MCHN Flashcards by John Paul Rama

This Causes erythrocytes to become distorted and sickle (crescent) shaped during hypoxic or acidotic episodes.
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
D. Folic Acid Deficiency

A. sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Genetic trait causes abnormality in one of two chains of hemoglobin.
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
D. Folic Acid Deficiency

B. Thalassemia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Large, immature RBCs
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
D. Folic Acid Deficiency

D. Folic Acid Deficiency

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

RBCs are small (microcytic) and pale (hypochromic).
A. Sickle cell anemia
B. Thalassemia
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
D. Folic Acid Deficiency

C. Iron Deficiency Anemia

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A pregnancy that occurs in the extrauterine area with implantation usually occurring in the ampulla of the fallopian tubes.
A. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
C. Placenta Previa
D. Abruptio Placenta

A. Ectopic Pregnancy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rare condition of abnormal development of placental villi into grape-like cysts filled with viscid material.
A. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
C. Placenta Previa
D. Abruptio Placenta

B. Gestational Trophoblastic Disease

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Improperly implanted placenta in lower uterine segment
A. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
C. Placenta Previa
D. Abruptio Placenta

C. Placenta Previa

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Premature separation of placenta from uterine wall.
A. Ectopic Pregnancy
B. Gestational Trophoblastic Disease
C. Placenta Previa
D. Abruptio Placenta

D. Abruptio Placenta

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Painless effacement and dilatation of the cervix that is not associated with contractions and usually occurs in the second trimester?
A. Incompetent Cervix
B. Premature Rupture of Membranes
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome
D. Hyperemesis Gravidarum

A. Incompetent Cervix

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Refers to membrane rupture prior to term gestation or before 38 weeks.
A. Incompetent Cervix
B. Premature Rupture of Membranes
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome
D. Hyperemesis Gravidarum

B. Premature Rupture of Membranes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Persistent, excessive vomiting that causes dehydration and starvation.
A. Incompetent Cervix
B. Premature Rupture of Membranes
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome
D. Hyperemesis Gravidarum

D. Hyperemesis Gravidarum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A disorder that can interfere with a woman’s ability to get and stay pregnant.
A. Incompetent Cervix
B. Premature Rupture of Membranes
C. Polycystic ovary syndrome
D. Hyperemesis Gravidarum

C. Polycystic ovary syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Retention of products of conception in utero after fetal death.
A. Incomplete abortion
B. Missed Abortion
C. Therapeutic Abortion
D. Habitual Abortion

B. Missed Abortion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Spontaneous abortions in three or more successive pregnancies
A. Incomplete abortion
B. Missed Abortion
C. Therapeutic Abortion
D. Habitual Abortion

D. Habitual Abortion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The loss of parts of products of conception and retention of others.
A. Incomplete abortion
B. Missed Abortion
C. Therapeutic Abortion
D. Habitual Abortion

A. Incomplete abortion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

RH Sensitization is a condition in which a Rh-positive women becomes pregnant with a Rh-negative fetus and may become sensitized to Rh antigen and develops anti- Rh antibodies.
A. True
B. False

B. False

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Predisposing factors of PIH includes all, EXCEPT:
A. Age: less than 17 or over 35
B. Low socio-economic status
C. Protein malnourishment
D. Multiparity

D. Multiparity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Confirmatory test for HIV/AIDS.
A. ELISA
B. Ultrasonography
C. Complete Blood Count
D. Western Blot

D. Western Blot

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A type of diabetes mellitus which that has a familial predisposition.
A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus
B. Type 2 diabetes Mellitus
C. Gestational diabetes mellitus
D. All of the choices

B. Type 2 diabetes Mellitus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A classification of a cardiac disease that does not allow a person to do physical activity and shows insufficiency even at rest.
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

D. Class IV

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Choose the primary distinction between a threatened and inevitable abortion.
A. Presence of cramping
B. Rupture of membranes
C. Pelvic pressure
D. Vaginal bleeding

B. Rupture of membranes

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A woman is admitted to the emergency department with a possible ectopic pregnancy. Choose the signs and symptoms that should be immediately reported to her physician.
A. Low levels of ẞ-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG)
B. Hemoglobin level of 11.5; hematocrit value of 34%
C. Light vaginal bleeding
D. Pulse increases from 78 to 100 bpm

D. Pulse increases from 78 to 100 bpm

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When caring for a woman who had a hydatidiform mole evacuated, the clinic nurse should primarily:
A. reinforce the need to delay a new pregnancy for 1 year.
B. ask the woman whether she has any cramping or bleeding.
C. observe the return of her blood pressure to normal.
D. palpate the uterus for the return to its normal size.

