MCQ Flashcards

1
Q
Minimum fatigue achieved by;
Avoid sleep
Avoid sunlight
Napping before shift
Using benzodiazepines
Use caffeine
A

Nap before shift

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2
Q
Safe antiemetic in porphyria;
Metoclopramide
Prochlorpromazine
Tropisetron
Ondansetron
Droperidol
A

Metoclopride

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3
Q
What agent safe for BP with moclobemide;
Adrenaline
Dobutamine
Ephedrine
Meteraminol
Phenylephrine
A

Phenylephrine

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4
Q

When topping up a labour epidural optimum level for light touch;

A

T6

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5
Q
15yo new mediastinal mass for supraclavicilar lymph node biopsy. Most important investigation;
CXR
CT chest
MRI
PET
TOE
A

CT

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6
Q
CTG with late decelerations cause;
GA
Head compression
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Acute asphyxia
Umbilical cord compression
A

Uteroplacental insufficiency

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7
Q

New antiemetic decreases PONC by 33%. 8% who receive new treatment still get PONV. The # of patients who must get new Rx instead of old before one patient will benefit is;

A

25

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8
Q
Previous anaphylaxis to ? Roc, no testing, what is appropriate drug to use;
Vec
Cis
Panc
Atracurium
Sux
A

Cis

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9
Q
Increase bleeding except;
Garlic
Ginger
Ginkgo
Fish oil
Echinacea
A

Echinacea

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10
Q

Commonest complication after hip ORIF;

A

Delirium

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11
Q
Carcinoid tumour, persistent intraop HTN non responsive to fluid and octreotide 50mcg. Treatment likely to be effective is;
Adrenaline
Dobutamine
Levosimenden
Milrinone
Vasopressin
A

Vasopressin

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12
Q

CS5 configuration. Lead I monitors;

A

Anterior

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13
Q

Pringles procedure involves clamping of;

A

Portal pedicle

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14
Q
Before starting gabapentin it's important to;
Cease PPI
Check hepatic transaminases
Check renal function
Check QT interval
Decrease oxycodone
A

Renal

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15
Q
39yo with # arm. Confused and agitated with temp tachy HTN - likely cause;
Heat stress
Encephalopathy
NMS
serotonin
Pain
A

NMS

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16
Q
CO2 penetrates tissue with little underlying tissue damage because;
Well absorbed Hb
Poorly absorbed h2o
Disseminated in tissue
Long wavelength
Short wavelength
A

Long wavelength

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17
Q

80yo TURP, diathermy lateral bladder wall, thigh adduction. Nerve involved;

A

Obturator

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18
Q
ASA scores are what type of data;
Categorical
Nominal
Non parametric
Numerical
Ordinal
A

Ordinal

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19
Q
Healthy man with anaemia - a test that most reliably indicates iron deficiency is;
MCV
Serum ferritin
Serum iron
Serum transferrin
Total iron binding capacity
A

Ferritin

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20
Q

Max allowable atmospheric pressure from nitrous in OT in ppm is;

A

25

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21
Q
What is associated with down regulation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors;
GBS
Organophosphate od
Spinal cord injury
Stroke
Prolonged neuromuscular blockade
A

Organophosphate poisoning

And MG and anticholinesterase poisoning

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22
Q

RA most common c spine abnormality is anterior subluxation. What is next most common;

A

Vertical (10-20%)

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23
Q
MS pt needs GA. Most likely precipitant;
Hyperthermia
Hypocarbia
Muscle relaxant
TIvA
Volatile
A

Volatile

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24
Q
Reduction in DLCO can be caused by;
Asthma
Emphysema
Left to right shunt
Pulm haemorrhage
Bronchitis
A

Emphysema

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25
Q

Size (in French) if largest suction catheter that can be passed through size 8 tube they will not take up more than half internal diameter;

A

12

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26
Q

Pneumoperituneum causes a decrease in cardiac output at what pressure;

A

10mmHg

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27
Q

Patient with HITS (dvt on LMwH - plat from 300 -> 150). What is not acceptable;

A

Warfarin

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28
Q

Maximum dose of lignocaine with adrenaline for liposuction with tumescence technique;

A

35mg/kg

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29
Q

6yo, 20kg, unable to place 5.5 or 4.5 tube. What next;

A

LMA

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30
Q

What drug to avoid in women breast feeding 6/52 old baby;

A

codeine

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31
Q

3yo for elective hernia repair had 200mls apple juice 2 hours ago. What to do;

A

Continue

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32
Q

Aortic valve velocity 4m/s. What is peak pressure using Bernoulli principle;

A

64mmHg

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33
Q

New cardiac output monitor called WaCCO. Want to compare readings with gold standard. Best statistical method;

A

Bland-Altman plot

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34
Q
40yo pulm HTN 80/60 preop. Lap chole. Suddenly sats 87% sbp 80/40 etCo2 ? Cause;
Gas emboli
Left heart failure
MI
PTx
Righ heart failure
A

Right heart failure

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35
Q

60yo ihd for CABG post CPB hypotensive ST elevation II avF cvp 15, pcwp 25, normal pulm and svr. tOe will show;

A

Left inferior hypokinesis

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36
Q

Max amplitude teg or totem decreased give;

A

Platelets

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37
Q

IVDu on 100mg methadone for em laparotomy with effective epidural. Amount IV morphine needed per hour;

A

16mg

100mg methadone = 400mg morphine

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38
Q

10l /min via facemask size c cylinder 15,000kp lasts;

A

45mins

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39
Q

Ibuprofen dose 1yo

A

10mg/kg

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40
Q

To prevent transmission CJD airway contaminated equipment;

A

134 degrees C for 3min

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41
Q

Brugada syndrome;

A

Mutation in cardiac Na channel gene.

ST elevation >2mm in V1-3 followed by inverted T wave

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42
Q
Management to reduce intraop haemorrhage in liver surgery:
High CVP
Decreased MaP
Deceased CVP
Normal MAP
Normal CVP
A

Low CVP

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43
Q

Max rise in Na over 24 hours from 105mmol/hr;

A

10mmol

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44
Q
Retro bulbar block - sign of brainstem spread-
Atonic pupil
Blind ipsilateral
Blind contra lateral
Diplopia
Nystagmus
A

Contra lateral blindness

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45
Q

Distance from lips to carina in 70kg man;

A

27cm

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46
Q

Which muscle opens the cords;

A

Posterior cricoarytenoid

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47
Q

Arthrogrophylis multiplex congenita may make it difficult to place a larygoscope due to;

A

TMJ rigidity

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48
Q

MELd score is calculated using;

A

Bilirubin, creatinine and INR

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49
Q

Child Pugh is calculated using;

A
INR
Albumin
Bilirubin
Ascites
Encephalopathy
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50
Q

After resus of a newborn at what time do you like arterial sats to be 85-90;

A

10 mins

60-70 1mim
65-85 2min
70-90 3 min
75-90 4 min
80-90 5min
85-90 10 min
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51
Q

Dibucaine number of 30-80;

A

4

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52
Q

What manoeuvre causes mac distension if IJV;

A

Valsalva

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53
Q

Best way to reduce VAP

A

Oral hygiene

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54
Q

Chronic AF with Hx HTN, DM, CVA has annual stoke risk of;

A

8.5%

Chads score 4 (risk approx double score)

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55
Q

Airway equipment sterilisation with CJD;

A

Sterilise with heat at 134 degrees for 3 mins

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56
Q

What is neuropathic pain;

A

Pain initiated or caused by a primary lesion or dysfunction in the nervous system
- causes may be iatrogenic, traumatic, inflammatory or infective
Is a risk factor for developing chronic pain

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57
Q

Causes of blindness after surgery;

A
Direct trauma
Acute glaucoma
CVA
Ischaemic optic neuropathy - low flow
Central retinal artery occlusion - pressure
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58
Q

AHA guidelines for 4 Mets

A

Light housework (dish washing)
Climbing flight of stairs (5mets)
Walking on ground level at 4mph (6mets)

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59
Q

7yo with closed head injury, I&V in ICU, serum sodium 142. Most appropriate fluid is;

A

0.9% saline

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60
Q
Pneumoperituneum for laparoscopy is commonly associated with each of the following except;
Arterial pressure
Vasopressin secretion
Inotropic action
SVR
Venous resistance
A

Inotropic action

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61
Q

Marfans syndrome, thoracoabdominal aortic aneurysm repair. 24 hours later blood noted in CSF drain and patient obtained. Most appropriate urgent management;

A

CT head

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62
Q

Most likely resp pattern seen in acute c5 spinal cord injury is;0

A

Increased resp rate

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63
Q

After load reduction is most useful in which of the following;
TOF
Mitral incompetence
Aortic valve incompetence

A

Aortic valve incompetence

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64
Q

Anaphylaxis, when to check tryptase;

A

Between one and 3 hours

Anzca;
1,4 >24 hours

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65
Q

Management of DBS in middle aged patient with Parkinson’s disease;

A

Turn off DBS for duration of surgery but reactivate prior to emergence

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66
Q

Method for treating raised INR

A

Prothrombinex and vit k

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67
Q

Patient with metastatic cancer. What’s not a useful way to increase ca excretion;

A

Bispihophonates

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68
Q

108 2014a
Postpartum. Numbness over posterior thigh, lateral leg and foot. Weakness on flexion of knee. Had an epidural and instrumental delivery. Likely site of injury;
Lunbosacral plexus
Sciatic nerve

A

Sciatic nerve

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69
Q
Management of patient on 2l O2, on pca, mildly febrile, rr14, sats 88%, mildly sedated.
Incentive spirometry
Diuresis
Abx
Naloxone
A

Spirometry

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70
Q

0.75% ropivocaine placed around structure shown. Triangle structure…. Likely radial;

A

Unable to extend wrist

Misculocutaneous - lateral
Median next to it
Ulnar superficial
Radial under

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71
Q

Isoflurane is administered in a hyperbaric chamber at 3 atmospheres using a variable bypass vaporiser at a constant fresh gas flow and vapour dial setting the vapour produced will be;

A

The same partial pressure as is obtained at 1 atmosphere

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72
Q

Most likely to occur if the earth/grounding plate that is attached to the patient for use with diathermy malfunctions;

A

Electrical burns

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73
Q

25/40 BP 150/90 on 4 occasions, no signs PET. Which anti HTN not appropriate;

A

Enalapril

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74
Q

Why do infants desaturated faster than adults;

A

More difficult to preoxygenate

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75
Q
Patient with class 4 shock after gunshot. Clinically coagulopathic 30mins later, has been given 1l hartmanns. Coagulopathy likely related to;
Acidosis
Dilution of clotting factors
Hypothermia
Release of tissue factor
Tissue hypoperfusion
A

Hypoperfusion

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76
Q

20kg child suffered 15% full thickness burns 6 hours ago. Optimum fluid resus for first hour is;

A

360mls

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77
Q

Normal response after ECT is;

A

Transient Brady followed by tachy and hypertension

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78
Q

50yo on bypass for AS. mAP 25 after cardioplegia- what to do?

