MCQ Recalls Flashcards

1
Q

Immediate treatment for avulsed tooth that can’t be replantation?

A

Placed in refrigerated cow milk

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2
Q

Pre-eclampsia woman at 30 weeks - what are the cardiovascular changes?

A

High BP due to increased SVR.
Reduced cardiac output due to combination of diastolic dysfunction and increased after load

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3
Q

Dose of adenosine for SVT?

A

incremental dose of 6mg, 12 mg, then further 12 mg if needed.

Usually attempt vagal manoeuvres prior to adenosine

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4
Q

ECG findings of Brugada?

What’s the management?

A

Coved ST segment elevation ≥2mm in one or more right precordial leads V1-V3.
- The elevation is followed by a negative T wave

ICD implantation is recommended.

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5
Q

5 kpa = ?mmHg?

A

5x7.5 = 37.5mmHg

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6
Q

What is the use of a Arndt connector?

A

For bronchial blocker - used to establish OLV.

side port for circuit.
Straight port for bronchoscope
Side, diagonal port fro bronchial blocker

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7
Q

ANZCA return to practice guideline - how long in terms of supervision is required for every year missing?

A

4 weeks

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8
Q

When does thyroid storm present in the periop period?

A

Usually in early post-op period, but also on induction, intra-op, and in the first 4 days after surgery

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9
Q

Symptoms of thyroid storm?

A

High fever, tachycardia, hypertension, agitation/confusion, jaundice, abdominal pain.

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10
Q

Treatment of thyroid storm perioperatively

A

Beta-blockers in the acute phase (propranolol, labetalol)

Corticosteroids

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11
Q

TTE findings of pulmonary HTN ?

A

Elevated tricuspid regurgitation velocity of > 3.4m/s

Estimated RVSP of >35-40mmHg

RV/RA dilation, RV hypertrophy, reduced RV systolic function

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12
Q

Methylene blue vs. patent blue?

A

Methylene blue
- lower anaphylaxis
- higher fat necrosis at injection site
- similar sentinel node identification
- does not cause drop in pulse ox

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13
Q

What can cause auto stimulation for a deep brain stimulator/vagal nerve stimulator used for refractory epilepsy

A

Tachycardia

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14
Q

Treatment for recurrent Torsade?

A

Lignocaine or mexiletine

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15
Q

What is a Watchman device?

A

Small, implantable medical device designed to reduce the risk of stroke in patients with non-valvular AF.

Designed to close off the LA appendage

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16
Q

Which anti-emetics should patients with Parkinson’s disease avoid?

A

Metoclopramide
Prochloreperazine
Chlorpromazine
Droperidol
Promethazine

Safer options are domperidone, ondansetron, cyclizine

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17
Q

Major findings of the METS study in terms of
- NT Pro BNP
- Subjective assessment
- 6MWT
- DASI

A

Elevated BNP >300 = increased risks of post-op 30 day myocardial injury/death

Subjective assessment = poor agreement with validated questionnaires

DASI, combined with Revised Cardiac Risk Index, associated with 30d mortality or MI, but not as strong as pro BNP

6MWT below 350m =poorer outcome

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18
Q

What does pulse pressure variation indicate?

A

a PPV of >15% in a mechanically ventilated patient indicates fluid responsiveness

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19
Q

Dose of midazolam in children for status epilepticus?

For 20kg child

A

Buccal 0.3mg/kg -> 6mg
IN 0.3mg/kg -> 6mg
IV 0.15mg/kg -> 3mg
IM 0.2mg/kg -> 4mg

20
Q

TAVI vs. SAVR disadvantages

A

Higher risk of paravalvular leak

Increased need of PPM

Higher is of vascular Cx

Potential for valve pop-outs

Higher risk of coronary occlusion

Higher reintervention rate

21
Q

Posterior shoulder pain post interscalene nerve block - which nerve should be targeted?

A

Suprascapular nerve

22
Q

What did the PREVENTT trial show?

A

Pre-op IV iron for major abdominal surgery.
- Increased pre-op Hb level by 8g/L
- No significant difference in need for blood transfusion or death at 30 days.
- No diff in safety and secondary outcomes

23
Q

Chin numbness post 3rd molar extraction cause by neuropraxia of which nerve

A

Inferior alveolar nerve

24
Q

Main sensory innervation to the breast comes from?

A

Anterior and lateral cutaneous branches of the thoracic intercostal nerves T3-T5

Supraclavicular nerve from C3-C4 innervating the upper and lateral portions of the breast

25
Q

Benefits of Intraop 20mmol/L magnesium

A

Reduce anaesthetic requirement

Analgesia

Potentiates NDMR

Lower PONV and shivering

Haemodynamic stability

26
Q

Treatments of a Tet spell?
(cyanosis when SNS activated)

A

Fluid bolus

Vasopressor

Beta-blocker

Sedation

27
Q

What is a tet spell?

A

Reduced pulmonary blood flow -> increased right to left shunt in TOF -> cyanosis

28
Q

What does TAPSE indicate?

A

RV systolic function / contractility

<17 = RV dysfunction

29
Q

Key differences of CALS vs. conventional ALS?

A

Avoidance of external chest compressions and full dose adrenaline

Three-stacked shocks + resterntomy within 5 mins of arrest

30
Q

What is the Borg scale during stress test

A

Rating of perceived exertion

31
Q

Rumack-Matthew nomogram is validated for use in paracetamol overdose with

A

Single ingestion of immediate release only

32
Q

Prilocaine bier’s block who not to give it to patients with?

A

G6PD deficiency

33
Q

Heart transplant patient has increased sensitivity to

34
Q

NNT of ibuprofen?

A

2.4, very good

1.6 for ketorelac

35
Q

DDAVP indications include EXCEPT
- Haemophilia B
- Uraemic bleeding
- vWD type 2a
- Diabetes inspidius
- Noctural polyuria

36
Q

V5 ECG dot location?

A

Anterior axillary line, 5th intercostal space

37
Q

Tracheal deviation away from lung white out.
Ddx?

A

Mass effect
- Pleural effusion
- Intra-pulmonary mass
- Diaphragmatic hernia

38
Q

Tracheal deviation toward lung white out.
Ddx?

A

Mainstem obstruction
Pneumonectomy
Pulmonary hypoplasia

Due to volume loss

39
Q

When to prognosticate after cardiac arrest?

40
Q

What is formication?

A

Sensation of ants or insects crawling on or under the skin.

A specific type of paraesthesia

41
Q

What is warm ischaemia time?

A

Time an organ remains at body temperature after blood flow is stopped, or before it is cooled for preservation

42
Q

Cut off of EtCO2 to rule out oesophageal intubation?

43
Q

Treatment of extravasated Norad?

A

SC phentolamine

44
Q

What does cryoprecipitate contain?

A

Fibrinogen
Factor 13, factor VIII
vWF
Fibronectin

45
Q

Most common cause of cardiac arrest intra-op?

A

major haemorrhage

46
Q

What does addition of heavy formulation to 0.5% bupivocaine do cf. standard 0.5% plain

A

higher block
shorter duration

47
Q

Typical diagnostic criteria for serum tryptase for anaphylaxis?

A

1.2x baseline level, and the increase is greater than 2ng/ml