MCQ Flashcards

1
Q

C: “The spinocerebellum is involved both in the control of posture and gait and the coordination of limb movements.”
T/F

A

T

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2
Q

SZ: Which answer is incorrect?

Abnormal dopamine, glutamate, and GABAergic signaling are all hypothesized to contribute to schizophrenia.

Variation in immune related genes are strongly associated with schizophrenia.

Schizophrenia only effects a small proportion of the population.

Schizophrenia is a disorder of the brain.

Clinical presentation of schizophrenia is heterogeneous.

A

Schizophrenia only effects a small proportion of the population.

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3
Q

SZ: Schizophrenia is a genetic disorder, and its heritability is

A

80%

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4
Q

C: Which of the following assignments is correct?
1.
Multiple system atrophy, cerebellar type (MSA-C) – autosomal dominant disorder
2.
Sporadic adult onset ataxia (SAOA) – autosomal recessive disorder
3.
Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 (SCA1) - autosomal dominant disorder
4.
Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (SCA3) - autosomal recessive disorder
5.
Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 (SCA6) – nonhereditary degenerative ataxia

A

Spinocerebellar ataxia type 1 (SCA1) - autosomal dominant disorder

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5
Q

C: Which is not a typical finding in Friedreich’s ataxia?

  1. Renal failure
  2. Progressive Ataxia
  3. Araflexia
  4. Dysarthria
  5. Diabetes mellitus
A

Renal failure

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6
Q

EF: Which cognitive functions are typically impaired in patients with lesions of the lateral prefrontal cortex?
A. Patients typically show impaired social behavior, poor judgments and impaired decision making.
B. Patients typically show impaired long-term memory functions.
C. Patients typically show impaired language comprehension.
D. Patients are typically impaired in planning, abstract reasoning and maintenance of task-relevant information.
E. Patients typically have lost the ability to accurately attribute mental states to other people.

A

Patients are typically impaired in planning, abstract reasoning and maintenance of task-relevant information.

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7
Q
C: Which of the five clinical signs is not a typical cerebellar sign?
Dysmetria	
Intentiontremor
Ataxia
Paresis
Nystagmus
A

Paresis

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8
Q

CE: Which of the following statements is correct?
Idiopathic epilepsies commonly have a single-gene inheritance.

Symptomatic epilepsies never have a genetic background.

Rolando-epilepsy of childhood is a symptomatic epilepsy syndrome.

Frontal lobe epilepsies may be idiopathic.

The correct diagnosis of epilepsy is made from the EEG.

A

Frontal lobe epilepsies may be idiopathic.

Frontal lobe epilepsies may be purely genetic is also true

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9
Q
C; Which of the five clinical signs is a typical cerebellar sign?
Dysmetria	
Intentiontremor
Ataxia
Paresis
Nystagmus
A

Ataxia

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10
Q

C: Which statement about spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 (SCA6) is correct?
Autosomal recessive disorder

Extensor plantar responses (positive Babinski sign)

Mitochondriopathy

Olivopontocerebellar atrophy (OPCA) in MRI scans

Typical age of onset around 50 years of age

A

Typical age of onset around 50 years of age

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11
Q

The mean ‘translation lag’ (=time between discovery of a drug (date of IP or publication) and success full use in patients (date of highly cited positive study)) in medicine is typically

A

> 20 years

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12
Q

EE: Which of the following statements is correct?
In patients, stroke causes subsequent chronic epilepsy in more than 50 % of patients.

In patients, epileptogenesis after brain injuries can take up to several years.

Status epilepticus rarely induces epileptogenesis in patients and rodents.

Epileptogenesis can be prevented by pharmacological and non-pharmacological treatment approaches.

Primary prophylaxis (i.e. treatment before occurrence of the first seizure) is commonly advised in patients with brain tumors.

A

In patients, epileptogenesis after brain injuries can take up to several years.

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13
Q

A: Neglect is
a language disorder caused by damage to the temporal lobe or in the frontal lobe.

a motor disorder in which volitional or voluntary movement is impaired without muscle weakness.

the failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function.

manifested by difficulties in receptive and expressive language, including phonological processing, in reading, writing, spelling.

a lateralized disruption of spatial attention.

A

a lateralized disruption of spatial attention.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?
1.
Simple partial seizures are characterized by loss of conciousness
2.
Complex partial seizures always indicate frontal lobe epilepsy
3.
Fear may be the clinical manifestation of an epileptic aura
4.
Absence seizures originate in the frontal lobe (fronto-orbital part)
5.
Visual symptoms at the onset of a seizure indicate temporal lobe seizure origin

A

Fear may be the clinical manifestation of an epileptic aura

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15
Q

C: If you are interested to study cerebellar function, which disorders is not a good human lesion model?