A. reinforce the need to delay a new pregnancy for 1 year.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is admitted with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 60 seconds, and a high uterine resting tone. She says she had some vaginal bleeding at home, and there is a small amount of blood on her perineal pad. The priority action of the nurse is to:
A. establish whether she is in labor by performing a vaginal examination.
B. ask her whether she has had recent intercourse or a vaginal examination.
C. evaluate the maternal and fetal circulation and oxygenation.
D. determine whether this is the first episode of pain she has had

C. evaluate the maternal and fetal circulation and oxygenation.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Nursing teaching for the woman who has hyperemesis gravidarum should include; A. adding favorite seasonings to foods while cooking B. eating simple foods such as breads and fruits. C. lying down on the right side after eating. D. eating creamed soup with every meal

B. eating simple foods such as breads and fruits.

When providing intrapartal care for a woman with severe preeclampsia, priority nursing care is to: A. maintain the ordered rate of anticonvulsant medications. B. promote placental blood flow and prevent maternal injury C. administer intravenous fluids and observe the urine output. D. reduce maternal blood pressure to the pre- pregnancy level.

B. promote placental blood flow and prevent maternal injury

The feature that distinguishes preeclampsia from eclampsia is the: A. amount of blood pressure elevation. B. edema of the face and fingers. C. presence of proteinuria. D. onset of generalized seizures.

D. onset of generalized seizures.

Confirmatory test for HIV-AIDS is: A. Western Blot B. CBC C. Elisa Test D. Ultrasound

A. Western Blot

The medication used to decrease fluid excess: A. Furosemide B. Glycosides C. Warfarin D. Heparin

A. Furosemide

Antiretroviral drugs is used for HIV-AIDS patients to: A. To decrease the occurrence of neonatal transmission B. Protect fetus from maternal secretions C. Delay neonatal death D. To prevent patient from further complications

A. To decrease the occurrence of neonatal transmission

Infants may be infected with HIV-Aids through: A. Breast milk B. Sexual contact C. Injections at birth D. All of the choices

A. Breast milk

Which of the following does not predisposes a woman to develop toxemias of pregnancy? A. less than 17 or over 35 B. Primiparity C. lodine malnourishment D. Low socio-economic status

C. lodine malnourishment

The most common complication for Premature Rupture of Membranes is: A. Infection B. Bleeding C. Hypertension D. Hemorrhage

A. Infection

Obtaining baseline vital signs is of essence especially for PROM patients. You must take the temperature every: A. 3 hours B. 4hours C. 2 hours D. 8 hours

C. 2 hours

Placenta previa is differentiated from abruptio placenta - of which the implantation of placenta in abruptio placenta is: A. Normal B. New normal C. Abnormal D. All of the choices

C. Abnormal

Other manifestation for Placenta Previa is: A. Painful bleeding B. Large uterus for gestational age C. Leaking of Amniotic fluid D. Painless bleeding

D. Painless bleeding

Which type of ultrasound is used primarily for first trimester pregnancy? A. Abdominal ultrasound B. Transvaginal ultrasound C. Skin ultrasound D. Chest ultrasound

B. Transvaginal ultrasound

Alcohol can pass through the umbilical cord. A. True B. False

A. True

Which one is not included in the management of diabetes? A. Exercise B. Diet B. Medication D. Heparin administration

D. Heparin administration

Complications of RH sensitization includes all, except: A. Erythroblastosis fetalis B. Hydrops fetalis C. Fetal death D. Neonatal anemia

D. Neonatal anemia

Upon assessment, it was found out that the fetus is on occiput transverse position, to relieve back pain of the mother, the nurse would encourage to: A. Encouraged mother to lie on her side opposite from the fetal back B. Assume a Knee-chest position C Do pelvic rocking D. Apply sacral counter-pressure with heel of the hand

D. Apply sacral counter-pressure with heel of the hand

if engagement does not occur in labor of a primigravida despite of strong contractions, you would suspect: A. Cephalo pelvic disproportion B. Fetal distress C. Prolapse of the umbilical cord D. All of the choices

A. Cephalo pelvic disproportion

A labor of more than 20 hours for a nulliparous woman is termed as: A. Prolonged Active phase B. Protracted descent C. Protracted active phase D. Prolonged Latent Phase

D. Prolonged Latent Phase

A woman who is 34 weeks pregnant is admitted with contractions every 2 minutes, lasting 60 seconds, and a high uterine resting tone. She says she had some vaginal bleeding at home, and there is a small amount of blood on her perineal pad. The priority action of the nurse is to: A. establish whether she is in labor by performing a vaginal examination. B. ask her whether she has had recent intercourse or a vaginal examination. C. evaluate the maternal and fetal circulation and oxygenation. D. determine whether this is the first episode of pain she has had.

C. evaluate the maternal and fetal circulation and oxygenation.

The woman has shoulder dystocia when giving birth. The nurse should expect: A. an immediate forceps delivery. B. the application of external cephalic version. C. oxytocin for labor augmentation. D. turning to a hands-and-knees position.

B. the application of external cephalic version.

Choose the primary nursing measure to promote fetal descent. A. Remind the woman to empty her bladder every 1 to 2 hours B. Assist fetal head rotation while performing a vaginal examination. C. Have the woman push at least three times with each contraction D. Promote the intake of glucose-containing fluids during labor

A. Remind the woman to empty her bladder every 1 to 2 hours

An infant weighing 8 pounds 10 ounces is vaginally born. Shoulder dystocia occurred at birth. Because of this problem, the nurse should assess the infant for: A. head swelling that does not extend beyond the skull bone. B. inward turning of the feet and/or legs. C. limited abduction of one or both hips D. creaking sensation when the clavicles are palpated.

D. creaking sensation when the clavicles are palpated.

The woman is having very rapid labor with her fourth child. What nursing measure is most appropriate to help her manage the pain? A. Offer meperidine (Demerol) when she reaches a 5 cm cervical dilation B. Keep her in an upright position until full cervical dilation. C. Avoid vaginal examinations during the peak of a contraction D. Coach her to use breathing techniques with each contraction as it occurs

D. Coach her to use breathing techniques with each contraction as it occurs

The woman telephones the labor unit and says she has been having back discomfort all day. She is at 32 weeks of gestation. The nurse should tell the woman that she: A. is experiencing discomfort that is typical of a late pregnancy. B. should come to the hospital if she has increased vaginal drainage. C. can increase her fluid intake to reduce the Braxton Hicks contractions. D. should come to the hospital for further evaluation.

D. should come to the hospital for further evaluation.

A few minutes after the woman's membranes rupture during labor, the fetal heart rate decreases from an average of 140 bpm to 75 to 80 bpm. The nurse should immediately: A. call the physician via the telephone and report the decreased fetal heart rate. B. assess for other signs that indicate chorioamnionitis. C. perform a vaginal examination and palpate for a prolapsed cord. D. insert an indwelling catheter to keep the bladder empty.

C. perform a vaginal examination and palpate for a prolapsed cord.

The woman telephones the labor unit saying that she has recent onset of pain between her shoulder blades that is worse when she breathes in. The nurse should: A. ask her whether she has had a recent upper respiratory infection. B. explain that the growing fetus reduces space for breathing. C. have her palpate her uterus for frequent contractions. D. tell her that she should promptly come to the hospital.

D. tell her that she should promptly come to the hospital.

Uteroplacental insufficiency A. Severe variable deceleration pattern B. Late Deceleration C. Decrease or absence of variability D. Early Deceleration

B. Late Deceleration

Compression of the umbilical cord A. Severe variable deceleration pattern B. Late Deceleration C. Decrease or absence of variability D. Early Deceleration

A. Severe variable deceleration pattern

Indicates depression of the autonomic nervous system that controls heart rate A. Severe variable deceleration pattern B. Late Deceleration C. Decrease or absence of variability D. Early Deceleration

C. Decrease or absence of variability

Considered ominous A. Severe variable deceleration pattern B. Late Deceleration C. Decrease or absence of variability D. Early Deceleration

B. Late Deceleration

Frequent contractions with decreased intensity and increased uterine tone A. Hypertonic Uterine Dysfunction B. Hypotonic Uterine Dysfunction C. Uterine Rupture D. Uterine inversion

A. Hypertonic Uterine Dysfunction

Drugs that are given to patients with premature labor to stop contraction: A. Tocolytic agents B. Oxytocin C. Antenatal Steroids D. All of the choices

A. Tocolytic agents

Partial inversion of the uterus can be managed by: A. Correcting through immediate replacement B. Bimanual technique performed by a physician C. Hysterectomy D. Blood Transfusion.

B. Bimanual technique performed by a physician

To prevent rapid delivery of the head, the nurse should A. Call for help B. Support the perineum C. Apply gentle pressure to the head D. Stay with the client

C. Apply gentle pressure to the head

All are management of complete uterine rupture, except: A. Management of shock B. Repair of the rupture C. Blood replacement D. Hysterectomy

B. Repair of the rupture

This is a double-stranded helical structure comprised of four different bases, the sequence of which codes for the assembly of amino acids to make a protein. A. Chromosomes B. Genes C. Cells D. DNA

D. DNA

The following are the test included in Newborn Screening, Except A. Congenital Hypothyroidism B. Phenylketonuria C. Congenital Hyperthyroidism D. Galactosemia

C. Congenital Hyperthyroidism

Genetic disorders include all, except: A. Down Syndrome B. Attention Deficit Disorder C. Pulmonary Tuberculosis D. Cystic Fibrosis

B. Attention Deficit Disorder

This is a test done to pregnant women to assess fetal structures, placenta and amniotic fluid. A. Ultrasound B. Chorionic Villi Sampling C. Amniocentesis D. Alpha-feto Protein

A. Ultrasound

Identify the Philosophy of MCHN. Tick all that applies: A. Is community-centered B. Is research-centered C. The mother of the child is more important than the father. D. Is based on nursing theory

A. Is community-centered B. Is research-centered D. Is based on nursing theory

Which of the following is not included in the BeMONC services? A. Removal of retained placental products B. Administration of dose of parenteral anticonvulsants C. Provision of surgical delivery D. Newborn resuscitation

C. Provision of surgical delivery

Post partum teaching includes all, except: A. Newborn screening B. Importance of Breastfeeding C. Schedule of Intrapartum Visits D. Birth Certificate

C. Schedule of Intrapartum Visits

The statement "risk of complications increases after the second birth" is: A. True B. False

A. True

With the choices below, identify the people who are in need of genetic assessment and counselling. Shade all that applies. A. Couples who experienced two or more miscarriages B. Any individual with a genetic or potentially genetic disorder. C. Pregnant women who will turn 25 or older at the time of the delivery > D. Parents of a child with a birth defect, mental retardation or known or possible with genetic disorder.

B. Any individual with a genetic or potentially genetic disorder. D. Parents of a child with a birth defect, mental retardation or known or possible with genetic disorder.

The following must deliver in the hospital, except: A. Multifetal pregnancy B. Cephalo-pelvic disproportion C. Pregnancy more than 2 D. Previous caesarian delivery

C. Pregnancy more than 2

A BEMONC facility must be composed of the following staff, except: A. Medical Doctor B. Registered Nurse C. Registered Midwife D. Registered BHW

D. Registered BHW

The statement that says" most babies with metabolic disorder looks normal at birth" is: A. True B. False

A. True

The higher the APGAR Score of an infant indicates that the infant is in need of resuscitation. A. True B. False

B. False

This is the provision of basic emergency obstetric and newborn care with the of surgical delivery and blood bank services and other specialized obstetric interventions. A. CEMONC C. BEMONC B. EINC D. APGAR Scoring

A. CEMONC

The male chromosome contains one Y sex chromosome and one X sex chromosome. A. True B. False

A. True

How many doses of Tetanus Toxoid vaccination a mother should receive before she can be considered a Fully Immunized Mother? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2

A. 5

The basic unit of inherited information is called: A. Genes B. Hair C. Cells D. Chromosome

A. Genes

A negative Newborn Screening Result means the newborn is free from metabolic disorders. A. True B. False

A. True

Vitamin A supplementation for pregnant women can be given anytime during pregnancy. A. True B. False

B. False

Birth spacing of how many years can help the mother completely develop her health? A. 1-2 years B. 2-3 years C. 3-5 years D. 9 months

C. 3-5 years