MCQbank SBAs Flashcards

1
Q

Chloramphenicol rare side effect

A

Bone marrow suppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

carcinoid tumours vitamin deficiency

A

Niacin - pellagra

(increased tryptophan metabolism - niacin is derived from tryptophan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Waldenstrom’s Macroglobulinaemia is associated with

A

Non-Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

P450 inhibitors i.e INCREASE drug level

A

SICKFACES.COM Group

Sodium Valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin
Sulphonamides
Chloramphenicol
Omeprazole
Metronidazole
Grapefruit Juice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

P450 inducers i.e. DECREASE drug level

A

CRAP GPS

Carbamazepine
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbatone
Sulphonylurea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

DMARD causing reduced visual acuity

A

Hydroxychloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

roseola infantum is caused by

A

HHV-6
‘sixth disease’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Myasthenia gravis treatment (in mild disease)

A

Pyridostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

SLE antibodies

A

ANA (screening, sensitivity 95%)
Anti-dsDNA
Anti-Sm (most specific, sensitivity only 30-40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fragile X syndrome inheritance

A

X-linked dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Paeds: Murmurs occuring during …….. are always pathological

A

Diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Sodium valproate in early pregnancy is associated with

A

neural tube defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Acute otitis media is most commonly caused by

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Most common childhood epilepsy

A

Benign rolandic epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Treatment for Onychomycosis

A

Terbinafine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Centor criteria for ?abx in pts presenting with sore throat

A

Tonsillar exudate
Absence of cough
Fever
Lymphadenopathy

if >=3 present -> 50% chance 2ndry to Group A strep

10 days phenoxymethylpenicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Uhthoff’s phenomenon

A

Worsening of symptoms in demyelinating conditions with increase in temperature e.g. hot weather, exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cause of pneumonitis in rheumatoid patient

A

Methotrexate pneumonitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

most common cause of septic arthritis

A

Staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sarcoidosis causes a …….. ventilatory defect

A

restrictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

CML monoclonal antibody treatment

A

Imatinib (against philadelphia chromosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Hyperthyroid treatment in pregnancy

A

1st timester PTU
2nd and 3rd CBZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HLA-B27 association

A

Ank Spond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

lower back pain improving with exercise

A

Ank Spond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

diagnosis of carcinoid syndrome

A

urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Slapped cheek syndrome otherwise known as, caused by

A

Erythema infectiosum, fifth disease, parvovirus B19 infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Viagra side effect - vision

A

Blue discolouration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Down and out, blown pupil

A

CN III lesion - extrinsic compression e.g. PICA aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

sickle cell disease causes a ………. anaemia

A

normocytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

vitamin deficiency: cracked red lips, angular cheilitis, inflammation of mouth and tongue

A

Riboflavin
Vit B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how long can a patient be legally detained for with a section 5(2)

A

72hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

BP treatment caucasian <55

A

ACEi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Average age diagnosis 23, SBO/intussusception, pigmented lesions buccal mucosa, GI polyps

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

Autosomal dominant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

History of gout, worsening of symptoms following introduction of anti-hypertensive agent

A

Thiazide diuretic e.g. bendroflumethiazide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Friedrich’s ataxia most likely cause of death

A

Cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

koplik spots are associated with

A

Measles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Antibody found commonly in Primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibodies

38
Q

Spleen prevents infection by ……… bacteria

A

encapsulated e.g. strep pneumoniae, strep pyogenes, meningococcus, group b strep

39
Q

Max dose of simvastatin in patients on Amlodipine

A

20mg

Amlodipine is weak cytochrome p450 inhibitor

40
Q

Wet/exudative Age-related Macular Degeneration is characterised by

A

Choroidal neovascularisation

41
Q

Absence seizure treatment

A

Ethosuximide
Lamotrigine
Valproate

42
Q

Antistreptolysin 0 titres are raised in

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

43
Q

Treatment for Bell’s palsy

A

50mg Pred OD 10 days if presents within 72hrs

44
Q

How to distinguish Labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis

A

Labyrinthitis likely to present with tinnitus/deafness
This does not occur in vestibular neuronitis

45
Q

Most common side effect of sulphonylureas e.g. Gliclazide

A

Hypoglycaemia

46
Q

Normal-pressure Hydrocephalus triad

A

Gait Disturbance
Urinary Incontinence
Dementia

47
Q

Pellagra-like dermatitis (red, scaly photosensitive rash), neurological involvement (ataxia, dysarthria, tremors, spasticity)