A

Friedreich’s ataxia

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16
Q

C: Which of the following statements is correct?
A) The cerebellum is involved in timing
B) The cerebellum is a learning device
C) The cerebellum contributes to certain cognitive tasks
D) The cerebellum is a likely place where internal models are build
E) The cerebellum is a likely place where internal models are stored

A

ALL

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17
Q

EP:Which of the following statements is correct?

Epilepsy is a rare condition.

Epilepsy is characterized by epileptic seizures occurring at least once a day.

Epilepsy is in the majority of patients genetically determined.

Epilepsy with generalized seizures needs to be treated by hippocampectomy.

Epilepsy in many cases responds well to antiepileptic drugs.

A

Epilepsy in many cases responds well to antiepileptic drugs.

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18
Q
IG: Which of these clinical features can be found in Parkinson’s disease?
Paresis
Spasticity
Postural instability
Muscle atrophy
A

Postural instability

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19
Q

C: Which of the following assignments is correct?

1.	 Paleocerebellum - Vestibulocerebellum - Flocculonodular lobe, inferior vermis
2.	 Neocerebellum - Spinocerebellum - Cerebellar hemispheres
3.	 Archicerebellum - Vestibulocerebellum - Cerebellar Hemispheres
4.	 Neocerebellum - Pontocerebellum - Anterior lobe
5.	 Paleocerebellum - Spinocerebellum - Superior vermis and paravermal cerebellar areas
A

Paleocerebellum - Spinocerebellum - Superior vermis and paravermal cerebellar areas

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20
Q

A: Agnosia is
a language disorder caused by damage to the temporal lobe or in the frontal lobe.

a motor disorder in which volitional or voluntary movement is impaired without muscle weakness.

the failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function.

manifested by difficulties in receptive and expressive language, including phonological processing, in reading, writing, spelling.

a speech disorder that is due to a weakness or incoordination of the speech muscles.

A

the failure to recognize or identify objects despite intact sensory function.

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21
Q
IG: DG: Which of these anatomic structures is not part of the basal ganglia?
Striatum	
Pontine nucleus
Subthalamic nucleus
Globus pallidus internus
A

Pontine nucleus

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22
Q

C: If you are interested to study cerebellar functions, which of the following disorders are not good human lesion models?

A) Stroke within the territory of the superior cerebellar artery
B) Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (SCA 3)
C) Surgical removal of cerebellar astrocytoma
D) Spinocerebellar ataxia type 6 (SCA 6)
E) Friedreich’s ataxia

A

Spinocerebellar ataxia type 3 (SCA 3) & Friedreich’s ataxia

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23
Q

AD: Manic-depressive mixed states are
1.
Characterized by fluctuations in mood symptoms of opposite polarity

2.	 More often associated with a good prognosis than pure episodes

3.	 More frequent in men than in women

4.	 Easy to treat

5.	 A combination of 2 depressive and 4 manic symptoms
A

Characterized by fluctuations in mood symptoms of opposite polarity

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24
Q

S: A transient ischemic attack
always leads to changes in signal intensity on CT or MR in affected brain areas

precedes a stroke in approx. 60 % of patients

carries an annual risk of stroke during the first 5 years of 5%

is characterized by brief focal neurological deficits, which resolve within 12 hours

produces a persistent neurological deficit

A

carries an annual risk of stroke during the first 5 years of 5%

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25
Q

A: The neglect syndrom (more than one)
is a loss of half of the visual field

a deficit in attention to one side of space

occurs more frequently after damage to the right hemisphere

is a reading disorder

is a multisensory syndrome

A

a deficit in attention to one side of space
occurs more frequently after damage to the right hemisphere
is a multisensory syndrome

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26
Q

A patient with akinetic mutism …(more than one)

A) tends neither to speak nor move
B) typically shows tactless behavior
C) eats and drinks only if being fed
D) utilizes items instantly within the visual field independent of the situation
E) is profoundly apathetic and displays no emotions even in pain

A

A,C and E

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27
Q

AD: Selective serotonine reuptake inhibitors

have been proven to be ineffective in moderate depression.

are more effective in carriers of the 5-HTTLPR L-Allele.

are more effective than serotonine-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors.

should not be used in patients with suicidal ideation.

are most effective in bipolar depression.

