MCQs Flashcards

1
Q

What is a double positive Thymocyte?

  • CD2-CD3+CD4-CD8+
  • CD2+CD3-CD4+CD8-
  • CD2-CD3+CD4+CD8-
  • CD2+CD3+CD4+CD8+
A
  • CD2+CD3+CD4+CD8+
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2
Q

Which of the following characteristics are not used to classify the lymphatic newformations?

  • Specific cancerogens exposure
  • Origin of the tumor cells
  • Morphology + cytology of tumor cells
  • Genetranslocations
A

Specific cancerogens exposure

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3
Q

Which of the white blood cells is capable of future differentiation in tissue?

  • Neutrophil
  • Monocyte
  • Eosinophil
  • Basophil
A
  • Monocyte

White blood cells are traditionally grouped into three major categories—granulocytes, monocytes, and lymphocytes—on the basis of their appearance in the light microscope.

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4
Q

Front dispersion of the light/FSC in fluoroscent cytometry is an indicator for

  • Count of cells
  • Form of cells
  • Density of cells
  • Granulation of cells
A
  • Density of cells
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5
Q

22 year-old woman with erithematous rash including her cheeks and nose and it appears everytime
she spends a few minutes out in a sunny day. On physical examination between these episodes,
there was nothing found. There is normal kidney function. On immunofluorescent biopsy of the skin
that takes part in the rash formation, it shows the IgG along the basal membrane. There is no IgG on
the not in the rash included skin. Test for ANA is negative. Which of these diseases ist he proper
diagnosis?
- Restricted systemic sklerosis
- Systemic lupus erythematosus
- Discoid lupus erythematosus
- Atopic dermatitis

A
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus
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6
Q

Which of the following is a proof for medication induced lupus?

  • Anti SS A Antibodies
  • Anti smith antibodies
  • Anti histone antibodies
  • Rheuma factor
A
  • Anti histone antibodies
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7
Q

Homogenous type of light in indirect immunofluorency would give which of these antibodies?

  • Anti smith antibodies
  • Anti histone antibodies
  • Anti SS A antibodies
  • Anti RNP antibodies
A
  • Anti histone antibodies
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8
Q

Which of the fllowing markers would be expressed on the population of T-Cytotoxic cells?

  • Only CD4
  • CD3 and CD8
  • CD19 and CD20
  • CD3 and CD4
A
  • CD3 and CD8
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9
Q
The analysis of the types of T-Cells with fluorcytometry would be most usefull when diagnosing 
which disease?
- Severe IgA deficiency
- Severe combined immunodefficiency
- Brutons disease
- Multiple myeloma
A
  • Severe combined immunodefficiency
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10
Q

How many anitgen presenting places does a typical IgM molecule have?

  • 2
  • 4
  • 6
  • 10
A
  • 10
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11
Q

The skin, the secretion of lactic acid, bile and stomach acid, movement of the cilia in the respiratory tract are presenting which type of immunity?

  • Innate
  • Autoimmune
  • Specific
  • Accquired
A
  • Innate
    INNATE IMMUNITY. Innate, or nonspecific, immunity is the defense system with which you were born. It protects you against all antigens. Innate immunity involves barriers that keep harmful materials from entering your body. These barriers form the first line of defense in the immune response.
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12
Q

A human recovering from a bacterial infection. After testing his serum, antibodies where found
against the protein which is usually found in the cytoplasm of the with the infection associated
bacteria. Which of the following is correct?
- MHC molecues Class I have presented the bacterial antigen to CD5+ T-Cells
- MHC molecules Class II have presented the bacterial antigen to CD4+ T-Cells
- B cells have recognized the bacterial antigen without the help of the T-Cellss
- MHC molecules Class I have presented bacterial antigen to CD4+ T-Cells

A
  • MHC molecules Class II have presented the bacterial antigen to CD4+ T-Cells
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13
Q

Which of the following would be examined in a patient with myeloperoxidase deficiency?

  • Incapability of forming IgG
  • Functioning defect of NK-Cells
  • Functioning defect of T-Cells
  • Functioning defect of Neutrophils
A
  • Functioning defect of Neutrophils
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14
Q

Which of the following is the power of attraction between antibody and antigen ?

  • Affinity
  • Covalence
  • Van deer Waals forces
  • Avidity
A
  • Affinity
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15
Q

During lowered amount of interleucin-4, we have

  • Low amount of IgE
  • Low amount of eosinophils
  • Higher risk of tumor formation
  • Incapability of fighting the viral infections
A
  • Low amount of IgE

B cells produce IgG1 and IgE when stimulated with anti-CD40 and IL-4.

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16
Q
The graft-verus-host-disease (GVHD) after transplantation of stem cells is mediated by which of the 
following?
- NK-Cellsa
- Neutrophills
- Mature T-Cells
- Mature B-Cells
A
  • Mature T-Cells

Graft-vs-host disease (GVHD) is caused by a donor T cell anti-host reaction that evolves over several weeks to months, suggesting a requirement for persistent alloreactive T cells.

17
Q

The class of the immunoglobuline cells is defined by

  • Heavy chains (H-chain)
  • Light chains (L-chain)
  • Disulfate connections
  • Variable area (V-region)
A
  • Heavy chains (H-chain)

The five primary classes of immunoglobulins are IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and IgE. These are distinguished by the type of heavy chain found in the molecule.

18
Q
Antigen receptors of T-lymphocytes bind to HLA molecules Class II with the help of which additional 
molecule?
- CD3
- CD8
- CD4
- CD2
A
  • CD4
19
Q

Contact dermatitis can be characterized by all of the following EXCEPT

  • Cells of Langerhans, acting like antigen presenting cells
  • Generation of sensibilized T-Cells
  • Forming of antigen-antibody-complex
  • Formation of a complex of hapten and own body antigen
A
  • Forming of antigen-antibody-complex
20
Q

All of the below characteristics are specific for the components of the complement, EXCEPT

  • Thermolability
  • Normally found in plasma
  • Mainly synthesized in liver
  • Are identical with fibrinogen
A
  • Are identical with fibrinogen
21
Q

Syndrome of DiGeorge can be characterized by all oft he following, EXCEPT

  • Decreased amount of mature T-Cells
  • Normal amount of neutrophilic granulocytes
  • Cardiac anormalities
  • Hypoplasia of parathyroid cells
A
  • Normal amount of neutrophilic granulocytes
22
Q

The classic pathway of the complement system is activated by

  • Most viruses
  • Antigen-antibody-complex
  • Fungal cell wall
  • All oft he above
A
  • Antigen-antibody-complex

in alternative pathway it is activated by bacterial endotoxin
in lectin pathway it is activated by mannose binding lectin

23
Q

42 year old men has lost 7kg in the last 2 years. During that time, he has experieced pain and edema
around the small joints of hands and feet. This sounds like he has had a high amount of infections oft
he raspiratory tract with isolated staphylococcus aureus, streptococcus pneumoniae and
pseudomonas aeuroginosa. He has chronic diarrhea and cysts of giardia lamblia in feces. His ANA test
is negative. Quality examination of serum immunoglobulins finds hypogammaglobulinemia. With
fluorcytometry normal amount of T-Cells, slight lowering of B-Cells was found. Which ist he most
likely diagnosis?
- HIV infection
- Diabetes mellitus
- Humoral imunity deficiency
- Combined immune deficiency

A
  • Humoral imunity deficiency
24
Q

Which oft he following is the best for analysis of specific cytokines?

  • Meassuring of hemotaxis of lymphocytes
  • Blast formation
  • T-Cells proliferation
  • ELISA method
A
  • ELISA method

The enzyme-linked immunosorbant assay (ELISA)

25
Q

For HLA molecules, which oft he following is incorrect?

  • The genes for HLA are inherited like haptomers
  • They have importance for protection and development for autoimmunity
  • They are heterodimers
  • They are monomorphic
A
  • They are monomorphic
26
Q

Which antibody is the best antibody for aglutination and activation of the complement (has the highest avidity)?

  • IgG
  • IgM
  • IgE
  • IgA
A
  • IgM

High valency allows IgM to be more efficient than other immunoglobulins at binding antigens with repeating epitopes, such as viral particles, DNA, red blood cells, and carbohydrates on pathogens or cell surfaces

27
Q

Which of the following is a primary lymphatic organ?

  • Thymus
  • Lymphatic tissue
  • Mucosa associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)
  • Spleen
A
  • Thymus

Primary lymphoid organs: These organs include the bone marrow and the thymus. They create special immune system cells called lymphocytes.

Secondary lymphoid organs: These organs include the lymph nodes, the spleen, the tonsils and certain tissue in various mucous membrane layers in the body (for instance in the bowel). It is in these organs where the cells of the immune system do their actual job of fighting off germs and foreign substances.

28
Q

Which of the following best describes aglutination?

  • Combination of soluble antigen with soluble antibodies
  • Combination of unsoluble particles with soluble antibodies
  • Reaction that desnt lead to visible endresults
  • Reaction which needs automatic equipment
A
  • Combination of unsoluble particles with soluble antibodies
29
Q

Everything is correct about a good immunogen, EXCEPT

  • Found on body owns cells
  • Abundance of epitopes
  • Complicity of the structure
  • High molecular weight
A

Found on body owns cells

The main difference between antigen and immunogen is that antigen is any structure that binds to the components of the immune system, including antibodies, B cells, and T cells, whereas immunogen is a type of antigen capable of inducing an immune response.

There are three characteristics that a substance must have to be immunogenic: foreignness, high molecular weight and chemical complexity.

30
Q

All of the following are correct about IgM, EXCEPT

  • Passes through placenta
  • Fixates the compliment
  • Is a main immunoglobulin in the primary immune answer
  • Has a J-Chain
A

Passes through placenta
immunoglobulins - IgA and IgM are excluded from crossing the placenta. Thus IgM antibodies in the newborn indicate a response to intrauterine infection. IgG is selectively transferred across the placenta.-

31
Q

To define whether the patient is allergic to pollen, the best test is

  • Skin test (Prick test)
  • Total IgE
  • Reaction oft he connection of the complement
  • Direct Coombs test
A
  • Skin test (Prick test)
32
Q

A patient in septic shock, caused by gram-negative bacterial infection has the following symptoms:
high body temperature, very low blood pressure and …. (i cant see it in the picture here) which is the
most likely cause for the symptoms
A) interleukin-2
B) tissue growth factor beta
C ) interleukin-12
D) tumor necrosis factor alpha

A

D) tumor necrosis factor alpha

33
Q

Presence of normal flora acts as a defensive mechanism … (cut photo)
A) competes with pathogens for food substances
B) support of acidic environment
C) support of phagocytes in the area
D) covering of mucous surfaces

A

A) competes with pathogens for food substances