A

Hartnup disease (inborn error of metabolism)

48
Q

What is a Pterygium

A

Benign wedge-shaped growth of conjunctiva extending from nasal side

49
Q

Drug that worsens glycaemic control

A

Thiazide diuretics

50
Q

How many days after conception is urine pregnancy test positive

A

9

51
Q

Stage 2 hypertension, black/african-caribbean, any age

A

Ca2+ blocker

52
Q

Large erythematous herald patch followed by appearance of collection of smaller patches

A

Pityriasis Rosea

53
Q

Hand foot mouth causative organism

A

Coxsackie A16

54
Q

Haemochromatosis triad

A

Diabetes
Cirrhosis
Skin pigmentation

55
Q

Horner’s syndrome triad

A

Miosis
Ptosis
Enopthalmos

56
Q

Pancoast tumour pathophysiology

A

Apical lung tumour that can compress sympathetic chain causing Horner’s syndrome

57
Q

Commonest cause of sciatica

A

Herniated intervertebral disc

58
Q

B2-MICROglobulin is associated with

A

Multiple myeloma

59
Q

Increased red cell osmotic fragility

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

60
Q

Drug causing increased saliva

A

Clozapine
Neostigmine

61
Q

Primary biliary cirrhosis antibody

A

Anti-MITOCHONDRIAL antibody

62
Q

Anion gap equation

A

(Na+K) - (Cl+HCO3)

63
Q

First line treatment of Generalised tonic clonic seizures

A

Sodium Valproate

UNLESS female of reproductive age

64
Q

Shawl/cape-like distribution of pain and temperature sensory loss over arms, trunk, shoulders

A

Syringomyelia
(fluid filled tubular cavitation)

65
Q

Cancer risk COCP

A

Increased risk BREAST & CERVICAL cancer

66
Q

Drug causing pulmonary fibrosis and corneal deposits

A

Amiodarone

67
Q

Laxative - stains urine red

A

Co-danthramer

68
Q

Severely painful red eye in association with a connective tissue disorder in a middle-aged woman

A

Scleritis

N.b. association with Rheumatoid arthritis

69
Q

POP - one pill missed - management

A

Take missed pill now, condoms for 48hrs

70
Q

Bupropion mechanism of action

A

Nicotinic antagonist
Noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor

71
Q

Bupropion mechanism of action

A

Nicotinic antagonist
Noradrenaline and dopamine reuptake inhibitor

72
Q

Short stature, short neck, short 4th and 5th metacarpals

A

Pseudohypoparathyroidism - resistance to PTH

Low calcium
High phosphate
High PTH

73
Q

Lupus vulgaris is caused by

A

Cutaneous tuberculosis infection

74
Q

Stage 1 hypertension

A

140/90 - 160/100

ABPM 135/85 - 150/95

75
Q

Stage 2 hypertension

A

160/100 - 180/120

ABPM >150/95

76
Q

Stage 3 hypertension

A

BP >180/120

77
Q

Accelerated hypertension

A

> 180/120 with end-organ damage

78
Q

Effect of Tamoxifen on bone health

A

Reduces risk of osteoporosis - acts as oestrogen agonist in bone

79
Q

Lambert eaton syndrome pathophysiology

A

Paraneoplastic.
Antibodies against pre-synaptic calcium channels in NMJ
Causes limb muscle weakness

80
Q

Medication that can precipitate an acute gout flare

A

Allopurinol

81
Q

Pulmonary oedema and sensorineural deafness association

A

LOOP DIURETICS can be ototoxic

82
Q

Meniere’s triad

A

Tinnitus
Vertigo
Hearing loss

83
Q

Bright green fluorescence after congo-red staining

A

Amyloidosis

84
Q

IBD drug causing oligospermia

A

Sulfasalazine

85
Q

Congenital rubella triad

A

Sensorineural hearing loss
Congenital heart defects - PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis
Ocular defects - cataracts, retinopathy

86
Q

Commonest cause of severe diarrhoea in HIV positive patients

A

Cryptosporidium

87
Q

Marcus Gunn pupil

A

RAPD

88
Q

Low levels of C1 inhibitor

A

Hereditary angioedema

89
Q

Toxoplasmosis - host

A

Cats

90
Q

When is mid-luteal progesterone tested

A

1 week before period starts

91
Q

osler weber rendu otherwise known as

A

Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia