Mean variance optimisation Flashcards
In the two asset cse when is the efficient frontier all portfolios? - With reference to dv/dh for variance
Includes all portfolios when dv/dh is zero at h=0.
Summarise for equatorial, northern and southern case where eta infinity lies in two asset case
Equatorial: Lies between Mu0 and Mu1
Northern: Is equal to or less than Mu 0 and less than Mu1
Southern: Is greater than or equal to Mu1 which si greater than Mu0
Summarise for equatorial, northern and southern case how Sigma0-CorrelationSigma1 behaves and Sigma1-CorrelationSigma0 behaves
Equatorial: Sigma0-CorrelationSigma1>0, Sigma1-CorrelationSigma0>0
Northern:Sigma0-CorrelationSigma1<=0, Sigma1-CorrelationSigma0>0
Southern:Sigma0-CorrelationSigma1>0, Sigma1-CorrelationSigma0<=0
Summarise for equatorial, northern and southern case where the efficient frontier is in terms of H
Equatorial: hmin<=h<=1
Northern:0<=h<=1
Southern: h=1
How far can we go into positive correlation before slipping from equatorial case to northern/southern
If sigma0<sigma 1 :
Equatorial: p<sigma0/sigma1
Northern: p>=sigma0/sigma1
If sigma0>sigma 1 :
Equatorial: p<sigma1/sigma0
Southern: p>=sigma1/sigma0
If sigma 0<sigma 1 and were in the equatorial case. Where is there no portfolio with standard deviation x
Where x<sigma min
If sigma 0<sigma 1 and were in the equatorial case. Where is there only one unique portfolio with sigma x
MRP, x=sigma min OR if no short selling when x>sigma 0
If sigma 0<sigma 1 and were in the equatorial case. Where is there two unqiue solutions/portfolios with standard deviation x
When x is between sigma min and sigma 0
Define the sharpe ratio
Risk premium (expected returns minus the risk free rate) divided by the standard deviation fo return. It is not defined for a risk free asset.
How to check in the equatorial case if there exists a tangency portfolio
If risk free rate exceeds the extrapolated return at asset 1 then there is no tangency portfolio
In the equatorial case if there is no tangency portfolio what is the maximal sharpe ratio
Asset 1
Describe in the equatorial case of risky assets the possible 3 asset frontier with a risk free asset
r<eta1 - Frontier is from RF to Asset 1 via T
eta1<r<mu1 - Frontier is from RF to Asset 1
r>=Mu1 - Frontier is risk free only
Describe in the northern case of risky assets the possible 3 asset frontier with a risk free asset
r<eta0 - frontier is from risk free to asset 1 via asset 0
eta0<r<eta1 - Frontier is from Risk free to asset 1 via T
eta1<r<mu1 - Frontier is from risk free to Asset 1
r>mu1 - Frontier is risk free only
Describe in the southern case of risky assets the possible 3 asset frontier with a risk free asset
r<mu1 - Frontier is from risk free to asset 1
r>Mu1 - Risk free only
Why do combinations of a risk free asset and a fixed risky portfolio all share a common sharpe ratio?
Consider mixture 1-h in RF and h in risky holding. The way in which the portfolio variance is calculated and the portfolio risk premium we are multiplying by h on top and bottom of fraction - this h will cancel given a constant sharpe ratio.