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Immunology > MCQs 19 pages > Flashcards

MCQs 19 pages Flashcards

1
Q 
The major immune organs in our body are:
Kidneys
Liver
Spleen
Lymph nodes
A

Lymph nodes

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2
Q 
The pluripotent bone-marrow stem cell is a product of:
Pancreas
Heart
Bone marrow of the big bones
Bone marrow of the smallest bone
A

Bone marrow of the big bones

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3
Q 
Lymphoid stem cell can proliferate and differentiate into:
B-cell
T-cell
Macrophage
Erythrocyte
A

B-cell

T-cell

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4
Q 
Myeloid stem cell can proliferate and differentiate into:
Plasma cell
T-helper cell
Monocyte
Granulocyte
A

Monocyte

Granulocyte

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5
Q 
Thymus is necessary for the proliferation and differentiation of:
Macrophage
Blast cell
T-cell
Reticulocyte
A

T-cell

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6
Q 
Immunoglobulin is produced by:
Monocytes
Platelets
Plasma cells
Myeloid stem cells
A

Plasma cells

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7
Q 
IgE is:
The biggest antibody
The smallest antibody
Responsible for acute infections
Responsible for allergic reactions
A

Responsible for allergic reactions

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8
Q 
IgD is:
Marker of tumour process
Marker of chronic infections???
Marker of nosocomial infections
?Marker
A

Marker of chronic infections???
?Marker of allergic infections

IgM: activates complement system (does poorly penetrate tissues)
IgG: transported across placenta (tissue penetration) -> protection of newborn
IgA: mucosal

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9
Q 
Lysozyme is:
Product of granulocytes’ destruction
Major factor of natural resistance
Immunoglobulin
Erythropoietin
A

Major factor of natural resistance

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10
Q 
Lysozyme can be found (in healthy person) in:
Conjunctiva secretion
Sperm
Urine
Liquor
A

Conjunctiva secretion

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11
Q 
Complement consists of:
15 components
5 components
9 components
No components
A

15 components

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12
Q 
Immune complex is:
Antibody + antigen specific complex
Antibody + complement complex
Antigen + complement complex
Antibody + antigen + complement complex
A

Antibody + antigen specific complex

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13
Q 
HLA consists of:???
6 loci?
1 locus
4 loci
no locus
A
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14
Q 
HLA consists of:???
6 loci?
1 locus
4 loci
no locus
A

6 loci?

15 loci??

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15
Q

Monoclonal antibody is a result of: ??
Fusion between spleen cell and myeloma cell - right, if “spleen cell” is b- cell (b -cells
are abundant in white pulp)
Fusion between thymus cell and plasma cell
Fusion between macrophage and blast cell
Fusion between lymphoid stem cell and myeloid stem cell

A

Fusion between spleen cell and myeloma cell - right, if “spleen cell” is b- cell (b -cells
are abundant in white pulp)

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16
Q

Transplantation of organs is possible if:???
Donor and recipient match with 4 HLA loci
Donor and recipient match with 1 HLA loci
No relation between matching of HLA loci
HLA system is not needed at all

A

Donor and recipient match with 4 HLA loci

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17
Q 
Immune vaccine works as:
Antibody
Antigen
Both, antibody and antigen
Nothing of the above
A

Both, antibody and antigen

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18
Q 
Vaccine is applied for: ???
Therapy
Prophylactics
Prevention
Nothing of the above
A

Prophylactics

Prevention

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19
Q 
Serum is a product of: ?
Antigen formation
Antibody formation
Complement influence
Macrophage destruction
A

Antigen formation

Antibody formation

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20
Q 
Serum is applied for: ?
Therapy
Prophylactics
Prevention
Nothing of the above
A

Therapy

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21
Q

Vaccine against smallpox has:
Short term immune action (up to 3 months)
Medium-time immune action (up to 3 years)
Life-long immune action
No immune action at all

A

Life-long immune action

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22
Q

Vaccine against dysentery is:
Widely applied in epidemics
Applied only after the decision of the GP
No vaccine exists
With life-long immunity after a single application

A

No vaccine exists

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23
Q 
HTLV or LAV have been the previous names of:
Small pox virus
Picorna viruses
Influenza virus
HIV (in 1980s)
A

HIV (in 1980s)

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24
Q 
Incubation period of clinically manifested HIV-infection is:
Up to 1 year
Up to 3 years
Up to 5 years
Unknown duration
A

unknown duration

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25
Q 
Target cells of HIV are:
Brain cells
Lung cells
Helper cells
Macrophages
A

Helper T cells

26
Q

“Angry” is one of the nicknames given to:???? never heard that :D
Erythrocytes
Plasma cells
Macrophages
Platelets (found articles where such terminology is used, nothing for the other 2)

A

Macrophages

27
Q 
Cesar Milstein and Alfred Koeller have been granted Nobel Prize for:
HLA typing
Monoclonal antibodies
C3-complement subcomponents
Tumour markers TNF
A

Monoclonal antibodies

28
Q

The analysis of the T-cell subgroups by flow cytometry would be most appropriate in
diagnosing which of the following diseases?
severe deficiency of IgA
severe combined immunodeficiency
Bruton’s disease
multiple myeloma

A

severe combined immunodeficiency

29
Q

All of the following are clinical applications of the flow cytometric study, except for:
monitoring of cellular changes after transplantation
Immunophenotyping of lymphocyte subpopulations
Analysis of viral load in HIV
Quantitative analysis of hematopoietic stem cells in peripheral blood

A

Quantitative analysis of hematopoietic stem cells in peripheral blood

30
Q 
Which of the following are L-chains of immunoglobulins?
y
κ
a
m
A

κ

Two types of light chain, termed lambda (λ) and kappa (κ), are found in antibodies.

31
Q 
Results of flow cytometric examination revealed a lack of cells expressing CD2 and CD3.
What does this show?
Lack of B-lymphocytes
Lack of T-lymphocytes
Lack of NK cells
Lack of monocytes
A

Lack of T-lymphocytes

32
Q 
Everything listed is characteristic for malignancy, except:
Fast proliferation
Gene mutations
Universal apoptosis
Clonal proliferation
A

Universal apoptosis

33
Q

A 55-year old woman complains about dry mouth and eyes and blurred vision for 2 years.
Physical examination revealed xerophtalmia and xerostoma, bilateral diffuse, painless
enlargement of the parotid gland. A year later, she developed bilateral swelling and pain,
when moving her arms. Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be found in
this woman diagnosed with Sjogren’s syndrome?
anti-centomeric antibodies
anti-RNP antibodies
anti-dsDNA antibodies
anti-SS-A antibodies

A

anti-SS-A antibodies

34
Q 
In the thymus, the positive selection of immature T cells is based on the recognition of which
of the following?
Own antigens
Loki chains
Stress Proteins
MHC antigens
A

MHC antigens

35
Q 
Homogenous type of light on indirect immunofluorescence would give the presence of which
of the following antibodies?
anti-histone antibodies
anti-RNP antibodies
anti-Smith antibodies
anti-SS-A antibodies
A

anti-histone antibodies

36
Q 
When a soluble antigen diffuses into a gel that contains an antibody, in which zone are
optimal precipitates formed?
Zone of excess antigen
Prozone
Antibody excess zone
Zone of equilibrium
A

Zone of equilibrium

37
Q

Which of the following can be attributed to the clonal selection theory for antibody formation?
cellular receptors are detached and become circulating antibodies
Plasma cells secrete non-specific antibodies
Antibodies can change their structure depending on the type of antigen
The B-cells are pre-programmed to synthesize specific antibodies

A

The B-cells are pre-programmed to synthesize specific antibodies

38
Q

What is the characteristic of immunoglobulin variable zones?
They represent the site of complement repair
Composed of polypeptide portions of heavy and light chains
They are located at the carboxyl ends of the immunoglobulin monomer
All of the above

A

Composed of polypeptide portions of heavy and light chains

39
Q

Which immunosuppressive agonist selectively inhibits IL-2 receptor mediated T cell
activation and causes clearance of activated T cells from the circulation?
Corticosteroids
Daclizumab
Cyclosporine
Mycophenolate mofetil

A

Daclizumab

40
Q 
MHC molecules are associated with:
Graft rejection
Development of autoimmune disease
Determining which antigen an individual will respond to
All of the above
A

All of the above

41
Q

Which of the following would trigger a positive direct Coombs test?
Presence of IgG on erythrocytes
Presence of C3b or C3d on erythrocytes
Transfusion reaction due to pre-formed antibodies
all listed