A

are more effective in carriers of the 5-HTTLPR L-Allele.

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28
Q

AX: The lifetime prevalence of anxiety disorders is about:

A

20%

29
Q

EF: The model of cognitive control proposed by Norman and Shallice suggests (more than one)

that the control by the SAS is required for example in planing and decision making, in situations that require unpracticed or new actions.

the existence of a “contention Scheduling (CS)“

that the SAS-mode can not be consciously controlled.

the existence of a prefrontal “executive committee” for perception, working memory, attention, long-term memory, motor control and thinking.

that the SAS is always then required when an no acting scheme is available for a certain situation

A
  • that the control by the SAS is required for example in planing and decision making, in situations that require unpracticed or new actions.
  • the existence of a “contention Scheduling (CS)“
  • that the SAS is always then required when an no acting scheme is available for a certain situation
30
Q

What is the main advantage of bipolar electrophysiological recordings, compared to a common reference
better spectral resolution

better time resolution

better spatial resolution

higher amplification

A

better spatial resolution

31
Q

EP: Which of the following statements regarding antiepileptic drugs (AED) are correct?

  • The “new generation” AEDs (marketed since 1990) significantly reduced pharmcoresistance.
  • AEDs with multiple molecular targets are more efficient.
  • AEDs with multiple molecular targets have more side-effects.
  • AED treatment regimens usually start with monotherapy.
  • Most clinically relevant AED have been discovered by chance.
A
  • AED treatment regimens usually start with monotherapy.

- Most clinically relevant AED have been discovered by chance.

32
Q
SZ: The following are effective treatments for schizophrenia	
antipsychotic medication		
stimulate medication
cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
social skill training
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)
A

antipsychotic medication
cognitive behavior therapy (CBT)
social skill training
electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)

33
Q

EF; The following statement is true in regard to Von Holst and Mittelstaedts Reafference prinicple

1.	 The efference copy has to match the reafferent signal in amplitude but has to have the opposite sign
2.	 Reafference is the repetition of an afferent signal that occured only briefly and is important to strengthen short stimuli
3.	 Reafferent signals use different sensory receptors and pathways as do exafferent signals
4.	 The efference copy has to match the reafferent signal in amplitude and sign
5.	 Reafference enhances the perception of unconscious sensory stimuli
A

The efference copy has to match the reafferent signal in amplitude but has to have the opposite sign

34
Q

ST: What are types of bias affecting the “internal validity” of a study?

selection bias (creating groups with different confounders; solved by randomization)

performance bias and detection bias (investigators respectively treating or assessing more positively those subjects on the treatment arm; controlled by blinding interventions and outcome assessments);

attrition bias (dropouts of subjects with a negative outcome not included in the final result)

all of the above

A

all of above

35
Q
ST: Ownership of intellectual property in academic research in Germany and the US is held by
the inventor(s)

the funding agency

the University

Researcher(s) who are not employed by the University but inventor(s)

A

the University

Researcher(s) who are not employed by the University but inventor(s)

36
Q

EP: The following condition is epilepsy
One unprovoked seizures with normal cMRI and EEG.

Three acute symptomatic seizures.

One unprovoked seizure at least 1 week after ischemic stroke.

One acute symptomatic seizure with 3 Hz spike-wawe in EEG.

One unprovoked seizure and one dissociative seizure.

A

One unprovoked seizure at least 1 week after ischemic stroke.

37
Q

AD: Which symptoms can be associated with a depressive episode?

1) Insomnia
2) Disinhibition
3) Weight loss
4) Anhedonia
5) Psychomotor retardation

A

1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct

38
Q

R: The dopaminergic input-neurons of monkeys (mediated by midbrain structures) contacting prefontal cortex

  • are unable to adapt to changes in context-conditions.
  • don’t fire if there is an unexpected reward.
  • can be conditioned with a neutral stimulus, so that the neutral stimulus alone leads to firing of the dopaminergic neurons.
  • show increased activity by withdrawing an earlier given reward.
  • are heavily interconnected with the cerebellum.
A

can be conditioned with a neutral stimulus, so that the neutral stimulus alone leads to firing of the dopaminergic neurons.

39
Q

ST; Preclinical studies are often

over-powered

of low internal validity

predictive for clinical efficacy

the basis for claiming intellectual property

replicated

A

of low internal validity

40
Q

Commissural fibers of the corpus callosum

  1. make up to 100-125 x106 fibers in each direction
  2. functionally interconnect the cerebral hemispheres
  3. connect only homotopic areas of the brain
  4. are arranged in topographical order
  5. connect only association areas of the cerebral cortex (according to Flechsig`s rules
A

connect only homotopic areas of the brain

41
Q

EF: The frontal lobe

Spans 1/8 of the total cortex in humans

Is separated to the temporal lobe by the postcentral sulcus

Is subdivided into primary motor cortex, the premotor cortex and the prefrontal cortex

Is separated to the parietal lobe by the precentral sulcus

Greatly enlarged in the course of evolution in parallel to the development of motor abilities

A

Is subdivided into primary motor cortex, the premotor cortex and the prefrontal cortex

42
Q

EF: The frontal lobe includes

premotor area

primary somatosensory cortex

prefrontal cortex

primary motor cortex

precuneus

A

premotor area
prefrontal cortex
primary motor cortex

43
Q

C: Which of the following hypotheses about cerebellar function is not correct?

  1. The cerebellum is involved in feedback (reactive) but not feedforward (predictive) motor control.
  2. The cerebellum is a learning device.
  3. The cerebellum is a likely place where internal models for sensory motor control are build.
  4. The cerebellum contributes to certain cognitive tasks.
  5. The cerebellum is involved in timing.
A

The cerebellum is involved in feedback (reactive) but not feedforward (predictive) motor control.

44
Q

C; The output of the cerebellar cortex is transmitted by:
1.
The medial, vestibular, interposed and lateral cerebellar nuclei
2.
The medial, interposed and lateral cerebellar nuclei
3.
The nucleus fastigii, emboliformis, globosus and dentatus
4.
The largest cells of the cerebellar cortex: the Purkinje and Golgi cells
5.
Purkinje cells

A

Purkinje cells

45
Q

One of the following statements is WRONG – Which one?
? Alexia without agraphia is disconnection syndrom typpically with the following characteristricts
1. a visual field defect
2. a left hemispheric lesion
3. patients can´t read but write
4. language difficulties
5. a lesion in the splenium

A

language difficulties

46
Q

AD: Bipolar disorder
is characterized by predominant delusions of persecution.

is a psychiatric disorder with low heritability.

is one of the most frequent psychiatric disorders.

can be treated with antipsychotics.

is five times more frequent in women than in men.

A

can be treated with antipsychotics.

47
Q

C: Which statement about Friedreich’s ataxia is not correct?
1.
Mitochondriopathy
2.
Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease
3.
Autosomal recessive disorder
4.
Trinucleotide repeat disorder
5.
Typical age of onset prior 20 years of age

A

Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease

48
Q

AD: Depression

is associated with increased amygdala responses to negative emotional stimuli.

is caused by reduced activity of the nucleus accumbens.

is related to an overactivation of the pineal gland.

is known to be associated with increased activity of the posterior cingulate cortex.

is related to decreased hippocampus activity during REM sleep.

A

is associated with increased amygdala responses to negative emotional stimuli.

49
Q

C; Which of the five clinical signs is not a typical cerebellar sign?

Dysmetria

Intention tremor

Akinesia

Dysarthria

Asynergia

A

Akinesia

50
Q

IGDG: Which of these anatomic structures is not part of the basal ganglia?
Corpus striatum

Red nucleus

Subthalamic nucleus

Caudate nucleus

A

Red nucleus

51
Q

AD: Which of the following is not a typical somatic symptom of depression?

Chest tightness

Knee pain

Menstrual irregularities

Back pain

Headaches

A

Knee pain

52
Q

REP:Which statement about Friedreich’s ataxia is wrongt?

Autosomal recessive disorder

Trinucleotide repeat disorder

Mitochondriopathy

Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease

Typical age of onset prior 20 years of age

A

Marked cerebellar atrophy early in the disease

53
Q

The prevalence rate of panic disorder is:

A

3-5%

54
Q
AD: Which medications are approved for the prophylaxis of bipolar disorder? 
A Lithium
B Benzodiazepines
C Valproic acid
D Serotonin-Reuptake Inhibitors
E Hypnotics
A

A and C

55
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the striatum?

receives inhibitory input from the cortex

receives dopaminergic input from the substantia nigra pars compacta

contains cells that use GABA as their transmitter

all of the above statements are true

A

receives dopaminergic input from the substantia nigra pars compacta
contains cells that use GABA as their transmitter

56
Q

AD; Posttraumatic stress disorder is in most cases not associated with
Hyperarousal
Flashbacks
Delusions
Avoidance of stimuli associated with the trauma
Nightmares

A

Delusions

57
Q
AD: Antidepressants ...
1.	
must not be taken by people driving cars
	2.	
need 2-4 weeks to get effective
	3.	
should not be taken continuously
	4.	
change the character
	5.	
have the risk of dependency
A

need 2-4 weeks to get effective

58
Q

R: What has the neurotransmitter dopamine been shown to encode?

stop signals

reward signals

fear signals

motor signals

A

reward signals

59
Q

EF: The executive system (more than one)

is concerned with the co-ordination of other cognitive resources

is needed when automatic psychological processes would not be sufficient, in cases of novel
situations

is a brain function charged with implementing, or executing, the law

damage to the system can have a wide range of effects in different domains, for example in
social interaction, executive memory and abstract thinking

specifically describes the execution of motor commands

A

is concerned with the co-ordination of other cognitive resources
is needed when automatic psychological processes would not be sufficient, in cases of novel
situations
damage to the system can have a wide range of effects in different domains, for example in
social interaction, executive memory and abstract thinking

60
Q

EF: The Stroop task
demonstrates that there is signigicant interference from incongruent colours when reading the words aloud (compared to reading words in black)

is not a very sensitive test for executive dysfunction

is particularly difficult for patients with lesions in the temporal cortex.

demonstrates improved inhibition of irrelevant contents

demonstrates that there is significant interference from incongruent words when naming colours (compared to naming colour patches)

A

demonstrates that there is significant interference from incongruent words when naming colours (compared to naming colour patches)

61
Q

C: Which statement about Friedreich’s ataxia is not correct?

Areflexia

Trinucleotide repeat disorder

Mitochondriopathy

Atrophy of the cervical cord early in the disease

Typical age of onset 70 years of age

A

Typical age of onset 70 years of age

62
Q

WRONG”Disconnection syndromes”
1.
are characterized by anatomical lesion sites (and therefore disconnection symptoms might refer to different cognitive or neuronal systems)

2.	 may refer to interruption of intrahemispheric as well as interhemispheric fiber tracts

3.	 means that two cortical areas are linked together irregularly ( = dysconnection) by aberrant fiber tracts

4.	 may result from transection of the corpus callosum (so-called “split-brain” operations)

5.	 are functional deficits caused by focal lesions of fiber tracts that connect cortical brain areas
A

means that two cortical areas are linked together irregularly ( = dysconnection) by aberrant fiber tracts

63
Q

Which other description of the clinical symptom chorea is correct?

Babinski sign

akinesia

rigidity

uncontrollable involuntary movement

spasticity

A

uncontrollable involuntary movement

64
Q
Symptoms of cerebellar disorder can be:
	1.	
Dysarhtria, dysmetria and dyslexia
	2.	
Intentional tremor, dysarthria and ataxia
	3.	
Ataxia, dysmetria and rigor
	4.	
Akinesis, ataxia and rigor
	5.	
Rest tremor, akinesis and rigor
A

Intentional tremor, dysarthria and ataxia

65
Q

C; Which of the five clinical signs is a typical cerebellar sign?

Aphasia

Tremor at rest

Akinesia

Hemiballism

Asynergia

A

Asynergia

66
Q

IG: DBS: The ventral intermediate nucleus (VIM) of the thalamus is the first described DBS target. Which symptom does DBS of the VIM alleviate?

Hyperkinesia/Dyskinesia

Bradykinesia/Akinesia

Gait disturbance

Tremor

Dystonia

A

Tremor

67
Q

The cerebellum comprises of
1.
A cerebellar cortex, white matter and deep cerebellar nuclei
2.
A cerebellar cortex, white matter, deep cerebellar and nuclei and some parts of the vestibular nuclei
3.
The cerebellar cortex and the DCN (dorsal cochlear nuclei)
4.
A cerebellar cortex with the molecular, Purkinje cell and granular layer
5.
Only the lobuli centralis, semilunaris inferior and superior

A

A cerebellar cortex, white matter, deep cerebellar and nuclei and some parts of the vestibular nuclei

68
Q

The following statement is true in regard to the cerebellar cortex

1.	 The granular cells are the only excitatory interneurons
2.	 Purkinje cells inhibit granule cells
3.	 Granule cells excite other granule cells
4.	 Golgi cells are contracted by climbing fibers and Purkinje cells
5.	 Only basket and stellate cells are inhibitory interneurons
A

1.

The granular cells are the only excitatory interneurons