MCQ Topics Flashcards

1
Q

if an auditor of an issuer examines records or documents obtained from the issuer to verify proper authorization of transactions, then the auditor is conducting:

A

an inspection/examination

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2
Q

when would the use of a blank form of confirmations of AR most likely be preferable to positive confirmations?

A

when the recipients are likely to sign the confirmations without devoting proper attention to them
-this means its possible that a misstatement in the related receivable will not be discovered by the auditor

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3
Q

what type of audit evidence provides the least assurance of reliability?

A

prenumbered reports completed by the client’s employees
-considered internal evidence

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4
Q

when would an unmodified opinion be appropriate

A

-justified departure from GAAP (include an emphasis of matter paragraph)
-unjustified departure from GAAP, but it doesn’t have a material effect on the financial statements
-change in accounting principle that has a material effect on the current year financial statements (include an emphasis of matter paragraph)

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5
Q

in an attest engagement, the use of the accountant’s report should be restricted to specified parties when:

A

-reporting on an examination of a financial projection
-performing an assertion based examination, the engaging party is not the responsible party, and a written assertion has not been provided
-the criteria used to evaluate the subject matter are appropriate for only a limited number of parties

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6
Q

what is the complete and accurate list of the walkthrough procedures usually performed in an issuer’s integrated audit?

A

inquiry, observation, inspection of relevant documentation, and reperformance of controls

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7
Q

the calculate the required sample size for an inventory observation, what does the auditor usually determine?

A

-variability in the dollar amounts of inventory items
-risk of incorrect acceptance

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8
Q

what is a cognizant agency

A

federal awarding agency that provides the most amount of direct funding to a nonfederal entity

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9
Q

to gain assurance that all inventory items in a client’s inventory listing schedule are valid, what would an auditor likely trace/vouch?

A

items listed in the inventory listing schedule to inventory tags and the auditor’s recorded count sheets

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10
Q

why would an analytical procedure be used as a substantive test?

A

to achieve audit objectives in the most effective and efficient manner possible

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11
Q

what holds the highest risk of misappropriation of assets

A

bearer bonds because they are unregistered with no records kept of the owners or transactions involving ownership
-historically used for money laundering, tax evasion, and to conceal business transactions

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12
Q

the sample size of a test of controls varies inversely with

A

the tolerable rate

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13
Q

the sample size of a test of controls varies directly with

A

the expected deviation rate

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14
Q

if an accountant compiles financial statements for an entity and a member of the engagement team has a direct financial interest in the entity, then the accountant should

A

indicate the accountant’s lack of independence in a final paragraph of the compilation report

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15
Q

auditors try to identify predictable relationships when using analytical procedures. relationships involving transactions from what account most likely yields the highest level of evidence?

A

payroll expense
-based on objective information and can be computed directly by the auditor

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16
Q

regarding a nonissuer’s compliance with laws and regulations, an auditor performing an audit of the entity’s financial statements is responsible for

A

-obtaining a general understanding of the legal and regulatory framework applicable to the entity and how the entity is complying with that framework

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17
Q

an auditor has been hired to report on a nonissuer’s internal control over financial reporting. what would best describes a reporting option in this scenario?

A

when a material weakness exists, the auditor should issue an adverse opinion

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18
Q

what response would be in a legal letter regarding an auditor qualifying the audit opinion due to a scope limitation

A

the response specifically excludes information on a pending legal matter because of publicity concerns

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19
Q

for a compilation of financial statements engagement in accordance with SSARS, an accountant is not required to:

A

make inquiries nor perform procedures to corroborate the information provided by the client
-those are required in an audit engagement

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20
Q

when does a deficiency in operation exist

A

when a properly designed control is either not executed as designed or the person performing the control does not have either the authority or the skill to perform the control

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21
Q

when the prior period has been audited, the accountant should issue the current period compilation or review report, and any additional paragraph should indicate:

A

-the prior period statements were audited
-the date of the previous report
-the opinions expressed and if other than unmodified, the reasons for the modification
-that no auditing procedures have been performed since the previous report date

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22
Q

the senior auditor responsible for coordinating the fieldwork usually schedules a pre audit conference with the audit team primarily to

A

give guidance to the staff regarding both technical and personnel aspects of the audit

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23
Q

is materiality considered in the smallest or largest aggregate level of misstatements that could be considered material to any one of the financial statements?

A

smallest

24
Q

each page of the financial statements in a preparation engagement should include

A

a statement indicating that no assurance is provided

25
Q

SOC 1 type 2 report

A

gives assurance about the design, implementation, and operating effectiveness of internal control
-also reduce the assessed level of control risk

26
Q

SOC 1 type 1 report

A

aid users in obtaining an understanding of controls but cannot be used to reduce the assessed level of control risk

27
Q

would a CPA, when planning a financial statement audit, determine the extent of involvement of the client’s internal auditors?