A

all listed

42
Q 
Interleukin-10 is an antagonist of:
TNF alpha
Tissue growth factor beta
Interleukine-4
Interferon-gamma
A

TNF alpha

43
Q

A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection exhibits the following
symptoms: high fever, very low blood pressure and disseminated growth coagulation. Which
cytokine is most likely to contribute to these symptoms?
Interleukin 2
TNF alpha
Tissue growth factor beta
Interleukin 12

A

TNF alpha

44
Q 
Bence-Jones protein identical to:
H chains
L chains
IgG molecules
IgM molecules
A

L chains

45
Q 
The enumeration listed is characteristic of a good immunogen, with the exception of:
Located on its own cells
presence of multiple epitopes
Structural coherence
High molecular weight
A

High molecular weight

46
Q

Systemic lupus erythematosus can be differentiated from rheumatoid arthritis with:
Formation of immune complexes and the activation of complement
Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) present in serum
Anti-dsDNA antibodies in serum
Joint pain

A

Anti-dsDNA antibodies in serum

47
Q

CH50 test indicates:
Amount of complement required for lysis of 50% of erythrocytes
Amount of complement required for lysis of 100% of erythrocytes
Deficiency of some complement system components
All of the above

A

Amount of complement required for lysis of 50% of erythrocytes

48
Q

Indirect Coombs test is used in which of the following procedures:
Identification of free antibodies in serum
Blood group identification
Identification of Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)
Identification of cold agglutinins

A

Identification of free antibodies in serum

49
Q 
Which of the following plays a key role in the killing of parasites;
Monocytes
B-lymphocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
A

Eosinophils

50
Q 
Which is most frequently found in mucosal secretions:
IgM
IgA
IgG
IgE
A

IgA

51
Q

The functions of the complement system are related to:
Participation in the processing and presentation of the antigen
antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC)
Opsonization and lysis of cells, including bacteria
all answers are correct

A

Opsonization and lysis of cells, including bacteria

52
Q

Which of the following best summarizes the concept of tumor development through
immunoediting?
Cytokines produced by tumor cells are toxic to T cells expressing receptors for
tumor-associated antigens
Tumor cells, which can avoid the immune response, have an advantage in proliferation and
growth over immunogenic tumor cells
Secreted tumor-associated antigens saturate T-cell receptors and make them unable to to
bind to the actual tumor
The activity of T cells causes increased regulation of the expression of MHC molecules in
tumor cells, which allows them to move to this answer

A

Tumor cells, which can avoid the immune response, have an advantage in proliferation and
growth over immunogenic tumor cells

53
Q

All of the following are related to type 1 hypersensitivity, except:
hereditary predisposition to allergic reaction
Bridges of antigen and cell-associated antibodies are formed
Activation of complement ?
Release of preformed mediators from mast cells

A

Activation of complement ?

54
Q 
Which of the following would support the diagnosis of the drug-induced lupus?
The presence of anti-Smith antibodies
The presence of anti-SS-A antibodies
The presence of anti-histone antibodies
The presence of rheumatoid factor
A

The presence of anti-histone antibodies

55
Q 
A process that increases the efficiency of phagocytosis by coating foreign particles with
serum proteins is
Absorption
Opsonization
Chemotaxis
Agglutination
A

Opsonization

56
Q

Which of the following is a common feature of hypersensitivity reactions?
Immune response is suppressed
Antibodies are involved in all types of reactions
Immune complexes are formed, which are open to harmful effects
The reactions may involve either its own antigen or a heterologous antigen

A

The reactions may involve either its own antigen or a heterologous antigen

57
Q

Which of the following explains the difference between type II and type III hypersensitivity?
Type lI includes IgE
Type II reactions do not include antibodies
IgG participates only in type III reactions
Type II includes its own cellular antigens

A

Type II includes its own cellular antigens

58
Q

Which condition would lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn?
Accumulation of IgE on maternal cells
Sensitization to foreign erythrocyte antigens
Sensitization of cytotoxic T cells
Exposure to antigen detected on both maternal and infant erythrocytes

A

Sensitization to foreign erythrocyte antigens

59
Q

Chronic leukemias are characterized by?

  • being treated immediately with chemotherapy
  • usually of B-Cell origin
  • affecting mainly children
  • accelerating rapid progression of developmen
A
  • accelerating rapid progression of development
60
Q

Which of the following is the best indicator for a malignant B-Cell Clone?

  • impaired kappa/lambda ratio
  • increase in igG and igM production
  • decrease in total antibody production
  • hypergammaglobulinemia
A
  • hypergammaglobulinemia

Immunology (2 decks)

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