MDS Flashcards

1
Q

What hypomethylating agent has phase 3 date showing an improvement in OS in MDS?

A

Azacitadine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What biologic pathway does Luspatercept target?

A

TGF-Beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Luspatercept Main side effect

A

Fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What percentage of ringed sideroplasts are required for diagnosis of RARS?
(Refractory Anemia with Ring Sideroblasts)

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What chromosome changes are seen with Treatment-related MDS and AML

A

Alkylating agent exposure
-del 5
-del6
5-7 year latency period

Topo II inhibitor exposure
- 11q23 (2-3 years latency period)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which 2 criteria warrant 7+3 induction for High risk MDS?

A

Blasts >20%, age less than 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What blast percentage increases the incidence of relapse after an allogeneic stem cell transplant in
MDS?

A

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which risk strata patients should be considered for allogeneic stem cell transplantation in
myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

High risk and very high risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which 3 cytogenetic changes in myelodysplastic syndrome constitute a diagnosis of AML?

A

t(8;21) , inv(16), t(15;17)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are 5 cell surface markers for myeloid blasts?

A

CD13,14,33,34,117

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which myelodysplastic syndromes present with thrombocytosis?

A

5q- and RARS-T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which cytogenetic changes are associated with isolated thrombocytopenia in myelodysplastic
syndrome?

A

Deletion 20q

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What complete blood count changes is most common with myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the relationship between autoimmune disease and myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

Increase incidence with polychondritis, polymyalgia rheumatica, Raynaud’s disease, Sjogren’s,
inflammatory bowel disease, pyoderma gangrenosum, glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which 2 non-malignant hematologic conditions predispose to myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

PNH and congenital neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which 5 genes are commonly mutated in myelodysplastic syndrome?

A
  1. DNMT3A
  2. TET2
  3. RUNX1,
  4. ASXL4,
  5. TP53
17
Q

Which targetable mutations in AML in myelodysplastic syndrome regulate epigenetics?

18
Q

Which genes methylate and demethylate DNA in myelodysplastic syndrome?

A

DNMT3A- methylation

TET2-demethylation

19
Q

Which genetic mutation is seen in 5q- syndrome ?

20
Q

Which mutation is seen in sideroblastic MDS? Also seen in RARS-T?

21
Q

Which cellular organelle is responsible for ringed sideroblast formation?

A

Mitochondria

22
Q

What is the median overall survival for patients with high and very high-risk MDS?

23
Q

Which diagnostic tests are required for patients with myelodysplastic syndrome–myeloproliferative
neoplasm overlap syndrome?

A

PDGFRA mutation analysis, to determine if there is a role for imatinib

24
Q

In which group of MDS patients is there a lack of consensus on treatment?

A

Intermediate-risk

25
Q

What is the overall response rate for lenalidmoide in 5q- and non-5q- patients?

A

67% versus 27%.

26
Q

Which of the hypomethylating agents showed no change in OS?

A

Decitabine- Increases ORR, increased Cytogenetics response, but no change in OS

27
Q

Which hypomethylating agent can be given SQ?

A

Azacitidine

28
Q

What is the minimum number of months a hypomethylating agent should be used prior to assessing a failure of therapy in MDS?

29
Q

Whic variables predict for an elevated response to ATG/CsA in hypocellular MDS?

A

age < 60, hypocellular bone marrow, HLA DR 2 and 15 positivity, + PNH clone, Blasts <5%

30
Q

What treatment options are there for low risk and intermediate risk myelodysplastic syndrome with EPO
> 500?

A

Hypomethylating agents, IMIDs, immunosuppressive therapy

31
Q

What EPO level should warrant ESA use in MDS?

A

Less than 500 mU/mL

32
Q

MDS with 5q deletion Tx

A

Lenalidomide