A

yes

28
Q

an accountant who is conducting a review of the unaudited financial statements of a nonissuer in accordance with SSARS would be required to:

A

obtain a management rep letter

29
Q

in addition to descriptions of the NET of planned risk assessment procedures and planned further audit procedures, what else should be documented in the audit plan?

A

other audit procedures to be performed to comply with GAAS

30
Q

in a nonattest service, does the CPA have to determine if they are independent of the client for a preparation engagement?

A

no

31
Q

what is an integrated test facility?

A

computer assisted auditing technique that allows fictitious and real transactions to be processed together without client operating personnel being aware of the testing process

32
Q

what would be the most appropriate audit procedure to test the valuation of collateral?

A

current value appraisal

33
Q

in order to reduce the risk that the aggregate of undetected misstatements in the group financial statements of a nonissuer exceeds the materiality for the group financial statements as a whole, an auditor should establish a

A

component materiality < materiality for the group financials

34
Q

failure to record ____ would result in actual inventory quantities being greater than those recorded in the perpetual inventory records

A

sales returns

35
Q

factual misstatement definition

A

misstatements about which there is no doubt

36
Q

what is a sub recipient according to title 2 of the code of federal regulations

A

nonfederal entity that expends federal awards received from another entity to carry out a federal program

37
Q

what is the conceptual difference between the attestation standards and GAAS?

A

attestation standards provide a framework for the attest function beyond historical financial statements

38
Q

the standard report issued by an accountant after reviewing the financial statements of a nonissuer should state that

A

a review includes primarily applying analytical procedures to management’s financial data and making inquiries of company management

39
Q

what control objective is achieved by reviewing and testing control procedures over physical inventory count

A

verification of existence of inventory

40
Q

documentation requirements for analytical procedures

A

when its used as the principal substantive test of a significant financial statement assertion, the auditor is required to document both the auditor’s expectation and the factors considered in developing that expectation

41
Q

what objective is achieved when an auditor decides to employ classical variable sampling

A

to determine the inventory quantities on hand

42
Q

is a significant deficiency less severe than a material weakness

A

yes

43
Q

when the tolerable misstatement level is low, do you increase or decrease sample size

A

increase

44
Q

what is an auditor’s responsibility for supplementary info which is outside the basic financial statements, but required by the FASB?

A

the auditor should apply certain limited procedures to the required supplementary info and add a sep section heading “required supplementary info” to the financial statement audit report

45
Q

auditor’s primary method to corroborate information on litigation, claims, and assessments:

A

reviewing the response from the client’s lawyer to a letter of audit inquiry

46
Q

system of quality control - HELP ME

A

h - human resources
e - engagement/client acceptance and continuance
l - leadership responsibilities
p - engagement performance
m - monitoring
e - ethical requirements

47
Q

(existing) control activities - one of the five components of IC - PAID TIPS

A

p - prenumbering documents
a - authorization of transactions
I - independent checks to maintain asset accountability
d - documentation

t - timely and appropriate performance reviews
I - info processing controls
p - physical controls for safeguarding assets
s - seg of duties (ARC - authority, recording, custody)

48
Q

audit risk formula

A

RMM (IR*CR) * DR

49
Q

reliability of appropriate audit evidence (AEIO)

A

a - auditor’s direct personal knowledge and observation
e - external evidence
I - internal evidence
0 - oral evidence

50
Q

common substantive auditing procedures - FIVE

A

f - footing, cross footing, and recalc
I - inquiry (internal and external sources)
v - vouching
e - examination and inspection of documents/records

51
Q

common substantive auditing procedures - CARROT

A

c - confirmation
a - analytical procedures
r - reperformance
r - reconciliation
o - observation
t - tracing

52
Q

common substantive auditing procedures - CARS

A

c - cutoff review
a - auditing related accounts simultaneously
r - rep letter
s - subsequent events review

53
Q

auditor’s responsibility with subsequent events - PRIME

A

p - reviewing post balance sheet transactions
r - rep letter from management
I - inquiry
m - reading the minutes
e - examining the latest available interim statements

54
Q

comparative FS - change in opinion - DORCS

A

d - date of the previous auditor report
o - opinion type previously issued
r - reason for prior opinion
c - changes that have occurred
s - statements that “opinion…is different”

55
Q

agreed upon procedures engagements - I AM SURE

A

I - independence required

a - agreement of parties
m - measurability and consistency

s - sufficiency of procedures
u - use of the report can be general or restricted
r - responsibility for subject matter (client is responsible or client provides evidence for a third party)
e - engagements to perform agreed upon procedures on prospective FS

56
Q

review of interim financial statements required procedures - U LIAR CPA

A

u - understanding with the client

L - learn entity and its environment, including it’s IC
I - inquiry
a - analytical procedures
r - review other procedures

c - client rep letter
p - professional judgment
a - accountant (CPA) should communicate results

57
Q

can a successor auditor request the new client to authorize the predecessor auditor to allow a review of the predecessor’s auditors working papers?

A

yes