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POC 27 Module 2 > M.E 2 > Flashcards

M.E 2 Flashcards

1
Q

In a tiered response EMS system: A. a first response vehicle, BLS ambulance, and ALS ambulance respond to every call. B. every ALS ambulance that responds has at least three paramedics on board. C. an EMS system attempts to assign ALS ambulances only where they are needed. D. an ambulance with two paramedics makes the initial response to every EMS call.

A

C. an EMS system attempts to assign ALS ambulances only where they are needed.

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2
Q

If you invented a new technology for EMS communications that used radio waves, you would have to clear it with: A. the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. B. the Federal Communications Commission. C. the Federal Aviation Administration. D. the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration.

A

B. the Federal Communications Commission.

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3
Q

When exchanging EMS information, always: A. maintain confidentiality. B. use local slang for clarity. C. report impressions rather than literal information. D. immediately move on to the next task.

A

A. maintain confidentiality.

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4
Q

*Which of the following conditions would cause a proportionate gain in both water and sodium? Select one: A. Hemorrhage B. Loop diuretic use C. Steroid use D. Diarrhea

A

C. Steroid use

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5
Q

Someone who is intoxicated and is choking can legally be treated under the law of: Select one: A. informed consent. B. expressed consent. C. involuntary consent. D. implied consent.

A

D. implied consent.

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6
Q

Treatment for a victim of sarin poisoning should include: Select one: A. epinephrine. B. calcium. C. atropine. D. amyl nitrite.

A

C. atropine.

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7
Q

*You are at a meeting and someone calls Sue a “first, first responder.” Sue is MOST likely an: Select one: A. emergency medical technician. B. advanced emergency medical technician. C. emergency medical responder. D. emergency medical dispatcher.

A

D. emergency medical dispatcher.

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8
Q

Which of the following psychosocial changes is common during adolescence? Select one: A. Code of ethics development based solely on parental values B. Decreased risk for depression or suicidal behavior C. Openness in speaking about personal issues D. Fixation on public image and fear of embarrassment

A

D. Fixation on public image and fear of embarrassment

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9
Q

A crime scene: Select one: A. is exclusively what is found on a deceased person. B. only includes what is inside the crime scene tape. C. is limited to where a shooting has occurred. D. includes sites with any potential evidence.

A

D. includes sites with any potential evidence.

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10
Q

Which of the following is subjective data? Select one: A. Blood pressure of 110/60 mm Hg B. Pale, cool, clammy skin C. A complaint of chest pressure D. Obvious respiratory distress

A

C. A complaint of chest pressure

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11
Q

The universal decontamination solution is: Select one: A. lactated Ringer solution. B. normal saline. C. water. D. acetone.

A

C. water.

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12
Q

Dr. Eugene Nagel advanced emergency medical treatment in 1969 by: Select one: A. implementing the “golden hour,” which dramatically increased survival rates of patients who experienced severe trauma. B. developing a telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patient’s electrocardiogram to the physician at the hospital. C. training paramedics to administer certain medications directly through the chest wall and into the left ventricle. D. developing and implementing closed-chest cardiac massage to pump blood in a patient without a pulse.

A

B. developing a telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patient’s electrocardiogram to the physician at the hospital.

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13
Q

The paramedic should avoid: Select one: A. malfeasance. B. beneficence. C. autonomy. D. ethical issues.

A

A. malfeasance.

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14
Q

OSHA regulations requires EMS personnel to have knowledge of: Select one: A. accident scene marking. B. decontamination. C. signs of intravenous drug use. D. drug labs.

A

B. decontamination.

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15
Q

How many minutes of moderate activity are recommended per week to maintain a healthy body mass index? Select one: A. 60 B. 150 C. 90 D. 30

A

B. 150

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16
Q

Which of the following accurately describes the function of an institutional review board? Select one: A. To review research plans for federally funded studies on humans B. To provide advice in planning research involving animal studies C. To assist with data analysis D. To provide advice on follow-up studies

A

A. To review research plans for federally funded studies on humans

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17
Q

The goal of a terrorist using an incendiary device is to: Select one: A. set buildings on fire. B. stop legislation. C. panic citizens. D. alert allies.

A

C. panic citizens.

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18
Q

The number that occurs more often than any other number in a data set is the: Select one: A. average. B. mean. C. mode. D. median.

A

C. mode.

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19
Q

The study of abnormal functioning and diseases of the human body is called: Select one: A. pathophysiology. B. physiology. C. biology. D. biochemistry.

A

A. pathophysiology.

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20
Q

When treating a patient whose eyes have powder from an airbag in them, you should: Select one: A. rinse the patient’s eyes thoroughly. B. dilute the powder with baking soda. C. wrap gauze across the patient’s eyes. D. administer an antibiotic via intravenous push.

A

A. rinse the patient’s eyes thoroughly.

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21
Q

A closed, or contained, incident is a situation that: Select one: A. does not have the potential to grow in size or complexity. B. does not require mutual aid assistance from other agencies. C. involves no more than 10 patients who are critically injured. D. is not expected to produce more patients than initially present.

A

D. is not expected to produce more patients than initially present.

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22
Q

*When should you review the current literature to determine what is already known about a topic? Select one: A. After the area of clinical interest is identified B. After seeking study approval C. Before publication D. Immediately before analyzing the data

A

D. Immediately before analyzing the data

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23
Q

Which of the following is the BEST example of a teachable moment? Select one: A. Lecturing the parent of a small child in cardiac arrest that the parent should have placed a fence around the swimming pool B. Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed C. Telling a babysitter that the child for whom she was caring would not have been injured had the babysitter practiced safer babysitting habits D. Being stern with a man in front of his family when telling him that he would not have fallen from the roof if his son had been helping him

A

B. Advising the unrestrained passenger with minor injuries following a motor vehicle accident that she easily could have been killed

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24
Q

Which of the following blood pressures would you MOST likely encounter in a patient undergoing cold-protective response? Select one: A. 95/45 mm Hg B. 150/90 mm Hg C. 120/79 mm Hg D. 154/86 mm Hg

A

A. 95/45 mm Hg

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25
Q

The medical term dyspnea describes: Select one: A. delayed growth. B. difficulty swallowing. C. difficulty digesting. D. difficulty breathing.

A

D. difficulty breathing.

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26
Q

*The foundation of all patient care is understanding the relationship between human anatomy and: Select one: A. normal body function. B. pathophysiology. C. trauma. D. pathology.

A

A. normal body function.

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27
Q

To ensure that all recorded times associated with an incident are accurate, the paramedic should: Select one: A. frequently glance at his or her watch. B. document the time that each event occurs. C. get a copy of the dispatch log after the call. D. radio the dispatcher after an event occurs.

A

D. radio the dispatcher after an event occurs.

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28
Q

Which of the following, used as a biologic weapon before World War II, is LEAST likely to be encountered in the field? Select one: A. Diseased bodies B. Contaminated blankets C. Sarin D. Poison gas

A

D. Poison gas

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29
Q

Which of the following factors typically affects the vital signs of a 65-year-old patient? Select one: A. Living conditions B. Medications taken C. Dietary habits D. Mental health

A

B. Medications taken

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30
Q

What percentage of EMS workers sustain a back injury while performing EMS duties? Select one: A. 65% B. 25% C. 47% D. 33%

A

C. 47%

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31
Q

Botulism toxin causes: Select one: A. vomiting. B. hematoma. C. paralysis. D. cardiac arrest.

A

C. paralysis.

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32
Q

Energy for cellular functions is produced in the: Select one: A. mitochondria. B. nucleus. C. plasma membrane. D. centrioles.

A

A. mitochondria.

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33
Q

Of the following study designs, which one produces the strongest evidence? Select one: A. Case study B. Descriptive, correlational, qualitative study C. Large nonrandomized trial with control groups D. Small randomized experiment with control groups

A

D. Small randomized experiment with control groups

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34
Q

An isotonic fluid deficit is caused by a(n): Select one: A. decrease in extracellular fluid with proportionate losses of sodium and water. B. increase in extracellular fluid with proportionate sodium and water retention. C. increase in intracellular fluid with proportionate sodium and water retention. D. decrease in intracellular fluid with proportionate losses of sodium and water.

A

A. decrease in extracellular fluid with proportionate losses of sodium and water.

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35
Q

What is the main duty of an EMS worker with respect to patient data? Select one: A. Speedy transmission B. Obtaining complete histories C. Destroying copies after use D. Confidentiality

A

D. Confidentiality

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36
Q

At a very large incident, the operations section is responsible for: Select one: A. locating food, shelter, and health care for you and the other responders present at the incident. B. managing the tactical operations job usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls. C. ensuring that there is ample lighting and functional communications equipment during the incident. D. obtaining data regarding problems that may arise at the incident and revising the plan to solve the problem.

A

B. managing the tactical operations job usually handled by the incident commander on routine EMS calls.

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37
Q

What is the average systolic blood pressure range for a newborn? Select one: A. 67 to 84 mm Hg B. 90 to 100 mm Hg C. 52 to 60 mm Hg D. 85 to 104 mm Hg

A

A. 67 to 84 mm Hg

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38
Q

The global concept of health care is: Select one: A. “Consult ethical experts in all cases.” B. “Help the patient and do no harm.” C. “Follow carefully constructed protocols.” D. “Use the best drug for the condition.”

A

B. “Help the patient and do no harm.”

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39
Q

At birth, an average pulse rate of ____ beats/min and a respiratory rate of ____ breaths/min are considered normal. Select one: A. 110; 20 B. 180; 65 C. 140; 40 D. 120; 25

A

C. 140; 40

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40
Q

Riot control agents target what part of the body? Select one: A. Heart B. Mucous membranes C. Liver D. Hair

A

B. Mucous membranes

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41
Q

The patient care report: Select one: A. is a legal document and should provide a brief description of the patient. B. is held for a period of 24 months, after which it legally can be destroyed. C. provides for a continuum of patient care upon arrival at the hospital. D. should include the paramedic’s subjective findings or personal thoughts.

A

C. provides for a continuum of patient care upon arrival at the hospital.

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42
Q

The equipment and supplies that are carried in the back of an emergency vehicle: Select one: A. should be standardized in every ambulance. B. must be stowed safely yet be easily accessible. C. are dictated by the medical director. D. should follow standard federal guidelines.

A

B. must be stowed safely yet be easily accessible.

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43
Q

The two MOST important underlying principles of the National Incident Management System are: Select one: A. compliance and funding. B. interoperability and public awareness. C. personnel training and certification. D. flexibility and standardization.

A

D. flexibility and standardization.

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44
Q

The medical abbreviation ACS is used by EMS systems to mean: Select one: A. atrial collateral system. B. acute coronary syndrome. C. automatic catheter system. D. arterial circulatory system.

A

B. acute coronary syndrome.

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45
Q

You are moving from one state to another and plan to continue your career in EMS. The state to which you are moving will MOST likely require that you: Select one: A. show proof that you have worked as a paramedic for at least 10 years. B. become a registered paramedic with the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians. C. repeat an entire paramedic training program and take a state examination. D. obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education.

A

D. obtain state certification and maintain adequate continuing education.

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46
Q

Which of the following is the MOST important nutrient? Select one: A. Vitamin C B. Water C. Potassium D. Calcium

A

B. Water

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47
Q

Emergency medical workers have a federal right to: Select one: A. sue patients who are HIV positive. B. know about patients who are HIV positive. C. know if they have been exposed to an infectious agent. D. have any court costs paid for by the government.

A

C. know if they have been exposed to an infectious agent.

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48
Q

Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the EMS medical director? Select one: A. Responding to an emergency scene with the paramedics B. Interfacing between EMS systems and other agencies C. Participating in the hiring process of new EMS personnel D. Developing protocols in cooperation with other EMS experts

A

A. Responding to an emergency scene with the paramedics

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49
Q

Which of the following is the LEAST important reason for accurately documenting a patient care encounter? Select one: A. To assist with reimbursement B. To help with promotion C. To create a legal record D. To demonstrate continuity of care

A

B. To help with promotion

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50
Q

Billing for a non–9-1-1 call will require which of the following? Select one: A. Signed witness statements B. Physician certification statement C. Ambulance fuel receipts D. Health care insurance cards

A

B. Physician certification statement

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51
Q

Which act violates nonmaleficence? Select one: A. Sharing medical information with superiors B. Allowing the patient’s right of self-determination C. Providing a fatal drug to a patient D. Providing better care to those who can pay more

A

C. Providing a fatal drug to a patient

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52
Q

Which of the following is an example of secondary injury prevention? Select one: A. Inspecting a child safety seat to ensure that it is installed properly B. Transporting a patient from home to a physical therapy appointment C. Administering epinephrine to a patient in anaphylactic shock D. Conducting a seminar regarding the appropriate use of bicycle helmets

A

C. Administering epinephrine to a patient in anaphylactic shock

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53
Q

The MOST toxic chemical agents are: Select one: A. poisonous gases. B. anesthetics. C. nerve agents. D. blister agents.

A

C. nerve agents.

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54
Q

If you work three 20-hour shifts in a row and do not submit some of the patient care reports for a week after the last care given, you would MOST likely: Select one: A. be sued by the hospital system. B. be reprimanded by your agency. C. lose your EMS certification or license. D. be held liable for documentation falsification.

A

B. be reprimanded by your agency.

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55
Q

When would a person calling for emergency help FIRST receive some instructions? Select one: A. From neighbors while waiting B. Once the patient is stabilized C. On EMS arrival D. During the call

A

D. During the call

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56
Q

To sue for breach of duty, the plaintiff must be able to show the court the proper: Select one: A. standard of care. B. legal name of the EMS company. C. oversight regulations. D. licensing standards.

A

A. standard of care.

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57
Q

The second meningeal layer is called the: Select one: A. pia mater. B. subdural mater. C. dura mater. D. arachnoid.

A

D. arachnoid.

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58
Q

Which of the following is an example of beneficence? Select one: A. Providing needed medical care to a patient B. Allowing the patient’s right of self-determination C. Providing better care to those who can pay more D. Disallowing a patient from refusing medical care

A

A. Providing needed medical care to a patient

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59
Q

A car slid 30 feet down a 400-foot cliff and came to rest on a narrow ledge. A passenger is bleeding heavily, but you cannot be sure that the car’s position is stable. This dilemma arises from: Select one: A. consent. B. confidentiality. C. a futile situation. D. obligation to provide care.

A

D. obligation to provide care.

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60
Q

A mass-casualty incident is MOST accurately defined as an event in which: Select one: A. there are at least 25 patients, more than half of whom are critically injured. B. the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders. C. there are more patients who require advanced life support than patients who do not. D. mutual aid from other agencies is required to care for numerous patients.

A

B. the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.

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61
Q

Hyperkalemia is defined as: Select one: A. a critically low magnesium level. B. a relative deficit of sodium. C. an elevated serum potassium level. D. excess potassium in the cells.

A

C. an elevated serum potassium level.

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62
Q

An obvious sign that resuscitation would be futile is: Select one: A. missing digits. B. decapitation. C. severe cyanosis. D. a weak pulse.

A

B. decapitation.

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63
Q

Which of the following should make the paramedic the MOST vigilant when arriving at a scene? Select one: A. Presence of unleashed dogs B. Involvement of a child C. Presence of multiple patients D. Patient location in an alleyway

A

A. Presence of unleashed dogs

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64
Q

Which person(s) should be listed on an electronic patient care report? Select one: A. The emergency medical responder who first dressed a wound B. All bystanders at the scene C. The police officer redirecting traffic D. The owner of a nearby closed store

A

A. The emergency medical responder who first dressed a wound

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65
Q

The primary function of the Department of Homeland Security is to: Select one: A. improve airline safety. B. license guns. C. improve emergency medicine. D. prevent terrorism.

A

D. prevent terrorism.

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66
Q

What route of absorption occurs through the nose? Select one: A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Injection D. Inhalation

A

D. Inhalation

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67
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the unified command system is correct? Select one: A. A unified command system functions optimally if one incident commander from each agency is identified before a mass-casualty incident actually occurs. B. In a unified command system, multiple agencies from multiple jurisdictions work together to develop a plan that involves shared responsibilities. C. The response plan developed by a unified command system should focus only on major events such as building collapses, plane crashes, and terrorist attacks. D. A unified command system is difficult to establish before an incident and is activated when the resources of one agency are significantly overwhelmed.

A

B. In a unified command system, multiple agencies from multiple jurisdictions work together to develop a plan that involves shared responsibilities.

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68
Q

Acid–base balance normally remains in a physiologic pH range of: Select one: A. 7.45–7.55. B. 7.35–7.45. C. 7.25–7.35. D. 7.55–8.25.

A

B. 7.35–7.45.

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69
Q

The new Nutrition Facts labels include which nutrient? Select one: A. Soluble fiber B. Vitamin C C. Added sugars D. Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol

A

C. Added sugars

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70
Q

The National Emergency Medical Services Information System: Select one: A. collects relevant data from each state and uses it for research. B. mandates that all personally identifiable information is on the patient care report. C. defines the scope of practice for all levels of EMS provider. D. is a nationwide billing system that any EMS provider can use.

A

A. collects relevant data from each state and uses it for research.

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71
Q

The suffix that means disease is: Select one: A. -osis. B. -ectomy. C. -pathy. D. -emia.

A

C. -pathy.

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72
Q

The FIRST step in developing an injury prevention program is to: Select one: A. conduct a community assessment. B. plan and test interventions. C. define the injury problem. D. establish goals and objectives.

A

A. conduct a community assessment.

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73
Q

As a paramedic, if you transport a patient without the patient’s permission, you may be held liable for: Select one: A. battery. B. false imprisonment. C. assault. D. abandonment.

A

B. false imprisonment.

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74
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have? Select one: A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5

A

A. 3

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75
Q

Upon arriving at the scene of a motorcycle crash, you are approached by an emergency medical responder (EMR). What is the MOST important information the EMR should provide to you? Select one: A. How the crash occurred and approximately when he or she first arrived at the scene B. His or her perception of the criticality of the patient’s condition and suspicion for internal bleeding C. The patient’s vital signs and the presence of any underlying medical conditions D. Initial scene and patient assessment findings and any basic care that was provided to the patient

A

D. Initial scene and patient assessment findings and any basic care that was provided to the patient

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76
Q

Due to the risk of fuel leakage at a motor vehicle crash, you should: Select one: A. forbid any and all sources of ignition. B. use bottled oxygen for breathing. C. wait to work until fuel is absorbed into the ground. D. avoid the use of any type of lights.

A

A. forbid any and all sources of ignition.

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77
Q

Blood vessels are lined with ______________ tissue. Select one: A. nervous B. epithelial C. connective D. muscular

A

B. epithelial

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78
Q

Why are prearrival instructions so important for patients? Select one: A. Helping patients drive to urgent care B. Getting materials prepared before EMS arrival C. Keeping patients alive by maintaining their focus D. Providing instant help and comfort

A

D. Providing instant help and comfort

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79
Q

In healthy adults, a loss of more than ____ of total body fluid is required to alter homeostasis and cause illness. Select one: A. 15% B. 30% C. 20% D. 10%

A

B. 30%

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80
Q

*How do the kidneys normally respond to changes in acid–base balance? Select one: A. They reabsorb or excrete hydrogen ions. B. They excrete potassium and reabsorb hydrogen ions. C. They excrete hydrogen ions and potassium. D. They reabsorb hydrogen ions and potassium.

A

A. They reabsorb or excrete hydrogen ions.

81
Q

With respect to emergency driving, due regard means that: Select one: A. the emergency vehicle operator can legally exceed the posted speed limit by 20 miles per hour (32 km/h), but only if it is safe to do so. B. an ambulance must never exceed the posted speed limit, even if it is responding to a call for a critical patient. C. the use of lights and siren does not exempt you from operating the ambulance with concern for the safety of others. D. an ambulance must use its lights and siren and remain at least 100 feet (30 m) behind a vehicle that is failing to yield.

A

C. the use of lights and siren does not exempt you from operating the ambulance with concern for the safety of others.

82
Q

When transporting a small child on the stretcher, you should: Select one: A. place the child on a backboard, even in the absence of trauma. B. use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible. C. place the child on a parent’s lap and secure them both with straps. D. secure the child as usual, using the adult straps on the stretcher.

A

B. use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible.

83
Q

The prefix that means slow is: Select one: A. ad- B. brady- C. chole- D. post-

A

B. brady-

84
Q

In late adults, the elasticity of the diaphragm __________ and the surface area of the alveoli ___________. Select one: A. strengthens; increases B. declines; decreases C. decreases; increases D. increases; declines

A

B. declines; decreases

85
Q

The patient care report from a crime scene should be: Select one: A. subjective. B. filed within a week. C. objective. D. a brief summary.

A

C. objective.

86
Q

A low-density lipoprotein level of 150 would be considered: Select one: A. near optimal. B. very high. C. high. D. borderline high.

A

D. borderline high.

87
Q

For the first year of life, an infant has naturally acquired passive immunities because: Select one: A. he or she maintains some of the mother’s immunities. B. he or she receives antibodies through breastfeeding. C. he or she is producing antibodies exponentially. D. vaccinations are given within the first year of life.

A

A. he or she maintains some of the mother’s immunities.

88
Q

When cells are exposed to adverse conditions, they go through a process called: Select one: A. hypertrophy. B. crenation. C. apoptosis. D. adaptation.

A

D. adaptation.

89
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely present an immediate danger to the safety of arriving paramedics? Select one: A. Large crowd B. Weather C. Media presence D. Other rescuers

A

A. Large crowd

90
Q

Which of the following would provide the MOST effective cover? Select one: A. Tinted window B. Large oak tree C. Car trunk lid D. Thick bushes

A

B. Large oak tree

91
Q

A survey of more than 30,000 EMS personnel found that chronic and critical incident stressors may increase an EMS provider’s risk for: Select one: A. diabetes. B. cancer. C. heart disease. D. posttraumatic stress.

A

D. posttraumatic stress.

92
Q

Blood is carried from the walls of the heart to the right atrium via the: Select one: A. inferior vena cava. B. pulmonary veins. C. coronary arteries. D. coronary sinus.

A

D. coronary sinus.

93
Q

Which endocrine gland secretes a hormone that regulates electrolyte and fluid homeostasis? Select one: A. Adrenal cortex B. Adrenal medulla C. Hypothalamus D. Parathyroid

A

A. Adrenal cortex

94
Q

The National Incident Management System is designed to: Select one: A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity. B. maximize the capabilities of each state in the United States to manage a large-scale disaster effectively, regardless of the cause. C. educate state, federal, and local governments, as well as private-sector organizations, to effectively prevent a domestic incident. D. provide a consistent template to enable state, federal, and local governments to respond safely to any act of terrorism.

A

A. prepare for, prevent, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents, regardless of cause, size, or complexity.

95
Q

Checkmarks on handwritten patient care reports should: Select one: A. be neat and clear. B. at least pass through the relevant box. C. have a circle at the bottom. D. cover the entire box.

A

A. be neat and clear.

96
Q

An active confronting process that involves gathering information and using the information to change or adjust is known as: Select one: A. coping. B. mastery. C. denial. D. defense.

A

A. coping.

97
Q

*Patient confidentiality in protecting paperwork can be more complex with minors since: Select one: A. the statute of limitations is 2 years. B. parents may become involved. C. they may gain emancipation. D. they often file complaints.

A

B. parents may become involved.

98
Q

A patient is unable to speak but nods in agreement with your offer to help. This is an example of: Select one: A. implied consent. B. expressed consent. C. involuntary consent. D. informed consent.

A

B. expressed consent.

99
Q

The use of the lights and siren on an ambulance: Select one: A. is a request for the right-of-way. B. enables you to exceed the speed limit. C. is statistically the safest mode of transport. D. gives you the legal right-of-way.

A

A. is a request for the right-of-way

100
Q

If the medical director tells a paramedic to stop CPR, but the paramedic believes that the patient has a weak pulse, the paramedic should act as a: Select one: A. family member. B. patient advocate. C. dutiful employee. D. family counselor.

A

B. patient advocate.

101
Q

It becomes easier to monitor and regulate temperature in the toddler and preschool years due to which of the following? Select one: A. These children can express that they don’t feel well. B. The dermis is thickened. C. Skin turgor is developed. D. The capillary beds are better developed.

A

D. The capillary beds are better developed.

102
Q

When communicating with grieving families, a paramedic should: Select one: A. avoid using the words “death” or “dead.” B. inquire about organ donation options. C. stay close to the family throughout the process to help them absorb the information. D. encourage a family member to call for support services.

A

B. inquire about organ donation options.

103
Q

Which of the following is/are considered minimum personal protective equipment when providing patient care? Select one: A. Gloves and eye protection B. Gloves only C. Gloves and a gown D. Gloves and facemask

A

A. Gloves and eye protection

104
Q

According to the Haddon matrix, which of the following is an example of a pre-event strategy used to prevent injury of a child who is riding in a motor vehicle? Select one: A. Training bystanders in basic pediatric first aid B. Outfitting ambulances with pediatric-sized equipment C. Reducing driving during high-risk times D. Ensuring that the driver maintains control of his or her vehicle

A

C. Reducing driving during high-risk times

105
Q

Edema in an upper extremity following a mastectomy is the result of: Select one: A. localized vasoconstriction. B. decreased lymphatic drainage. C. obstruction of a large blood vessel. D. surgery-induced inflammation.

A

B. decreased lymphatic drainage.

106
Q

The FIRST safety-related scene information received by the paramedic would MOST likely be from: Select one: A. the police. B. dispatch. C. bystanders. D. the hospital.

A

B. dispatch.

107
Q

Orthostatic hypotension and oliguria are common manifestations of: Select one: A. dehydration. B. left-sided heart failure. C. hypernatremia. D. fluid overload.

A

A. dehydration.

108
Q

A positive response to stimuli is referred to as: Select one: A. distress. B. eustress. C. adaptation. D. fight or flight.

A

B. eustress.

109
Q

The ______________ has the authority and responsibility to stop an emergency operation if he or she believes a rescuer is in danger. Select one: A. logistics chief B. rescue officer C. safety officer D. triage officer

A

C. safety officer

110
Q

A 78-year-old women has been in asystole for 25 minutes, but her family demands continued attempts at resuscitation. This dilemma arises from: Select one: A. allocation. B. consent. C. confidentiality. D. a futile situation.

A

D. a futile situation.

111
Q

Which of the following types of radiation is the LEAST penetrating? Select one: A. Beta B. Cosmic C. Alpha D. Gamma

A

C. Alpha

112
Q

In a double-blind study involving a drug, who would be aware of which intervention is being administered? Select one: A. The participant receiving the study drug B. The paramedic C. The researcher D. The participant receiving the placebo

A

C. The researcher

113
Q

*What is a modern part of the EMS code of ethics? Select one: A. Be an active citizen with regard to EMS-related legislation. B. Do not use professional knowledge to harm anyone. C. Do no harm to a patient. D. Use social media prudently.

A

A. Be an active citizen with regard to EMS-related legislation.

114
Q

Acidosis is characterized by a(n): Select one: A. decrease in hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH. B. increase in hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH. C. increase in hydrogen ions and an increase in pH. D. decrease in hydrogen ions and an increase in pH.

A

B. increase in hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH.

115
Q

A respirator must: Select one: A. have supplies of both oxygen and nitrogen. B. have an oxygen supply. C. be used in any hazmat situation. D. have a proper filter.

A

D. have a proper filter.

116
Q

An emergency scene created by a terrorist act is: Select one: A. a place where disease must be controlled. B. a memorial site. C. contaminated with toxins. D. a crime location.

A

D. a crime location.

117
Q

Anxiety is beneficial by: Select one: A. alleviating personality stress. B. creating ongoing vigilance after the initial event. C. overriding psychosocial stress. D. allowing one to perform at high efficiency.

A

D. allowing one to perform at high efficiency.

118
Q

In 2017, MOST patients waiting for a transplant were waiting for a: Select one: A. heart. B. liver. C. lung. D. kidney.

A

D. kidney.

119
Q

The first EMS textbook, Emergency Care and Transportation of the Sick and Injured, was published in 1971 by the: Select one: A. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons. B. American Association of Critical Care Nurses. C. American College of Emergency Physicians. D. National Association of EMS Educators.

A

A. American Academy of Orthopaedic Surgeons.

120
Q

General principles for backing up an ambulance include: Select one: A. using one spotter for each side of the ambulance. B. keeping the window up to avoid any distractions. C. not using audible warning devices so you can hear. D. stopping the vehicle if you lose sight of your spotter.

A

D. stopping the vehicle if you lose sight of your spotter.

121
Q

A major distinction between a paramedic and an emergency medical technician is that the paramedic: Select one: A. is held to a higher professional standard. B. carries out advanced pharmacologic skills. C. can function independently of a physician. D. is more likely to be sued for negligence.

A

B. carries out advanced pharmacologic skills.

122
Q

Prior to commencing a lengthy rescue operation at a car crash, you should: Select one: A. contact the agency medical director. B. wait for law enforcement to arrive. C. ensure that the vehicle is stable. D. request air medical transport.

A

C. ensure that the vehicle is stable.

123
Q

The medical abbreviation LMP is used by EMS systems to mean: Select one: A. last menstrual period. B. left main portion. C. left myocardial perfusion. D. left mediastinal pressure.

A

A. last menstrual period.

124
Q

At an active shooter incident, you treat 50 victims, of whom 20 die. Most of those will have died from: Select one: A. crushing injuries. B. tension pneumothorax. C. respiratory failure. D. uncontrolled bleeding.

A

D. uncontrolled bleeding.

125
Q

Which of the following is NOT a critical point addressed by the “White Paper” written in 1966 that was titled “Accidental Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society”? Select one: A. Developing and pursuing a national EMS research agenda B. Allocating adequate resources for Medical Oversight C. Participating in community-based prevention efforts D. Ensuring that paramedics responded to every call

A

D. Ensuring that paramedics responded to every call

126
Q

The MOST important factor to consider when determining if transport of a trauma patient via helicopter is appropriate is: Select one: A. the injury mechanism that was involved. B. delays in ground transport due to traffic. C. the patient’s hemodynamic status. D. the need for definitive airway management.

A

C. the patient’s hemodynamic status.

127
Q

According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, epidemiology is used to control: Select one: A. overpopulation. B. infestations C. health problems. D. poor water supply.

A

C. health problems.

128
Q

*Hypoventilation causes a rise in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide and a decrease in the partial pressure of oxygen, stimulating: Select one: A. hyperventilation. B. atrophy. C. respiration. D. dysplasia.

A

C. respiration.

129
Q

Which of the following statements regarding loading and securing a patient in the back of the ambulance is correct? Select one: A. All patients transported in the back of the ambulance must be secured on the stretcher, even if they request otherwise. B. Whether the patient is lying on the stretcher or sitting on the bench seat, he or she must be properly seat belted. C. All patients should initially be loaded into the ambulance on the stretcher, but they can move to the bench seat once loaded. D. It generally takes a minimum of three people to safely load an average-sized adult on the stretcher into the ambulance.

A

B. Whether the patient is lying on the stretcher or sitting on the bench seat, he or she must be properly seat belted.

130
Q

The medical abbreviation used by EMS systems to indicate “when required” or “as often as necessary” is: Select one: A. prn. B. q. C. po. D. rn.

A

A. prn.

131
Q

What is the FIRST responsibility of a paramedic at the scene of a homicide? Select one: A. Preserving evidence B. Ensuring personal safety C. Treating the patient D. Dealing with reporters

A

B. Ensuring personal safety

132
Q

*Which kind of EMS communications device could MOST easily lead to privacy violations? Select one: A. Very high frequency B. Satellite system C. Trunked radio D. Cell phone

A

D. Cell phone

133
Q

Dirty bombs are usually powered by: Select one: A. explosives. B. gas engines. C. pressure cookers. D. leaf blowers.

A

A. explosives.

134
Q

Where would you expect an examiner checking the Babinski reflexes to place his or her hands? Select one: A. In the palm B. In the crease of the arm at the elbow C. On the sole of the foot D. Behind the knee cap

A

C. On the sole of the foot

135
Q

In what kind of rescue is the atmosphere the most critical element? Select one: A. Electrical B. Cave C. Heavy equipment D. Toxic gas

A

D. Toxic gas

136
Q

If a patient is confined to bed for a prolonged time, you would expect edema to form in the: Select one: A. sacrum. B. upper extremities. C. peritoneum. D. face, neck, and chest.

A

A. sacrum.

137
Q

A paramedic who physically assaults a patient whom he or she is treating for a gunshot wound has committed: Select one: A. malfeasance. B. nonfeasance. C. misfeasance. D. a breach of duty.

A

A. malfeasance.

138
Q

In which of the following situations does an ambulance NOT have the “right of way”? Select one: A. When approaching a school bus with no lights or arm extended B. At a railroad crossings C. At a four-way stop D. At a three-way intersection

A

B. At a railroad crossings

139
Q

If an angry crowd appears after you arrive at the scene and begin to care for the patient, you should: Select one: A. try speaking reasonably with the crowd. B. defend your actions out loud. C. forcefully demand that the crowd disperse. D. remove the patient, if possible.

A

D. remove the patient, if possible.

140
Q

Which of the following would be considered a factor that influences injury patterns in a child? Select one: A. The child’s siblings B. Developmental stage C. The parenting style D. Number of relatives

A

B. Developmental stage

141
Q

Prior to implementing any plans or operations at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, you should FIRST: Select one: A. move any unnecessary personnel away from the area. B. acquire the assistance of at least seven other rescuers. C. notify your supervisor or the incident commander. D. make sure the assigned safety officer is present.

A

C. notify your supervisor or the incident commander.

142
Q

Good Samaritan laws are mostly intended to protect: Select one: A. emergency medical responders. B. advanced emergency medical technicians. C. paramedics. D. the public.

A

D. the public.

143
Q

The _________ reflex happens when an infant is startled and opens his or her arms wide. Select one: A. rooting B. Moro C. vagal D. palmar

A

B. Moro

144
Q

To insert a nasopharyngeal or oropharyngeal airway, the EMS provider must be, at a minimum, a(n): Select one: A. advanced emergency medical technician. B. emergency medical technician. C. medical supervisor. D. emergency medical responder.

A

D. emergency medical responder.

145
Q

Patient packaging involves: Select one: A. removing devices such as a cardiac monitor. B. preparing the patient for transport. C. extricating a patient from a vehicle. D. clearing workspace for patient care.

A

B. preparing the patient for transport.

146
Q

Which of the following statements includes a pertinent negative? Select one: A. “The rapid head-to-toe exam revealed abrasions to the chest.” B. “The patient rates his pain as an 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.” C. “The possible smell of alcohol was noted on the patient.” D. “The patient complains of nausea but denies vomiting.”

A

D. “The patient complains of nausea but denies vomiting.”

147
Q

A hazardous atmosphere would MOST likely be encountered: Select one: A. in a forest. B. over a lake. C. on a rooftop. D. in a grain bin.

A

D. in a grain bin.

148
Q

*A law that defines the scope of practice for an emergency medical responder falls under the realm of: Select one: A. professional service acts. B. health care reporting acts. C. criminal negligence acts. D. medical practice acts.

A

D. medical practice acts.

149
Q

A patient passed out and fell from the bleachers, breaking her leg. When she wakes up, she declines further medical care until the end of her son’s championship game. This dilemma arises from: Select one: A. a futile situation. B. consent. C. confidentiality. D. allocation.

A

B. consent.

150
Q

The medical abbreviation used by EMS systems to indicate two times per day is: Select one: A. CC. B. amp. C. bid. D. po.

A

C. bid.

151
Q

A helicopter landing zone should be: Select one: A. 50 feet by 50 feet (15 m by 15 m) in size and in an area that is at least 50 feet (15 m) from the ambulance. B. 100 feet by 100 feet (30 m by 30 m) in size and on a surface that is firm, level, and free of debris. C. marked with a strobe light at the front and rear of the proposed site. D. at least a quarter of a mile (0.4 km) from the ambulance to avoid injury from flying debris.

A

B. 100 feet by 100 feet (30 m by 30 m) in size and on a surface that is firm, level, and free of debris.

152
Q

An increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue is called: Select one: A. atrophy. B. hyperplasia. C. metaplasia. D. hypertrophy.

A

B. hyperplasia.

153
Q

If an EMS call is canceled while in route, the paramedic should document: Select one: A. the name of the patient not visited. B. mileage at the time of cancellation. C. the name of the canceling authority. D. the supplies already prepared.

A

C. the name of the canceling authority.

154
Q

*According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention’s exercise pyramid, which activity should be performed two to three days per week? Select one: A. Walking to work B. Playing soccer C. Stretching D. Jogging

A

C. Stretching

155
Q

The main goal of any continuous quality improvement program is to: Select one: A. assess for ongoing improvement before a problem arises. B. revamp protocols based on the current standards of care. C. promptly correct any problems once they are identified. D. identify and remove paramedics who are not competent.

A

A. assess for ongoing improvement before a problem arises.

156
Q

An effective injury prevention program should focus on which of the following? Select one: A. Gender of the participants B. Amount of participants C. Typical injury mechanisms D. Current EMS call types

A

D. Current EMS call types

157
Q

The first vertebra beneath the skull is called the: Select one: A. axis. B. coccyx. C. sacrum. D. atlas.

A

D. atlas.

158
Q

Which of the following is the BEST strategy for remaining safe at a dangerous scene? Select one: A. Working in groups B. Using cover and concealment C. Carrying a weapon D. Confronting the patient’s friends about what really happened

A

B. Using cover and concealment

159
Q

The duty to act for a paramedic can be terminated by: Select one: A. an emergency medical technician or advanced emergency medical technician. B. a witness. C. a patient. D. a police officer.

A

C. a patient.

160
Q

The only complete cartilaginous ring in the larynx is the: Select one: A. thyroid cartilage. B. arytenoid cartilage. C. corniculate cartilage. D. cricoid cartilage.

A

D. cricoid cartilage.

161
Q

How many paramedics should initially approach a crashed vehicle with three occupants? Select one: A. 2 B. 1 C. 4 D. 3

A

B. 1

162
Q

Which of the following are long bones? Select one: A. Phalanges B. Skull bones C. Carpal bones D. Ribs

A

A. Phalanges

163
Q

The word part the indicates tissue: Select one: A. aden/o. B. hist/o. C. viscer/o. D. cyt/o.

A

B. hist/o.

164
Q

Which of the following shows the stages of a typical EMS event in correct order? Select one: A. Occurrence, detection, notification, arrival B. Detection, occurrence, notification, arrival C. Detection, notification, occurrence, arrival D. Occurrence, arrival, detection, notification

A

A. Occurrence, detection, notification, arrival

165
Q

What government body requires safety data sheets to be kept when hazardous materials are in use? Select one: A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration B. Federal Bureau of Investigation C. Department of Homeland Security D. Food and Drug Administration

A

A. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

166
Q

Hyperactivity is an example of which type of warning sign of stress? Select one: A. Physical B. Cognitive C. Emotional D. Behavioral

A

D. Behavioral

167
Q

Which of the following duties is NOT a responsibility of the incident commander? Select one: A. Assessing the entire incident scene B. Establishing strategic objectives and priorities C. Developing a plan to manage the incident D. Authorizing medical treatment interventions

A

D. Authorizing medical treatment interventions

168
Q

When a competent adult patient refuses medical care, it is MOST important for the paramedic to: Select one: A. perform a detailed physical exam before allowing the patient to refuse. B. obtain a signed refusal from the patient as well as a witness signature. C. contact medical control and request permission to obtain the refusal. D. ensure that the patient is well informed about the situation at hand.

A

D. ensure that the patient is well informed about the situation at hand.

169
Q

The basic functional unit of the kidney is the: Select one: A. glomerulus. B. renal pyramid. C. nephron. D. Bowman capsule.

A

C. nephron.

170
Q

The root word that means weakness is: Select one: A. pariet-. B. asthenia-. C. pneumo-. D. sclero-.

A

B. asthenia-.

171
Q

When would cell phone use be LEAST recommended for EMS purposes? Select one: A. During high network usage B. When in a suburban town C. After a blizzard D. Above 2,000 feet (610 m) in altitude

A

A. During high network usage

172
Q

Anthrax is usually used as a weapon in the form of: Select one: A. extracted toxins. B. spores. C. live cultures. D. aerosolized actively growing cells.

A

B. spores.

173
Q

Which of the following statements regarding middle-aged adults is correct? Select one: A. Middle-aged adults view crisis as a challenge to be overcome rather than a threat to be avoided. B. Menopause in middle-aged women causes an overall increase in bone density. C. Middle-aged men are at greater risk for cardiovascular disease than are middle-aged women. D. Middle-aged adults focus less on achieving their life goals because of “empty nest” syndrome.

A

A. Middle-aged adults view crisis as a challenge to be overcome rather than a threat to be avoided.

174
Q

Impulse conduction within the heart normally starts in the: Select one: A. atrioventricular node. B. bundle of His. C. Purkinje fibers. D. sinoatrial node.

A

D. sinoatrial node.

175
Q

*The LEAST common route of biologic entry into a victim would be: Select one: A. ingestion. B. injection. C. absorption D. inhalation.

A

B. injection.

176
Q

What would MOST likely happen if a paramedic’s patient care report is subjective, poorly written, and incomplete? Select one: A. Potential allegations of libel by the patient B. Federal penalties, including imprisonment C. Fines from the state or county government D. Lawsuit filed by the medical director

A

A. Potential allegations of libel by the patient

177
Q

A nephrotoxin targets the: Select one: A. heart. B. lungs. C. kidneys. D. liver.

A

C. kidneys.

178
Q

*Upon arriving at the scene of a shooting, you observe containers of solvents and cough medicine. You should: Select one: A. remove the solvents first. B. use respirators. C. retreat immediately. D. question the patient about his activities.

A

B. use respirators.

179
Q

The detailed application of ethical principles to medical issues is called: Select one: A. emergency ethics. B. bioethics. C. professional standards. D. morals.

A

B. bioethics.

180
Q

The decision to use lights and siren when transporting a patient to the hospital is MOST dependent on: Select one: A. the number of vehicles on the road. B. your EMS system’s protocols. C. judgment on the part of the paramedic. D. the opinion of the receiving physician.

A

C. judgment on the part of the paramedic.

181
Q

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act covers: Select one: A. payment information. B. health insurance numbers. C. medical coding data. D. all protected health information.

A

D. all protected health information.

182
Q

If you feel tingling in your feet as you approach a patient who is trapped in a crashed vehicle, you should: Select one: A. change to heavier boots. B. retreat until the site is electrically safe. C. check the ground temperature. D. use the buddy system.

A

B. retreat until the site is electrically safe.

183
Q

The pulse rate of a 16-year-old adolescent typically ranges between: Select one: A. 60 and 100 beats/min. B. 60 and 80 beats/min. C. 90 and 120 beats/min. D. 80 and 110 beats/min.

A

A. 60 and 100 beats/min.

184
Q

In contrast to secondary prevention, primary prevention focuses on: Select one: A. rehabilitating a person who has survived an injury. B. keeping an injury from occurring in the first place. C. reducing the effects of an injury that has already occurred. D. rapid transport to an appropriate medical facility.

A

B. keeping an injury from occurring in the first place.

185
Q

*Generally, a paramedic must be able to detect and preliminarily identify agents used as: Select one: A. blister agent antidotes. B. crowd control measures. C. chemical nerve agents. D. weapons of mass destruction.

A

C. chemical nerve agents.

186
Q

The vertebral column consists of how many bones? Select one: A. 42 B. 23 C. 33 D. 17

A

C. 33

187
Q

While responding to a call for a pediatric cardiac arrest, you approach a school bus with its red warning lights on. You should: Select one: A. use your PA system to advise the students to remain on the bus as you carefully pass it on the left. B. turn your emergency lights and siren off and carefully proceed past the bus at a slow speed. C. carefully pass the bus on the right, if possible, so the children exiting the bus will be able to see you. D. wait for the bus driver to turn off the red warning lights and close the door before carefully passing.

A

D. wait for the bus driver to turn off the red warning lights and close the door before carefully passing.

188
Q

*The primary goal of decontamination is to: Select one: A. dilute toxins to acceptable levels. B. remove environmental hazards. C. minimize liability to the EMS system. D. make both victim and rescuer safer.

A

B. remove environmental hazards.

189
Q

What is the MOST immediate priority when assessing an emergency scene? Select one: A. Communicating with police B. Establishing a perimeter C. Finding the victim D. Ensuring emergency crew safety

A

D. Ensuring emergency crew safety

190
Q

The goal of system status management is to: Select one: A. ensure that every ambulance is staffed with at least one paramedic. B. minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically. C. post at least three ambulances in an area where most EMS calls occur. D. allow paramedics ample time to rest before going on another call.

A

B. minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically.

191
Q

The leading cause of death in the United States is: Select one: A. cancer. B. unintentional injury. C. heart disease. D. stroke.

A

C. heart disease.

192
Q

*A dispatcher sending a second ambulance after an additional shooting while emergency medical technicians are on-site demonstrates: Select one: A. dispatching resources. B. relaying medical information. C. receiving and processing calls. D. coordinating agencies.

A

A. dispatching resources.

193
Q

Which of the following constitutes minimum data that must be included on every patient care report? Select one: A. Scene size-up, detailed assessment, blood glucose reading, vital signs, and patient’s age B. Level of consciousness, field impression, vital signs, assessment, and patient’s name and address C. Chief complaint, level of consciousness, vital signs, assessment, and patient’s age and sex D. Chief complaint, vital signs, assessment, tentative field diagnosis, and patient’s ethnic background

A

C. Chief complaint, level of consciousness, vital signs, assessment, and patient’s age and sex

194
Q

In scientific research, any factor or entity that can differ in amount or type is known as a(n): Select one: A. range. B. unknown. C. variable. D. quantity.

A

C. variable.

195
Q

Which of the following is an example of confidentiality? Select one: A. Providing needed emergency medical care to a patient B. Allowing the patient’s right of self-determination C. Disallowing unauthorized viewing of patient information D. Providing better care to those who can pay more

A

C. Disallowing unauthorized viewing of patient information

196
Q

*Why should a patient care report be detailed? Select one: A. To meet hospital regulations B. To maintain the paramedic’s attention C. For police transfer D. For future legal needs

A

A. To meet hospital regulations

197
Q

The practice of basing prehospital care on current and scientific evidence is known as: Select one: A. standard of care. B. preventive medicine. C. evidence-based medicine. D. best practices.

A

C. evidence-based medicine.

198
Q

After taking the original Hippocratic oath, the provider is obligated to: Select one: A. protect all patient interests. B. disclose private information. C. participate in assisted suicide. D. provide services free of charge.

A

A. protect all patient interests.

199
Q

Blister agents are also called: Select one: A. anesthetics. B. opioids. C. antihistamines. D. vesicants.

A

D. vesicants.

POC 27 Module 2 (21 decks)

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