A

Meteraminol

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79
Q

80yo ruptured AAA. GCS 12 HR 104, BP 80/50, temp 35, sats 92%. next step is;

A

Obtain IV access and crossmatch

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80
Q

PICCo works via;

A

Pulse contour analysis and thermodilution

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81
Q

Targin offers benefit of;

A

Less constipation

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82
Q

Immunity to hep B demonstrated by;

A

Hep B surface antibodies

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83
Q

Adult with advances cirrhosis. Best predictor of bleeding is;

A

Dysfibrinogenaemia

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84
Q

Hypercalcaemia. Initial treatment is with;

A

IV fluids

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85
Q

OD with 500mg/kg aspirin. Efficient therapy for elimination is;

A

Haemodialysis

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86
Q

To visualise a superficial peripheral nerve you should use a;

A

High frequency probe at 90 degrees to skin

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87
Q

80kg pt 30% burns how much fluid in 8 hours

A

4.8l csl

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88
Q

Regional for em LSCS. C/I chest pain, dyspnoea then loses consciousness. Most likely cause;

A

AFE

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89
Q

Faster desaturation in fatties due to;

A

Decreased FRC

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90
Q

Patient with tracheostomy. How to allow to talk;

A

Deflate cuff, one way valve, fenestrated

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91
Q

Triangle looking nerve = radial

A

Reduced wrist extension

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92
Q

Earliest sign of high block in neonate post caudal;

A

Desaturation

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93
Q

Effective method to reduce risk AKI post AAA;

A

Minimise clamp time

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94
Q

Porphyria patient given thiopentone. Then has a seizure. Which drug should not be given;

A

Pethidine

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95
Q

What test is decreased in iron deficiency anaemia;

A

Serum ferritin

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96
Q

Full size c cylinder has pressure regulated from;

A

1600kpa to 400kpa

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97
Q

MRI tesla 3 least likely to cause harm;

A

Mechanical heart valve

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98
Q

What happens with magnet over no ventricular ICD;

A

Switch of antitachycardia function

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99
Q

AFOI via nose. What nerves innervate;

A

(Olfactory) trigeminal glossopharyngeal vagus p

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100
Q

Cs5 configuration, lead 1;

A

Anterior

Lead 2; inferior

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101
Q

Lowest extension thoracic paravertebral space;

A

T12

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102
Q

Systemic sclerosis. Which is least likely cardiac manifestation.

A

Valvular regurgitation

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103
Q

Reason desflurane needs heated vaporising chamber;

A

High saturated vapour pressure

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104
Q

Delivery with forceps. Loss of sensation over anterior arterial aspect of her left thigh. No motor symptoms. Best explanation is;

A

Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh

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105
Q

ANZCA approved labelling;

A
Yellow - regional/epidural
Beige - subcutaneous
Pink - other
Blue - venous
Red - arterial
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106
Q

8yo 30kg for OT, starting hct is 35% and transfusion trigger is 25%. Amount of blood to lose before transfusion;

A

Blood volume x (starting hct- target hct)/starting hct

600ml

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107
Q

Porphyria pt given this. C/o ANSI pain and has a seizure then LOC. What drug not to give;

A

Pethidine

Diaz,sux, pregabalin ok
Haematin given for an attack

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108
Q
HOCM presents with SOB and angina. What is the best agent to give;
GTN
Metoprolol
Morphine
Salbutamol
A

Metoprolol

Murmur in HOCM will increase in intensity with Valsalva

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109
Q

Pt has a fempop bypass and has a mildly elevated troponin day 1 post op. No other signs or symptoms, what do you do?

A

Arrange for a cardiology follow up and outpatient angiogram because he is at increased risk for future MI

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110
Q
40 yo lady with a history of bleeding diathesis presents for tonsillectomy. What is the most likely cause?;
Factor V Leiden
Protein S deficiency
Haemophilia B
Anti thrombin III deficiency
Protein C deficiency
A

Haemophilia B

Rest are pro coagulant

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111
Q

Most cephalad space for a spinal in a neonate where risk to cord minimal;

A

L3/4

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112
Q
St Johns wart potentiates effects of;
Dabigatran
Heparin
Warfarin
Aspirin
Clopodogrel
A

Clopidogrel

Reduced effect on warfarin, heparin, Dabigatran

No effect on aspirin

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113
Q

AFOI through nose. Nerves encountered;

A

Trigeminal, glossopharyngeal, vagus

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114
Q
Most powerful predictor of AF post cardiac surgery;
Age
HTN
CVA
Diabetes
Time on bypass
A

Age

Other;
Male
Hx AF
Valvular OT
COPD
Renal failure
Rheumatic heart disease
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115
Q

Parkinson’s PONV.

What can you give;

A

Ondansetron

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116
Q

Pt who can shower self and manages other ADLs but get dyspnoea on mowing the lawn. NYHA class;

A

2

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117
Q

% PDPH that resolve spontaneously by one week is;

A

70%

70% 1 week and 95% by 6 weeks

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118
Q

Which piece of equipment is designed for use with a fibre optic bronchoscope;
Aintree
Cook exchange catheter
Frova introducer

A

Aintree

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119
Q

Possible change on ECG on methadone;

A

Long QTc

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120
Q
Current guidelines regarding CPR include all of the following EXCePT;
Allow equal time compress and relax
2 rescue breaths before CPR
Compressions 100/min
Compression at least 5cm
Ratio 30:2
A

2 rescue breaths before CPR

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121
Q

CS5 lead II

A

Inferior

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122
Q

Carcinoid tumour persistent hypotension despite fluids and octreotide 50mcg. Should use;

A

Vasopressin

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123
Q
Supraclavicular block, inject 20mls 0.375% ropivacaine, agitated seizure loc. 1st step is;
Intralipid
Midas
Prop
Airway and 100%
Feel radial and give 100mcg adrenaline
A

Airway

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124
Q

Which organ is least tolerant of ischaemia following removal for transplantation.

A

Heart

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125
Q

Performing a TAP block. If needle correctly positioned where will you deposit LA;

A

Between internal oblique and transversus abdominus

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126
Q

DLT in 140kg 160cm. Which depth at incisors would be most likely;

A

28cm

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127
Q
Which of the following decrease during pregnancy;
FRC
FEV1
Vt
RR
Bc
A

FRC

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128
Q
What is not appropriate for treatment if thyroid storm;
Carbimoazole
Beta blocker
Propythiouracil
Plasmapheresis
Hydrocortisone
A

Plasmaphoresis

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129
Q

Young pt with anorexia. After three days of eating found to have cardiac failure. Which is important to correct;

A

Phosphate

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130
Q

What is the mechanism of central sensitisation;
Increased intracellular Mg
Antagonism if NMDA receptor
Glycerine is main neurotransmitter recurrent a delta fibre activation
Alteration of gene expression

A

Alteration of gene expression

Glutamine is main neurotransmitter
C fibres are activated
NMDA activated
Mg is decreased

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131
Q

Lung reduction surgery main contraindication/? Poor prognosis;

A

Chronic asthma

Contraindications;
Previous major thoracic surgery
Prior pleurodesis
Bronchitis;asthma;bronchospasm
Rehab resistant
Pulm HTN
FEV1 20mg/day
DLCO
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132
Q
Metastatic lung cancer hypercalcaemia, all would help except;
Bisphosphonates
Calcitonin
Furosemide
Na chloride
IV crystalloids
A

Bisphosphonates

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133
Q

What potentiates/interacts with adenosine;

A

Dipyridamole

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134
Q
What has weakest evidence for prevention of postop infection;
Low inspired 02
Intraop transfusion
Hypothermia
Hyperglycaemia
Smoking
A

Blood transfusion

Good evidence;
Abx
Hand hygiene
Thermoreg

Mid evidence;
Sats
Sugar

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135
Q

Paediatric trauma. Breslow tape used to estimate;

A

Weight and drug dosages

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136
Q

PICCO determines CO using;

A

Thermodilution and pulse contour analysis

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137
Q

During scoliosis surgery with monitoring if SSEP which tract is being monitored;

A

Dorsal columns

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138
Q

Complications of mediastinoscopy include all except;

A

Cardiac laceration

Complications;
Haemorrhage
Stroke
Air embolism
PTx
Arrhythmias
Phrenic nerve injury
RLN injury
Oesophageal tear
Thoracic duct injury
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139
Q

The MAC awake:MaC ratio of sevo is closest to;

A

0.34

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140
Q

Numbness in anterior tongue following LMA due to injury of;

A

Mandibular (“lingular)

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141
Q

70yo non valvular AF off warfarin for 7 days. Daily stroke rate

A

0.01%

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142
Q

ank spond incorrect;

A

Normocytic anaemia occurs in 85% cases

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143
Q

What is not useful in Mx of torsades de pointes;

A

Procainamide

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144
Q

Thermoneutral zone in neonate is;

A

32-34

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145
Q

Which aortic dissection is managed conservatively;

A

Stanford B

Stanford A and B
Debakey 1-3

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146
Q

Essential criteria for LBBB;

A

Loss of Q waves in V5/6

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147
Q

Parasthesia in little finger during supraclavicilar block, needle is close to;

A

Lower trunk

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148
Q

Which is seen in conns syndrome;

A

Hypernatraemia, hypokalamia and normoglucaemia (or hyperglycaemia if anything…)

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149
Q

Commonest valvular disease seen in pregnancy;0

A

Mitral stenosis

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150
Q

Vasospasm following SAH seen maximally at;

A

6-8days

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151
Q

Predominant pathology seen in restrictive heart disease;

A

Diastolic dysfunction

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152
Q

First symptom inadvertent total spinal following caudal

A

Desaturation

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153
Q
30yo, severe hypertension post topical anaesthesia placed for nasal ot. Least appropriate Mx;
GTN
Esmolol
Labetolol
Snp
Deepen anaesthesia
A

Labetolol

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154
Q

8yo 30kg starting hct 35%, happy down to 25%. How much loss ok;

A

600mls

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155
Q

Smoked cannabis prior to OT. May lead to;

A

Decreased anaesthetic requirement

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156
Q
MVA BP 100/60 HR 100 with cxr widened mediastinum. Next appropriate investigation;
Aorthography
Ct chest
MRI
Toe
Tte
A

CT chest

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157
Q

Slow AF on warfarin INR 2.2 for pacemaker. Prior to insertion;

A

Continue warfarin

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158
Q

Marfans post thoracoabdominal aneury. Blood in CSF drain. Next course of action;

A

CT head

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159
Q

Electrical requirement that distinguishes cardiac protected area from body protected area is the;

A

Equipotentiality

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160
Q

Ingestion 500mg/kg aspirin, most efficient to enhance elimination;

A

Haemodialysis

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161
Q

Most cephalon interspace in neonate while minimising the possibility of spinal cord puncture;

A

L3/4

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162
Q

For PCA earliest sign of resp depression is;

A

Sedation score

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163
Q
6 week old for elective procedure. Appropriate fasting is;
2 breast
4 formula
5 both
6 solids
8 solid, 4 fluids
A

4 hours formula

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164
Q

Reduction DLCO caused by;

A

COPD

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165
Q

INR 4.5. Needs urgent OT. Vit K already given. What to give;

A

FFP and prothrombin x

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166
Q

How to differentiate between narrow angle glaucoma and corneal abrasion;

A

Relieved by topical anaesthesia

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167
Q

Post spinal OT. Parasthesia right arm. Surgeon thinks due to poor positioning. What distinguishes c8-T1 nerve root lesion from ulnar nerve neuropathy;

A

Weakness in abductor pollisis brevis (median)

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168
Q

Dilutional anaemia compensated by;

A

Increased cardiac output

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169
Q

Approx BP in awake neonate;

A

70

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170
Q

Volatile most likely associated with carbon monoxide poisoning with soda line scrubber;

A

Desflurane

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171
Q

Principle resistance to airflow in ETT is;

A

Diameter of tube

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172
Q

Primary pulmonary hypertension (80/60), during procedure desats to 87% BP 89/40, etco2 45mmHg. TOE findings;

A

Increased RV:LV area, abnormal septal wall motion, TR, RA dilation

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173
Q

Revised trauma score;

A

GCS
BP
Resp rate

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174
Q

Apnoeic oxygenation expected rise in CO2 is;

A

3mmHg

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175
Q

Decrease PONv 33% vs conventional treatment. 8% still get PONv with new treatment. NNT;

A

25

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176
Q

Absolute contraindication to ECT is;

A

Raised ICP

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177
Q

40yo ITP. Retinal detachment OT in 2 days. Platelets 40. Mx of ITP is;

A

Methylpred and iVIg 2 days preop

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178
Q

Obese man with headache, weakness and polyuria. BP 150/70, displaced apex. Na 145, K2.8, cl 101, most likely Dx;

A

Primary hyperaldosteronism

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179
Q

Compare new with gold standard using;

A

Bland-Altman

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180
Q

Thoracic epidural. On waking, pt is weak. Can breath, flex Biceps but can’t extend triceps. Level of block will be;

A

C7

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181
Q

You man describes throat swelling and difficulty breathing following minor dental procedures. Brother had similar episodes. Most likely mechanism;

A

C1 esterase deficiency

Use c1 inhibitor concentrate or FFP to treat

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182
Q

5yo duchenne muscular dystrophy. Inhalation with sevo. 10 mins later arrest with K 8.5. Likely mechanism;

A

Rhabdomyolisis

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183
Q

6/12 old VSD. Inhalation 8% sevo and 50% nitrous. Trying to get Iv access, sats 85%. Next step;

A

Reduce sevoflurane

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184
Q
Drug to best reduce post op pain following amputation;
Amitripyline
GABA
Tramadol
Pethidine
A

Gabapentin

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185
Q

How to assess pain 3yo;

A

FLACC

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186
Q

Bupremorphine. When does plasma level reach half original;

A

24 hours

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187
Q

When to start CPR lay person;

A

Loss of consciousness

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188
Q

Central centizisation due to;

A

Increased intracellular gene expression

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189
Q

IO cannula correct statement is;

A

Drug reaction time same as central

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190
Q

Highest risk vasoapasm post SAH is at days;

A

6-8

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191
Q

Endovascular aneurysm repair GA preferred due to;

A

Long duration of Apnoeic time

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192
Q

35yo G1P0 dilated cardiomyopathy for LSCS. EF 35%, benefits of regional;

A

Increaed EF

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193
Q
All of the following are found in hyper parathyroid disease except;
Decrease urinary calcium
Expraossius calcifications
Increased plasma calcium
Increased urinary phosphate
Renal calculi
A

Decreased urinary calcium

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194
Q

Which volatile is the worst for greenhouse gas;

A

Desflurane

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195
Q

St Johns wart will reduce the effect of;

A

Warfarin

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196
Q

Normal sensation medial forearm following brachial plexus block. Which part is missed;

A

Inferior trunk

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197
Q

Prothrombin x useful in period period correct all except;

A

Isolated factor 7 deficiency

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198
Q

CCf, dyspnoea with mowing lawn, but ok with shower and ADLs;

A

Class 2

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199
Q

RLL lobe tony. Preop spiro FEV1 2.4l FVC 2.4l. Predicted postop FEV1;

A

1.7

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200
Q

How does insulin work;

A

Increases glucose uptake into skeletal muscle

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201
Q

Features of severe AS

A

Peak velocity 4.2m2

Area 40

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202
Q

Which regarding ank spond is false;

A

Normochromic anaemia in 85% cases

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203
Q

Pain from 1st stage labour is from;

A

T10-L1

2nd stage; S2-4

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204
Q

Sens and spec 90%, prevalence 10%

What is PPV;

A

50%

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205
Q
Type 1 vWillenbrand disease for d&c. Is a JW. In regards to desmopression, all are true except;
Synthetic and acceptable to JW
Likely to reduce haemorrhage
Given as infusion 30mins prior to OT
Effect will last 5 days
Dose is 0.3mcg/kg
A

Effect will only last 6 hours

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206
Q

Ventilating neonates to target 85-89% desaturation, vs 91-95 associated with;

A

Increased mortality

BOOST2 study

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207
Q

Post lumbar sympathetic block most likely side effect is;

A

Genitofemoral neuralgia

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208
Q

Regarding la forte fractures;

A

Le fort 3 associated with fracture cribiform plate

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209
Q

Transient neurological syndrome occurs only with;

A

Compete resolution of motor blcokadep

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210
Q

Prolonged trendelenberg causes;

A

Increased myocardial work

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211
Q

Brachial plexus block. Normal sensation medial forearm, which part likely missed;

A

Inferior trunk (medial cutaneous nerve)

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212
Q

Absolute contraindication to sitting position for posterior fossa surgery;

A

Patent ventriculo-atrial shunt

And large PFO, cerebral ischaemia upright and team not familiar

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213
Q
4yo with murmer. Which feature warrants investigation;
Loudness 4/6
Decrease on inspiration
Vibratory quality
ESM
Louder when supine
A

Loudness 4/6

Other;
Symptomatic
Diastolic, pan systolic, late systolic
Variable or harsh
Percordial thrill
No chance with posture
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214
Q

Autonomic supply of ciliary ganglion is such that;

A

Receives parasympathetic nerve supply from Edinger-Westphalia nucleus (via occulomotor)

One of 4 parasympathetic ganglion in head.
Located in apex of orbit (ie posterior)
It constricts the pupil

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215
Q

Regarding thallium stress testing in predicting periop cardiac events;

A

High negative predictive value

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216
Q

Meconium delivery Apnoeic cyanotic HR 90. What to do first;

A

Suction trachea

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217
Q

What happens with magnet over ICD;

A

Turns off antitachycardia function

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218
Q

Full size c cylinder has pressure regulated from;

A

16000kpa to 400kpa

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219
Q

Asthmatic give. Salbutamol and atrovent and steroid. Next treatment;

A

Mg

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220
Q
Ulcerative colitis is associated with all except;
Cirrhosis
Iritis
Psoriasis
Arthritis
Sclerosing cholangitis
A

Psoriasis

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221
Q

Regarding rotameters;

A

Constant pressure difference across the bobbin at all flows

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222
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy with EF 30%. Best treatment is;

A

Enalapril

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223
Q

Best clinical indicator of severe AS is;

A

Prescience of a thrill

Mean gradient > 40
Areas

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224
Q

ASS murmur heard due to blood flow through;

A

Pulmonary valve

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225
Q

What area do you get symptoms at rest with Mitral stenosis;

A

1

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226
Q

Nitrous oxide anaesthesia may cause all of the following except;

A

Reversible inhibition of methionine synthestase

It is irreversible

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227
Q

Diagnosis of neuroleptic malignant requires the presence;

A

Muscle rigidity

Criteria;
Major - fevers, rigidity, increase CK
Minor - tachy, hypotension, low GCs, increased lymphocytes

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228
Q

Regarding tryptase level testing for suspected anaphylaxis. All true except;
Levels peak within one hour
Increased anaphylactoid and anaphylaxis reactions
99% found in mast cells
Levels >20ng/ml suggestive of anaphylaxis
Test repeated 24-48 hours

A

Levels peak within an hour - it is 1-2 hours

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229
Q

Incidence of FES following unilateral closed femoral fracture;

A

0-3%

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230
Q

Thoracodorsal nerve arises from;

A

Posterior cord of brachial plexus

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231
Q
Which of the following is least likely to cause hypoxia in aRDS;
NORAD
Milrinone
Isoprenaline
Isoflurane
SNP
A

NORAD

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232
Q

Best predictor of poor prognosis with AS;

A

PND (2 yr mortality 50%)

Syncope 50% 3yr
Chest pain 50% 5 yr

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233
Q

Pierre Robin sequence is cleft palate, miccrognathia and

A

Glossoptosis

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234
Q

2ml 0.75 ropiv injected for interscalene block. Then LOC. Most likely place for inadvertent injection is;

A

Subdural

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235
Q

18month old SVT 220, otherwise stable BP 84/60. Management;

A

Adenosine 100mcg/ml

BP in children 80+ age(2)
If hypotensive DCCV 2j/kg

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236
Q

When stimulating ulnar nerve which muscle twitches;

A

Adductor pollicus brevis

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237
Q

Circuit disconnection during spont breathing detected by;

A

Unexpected drop in end tidal volatile anaesthetic agent concentration

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238
Q
Patient undergone lung transplant. All impaired except;
Mucociliary clearance
Fought reflex distal to anastomosis
HPV
Response to CO2
Lymphatic drainage
A

HPV

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239
Q

Long QT. How to know if treatment effective;

A

No further prolongation of QT with Valsalva

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240
Q

Neonate born with Meconium. Otherwise ok: don’t suction trachea due to;

A

Bradycardia

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241
Q

Organism most commonly causes meningitis post spinal;

A

Strep salivarius

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242
Q

Male patient Hb 8, reticulocyte count 10%. Most likely diagnosis is;

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

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243
Q

Advantage of supraclavicilar block over interscalene is;

A

Less phrenic nerve block

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244
Q

Head injury. Unilateral dilated pupil with no direct or consensual response to light. Most likely;

A

Transtentorial herniation

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245
Q

In an arterial line system;

A

Wide range of damping coefficient associated with good performance if system has high natural frequency

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246
Q

Commonest post op complication of NOf is;

A

Delirium

Then UTi, LRTI, MI

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247
Q

What is advantage of BB over DLT;

A

Able to isolate separate lobes

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248
Q

Pulsus paradoxus is;

A

Larger drop in BP than usual with inspiration

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249
Q
Laparotomy for pt with Hx pulm HTN. Regarding Mx;
Alpha agonist inotrope of choice
Hypothermia protective
ISO will decrease PAP
Ketamine ok
A

Iaoflurane will decrease PAP

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250
Q

Severe RA. what radiological finding is most consistent with severe Atlantoaxial instability;

A

9mm gap between anterior arch c1 and odontoid peg

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251
Q

Dose of IV GtN for uterine relaxation;

A

50mcg

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252
Q

Accurate method of HR in neonate;

A

Auscultation with stethoscope

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253
Q

60yo having mediastinoscopy. Lose CO, desats and drop CO2. Best Mx,

A

Place prone

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254
Q

Definitive evaluation of MH does not include;
Abnormalities on MRI spectroscopy
Ca release from B lymphocytes to caffeine
Certain mutations on ryanodine receptor
Myofibrillar necrosis on muscle biopsy plasma
CK levels above 800u/l

A

CK levels

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255
Q

What is true of eaton lambert syndrome that differentiates it from
mg;

A

Repeated excercise -> improves

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256
Q

Presented to ED with heel ulcer, BP 100/60, hr 110, temp 35.8, Na 125, K 2.7, BSL 55, creat 180. Most urgent treatment;

A

Crystalloids

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257
Q

Cause of hypoxia during OLV;

A

Perfusion of unventilated lung

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258
Q

Child with intraop blood loss. Cardiac arrest most likely because of;

A

Underestimated blood loss

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259
Q

Lobar plexus supplies all of following except;

A

Sub costal nerve

Contains;
Femoral 
Obtrurator
Ilioinguinal
Iliohypogratric
Genitofemoral
Lateral cutaneous
Long saphenous
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260
Q

To determine specificity of a new test it should be administered to;

A

A series of people know to not suffer from disease

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261
Q

Pt after anterior cervical fusion. Resp distress and bulge under incision. Combative and removing oxygen. Appropriate management is;

A

? Gas? Iv

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262
Q

Hypercalcaemia due to hyperparathyroidism associated with;

A

Polyuria and polydipsia

Story QT
Muscle weakness

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263
Q

Cause of early mortality in AFE;

A

Pulmonary hypertension

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264
Q

Best predictor of DI in overweight;

A

Pretracheal fat

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265
Q

Endocarditis prophylaxis given to;

A

In repaired CHD

Previous IE
Mechanical valve
Repaired CHD

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266
Q

Best aspiration prophylaxis for urgent OT;

A

Ranitidine

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267
Q

Most common cause of mortality post transfusion;

A

TRALI

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268
Q

Most common cause of awareness,

A

Human error

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269
Q

Apnoeic oxygenation in obese aided by;

A

Head up tilt

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270
Q

Best renal protection for endoluminal AAA;

A

NaCl

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271
Q

White cylinder grey shoulder;

A

CO2

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272
Q

Indicator in soda lime;

A

Ethyl violet

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273
Q

Intubation over a boogie. Rotate ETT

A

90 anticlockwise

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274
Q

What is not advantage of drawover vaporiser;

A

Basic flow compensation

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275
Q

Which does not have abnormal q waves;

A

Digoxin toxicity

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276
Q

Troponin remains elevated for how long;

A

5-14 days

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277
Q

Inverted p waves in II can be caused by;

A

Junctional rhythm

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278
Q

When do most SAh bleed;

A

First 24 hours

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279
Q

Contraindications IA BP;

A

AR

Irreversible
aortic stent
Aortic dissection
Relative; sepsis

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280
Q

Which tract monitored with SSEP

A

Dorsal column

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281
Q

Incidence of headache postpartum;

A

38%

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282
Q

What proportion people AV node supplied by RCA;

A

80%

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283
Q

Less blood wastage if;

A

Low transfusion threshold

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284
Q

How long prior to spinal should Dabigatran be ceased,

A

7 days

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285
Q

When can you remove epidural after prophylactic LMWH dose give;

A

10-12 hours

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286
Q

Eclampsia dose Mg is;

A

4-5g over 5 mins

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287
Q

Endocarditis in pt with MVR approapite;

A

Lithotripsy

Some dental providers; extraction, root, replanting teeth
D&c if infected
Long labour

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288
Q

What is a specific PDE inhibitor;

A

Milrinone (3)

Aminophylline non selective
Dipyridamole 1&5

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289
Q

Loading dose for Iv paracetamol;

A

15mg/kg ie no load Iv

If

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290
Q

Caudal block with clonidine what is increased;

A

Hypotension and Brady

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291
Q

New onset AF. When can you shock without tOe;

A

48 hours

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292
Q

Cerebral oximetry measures;

A

Mostly venous, some arterial saturation

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293
Q

Off label use of drug include;

A

Different age, indication, route

NOT concentration

294
Q

Not true re remifentail

A

Metabolised by plasma cholinesterase (it’s red cell cholinesterase)

295
Q

Regarding mixed venous sats;

A

Can be used to calculate CO

296
Q
Epidural block to T2 causes all of the following except;
Bradycardia
Vasodilator ion
Reduced catecholamines
Dyspnoea
Elevated co2
A

Elevated co2

297
Q

Preop autologous blood transfusion results in less;

A

Incompatable transfusion

298
Q

Penetrating chest injury. Most likely to be injured;

A

RV

299
Q

Skin between iliac crest and greater trochanter supplied by;

A

Sub costal nerve

300
Q

Regarding pyloric stenosis;

A

Acidic urine

301
Q

In comparison to MP score, TMD is;

A

Less sensitive, more specific

302
Q

Traumatic liver lac. Treat conservatively if;

A

Haemodynamically stable

303
Q

C6/7 muscle movement;

A

Wrist flexion and extension

304
Q

Paraesthesia in little finger during supraclavicilar block due to contact with;

A

Lower trunk

305
Q

SVRI

A

SVR x BSA

306
Q

Ratio MaC incision to MAc awake for sevo;

A

0.34

307
Q

ASD murmur due to flow through which valve;

A

Pulmonary

308
Q

Essential feature of LBBB

A

Loss of Q waves v5-6
QRS > 0.12s
No secondary r wave in V1

309
Q

RCD installed. Electricity mains

On. Touch neutral and ground. What will happen;

A

Nothing

310
Q

Best position IAbP;

A

1-2cm distal to left subclavian

311
Q

Blood flow through which valve used to estimate PASP

A

Tricuspid

312
Q

Cephalothin doesn’t cover

A

Pseudomonas

313
Q

Low ca in CkD patient. Cause

A

Secondary gyperparathyroidism

314
Q

Conns syndrome;

A

Hypermatraemia, hypokalamia, normoglucaemia

315
Q

Dural sac ends where in neonate;

A

S3

316
Q

Clopidogrel t1/2

A

6 hours

317
Q

What is not a major complication of mediastinoscopy;

A

Cardiac laceration

318
Q

Fat: blood coefficient;

A

Nitrous

319
Q

SVT in child. Management

A

Adenosine 100mcg:kg

320
Q

Clinically most significant murmur in pregnancy;

A

MS

321
Q
Patient in citalopram.
What is not contraindicated;
Omen razor
Clonidine
Pethidine
Tramadol
Midazolam
A

Clonidine

322
Q

Most effective treatment post sevo agitation in 4yo;

A

Fent 1mcg\kg

323
Q

What is not useful treatment in torsades;

A

Procainamide

324
Q

Numb tongue and impaired taste after LMA.

A

Lingual nerve (from Mandibular cn5)

325
Q

Lateral approach to popliteal block;

A

Can be performed supine or prone.

Inversion is endpoint

326
Q

Iron deficiency anaemia;

A

Low ferritin, tibc high

Tibc is low in anaemia of chronic disease

327
Q

Which is not a Side effect of cyclosporine;

A

Alopecia

Common se's;
HTN
Renal impairment
Gum hyperplasia
Dizziness
Flu like
Headache
Increased hair
328
Q

What plotting ratio gives 3% isoflurane

A

1/13

329
Q

Ratio breaths compressions neonatal resus;

A

1:3

330
Q

What innervate a hard palate;

A

Maxillary nerve branches

- greater palatine and nasopalatine

331
Q

Distance from lips to carina in 70kg adult;

A

27cm

332
Q

How much air in a 5 LMA;

A

49mld

333
Q

Max dose of Intralipid;

A

12mls/kg

334
Q

Contraindication IABP

A

AR

335
Q

What volumes of FFP required to increase fibrinogen level by 1g/L;

A

30ml/kg

336
Q

Bleeding in trauma is reduced by(

A

Tranexamic acid

337
Q

In an infant the intercristine line at the level of;

A

L5-S1

338
Q

Contraindication to left DLT;

A
Tumour left main
Left broncial stent
Left lung transplant
Left tracheobronchial disruption
Left pneumonectomy
339
Q

Pain for the uterus during labour is transmitted via;

A

The inferior hypo gastric plexus

And Anterior roots of T10-L1

340
Q

Size c cylinder reads 5000kpa contains how many litres of oxygen;

A

150

Full size - 13700kpa = 420l

341
Q

What statistical test will evaluate effects of ?2 drugs in patients at ?3 different points;

A

ANOVA - test differences in >2 groups

342
Q

Man working with electrical appliances at home with RCD. If he touched the active and the neutral wire he will suffer;

A

RCD will protect him from macro shock

343
Q

Stellate ganglion block causes;

A

Conjunctival injection

344
Q

Features of VT do not include;

A

Absent p waves

345
Q

Child with 10% dehydration is likely to have;

A

Rapid deep breathing

346
Q

Acromegaly due to excessive GH. Why Is laryngoscopy difficult;

A

Macroglossia

347
Q

Main loss of heat for neonate is;

A

Radiation

348
Q

What drug does not need dose adjustment in renal failure;

A

Bupremorphine

349
Q

Average depth of tube in newborn infant;

A

9cm sims and Johnson

Wt in kg +6; qld health

350
Q

What is mechanism of central sensitisation;

A

Alteration in gene expression

351
Q

What is oxygen concentration in standard bottle of heliox

A

30%

352
Q

Patient undergoing partial hepatic resection develops venous air embolism. Best position;

A

Head down, right side up

353
Q

Time constant calculated by;

A

Resistance x compliance

354
Q

Finding of haemophilia A patient;

A

Normal PT, abnormal APTT

355
Q

Motor innervation of upper eyelid;

A

Occulomotor

356
Q

What proportion heterozygous for pseudo cholinesterase deficiency, ie have dibucaine number 30-70

A

4%

0.04

357
Q

Complication of coeliac plexus block;

A

Paraplegia

358
Q

All can prolong QTc interval except;

A

Magnesium

359
Q

Patient with mastic typists intraoptively would most likely have;

A

Hypotension

360
Q

Carcinoid patient develops hypotension intraop;

A

Octreotide 100-200mcg

361
Q

Sensitivity 90%, specificity 99%

A

False positive 1%

362
Q

Features if longstanding paraplegia includes all except;

A

Flaccid paralysis

363
Q

Commonest feature of anaphylaxis

A

Hypotension

364
Q

Safest site for subtenon block;

A

Inferonasal

Worse - medial canthus

365
Q

Levosomendin;

A

Conformational change on trop c, t1/2 of metabolite 72 hours

366
Q

Increased Aa gradient caused by all except;

A

Decrease Fi02

367
Q

Stellate ganglion is located;

A

Anterior to scalenous anterior

368
Q

Reversed splitting in;

A

LBBB

369
Q

Congenital diaphragmatic hernia;

A

Hyperplasia of pulmonary arteries

370
Q

Time to reach peak plasma levels for fentanyl patch is;

A

24hourd

371
Q

Pharmacological studies phase 3 is;

A

Randomised trials in target populations

372
Q

Chemical in soda lime to indicate exhaustion;

A

Ethyl violet

373
Q

Main heat loss for neonate;

A

Radiation

Then;
Convection
Evaporation
Conduction

374
Q

What herbal supplement reacts with tramadol;

A

St Johns Wart

375
Q

Retro bulbar block, sign of brainstem spread.

A

Contra lateral blindness

376
Q

Marian syndrome. What is not a common association;

A

AS

They get;
MR
Dissection
Conduction abnormalities
Mitral valve prolapse
377
Q

Infant with failure to thrive, apical systolic murmur, weak pulses, femoral felt easily. Likely have;

A

VSD

378
Q

SAH rebleed in first 24 hours;

A
379
Q

Max safe pressure of ETT cuff on lateral tracheal wall

A

20-30cmH20

380
Q

Complication of celiac plexus block

A

Paraplegia

Failure to ejaculate

381
Q

Nerve supply to upper eyelid;

A

Ophthalmic branch CNV and sympathetic from superior collicus ganglion

382
Q

Post epidural and LSCS. Next day has Paraesthesia anterior thigh. What additional injury indicates nerve roots instead of peripheral injuries.

A

Weakness on hip flexion and thigh adduction

383
Q

All can prolong QTc except for;

A

Magnesium

384
Q

Post local block in DI patient, seizure. What to give;

A

Midazolam

385
Q

Carcinoid with intraop hypotension. Manage with;

A

Octreotide

386
Q
Allergic reaction, what is true;
Tryptase 8 hours
RAST best sens and spec 
Absent tryptase excludes anaphylaxis
Skin and intradermal test sens and specificity
A

Skin test

387
Q

What most likely to cause TRALI

A

FFP

388
Q
After 5 units FFP what is least likely to occur;
Haemolytic reaction
Hypocalcaemia
Infection
Hyperkalemia
A

Hyperkalemia

389
Q

Evidence to avoid BIS 5 mins because

A

Increase post op mortality - b aware trial

390
Q

What drug causes prolonged QT and risk of torsades

A

Droperidol

391
Q

During cardiac cath becomes unstable. What investigation;

A

Echo

392
Q

A line isolation monitor protects against micro shock

A

Under no circumstances

393
Q

Intraop hyper fibrinolysis. How to diagnose;

A

TEG

394
Q
What happens after infra renal clamping in AAA;
Decreased cardiac contractility
Decreased coronary blood flow
Deceased renal blood flow
Minim hangs co
Increased hr
A

Decrease renal flow

395
Q

Most effective method for cerebral protection in aortic arch aneurysm repair;

A

Systemic hypothermia to 20

396
Q

Most common sign if MH;

A

Tachycardia

397
Q

Stellate ganglion is located;

A

Anterior to scalenous anterior

398
Q

Patient coughs during interscalene block; should direct needle;

A

Posteriorly

399
Q

Interscalene block, patient seizure. Most likely injected into;

A

Vertebral artery

400
Q

Acromegaly. DI due to;

A

Macroglossia

401
Q

Stellate ganglion block associated with all except;

A

Sweating of face

Produces horners;
Ptosis
Miosis
Anhydrosis

402
Q

Most safe site for subtenon;

A

Inferonasal

403
Q

Compared to retrobulbar block, peri bulbar block associated with;

A

? Less block to orbicularis oculi (cn7)

404
Q

Diastolic dysfunction not caused by;

A

Adrenaline

405
Q

Reversed splitting Hs2 associated with;

A

LBBB

406
Q

Lumbarsacral nerve does not supply;

A

Sub costal nerve

407
Q

Trauma patient best indicator of good resuscitation;

A

Lactate

408
Q

Pregnant patient, involved in car accident, sudden onset central chest pain hr 110, BP 154/80, rr 26, sats 100. Most likely cause;

A

Aortic dissection

409
Q

ASD murmur heard at;

A

Pulmonary valve

410
Q

Chronic alcohol is not associated with

A

Nephritic syndrome

411
Q

Apnoeic oxygenation increased by,

A

Head up

412
Q

AFE cause of death;

A

Pulmonary hypertension

413
Q

Post partum sudden collapse, suspected AFE, consistent finding is;

A

Low c3 and c4

- not diagnostic but is consistent

414
Q

Nerve block anterior 2/3 ear;

A

Mandibular

415
Q

Earliest sign of hypocalcaemia;

A

Tingling - symptom

416
Q

Which CHD does not have pulmonary hypertension;

A

Tetralogy of fallot

417
Q

Pregnant moderate MS, normal LV, best delivery method;

A

Epidural analgesia and normal vaginal delivery

418
Q

TOF correct statement;
Mainly left side
Cardiac lesions in 60%
Usually does not need contrast

A

Usually doesn’t need contrast

M=f
20% cardiac lesions

419
Q

Pulmonary hypertension secondary to lung disease;

A

Alpha agonist can be used

420
Q

Sux dose higher in neonates vs adults due to;

A

Faster diffusion awake from neuromuscular junction

421
Q

Baby with TOF mx;

A

Head up, drainage tube in oesophagus

422
Q

CTG pregnant women non obs OT;

A

Loss of beat to beat variability

423
Q

Autonomic neuropathy get all except;

A

Sinus arrhythmias

Symptoms;
Fatigue, thirst, dizziness
Fluctuating BP
Sob
Altered HR
Gastropesesis
Mudras is
Urinary incontinence
Constipation
Heat intolerance
Erectile dysfunction
424
Q

Best indicator of return of laryngeal function;

A

TOF 0.9

425
Q

Not useful in torsades

A

Procainamide

426
Q

Febrile after 8 hours in labour with epidural analgesia;

A

Inflammatory response

427
Q

Supply of sensation above vocal

Cords;

A

Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

428
Q

Supply of carotid sinus;

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve

429
Q

Post of pneumonectomy SOB, Ix

A

BNP

430
Q

On Mg infusion, respiratory depression. Management;

A

Calcium gluconate

431
Q

ESRF with low calcium. Likely due to;

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

432
Q

How to estimate weight in child;

A

(Age+4)x2

433
Q

Commonest presenting feature anaphylaxis:

A

Hypotension

434
Q

Advantage off pump CABG;

A

Decreased transfusion rate

435
Q

After CABG FRC is;

A

Decreased 20%

436
Q

Iron deficiency;

A

Low serum ferritin, normal serum iron

437
Q

Why should NSAIDs avoided in >30/40;

A

Cause closure PDA

438
Q

Dilated cardiomyopathy EF 30% for LSCS. Benefit of regional vs epidural;

A

Incensed ejection fraction

439
Q

Class 1 equipment faulty such that active wire in contact with casing. What will happen when plugged in and turned on;

A

Electrical fuse immediately break and disconnect from power supply

440
Q

What is if least benefit it anaphylaxis

A

Subcutaneous adrenaline

441
Q

In arterial line system;

A

Wide range of damping coefficient associated with good performance if system has high natural frequency

442
Q

Buprenorphine patch on/off

Fentanyl patch on/off

A

Bup on 12-24, off 12

Fent on 24-72, off 18

443
Q

Increased bleeding with all except;

A

Echinacea

Bleeding increases with
Ginger
Garlic
Ginkgo
Fish oil
444
Q

Liver surgery. VAE position;

A

Trendelenberg, right side up

445
Q

Distance from lips to carina in 70kg male;

A

27cm

446
Q

In acute liver injury, highest risk of bleeding;

A

Coagulopathy

447
Q

Home handyman, RCD, touches ground and neutral;

A

Prevented from macro shock by RCD

448
Q

OLV desaturate; what to do;

A

Inflation breath upper
Peep dependent lung
Cpap upper

449
Q

Most common cause paediatric post anaesthesia cardiac arrest;

A

Cardiac problem

450
Q

High airway pressure after tube placed. Next;

A

Auscultation lung

451
Q

Relative humidity of fully saturated air at 20degrees and 37 degrees

A

40%

452
Q

Best indicator of resuscitation;

A

Lactate

453
Q

ASD murmur heard at;

A

Pulmonary valve

454
Q

Apnoeic oxygenation in obese increased by;

A

Head up

455
Q

Sensitivity 90% and specificity 99%

False positive is;

A

1%

456
Q

what is supportive of AFE;

A

Low c3 and c4 levels

457
Q

In pregnancy Dural sac ends at;

A

S2

458
Q

What CHD does not have pulm

HTN;

A

Tetralogy of fallot

459
Q

Indicates autonomic neuropathy except;
Reflux
Postural hypotension
Sinus arrhythmia

A

Sinus arrhythmia

Presenting symptoms;
Fatigue 
Thirst
Dizziness
Fluctuating BP
Sob
Gastroporesis
Heat intolerance
Erectile dysfunction
Urinary incontinence
Constipation
460
Q

Sensory supply above vocal cords:

A

Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve

461
Q

Post pneumonectomy SOB. Investigation;

A

BNP

462
Q

On Mg infusion. Found in respiratory distress. Management;

A

Calcium

463
Q

Estimation of weight in child;

A

Age+4 x2

464
Q

Compared to mallampati, thyromental distance is;

A

Less sensitive, more specific

465
Q

Most commonly reported sign in MH;

A

Tachycardia

466
Q

Advantage off pump CABG over on pump;

A

Decreased transfusion rate

467
Q

After CABG the FRC is;

A

Decreased by 20%

468
Q

Iron deficiency;

A

Decreased serum ferritin; normal serum iron (1st stage)

3rd stage; low ferritin, absence bone marrow iron

469
Q

62yo has CRF, total serum ca 2.05. This is due to;

A

Secondary hyperparathyroidism

470
Q

When a reaction to an anaesthetic drug is suspected;

A

The morphine IgE radioimmunoassay is a sensitive and efficient test for detection of IgE antibodies to neuromuscular blocking drugs

471
Q

Acromegaly due to excess of growth hormone. What is direct laryngoscopy difficult;

A

Macroglossia

472
Q
Ehlos- danlos most important to specifically do except;
Avoid hyper extension
Damage to teeth
Avoid joint hyper mobility
gORD
Strict temp control
A

Strict temp control

473
Q
Pt with sickle cell. Hb 90, hct 0.3;
Tranfuse
Cool him
Spinal is safe
Avoid thio
Tourniquet is absolutely contraindicated
A

Spinal is safe

474
Q

ECG ; which does not have abnormal q waves;

A

Digoxin toxicity

475
Q

Coeliac plexus block. What is a complication;

A

Paralysis

476
Q
Petit mal seizure. Which is true;
Can precipitate seizures by hyperventilating
Most common In child  30seconds
Rarely familial
Isoelectric EEG during seizure
A

Can precipitate seizures by hyperventilating

477
Q

Post op pneumonectomy. What to do with underwater seal;

A

Unclamp drain once an hour for 5 mins, leave clamp on rest of time

478
Q

Therapeutic level of Mg in pre-eclampsia;

A

3-5 (2 - 3.5

479
Q
Ageing causes;
Decreased FRC
Decreased CO
Diastolic dysfunction
Increased creatinine
A

Diastolic dysfunction

480
Q

Post scoliosis. Decreased movement bilaterally in legs with decreased pain and temperature but spared joint position sense and vibration. What is a fault?

A

Anterior spinal artery

481
Q

Obese patient.

Sux - 1mg/kg IBW vs TBW ->

A

Similar onset similar recovery

Should use total body weight - better conditions

482
Q

T1/2 of active metabolite of levosimendan;

A

3 days

483
Q

Anterior branch of femoral

Nerve supplies everything but;

A

Rectus femoris

484
Q

Interscalene block placement get medial movement of the scapula. This is secondary to stimulation;

A

Dorsal scapula nerve

485
Q

Popliteal block placed from lateral approach;

A

Can be performed supine or lateral

486
Q

Scoliosis surgery. Monitor somatosensory evoked potentials. Which tract monitored;

A

Dorsal column

487
Q

Flow with O2 flush will give you(

A

30-70l/min

488
Q

Heat loss in neonate;

A

Radiation

489
Q

If type and Rh specific blood given how safe is it;

A

99.8%

490
Q

% SAH troponin positive;

A

15-30%

491
Q

Duchenne muscular patient give sux. What are you most worried about;

A

Hyperkalemia

492
Q

Fontan patient having an appendicectomy. What do you want;

A

Spont ventilation

493
Q

What makes tramadol less effective;

A

Ondansetron

494
Q

Most common way to measure end tidal gas concentrations on anaesthetic machines;

A

Infrared

495
Q

How far to inset PICC in child in relation to carina;

A

1cm above

496
Q

Reverse splitting of heart sounds due to;

A

LBBB

497
Q

TRALI most likely after

A

FFP

498
Q

What is not a disadvantage to drawover vaporiser vs plenum ;

A

Can not use sevoflurane

499
Q

Number of people in community with predisposition at any given time is;

A

Prevalence

500
Q

OLV and hypoxia. After 100% oxygen and FOB next step is;

A

PEEP bottom lung

501
Q
Exponential decline (time
Constant definition)
A

Time to reach 37% of initial value

502
Q

TURP. Patient under spinal, Na 117. Treatment;

A

3% n saline 100ml/hr

503
Q

How fast does co2 rise in apnoea;

A

3mmHg

504
Q
Visual loss with pupillary reflexes intact;
Retinal detachment
Occipital mass
Frontal mass
Chiasmal mass
Optic neuritis
A

Occipital Mass

505
Q

4yo for tonsillectomy;

PONV risk;

A

40% if no antiemetic given

506
Q

Recommended FiO2 for neonatal resuscitation

A

0.21

507
Q

First clotting favour to reach critical level with surgical bleeding

A

Level 1 - fibrinogen

508
Q
Most useful sign to distinguish between severe serotonin syndrome syndrome and malignant hyperthermia are;
Clonus
Hyperthermia
Met acidosis
Muscle rigidity
Wheeze
A

Clonus

509
Q

Pred 10mg/day.

What is equivalent dose of dexamethasone;

A

2mg

510
Q

20kg child with LA toxicity. What dose Intralipid;

A

30mg

511
Q

PDPH which is inconsistent

A

Presents immediately post

Partum

512
Q
Eclamptic. On Mg infusion. Common symptom;
Brady
Arrest
Hypotension
Depressed resp effort
A

Hypotension - bolts

Low resp effort infusion

513
Q

Difficult thyroidectomy. Immediately post extubation develops stridor and resp distress. Likely cause;

A

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

514
Q

RFTS show fev1 and FVC reduced. Ratio 98%, DLCO 8 ( predicted 30).
cause?

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

515
Q

TBI. Cerebral perfusion 15ml/100g/min. Consistent with;

A

Cerebral ischaemia

516
Q

Dilated thrombin time measures anticoagulant activity of;

A

Dabigatran

517
Q

In trauma hypothermia exacerbates bleeding by;

A

Inhibition of clotting factors

518
Q

How much K needed to raise from 2.8 to 3.8

A

100mmol

1mmol increase needs 10mmol kcl

519
Q

Haemodynamically stable. Blunt chest trauma. Best screening test;

A

12lead ECG

520
Q

Fidelity;

A

Following professional code of conduct

521
Q

Correct position of PICC in child;;

A

1-2cm above carina

522
Q

Cophenylcaine in eyes. Results in;

A

Midriasis

523
Q

New drug 50% more effective. 4% still get PONV. NNT is;

A

25

524
Q

White cylinder with grey shoulders contains;

A

CO2

525
Q

Inserting IJ line, why not turn head to far lateral;

A

Compresses vein

526
Q
2hrs post crush injury. What would you see;
Low ca
Low k
Low phos
Low irate
Alkalosis
A

Low ca

527
Q

Floppy Apnoeic blue hr 90 neonate. What to do

A

Suction trachea

528
Q

Medical therapy vs TAVI at 30 days decreased risk of;

A

Stroke

529
Q

Volatile agent analysed via;

A

Infrared

530
Q

What is not constituent of prothrombinex VF

A

Protein c

531
Q

Asymptomatic lady. ECG LAD RSR V1 wide slurred s in V6 and QRS 0.13. Options for OT;

A

Continue -

Bifasicular block with anterior fascicle gone (ok)

532
Q

Blalock taussig shunt into right PA from;

A

Right subclavian

533
Q

Half life of mast cell tryptase

A

2 hours

534
Q

Most common cause of mortality post transfusion;

A

TRALI

535
Q

Air bubble leads to decreased;

A

Resonant frequency

536
Q

What valve area get symptoms at rest MS

A

1cm2

537
Q

Inverted p waves caused by;

A

Junctional rhythm

538
Q

Hb 80, reticulocyte 10%

A

Hereditary spherocytosis

539
Q

Prolonged trendelenberg results in;

A

Increased myocardial work

540
Q

Contraindication to IABP

A

AR

541
Q

Scoliosis OT. Which tract monitored with SSEP

A

Dorsal column

542
Q

How long prior to spinal anaesthetic should Dabigatran be ceased

A

5 days

543
Q

Following eclampsic seizure dose of Mg is;

A

4 grams

544
Q

Mec stained liquor with vigorous neonate. Rationale to not suction;

A

Bradycardia

545
Q

What does NOT occur following bilateral lung transplant

A

Impaired HPV

546
Q

Caudal block in child, add clonidine to prolong. What significant complication is increased;

A

Sedation

547
Q
Systematic review. What is not a weakness;
Author bias
Publication bias
Duplicate publication
Heterogeneity
Inclusion if historic studies
A

Inclusion of historic studies

548
Q

Sats 90%. No IV. LMA and spasm. What to do;

A

IM sux

549
Q

Required for diagnosis of NMS

A

Muscle rigidity

550
Q
Lap chole on citalopram. What is NOT relatively contraindicated;
Omeprazole
Clonidine
Pethidine
Tramadol
Midaz
A

Clonidine

551
Q

Question about ciliary ganglion

A

Preganglionic parasympathetic originates from Edinger Westphal nucleus

552
Q

All need reduced dose in renal failure;

A

Buprenorphine

553
Q

Most common sign in malignant hyperthermia

A

Tachycardia

554
Q

Plasma glucose vs blood

Glucose

A

14% higher

555
Q

Most common cause if post op visual loss

A

Ischaemic optic neuropathy

556
Q

Dura in child ends at

A

S3

557
Q

Handy man, touches neutral and ground. What will happen

A

Nothing will happen

558
Q

What splitting ratio gives 3% concentration ISO;

A

1:13

559
Q

Half life of clopidogrel

A

6 hours

560
Q

What is NOT A SIDE EFFECT OF cyclosporine

A

Alopecia

Common SE;
HTN
Renal impairment
Gum hyperplasia
Dizziness
Flu like
Headache
Increased hair
561
Q

Innervation of hard palate;

A

Maxillary nerve;

Greater palatine and nasopalatine

562
Q

Distance from lips to carina in 70kg male

A

27cm

563
Q

Air in size 5 LMA

A

40ml

564
Q

Intercristine line in infant

A

L5-S1

Cord ends L3
Dura ends S3/4

565
Q

MAC awake: MAC of sevo;

A

0.34

566
Q

Pain from uterus is from;

A

Inferior hypo gastric plexus

Dorsal roots T10-L1

567
Q

Size c cylinder reads 5000kpa contains approximately how many litres if oxygen;

A

150L

568
Q

Loss of sensation to anterior part of tongue;

A

Lingual

Branch of trigeminal nerve V3

569
Q

Failure to thrive. Apical systolic murmur, weak pulses, femoral felt most easily. Likely have;

A

VSD

570
Q

Acute liver injury, highest risk of bleeding due to;

A

Coagulopathy

571
Q

Stellate ganglion block causes;

A

Conjunctival injection

572
Q

Features if VT does not include;

A

Absence of p waves

573
Q

When studying control and two test grips, best statistical method is;

A

Analysis of variance

574
Q

Child with 10% dehydration likely to have;

A

Rapid deep breathing

575
Q

Why is direct laryngoscopy difficult in acromegaly;

A

Macroglossia

576
Q

Circuit disconnect during spont breathing;

A

May be detected by an unexpected drop omens tidal volatile anaesthetic agent concentration

577
Q

Paraesthesia in little finger during supraclavicilar block. Needle is in proximity to;

A

Lower trunk

578
Q

Best predictor of severe bleeding in cirrhosis;

A

Hypofibrinogeneamia

579
Q

Oxygen concentration in Heliox

A

30%

580
Q

Fontan. Best way to maintain cardiac output

A

Short inspiratory time

581
Q

Clinically significant cardiac lesion in pregnancy;

A

MS

582
Q

Blood flow across which valve measures PAP during echo

A

Tricuspid

583
Q

Machine left on over weekend. Des put in. What toxic substance will be produced;

A

Carbon monoxide

584
Q

What two nerves most reliably blocked in fascia iliaca block

A

Femoral and lateral cutaneous

585
Q

What is true of MG and ELS. What happens with exercise

A

EL better, MG worse

586
Q

WPW, develops tachy. Best drug to cardiovert;

A

Amioderone

587
Q

What gestation to monitor uteroplacental flow;

A

24weeks

588
Q

Pulmonary hypertension in all except;

A

Tetralogy of fallot

589
Q

Movement supplied by c6:7

A

Wrist flexion and extension

590
Q

Mastocytosis. Intraop would expect;

A

Hypotension

591
Q

A line isolation monitor protects against micro shock,

A

Under no circumstances

592
Q

Air fully saturated at 20%. What is relative humidity at 37 degrees

A

40%

593
Q

50yo with multiple fractures. Best parameter to monitor volume resuscitation is;

A

Changes in right atrial pressure during inspiration

594
Q

Anaphylaxis to rocuronium. What is most likely to cause cross reactivity;

A

Pancuronium

595
Q

Hypotension post propofol in elderly. More profound than in younger patients. Reason?

A

Concentric LVH associated with ageing and therefore preload dependent

596
Q
Predictive factors for mortality in elderly patient all except;
AS
DM
Elevated creat
Cognitive dysfunction
Type of surgery
A

Cognitive dysfunction

597
Q
Elderly patient. Indications for pre fem-pop bypass angiogram include all except;
Severe HF
Suspicion left main disease
Symptomatic tachyarrhythmia
Unstable angina
Stable angina with positive thallium
A

Symptomatic tachyarrhythmia

598
Q

How to minimise risk of iv cannulation with epidural insertion is;

A

Injection of saline through epidural needle before catheter insertion

599
Q

Timing of peak respiratory depression post intrathecal 300mcg morphine;

A

Peak 6 hours… Between 3.5-12

600
Q

What is the strongest stimulus for ADH secretion

A

Hypocalcaemia

High serum oscillatory is most sensitive

601
Q

Stellate ganglion block. Needle entry next to C6. What direction to advance needle.

A

C6

602
Q

Thermoneutral zone in 1 month old;

A

32-34 degrees

603
Q

4yo with arthrgrophysis multiplex congenita for dental surgery. Jaw rigidity post induction. Likely cause.

A

TMJ rigidity

604
Q

Cell saver. What doesn’t get filtered;

A

Foetal cells

605
Q

Humanitarian mission. What one element needed;

A

Non rebreathing valve

606
Q

Gabapentin reduces postop;

A

Nausea

607
Q

Burns dressings. What has proven analgesic benefit;

A

Biosynthetic

608
Q

Subtenon. Worst position;

A

Superonasal

609
Q

Liposuction. Infiltration with 1:200,000 adrenaline. Peak plasma concentration occurs at;

A

18hours

610
Q

Salycilate poisoning.

A

Metabolic acidosis

Also causes hyperthermia

611
Q

Combative patient post ACDF. In recovery. Confused and combative. Most appropriate way to secure airway;

A

Gas induction, laryngoscopy and intubate

612
Q

Hypocalcaemia. Earliest sign

A

Tingling of face and hands

613
Q

Young patient for tonsillectomy with history of bleeding. What is most likely cause;

A

Haemophilia B (Christmas disease)

614
Q

Visual loss with pupillary reflexes retained. Likely cause

A

Occipital mass

615
Q

Nerve block for anaesthesia anterior 2/3 of ear

A

Mandibular nerves

616
Q

CRPS. What proportion have motor involvement;

A

75%

617
Q

Patient with Hx COAD and suspected pneumonia. Clinical finding supporting right pneumonia:

A

Dull percussion note and increased vocal resonance

618
Q

Young woman having cholecystectomy. Venous air embolism;

A

Most lovely to occur at initial gas insufflation, but can occur and any time.

619
Q

LSCS for failure to progress. Spinal inserted uneventfully. Next day patient has foot drop. Most likely cause is;

A

Lunbosacral palsy

620
Q

What LMA gives best seal;

A

Intubating - oesophagus

Proseal at trachea

621
Q

Peak plasma level of lignocaine after epidural;

A

30mins

622
Q

On citalopram. What drug is relatively contraindicated.

A

Tramadol

623
Q

30yo. Long operation. Arms abducted to 60 degree. Head turned slightly to left. Post op numb palm, thumb, index finger, middle finger and lateral half ring finger. Numb ventral forearm. Weak finger grip. Weak elbow flexion. Most likely injured;

A

Upper trunk brachial plexus

624
Q

Fontan. What ventilator setting to increase to improve sats

A

Exploratory time

625
Q

Von hippel lindau disease associated with;

A

Phaeochromocytoma

626
Q

7kg infant with TOF post BT shunt. Paralysed and ventilated. Sats 85% usually. Now 70%. Best treatment;

A

Phenylelhrine 35mcg -> increase LV afterload

627
Q

Sub cut heparin, develops DVT and platelets 40. Management;

A

Lepirudin

628
Q

Compared to lignocaine, bupivicaine is ;

A

Four times as potent

629
Q

Interscalene block. Patient hiccups. Where do you redirect needle.

A

Posterior

630
Q

Stellate ganglion;

A

Anterior to scalenous anterior

631
Q

The median nerve;

A

Can be blocked at the elbow immediately medial to the brachial artery

632
Q

Baby with TOF found by bubbling salvia and NgT coiling on CXR. Best Mx

A

Position head up and insert suction catheter in oesophagus

633
Q

Main indication biventricular pacing;

A

CCF

634
Q

The intercostal brachial nerve

A

Can be damaged by tourniquet

635
Q

Post carsiac arrest. Making Dx of AFE large amount of PMNs surrounding foetal squamous cells are;

A

Supportive

636
Q

Half life tirofiban

A

2 hours

637
Q

Why is codeine not using in paediatrics

A

High inter individual pharmacokinetic variability

638
Q

MG. Features predicting need for post op ventilation except;

A

Increased sensitivity to NMBs

639
Q

Innervation of larynx

A

Cuff compression recurrent laryngeal nerve against thyroid can cause palsy

640
Q

IV paracetamol;

A

Late plasma levels around the same as oral

641
Q

Most likely to result in myocardial infarction

A

Post op myocardial ischaemia

642
Q

Indication for percutaneous closure if ASD

A

Secundum

643
Q

Respiratory function in quadriplegics is improved by

A

Increase in chest wall spasticity

644
Q

Histamine release in anaphylaxis does not cause;

A

Myocardial depression

645
Q

A device that detects a 10mV difference in active and neutral leads and causes turning off of the curciut within 40ms. This is a

A

Residual current device

646
Q

OLV and hypoxia. After 100% O2 and FOB next step is;

A

PEEP 5cm bottom lung

647
Q

Plasma glucose compared to blood glucose level;

A

14% higher

648
Q

With regards to OSA which statement is incorrect;

A

Rarely has an obstructive component

649
Q

Management of rhabdo. Best management

A

IV fluids

650
Q

RCD

A

Compare current between active and neutral lines

651
Q

Serotonin syndrome reported following SSRI with

A

St Johns wort

652
Q

Why is tachycardia bad in MS

A

Increases transvalvilar pressure gradient

653
Q

What is not a feature of high spinal block

A

Tachycardia

654
Q

Stellate ganglion block associated with all except;

A

Sweating

655
Q
Recognised clinical associations with dystrophia myotonia include;
DM
Abnormal intestinal motility
Cardiomyopathy
Ovarian dysfunction
All of above
A

All of above

656
Q

When hearing loss occurs following spinal anaesthesia it is usually in which range;

A

125-1000Hz

657
Q

Anaemia in chronic renal failure is characteristically

A

Associated with increased 2,3DPG levers in blood cells

658
Q

Central anticholinergic syndrome which is NOT true;

A

Will improve with neostigmine

659
Q

Carcinoid syndrome. Finding on examining heart

A

Systolic murmur left eternal edge

660
Q

Lowering intra ocular pressure by applying pressure in the globe is typically contraindicated in a patient having

A

A revision traveculectomy

661
Q

Muscle not supplied by sciatic nerve

A

Gluteus maximums

662
Q

Hypercalcaemia

A

Short QT

663
Q

Cocaine overdose. What is false

A

Miosis

664
Q

Plenum vaporiser

A

Realies on constant flow of pressurised gas

665
Q

Paralysed with area curium. TOF is 1. You give dose 0.1mg/kg mivacurium to close abdomen. When will you be back to TOF 1

A

10 mins

666
Q

SVR in patient with MAP 100, CO 5, PCWP 15, CO 5

A

1520 dynes/sec/cm

667
Q

Accidentally cannulate carotid artery with 5 lumen CVC before semi urgent CABG. Appropriate next step

A

Vascular surgeon to repair it

668
Q

Post TKR. Femoral nerve catheter

In place. Good analgesia and ROM 18 hrs later, 24hours post op unable to flex knee. What is cause

A

Compression neuropraxia

669
Q

75yo moderate AS (area 1.1). Asymptomatic. Needs hip replacement;

A

Continue with surgery

670
Q

JW having THR. Most effective technique to minimise post op anaemia

A

Cell salvage

671
Q
Recognised associations with dystrophia myotonia include;
DM
abnormal intestinal motility
Cardiomyopathy
Ovarian dysfunction
All of the above
A

All the above

672
Q

Elderly patients and opioids;

A

There is impairment if pain inhibitory systems

673
Q

Anticoagulant Mx when performing sub tenon block.

A

Continue if target

674
Q
Sympathetic block could be effective in treating all of the following conditions except;
Chronic tinnitus
Quinine poisoning
Post cardiac surgery pain
Phantom limb pain
Compartment syndrome
A

Compartment syndrome

675
Q
Earliest sign in MH
Acidosis
Hyperthermia
Increase ETCO2
Muscle rigidity
Myoglobinuria
A

ETCO2

676
Q

Chronic post op pain;

A

After thoracotomy has an incidence of 50%

677
Q

Correct statement regarding medical laser hazards include all except;
Co2 cause corneal opacification
Co2 readily absorbed by most tissues
In general shorter wavelengths are most strongly absorbed
Nd:YAG laser can injury the retina
Effect of laser depends in wavelength and power density

A

Incorrect; short wavelength more strongly absorbed

678
Q

Post partum foot drop most frequently caused by

A

Compression of Lunbosacral trunk by foetal head or forceps

679
Q

When iv Mg is used loss if deep tendon reflexes seen at

A

3.5 - 5 mmol

680
Q

Transient neurological syndrome. Clinical features include;

A

Increased risk with early ambulation

681
Q

Regarding codeine

A

When given orally it has approximately 5% of the analgesic potency of morphine

682
Q

What statement about fondaparinux is not true

A

It has a structure unrelated to heparin

683
Q

When is it necessary to use glycine as irrigation fluid for TURP;

A

Monopolar diathermy

684
Q

The most useful sign to distinguish between severe serotonin syndrome and malignant hyperthermia is

A

Clonus

685
Q

With surgical bleeding the first clotting factor to reach critical level is

A

1 - fibrinogen

686
Q

PPV

A

Proportion who have a positive test result who do have disease

687
Q

Post thyroidectomy. 30mins post op. Develop resp distress. Likey cause;

A

Bleeding and haematoma

688
Q

Best way to prevent hypothermia

A

Prewarming

689
Q

Desflurane vaporiser can’t turn on. NOT because;

A

Hotter than 39 degree

690
Q

Most common cause maternal cardiac arrest

A

PE

691
Q

Most likely change CTG with anaesthesia for non obs surgery at 32 weeks.

A

Loss of beat to beat variability

692
Q

HOCM. VF on induction. First priority;

A

Defibrillate

693
Q

PDPH. What not consistent

A

Headache immediately after procedure

694
Q

Phaeochromocytoma GA and epidural. On phenonoxybenzamine and metoprolol. On SNP and phentolamine. BP still high. Next step

A

IV Mg

695
Q

Pt with thallesemia trait for epidural. BP up, mild proteinuria, before placing epidural check;

A

Platelets

696
Q

Most common CHD

A

VSD

697
Q

Ach receptor down regulated in;

A

Organophosphate poisoning (and MG)

698
Q

MG. Need for post op VF ventilation except for;

A

sensitivity NMBD

699
Q

What is not a branch of Mandibular

A

Great auricular

700
Q

What not to use for seizure management in porphyria

A

Phenytoin

701
Q

Multiple sclerosis is exacerbate by

A

Heat

702
Q
With MS best to avoid;
Regional
Neostigmine
Panc
Sux
A

Six

703
Q

Question about sarin

A

Fasiculation

704
Q

Nerve to block for painful neuralgia parathetica

A

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve ( Bernard and Roth syndrome)

705
Q

Pyloric stenosis

A

Alkaline then acidic urine

706
Q

Which can deliver minute ventilation of greater than 5l/min using a 14G cannula used for needle cric

A

Jet ventilation using pressue 400 kpa

707
Q

Congenital diphragmatic hernia

A

There is hyperplasia of pulmonary arteries

708
Q

CO2 laser Does Not cause deep tissue damage because

A

Dissipation of energy

709
Q

Supine hypotension in late pregnancy associated with

A

High SVR

710
Q

Non normal distributed pain scores. What is best way to describe the spread of data

A

Inter quartile range

711
Q

Number of people correctly identified as not having disease

A

Specificity

712
Q

If a test is negative what proportion of people will not have disease

A

NPV

713
Q

Cryo insufficient in

A

Factor 9

714
Q

Most likely to result in MI

A

Post op myocardial ischaemia

715
Q

Awake patient with DI

A

Urine Na

716
Q

Worst coahulopthy after liver transplant

A

1-2 days

717
Q

ASA was first introduced to

A

Standardise physical status class of patients

718
Q

An incorrect statement about autonomic nervous system is;

A

Heart rate response is primarily

Mediated through sympathetic nervous system

719
Q

What is not true about flow volume loops

A

Restrictive loops have convex appearance expiraotry

720
Q

Cadaveric renal Tx. k has increased. Patient required

A

ABG to asses acid base status

721
Q

Pre ganglionic fibres pass to the

A

Coeliac ganglion

722
Q

BP measurement overestimates with

A

Atherosclerosis

723
Q

Post transfusion hepatitis in Australia is associated with

A

Hep b in majority

724
Q

In a trial 75 Patients have uncommon complication and 50 matched patients without complication are selected for comparison. From this data

A

The relative risk of this complication with the drug can not be determined

725
Q

Features of TURP all except

A

Tinnitus

726
Q

Scoliosis surgery. What is incorrect

A

Major neurological deficits that occur are due to posterior column

727
Q

Which hormone not released during surgery

A

TSH

728
Q

Paeds VF arrest.

Which is true

A

If resident to defin give amioderone 5mg/kg

729
Q

Smoked cannabis prior to OT. Taking it might lead to;

A

Decreased anaesthetic requirement

730
Q

Sens and spec 90% for disease with prevalence for 10%. What is ppv

A

50%