

Which glucose transporter is translocated to the cell membrane by RTKs?

A

GLUT-4

73
Q

In the case of insulin, what are the rapid and slow-acting effects of RTK activation?

A

Rapid - GLUT-4 translocation
Intermediate - Protein synthesis, lipolysis and lipogenesis
Slow - Glycogen formation
Slowest - Activation of transcription factors that enhance DNA synthesis and cell growth and division

74
Q

What are drugs that act on RTKs?

A

Herceptin and Imatinib

75
Q

What are physiological ligands for RTKs?

A

Insulin, PDGF, EGF, and VEGF

76
Q

What are physiological ligands for cytokine receptors?

A

Interleukins and other cytokines

77
Q

What are physiological ligands for guanylyl cyclase?

A

Natriuretic peptides

78
Q

What drug acts on guanylyl cyclase?

A

Nesiritide?

79
Q

What are the types of kinase-linked receptors?

A
  1. Receptor for Tyrosine Kinase
  2. Cytokine Receptors
  3. Guanylyl Cyclase
80
Q

Define: Amplification

A

Attachment of phosphoric group to a serene, threonine or tyrosine residue amplifies regulatory signal by providing molecular memory.

81
Q

What functions does phosphorylation carry out?

A
  1. Amplification

2. Flexible Regulation

82
Q

Define: Flexible Regulation

A

Different substrate specificities of protein kinases provide branch points in signalling pathways.

83
Q

What is the mechanism of action of transtuzumab?

A

It is an antibody that antagonises growth factor receptor signalling used in breast cancer treatment.

84
Q

Describe the process of nuclear receptor activation

A
  1. Hormone crosses plasma membrane.
  2. Hormone binds to nuclear receptor in cytoplasm
  3. Heat shock proteins are released.
  4. Dimerization
  5. Translocation
  6. Complex binds to heat response element.
  7. Transcriptional changes occur.
85
Q

What ligands bind to nuclear receptors?

A

Steroids and thyroid hormones

86
Q

What is the predominant structural module in nuclear receptors?

A

Zinc finger

87
Q

Describe: Zinc finger configuration

A

Four cysteine residues coordinating with a zinc ion to enable intercalation in DNA.

88
Q

What are the types of nuclear receptors?

A
  1. Class 1 (homodimers)
  2. Hybrid Class (RXR)
  3. Class II (except RXR)
89
Q

What are the therapeutic consequences of activating nuclear receptors?

A
  1. Characteristic lag (minutes to hours)

2. Effects persist for hours/days because of downstream effect

90
Q

What are the four types of drug-receptor interactions?

A
  1. Agonist
  2. Antagonist
  3. Allosteric activator
  4. Allosteric inhibitor
91
Q

How would an increase in affinity reflect in the dose-response curve?

A

Leftward shift

92
Q

T/F: Agonists possess both affinity and efficacy.

A

True

93
Q

What is the reason for plateauing of the response curve?

A

Saturation of receptors

94
Q

What are the two types of agonists?

A
  1. Full

2. Partial

95
Q

T/FL: Antagonists have both affinity and efficacy.

A

False

They only have affinity.

96
Q

Presence of a competitive inhibitor or antagonist shifts the dose-response curve to the (1).

A

Right

97
Q

Can the full effect of the agonist be achieved in the presence of an allosteric inhibitor?

A

No

98
Q

What is the function of alpha-glucosidase?

A

Breakdown of polysaccharides in the GIT for absorption

99
Q

Give examples of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors.

A
  1. Acarbose

2. Miglitol

100
Q

Describe: Acarbose

A

Pseudo tetrasaccharide compound isolated from Actinoplanes utanhesis

101
Q

What are the neurotransmitter transporter superfamilies?

A

SLC1 & SLC6

102
Q

Give examples of neurotransmitter transporters.

A

Norepinephrine Transporter - tricyclic antidepressant
Serotonin Transporter - fluoxetine
Dopamine Transporter - cocaine

103
Q

What are the neurotransmitter transporters responsible for?

A

Reuptake of neurotransmitters

104
Q

What are examples of non-neuronal transporters?

A
  1. Cholesterol Transporter
  2. Nucleoside Trnasporter
  3. Glucose Transporter
  4. Na+ H+ Antiporter
105
Q

T/F: Antacids are an example of receptor mediated drug action.

A

False

They are non-receptor mediated.

106
Q

What does Para-Amino Benzoic Acid do?

A

Used against fibrotic skin disorders

107
Q

What does potassium permanganate do?

A

Antiseptic

108
Q

What does mannitol do?

A

Osmotic diuretic

109
Q

What does ispaghula do?

A

It is a dietary fiber and a laxative.

110
Q

Define: Tachyphylaxis

A

There is short-term diminution of receptor response caused by continuous exposure to agonists.

111
Q

Define: Tolerance

A

Drug resistance for antibiotics

112
Q

What are the mechanisms for tachyphylaxis?

A
  1. Intracellular proteins block G-protein access to activated receptor.
  2. Agonist bound receptors may be endocytosed.
  3. Depletion of essential substrate for downstream effects
113
Q

What does arrestin do?

A
  1. It binds to the intracellular loop of the beta-adrenoreceptor.
  2. Loss of GPC
  3. Endocytosis of GPCR
114
Q

What are the fates of endocytosed receptors?

A
  1. Reinsertion (morphine receptors)

2. Degradation (adrenoreceptors & EGF receptors)

115
Q

What is responsible for nitroglycerin tolerance?

A

Depletion of thiol cofactors

116
Q

Define: Drug Holiday

A

Taking a break from medication to reverse the effects of tolerance to medication

117
Q

What are the mechanisms for desensitisation?

A
  1. Downregulation

2. Upregulation

118
Q

T/F: Upregulation may result if receptor is not activation for prolonged periods.

A

True

[Ther 201] 1st Exam Transes (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions