MCP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the central dogma?

A

Describes the flow of genetic info: replication, transcription translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of golgi apparatus?

A

Sort/transport proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the purpose of the endoplasmic reticulum?

A

Where cell membrane components are made and where post transcriptional modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What bases are pyrimidal and why?

A

Thymine, uracil and cytosine
Because they have a singular ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What bases are purines and why?

A

Guanine and adenine
Because they have a double ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How are nucletides joined together in DNA?

A

Phosphodiester bonds between 5’ and 3’ carbon on the deoxiribose sugar ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does antiparallel strands mean?

A

The strands are oriented with opposite polarities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a nuclesome?

A

Structure of beads of DNA in strings with histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why is the lagging strand known as that and what are the fragments called?

A

It is a discontinuous joining process which includes Okazaki fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What enzymes required in leading strand DNA replication?

A

Primase begins replication at fork and then followed by polymerase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What property of DNA polymerase leads to very few errors?

A

It is self correcting and any mistakes are cleaved and corrected (proof reading)
Has 2 sites for polymerizing and correcting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does the lagging strand replication differ to leading?

A

Multiple primers required so Okazaki fragments can be formed, joined by DNA Ligase. DNA polymerase builds fragments on 3’ end of primer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the proteins involved in DNA snyth known as?

A

The replication machine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the types of RNA and there purposes?

A

mRNA (proteins)
rRNA (Ribosomal structure and catalyze protein synth)
miRNA(Regulate gene expression)
tRNA (adaptor of mRNA and amino acid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the uses of non coding RNA?

A

RNA splicing
Gene regulation
Telomere maintenance
More

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are similarities between RNA polymerase and DNA?

A

Catalyze Phosphodiester bonds
Only adds in 5’-3’ direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are differences between RNA polymerase and DNA?

A

RNA doesnt need helicases
No primase required RNA
New RNA not attached to DNA
RNA no proof reading
RNA less accurate (1 in 10^4 vs 10^7 error)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where does RNA transcription begin and end?

A

Promoter (A/T) and terminator (G/C) regions cause RNA polymerase to act
Template strand always runs 3’-5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does the RNA polymerase recognize promoters and disconnect at terminators?

A

Sigma factor on polymerase regonises and detaches beginning transcription
Reaches terminator then RNA polymerase release RNA and DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the types of RNA polymerases and what do they synthesize production of?

A
  1. Most rRNA genes
  2. All protein coding genes, miRNA genes and other non coding DNA
  3. tRNA, 5S rRNA genes and other small RNA genes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the role of transcription factors in RNA polymerase and transcription?

A

They are groups of proteins that bind to promoter. They position the RNA polymerase and pull apart double helix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the region that transcription factors bind to?

A

TATA box (promoter regions), DNA sequence rich in AT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is produced mRNA processed?

A

1.RNA capping at 5’ end
2.RNA polyadenylation at 3’-end. Add poly-A tail
3. RNA splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When and where does capping occur in RNA?

A

After Roughly 25 nucleotides at 5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does RNA polyadenylation do?

A

Adds a tail of repeated adenine nucleotides at the 3’ end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is another unit describing molecular weight of a protien?

A

Dalton (Da) (g/mol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where and how are amino acids attached to RNA molecule?

A

3’ end and they are covalently attached

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a ribsome made of?

A

4 rRNA molecules and more than 80 proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the order of binding sites on a ribosome?

A

E , P, A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is first step in addition of an amino acid to a forming polypeptide chain?

A

Appropriate tRNA enters the A binding site pairing with complementary codon, no bases in-between A and P sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is a peptide bond formed in translation?

A

Carboxyl end uncoupled from tRNA molecule of p site amino acid and a peptide bond formed between carboxyl of P and amino of A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds?

A

The enzymatic site in the large sub unit of the ribsome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When and how do the sites change in translation?

A

Once a peptide bond formed large sub unit shifts the P site t-RNA moves to E, A site moves to P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How does E site eject spent tRNA

A

Small sub unit moves along with large back to original position, and the e site is ejected and translation can repeat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What can denature protiens?

A

Heat
pH
High Salt
Detergent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What interactions occur between proteins and amino acids molecules?

A

Disulfide bridges (cysteine)
H bonds
Electrostatic attraction
VDW forces
Covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the cell-cycle times in early frog embryo, yeast, intestinal epithelial cells and mammalian fibroblasts in culture?

A

Frog 30 mins
Yeast 1.5 hours
Intestinal 12 hours
Fibroblasts 20 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the Stages of the cell cycle?

A

(G0)
G1 phase
S phase
G2 phase
M phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the checkpoints for mitosis to begin?

A

Is all DNA replicated?
Is all DNA damage repaired?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the checkpoints for Anaphase and S phase to begin?

A

Anaphase: Are all chromosomes attached to mitotic spindles?
S Phase: Is the environment favorable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How do cyclin-dependent kinases cause cell cycle progression?

A

CDK activates cyclin, the cyclin accumulates and the cyclin conc is greater than that of active CDKs and next stage begins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What options are available to a cell between G1 and S phase?

A

Proceed to S
Pause
Withdraw to G0
Permanently withdraw and terminally differentiate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is happening in phase G0?

A

G0 is the resting phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What happens in G1 phase?

A

Mitogen stimulate cell proliferation. They do this by activating G-CDK and G1/S-CDKs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

How do G-CDK and G1/S-CDK stimulate proliferation?

A

They phosphorylate Rb protein (C1 cycle checkpoint), which then detach from transcription factors and lead to gene transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens in the M phase?

A

Mitosis and cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What changes occur in interphase?

A

Interphase: Cells inc in size, DNA replicatied and centromeres duplicate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What happens in pro-metaphase?

A

Pro: Nuclear envelope disappears, chromosomes attach to mitotic spindle via kinetochores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What happens in anaphase?

A

Duplicated chromosomes separate and migrate toward poles of cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What happens during prophase?

A

Prophase: Chromosomes condense, mitotic spindle formed after reassembling microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens in metaphase?

A

Meta: All chromosomes aligned at equator of spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What causes movement of chromosomes in Anaphase?

A

The kinetochores microtubules shortening and spindle poles moving outward.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What happens in Telophase?

A

Nuclear envelope reassembles and chromosomes reach spindle poles, 2 new nuclei developing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What happens during cytokinesis?

A

One cell divides into 2, an actin ring is formed which pinches cell into 2 daughter cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How do cells communicate with eachother?

A

Sending cells release ligands which bind to receptors only found on target cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the major components of tissues?

A

Cells and extracellular matrix proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What 3 things required for tissue engineering?

A

Scaffold, cells and growth factors/bioactive molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the purpose of Extracellular matrix proteins?

A

ECM proteins framework for tissues, cells receive adhesion cell signaling from ECM proteins (how cell are linked togther)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the most abundant Extracellular matrix protein and its organisation?

A

Collagen
Forms single polypeptide chains, then triple stranded molecules, then collagen fibrils and then fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How do cells bind to Extracellular matrix proteins?

A

Through integrin proteins and fibronectin. Fibronectin outside cell binds to collagen fibrils and integrin proteins in membrane bind to fibronectin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Where are the stem cells in lumen located and what is there purpose?

A

4th cell from bottom
To be self renewable and differentiate into other cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are embryonic stem cells and how can they be used in vitro?

A

Stem cells that can differentiate into any cell type and proliferate infinitely
They can be used to produce organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are induced pluripotent stem cells and their purpose?

A

Making embryonic stem cells from adult cells allowing production of non-proliferating cells without immune rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is cancer and metastasis?

A

Cancer: The disruption of orchestrated tissue manner (UNREGULATED PROLIFERATION)
Metastasis: movement of cancer around the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Why do cancer cells form?

A

1.Multiple hit hypothesis: mutations increases proliferation, leads to further mutation until it becomes invasive
2.DNA damage (UV/ageing)
3. DNA copy error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What genes effect cancer and how?

A

Oncogenic turning on increases cancer
Onco-suppressive turning off increases cancer
Immunosuppressive turning on inc cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What treatments are there for cancer and what is key for their success?

A
  1. Surgery (pre-metastasis)
  2. Radiotherapy
    3.Chemotherapy
  3. Immunotherapy
    EARLY DIAGNOSIS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How does immunotherapy help fight cancer?

A

1.Educate immune system to recognize cancer cells
2. Activate immune response to cancer cells
3. Cancer cells killed by immune system (usually does but is overwhelmed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the shapes of bacteria?

A

Spherical (cocci)
Rod (bacilli)
Spiral (Spiralli)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the sizes of mammalian cells and Ecoli

A

Mammalian cell 10-20 um
E Coli 2um

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the 4 ways of genes changing?

A

Intragenic mutation
Gene duplication
DNA segment shuffling (parts of genes swap)
Horizontal transfer (genes transferred among organisms)

71
Q

What is a gram negative cell wall?

A

Peptidoglycan cell wall in periplasmic space surrounded by outer membrane with O specific side chains

72
Q

What is a gram positive cell wall?

A

Lacks outer membrane but surrounded by Peptidoglycan layer thicker than gram negative

73
Q

What are some gram negative bacteria?

A

E.Coli
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (lung inf and uti)
Klebsiella (meningitis)
Gonorrhoeae
Acinetobacter baumanni (injured soldiers)
Enterbacteriaceae (uti, lung inf and blood inf)

74
Q

What are some gram positive bacteria?

A

Staphylococci
streptococci
Pneumococci
Corynebacterium diphtheriae (anthrax)

75
Q

What are cyanobacteria ?

A

Bacteria that fix nitrogen and CO2 from atmosphere, are photosynthetic and used to produce biofuels

76
Q

What is the purpose of a cytoskeleton in a cell?

A

For directed cell movements

77
Q

What are uses for insect cells in bioengineering?

A

More than 100 insect cell lines available for protein production and post translation modification of proteins also possible

78
Q

Amphipathic lipids and neutral lipids what are the differences?

A

Amphipathic are polar molecules (phospholipids)
Neutral and non polar (triglycerides)

79
Q

How are lipids classified and some examples?

A

COMPLEX LIPIDS: MEMBRANE (phospholipids, glycolipids and archaeal ether lipids)

STORAGE
(Triacylglycerols)

80
Q

What are the properties of fatty acids?

A

Solubility decreases as chain length increases
Melting point decrease as chain length inc or inc as C=C inc

81
Q

How can lipids structure themselves in water and how is it decided?

A

Micelle
Bilayer
Vesicle
By type of lipid and concentration

82
Q

What is the use of artificial membranes?

A

To create transport vessels for drug delivery/ gene therapy

83
Q

What is an integral and peripheral protein in the membrane?

A

Integral imbedded through full length of the membrane and peripheral doesn’t fully pass through

84
Q

How are peripheral proteins linked to the membrane?

A

Electrostatic/hydrogen bonds with lipids or integral proteins, at the polar head

85
Q

How are amphitropic and GPI linked proteins connected to membrane?

A

Conditionally attached by covalent interaction with lipids/carbohydrates or non covalently linked to lipids or proteins, these interactions are reversible

86
Q

What are the different types of integral proteins?

A

Monotopic: interact with one layer of membrane
Polytopic: Transverse (interact with both layers)

87
Q

How are integral proteins attached to membrane and how can they be removed?

A

Tightly associated with the hydrophobic region of membrane
Removed by detergents and exit with phospholipids attached.

88
Q

How do lateral and transverse diffusion of phospholipids in the membrane differ?

A

Lateral diffusion is very fast uncatalyzed
Transverse is very slow

89
Q

What enzymes catalyze the transverse diffusion and how to they differ in action?

A

Flippase: Moves phospholipid (PL) from outer to cytosolic leaf(inside) (ATP ACTIVE)
Flopase: Move PL from inside to out (ACTIVE)
Scarmblase: Moves lipids in either direction, controlled by eqb

90
Q

What is membrane fusion and what are some examples?

A

Membranes fusing without exposure of lipids to to aqueous solvent
Fusion of sperm and egg, viral infection, vesicles forming

91
Q

What causes membrane fusion?

A

It can be spontaneous or protein mediated

92
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary active transport?

A

Both against electrochemical gradient but PRIMARY uses ATP and SECONDARY uses carrier molecules

93
Q

How to V0V1 and F0F1 ATPASE differ?

A

ATP used in V0V1 to pump protons into vacuoles and lysosomes
Electrochemical used in F0F1 for movement of protons

94
Q

What are the tools used to engineer biological processes?

A

DNA
RNA
Proteins
Enzymes
Metabolism (pathways)

95
Q

How is DNA edited?

A

DNA synthesis and chemical synthesis of the desired DNA

96
Q

How is DNA copied ?

A

Copied by polymerase chain reaction: lots of free nucleotides, primers DNA denatured into dtrands, primers attach then replicated DNA

97
Q

How is DNA cut, pasted and read?

A

CUT by restriction enzymes if different length end with P group (sticky) if both same (blunt), also done using CRISPRras9 to trim
PASTED using ligase to join cut molecules together
READ by sequencing

98
Q

How can RNA be bioengineered?

A

Transcription engineering by synthesising promoter
OR
Creating ribosome binding sites on RNA molecules

99
Q

How can E.Coli be altered to fix atmospheric CO2?

A

Introducing rubisco and PRK from organic sources along with enzyme to get energy from methanol

100
Q

How can Yeast be altered to fix atmospheric CO2?

A

Make the yeast preform the Calvin cycle (add enzymes) which used CO2 and produces useful organic products

101
Q

How can a drug be synthesized using metabolic engineering and an example?

A

Put specific genes in yeast which allow it follow metabolic pathway to produce drugs
Anti malaria drugs (artemisin)

102
Q

How can engineering improve enzyme efficiency?

A

Increase amount of native enzyme, overexpress enzyme with more promoters and increase the amount or truncated enzyme to prevent negative feedback

103
Q

What are the advantages of microbial oils vs plants bio oils?

A

Not competitive for food
Shorter process cycles
Independent of climate and season
Easily scalable vs plants
Easier to metabolically engineer

104
Q

What are microbial oils and their disadvantages?

A

Oils derived from microbial sources
Expensive sugars for food
Aseptic conditions

105
Q

What is the definition of metabolism, catabolism and anabolism?

A

Meta: All chemical reactions within a cell
Cata: Energy yielding metabolism
Ana: Biosynthetic metabolism

106
Q

What are examples of catabolism?

A

Sugar metabolism
Oxidative phosphorylation
Amino acid catabolism
Fatty acid catabolism
TCA cycle

107
Q

What are the role of ATP/ADP , GTP/GDP ,NADH/NAD+ and FAD,FADH

A

ATP, GTP are energy releasing molecules
NADH,FAD have reducing power/ electron source

108
Q

What are the processes that breakdown Fatty acids and Amino acids into products for TCA cycle?

A

AA: AA degradation either into the TCA cycle or Acteyl CoA
Lipids: Beta-oxidation into Acetyl-CoA

109
Q

What enzyme catalyzes conversion of Glucose to Glucose 6-phosphate and what regulates the amount?

A

Hexokinase
Regulated by if Pi conc inc then more converted if G6P conc inc then negative regulation

110
Q

What enzyme involed in conversion of G6P into Fructose 1,6-biphosphate and how is it regulated?

A

Phosphofructokinase-1
Positevly regulated by AMP and ADP
Negatively regulated by ATP and citrate

111
Q

What enzyme catalyzes last step of glycolysis Phosphoenolpyruvate into Pyruvate and how is it regulated?

A

Pyruvate Kinase
Positively regulated by ADP
Negatively regulated by ATP and NADH

112
Q

What molecule is used in glycogenesis and produced glycogenolysis?

A

G6P

113
Q

What is the yield of energy per glucose in glycolysis?

A

2 ATP molecules
2 NADH
2 pyruvate

114
Q

What does each pyruvate molecule produce in the citric acid cycle?

A

2 CO2
1 GTP
3 NADH
1 FADH2

115
Q

How is pyruvate converted to Acetyl CoA?

A

Catalyzed by pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

116
Q

Why does ADP -> ATP reaction need oxidative phosphorylation to occur?

A

It is thermodynamically very unfavorable

117
Q

What is the proton-motive force equation?

A

PMF = chemical potential (Delat pH) + elctrochemical potential

118
Q

How much ATP can be produced per NADH and FADH2 molecule

A

NADH = 10
FADH2 = 6

119
Q

What is the proton motive force used for?

A

To move protons across membrane down electrochemical gradient out of inner mitochondrial membrane

120
Q

What regulates oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Positively regulated by ADP and Pi conc

121
Q

What is a use of TCA for bioengineers?

A

To produce molecules (succinate) which can be used in other processes such as bioplastic production

122
Q

What is the difference between glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids?

A

Glucogenic: Enter straight into TCA cycle or pyruvate
Ketogenic: Converted into Acetyl-CoA

123
Q

How many Acetyl-CoA and Co-Enzymes produced by beta oxidation of fatty acids?

A

Produces amount of Acetyl-CoA equal to chain length over 2.
And equal amounts of FADH2 and NADH

124
Q

Why are enzymes > inorganic catalysts?

A

Greater reaction specificity
Milder reaction conditions
Capacity for regulation
Higher reaction rates
Control of biological pathways

125
Q

What are cofactors and coenzymes?

A

Factors: inorganic ions which are covalently linked as a prosthetic group
Enzyme: Organic or metalorganic ions

126
Q

What is the difference between holoenzyme and and apoenzyme?

A

Holoenzyme is a catalytically activated enzyme bound to its cofactor
Apoenzyme doesnt have the cofactor

127
Q

What effect do enzymes have on Delta G?

A

None as dont effect eqb

128
Q

What is Eyring equation?

A

k =(KbT)/ (exp -Delta G/RT)
h
Kb is Boltzmann constant
h is Planck’s number

129
Q

What are the 3 catalytic mechanisms?

A

Acid-base catalysis: giving/taking protons
Covalent: Forms temporary covalent bond
Metal ion catalysis: Facilitate binding, stabilize - charges ,redox reactions (1/3 enzymes need M+)

130
Q

What are the equations for total enzyme and substrate in a reaction mixture?

A

E tot = [E] + [ES]
S tot = [S] + [ES] ~ [S]

131
Q

What is the steady state assumption of enzyme kinetics?

A

Rate of change in [ES] is 0 as formation rate = breakdown rate

132
Q

What is the Km equation?

A

Km = (k-1 +k2 )/
k1

133
Q

What is the eqaution for the velocity of an enzymatic reaction?

A

v = vmax [S]
Km + [S]

134
Q

What do Kcat and Km represent?

A

Kcat is the number of substrate molecules an enzyme can convert per second (turnover number)
Km is the Michaelis constant and measures substrate affinity for the enzyme

135
Q

What is the catalytic efficiency equation?

A

Kcat/Km = catalytic eff

136
Q

How to determine Km graphically?

A

It is half of Vmax on a Michaelis Menten plot

137
Q

What does the gradient, y intercept and x intercept represent on a Lineweaver Burk plot?

A

Gradient = Km / Vmax
Y inter = 1/Vmax
X inter = -1/Km

138
Q

When would a Lineweaver-Burk plot be preferred to a Michaelis Menten?

A

Michaelis Menten good for calculating Km and Vmax but you would use a Lineweaver-Burk for 2 substrate data or inhibtion

139
Q

Why would the velocity equation for enzymatic reaction not be accurate?

A

Limitations of measurement
OR
Prescence of an inhibtor

140
Q

What is a reversible/irreversible inhibitor?

A

Reversible binds to and can dissociate from enzyme, often structurally similar to sub
Irreversible react with enzyme and permanently stop enzyme

141
Q

What are the properties of competitive inhibtor and its effect on Lineweaver-Burk plot?

A

Binds with active site but doesn’t affect function
No change in Vmax but increases Km
Changes x intercept as -1/km and gradient

142
Q

Properties of uncompetitive inhibition and how it effects LB plot?

A

Only binds to the E-S complex and inhibits enzyme function
Vmax decrease and Km decrease but gradient remains constant (Parallel lines)

143
Q

What is mixed inhibition and effect on LB plot?

A

Binds to enzyme w/o or with substrate at regulatory site
Inhibits binding and catalysis
Vmax decrease and Km inc

144
Q

How can enzymes activity be regulated by bioengineers?

A

Covalent modification
Non-covalent modification (allosteric): +/- effectors, generally small chemicals
Enzyme abundance (gene expression, enzyme degradation)
Substrate conc (Transporters or metabolism)

145
Q

What RNA does type 1 RNA polymerase produce?

A

Most rRNA

146
Q

What RNA does type 2 polymerase produce?

A

All protein coding genes, miRNA genes and other non coding DNA

147
Q

What RNA does type 3 RNA polymerase produce?

A

tRNA, 5S rRNA genes and other small RNA genes

148
Q

What happens to pyruvate produced in glycolysis in anaerobic conditions?

A

In animals fermented to lactate to regenerate 2 NAD+
Yeast 2 Ethanol + 2CO2

149
Q

When are the CO2 molecules released in TCA cycle?

A

Isocitrate -> Alpha ketoglutarate
Alpha Ketoglutarate -> succinyl coA

150
Q

When is GTP released in TCA cycle?

A

Succinyl-CoA -> Succinate

151
Q

What step in TCA cycle produces FADH2?

A

Succinate -> Fumarate

152
Q

What steps produce NADH in TCA cycle?

A

Isocitrate -> Alpha ketoglutarate
Alpha ketoglutarate -> Succinyl-CoA
Malate -> oxaloacetate

153
Q

What molecules positively regulate TCA cycle?

A

Ca2+, ADP, AMP, CoA all positively regulate

154
Q

What molecules negatively regulate TCA cycle?

A

ATP, Ach-CoA, NADH fatty acids and molecules involved negatively regulate

155
Q

What complexes involved in oxidative phosphorylation of NADH?

A

Complex 1 -> 4

156
Q

Complexed involved in FADH oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Complexes 2 -> 4

157
Q

What reaction happens at complex 1 in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Electron from reduction of NADH releases energy to move 4H+ out of matrix and 2 H+ combine with carrier

158
Q

What reaction happens at complex 2 in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

FADH2 from succinate to fumarate releases energy to enter transport chain and add 2H to transport

159
Q

What reaction happens at complex 3 in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Energy from redox reaction of carrier molecule moves 2H+ across membrane and the reaction releases the 2 added previously

160
Q

What reaction happens at complex 4 in oxidative phosphorylation?

A

Cyt c moves and provides energy for water synthesis and movement of 2H+

161
Q

What is the equation for gluconegenesis?

A

2 pyruvate + 4 ATP + 2GTP + 2NADH -> Glucose + 4 ADP+ 2GDP + 6 Pi + 2 NAD+

162
Q

Steps of sucrose synth?

A

UDP-Glu + F6P to
Sucrose-6-P (and UDP) to
Sucrose (and Pi)

162
Q

Steps of Starch synthesis?

A

G6P to G1P (+ATP) to ADPglc to starch and ADP

163
Q

What are the condensation and dehydration reactions involved in the catalyzed steps of fatty acids?

A

Condensation: of growing chain with activated acetate
Dehydration: Alcohol to trans-alkene

163
Q

What is the role of Thioesterase in fatty acid synth?

A

Releases the fatty acid from ACP

164
Q

What amino acid is the precursor for purines and pyrimidine synth and which provides amino groups?

A

Purine = Gly
Pyrimidines = Asp

Amino groups Glu

165
Q

What is the purpose of ACP’s in fatty acid synthesis?

A

To carry fatty acid molecule to the next step of cycle

166
Q

What are the reduction reactions in fatty acid syntehsis?

A

Reduction: carbonyl to hydroxyl
Reduction: C=C to C-C

167
Q

What version of glycerol is used in lipid synthesis and what are its sources?

A

Glycerol-3-Phosphate
Reduction of glycolysis product
Phosphoralyation of glycerol

168
Q

Where does lipid synthesis take place and why?

A

Endoplasmic reticulum the membrane contains enzymes required (GPAT,LPAAT,PAP,DGAT)

169
Q

What is the difference between phospholipid synthesis and Triglyceride?

A

Phospholipid has 2 fatty acids added at ER and Triglyceride 3

170
Q

What is the intermediate before formation of phospholipid?

A

Phosphatidic acid

171
Q

How does amino acid synthesis differ in bacteria and mammals?

A

Mammals cant synthesize all necessary amino acids

172
Q

What 5 molecules (involved in sugar anabolism) can make amino acids in mammals?

A

Erthyrose-4-phosphate
Ribose-5-Phosphate
Pyruvate
Alpha-ketoglutarate
Oxaloacetate

173
Q

What are the prosthetic group co-enzymes in pyruvate dehydrogenase?

A

FAD, TPP and lipollysine

174
Q

What are the co-substrates in Pyruvate Dehydrogenase complex?

A

NAD+ and CoA-SH