Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MCAT Content > MCAT Psychology & Sociology > Flashcards

MCAT Psychology & Sociology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
MCAT flashcards
1
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

A

Central Nervous System and Peripheral Nervous System.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the main components of the central nervous system?

A

Brain and spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the main components of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Cranial nerves and spinal nerves.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the different parts of the brain?

A

cerebrum, cerebral hemisphere, brain stem, and cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are afferent neurons?

A

carry information into the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are efferent neurons?

A

carry information away from the central nervous system to the periphery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the basic functions of the nervous system?

A

Motor: skeletal muscle movement, tone, and posture.

Sensory: the senses

Automatic: reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the higher functions of the nervous system?

A

cognition, emotions, and consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Synapse

A

the place where the neuron connects and communicates with each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

is the synapse between a lower motor neuron and a skeletal muscle cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does the motor unit consist of?

A

Lower motor neurons and efferent neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the lower motor neurons in the cranial nerves control?

A

control the skeletal muscles of the head and the neck.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does the lower motor neurons in the spinal nerves control?

A

controls all of the skeletal muscle cells in the limbs and the trunk.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does abnormality of the motor unit result in?

A

weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does abnormality of the lower motor unit result in?

A

lower motor neuron signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the lower motor neuron signs?

A

atrophy, fasiculations, hypotonia, hyporeflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is atrophy?

A

decreased bulk of skeletal muscle, decreased size.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are fasiculations?

A

involuntary twitches of skeletal muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Hypotonia

A

decreases tone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hyporeflexia

A

decreased muscle stretch reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mechanoreceptor

A

respond to physical forces.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nocireceptor

A

can create the sensation of pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Thermoreceptor

A

detect temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Schwann cells

A

create myelin sheath.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Reflex

A

response of a stimulus that doesn’t require the involvement of consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Afferent reflex

A

bringing information about the stimulus into the central nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Efferent reflex

A

carrying information away from the central nervous system in order to induce a response in the periphery.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

__________ neurons make up the efferent part of the reflex.

A

Lower motor neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

__________ neurons make up the afferent part of the reflex.

A

Somatosensory neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the autonomic nervous system?

A

regulates involuntary physiologic processes including heart rate, blood pressure, respiration, digestion, and sexual arousal, doesn’t require the involvement of consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the two divisions of the autonomic nervous system?

A

sympathetic nervous system and parasympathetic nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is sympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A

fight or flight functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is parasympathetic nervous system responsible for?

A

rest and digest functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Where is most of the gray matter in the spinal cord?

A

The gray matter is on the inside and contains neuron somas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where is most of the white matter in the spinal cord?

A

The white matter is on the outside and contains myelinated axons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where is most of the gray matter in the brain?

A

Gray matter is on the outside of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the gray matter in the brain called?

A

The cerebral cortex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where is most of the white matter in the brain?

A

White matter is on the inside of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are upper motor neurons?

A

controls the lower motor neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The right side of the brain controls the _________ side of the body, in terms of controlling the skeletal muscles.

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the corticospinal tract?

A

upper motor neurons that will control lower motor neurons in the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the corticobulbar tract?

A

upper motor neurons that will control lower motor neurons in the brain stem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Upper motor neuron abnormality

A

can occur with or without weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the upper motor neuron abnormality signs?

A
  • Hyperreflexia
  • Clonus
  • Hypertonia
  • Extensor Plantar Response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hyperreflexia

A

increase in muscle stretch reflexes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Clonus

A

rhythmic contraction of antagonist muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Antagonist muscles

A

muscles that have opposite effects on the joints.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hypertonia

A

increased tone of skeletal muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Extensor Plantar Response

A

toes move away from the bottom of the foot when bottom of foot is scraped. Normal response is toes flex and go towards bottom of foot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the four parts of the cerebral cortex?

A

frontal lobe, parietal lobe, occipital lobe, temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the frontal lobe responsible for?

A

Motor cortex
Prefrontal cortex
Broca’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Motor Cortex is responsible for…

A

body movements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Prefrontal Cortex is responsible for….

A

executive functions such as thinking and problem solving, supervises and directs all areas of the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Broca’s Area

A

part of the brain that is associated with speech production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the parietal lobe responsible for?

A

somatosensory cortex and spatial processing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the somatosensory cortex?

A

associated with feeling, receives information from all over the body about touch, and pressure, and temperature, and pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sensorimotor cortex

A

motor cortex + somatosensory cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the occipital lobe responsible for?

A

vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is the temporal lobe responsible for?

A

auditory processing, Wernicke’s area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is Wernicke’s area?

A

responsible for language reception and language comprehension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the function of the corpus callosum?

A

allows for the communication between the left and right hemispheres.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What are some parts of the old brain, the primitive brain structures?

A

brain stem, reticular formation, thalamus, cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the two structures that the brain stem consists of?

A

medulla and pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Reticular formation

A

acts as a filter and extends into the thalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Thalamus

A

acts as a relay station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Cerebellum

A

coordinate voluntary movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Contralateral

A

the left side of the brain controls the right side of the body and the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body.

Exception: smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Dominant hemisphere

A

right handed people are left brained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which hemisphere is the dominant for the vast majority of people?

A

Left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the parts of the dominant hemisphere?

A

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are the parts of the non-dominant hemisphere?

A

emotional tone and language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Brainstem

A

connects all the parts of the nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Hypothalamus

A

Link between endocrine and nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Pituitary gland

A

is the master gland of all glands. Controls the functions of many of the other endocrine glands.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Primary cortex

A

performs basic motor or sensory function.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Association cortex

A

associating different types of function to perform more complex functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which hemisphere of the brain is language predominant in?

A

the left hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which hemisphere of the brain is attention predominant in?

A

the right hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Neurotransmitters

A

are molecules that communicate between neurons and their target cells and chemical synapses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Is glutamate a stimulatory or inhibitory neurotransmitter?

A

stimulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the inhibitory neurotransmitters?

A

GABA in the brain and Glycine in the spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Substantia Nigra

A

sends axons releasing dopamine to a couple of nuclei deep in the cerebral hemisphere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the disease that is associated with a problem of substantia nigra getting dopamine into striatum?

A

Parkinson’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Cerebral localization

A

specific parts of the brain could control specific behavior, thoughts, and personality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Broca’s Aphasia

A

loss of ability to understand or express speech. Damage to Broca’s area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How can we study brain structure?

A

CAT scans and MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is EEG?

A

measures the electrical activity that is generated by neurons in the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is MEG?

A

Magnetic fields that are produced by the electrical currents in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

fMRI

A

functional magnetic resonance imaging, active parts of brain use more oxygen compared to inactive ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

PET

A

positron emission spectroscopy, radioactive glucose injected. Active parts of brain use more glucose compared to inactive parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Endocrine system

A

system of glands that produce chemical messages called hormones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are three different classes of hormones?

A
  1. proteins and polypeptide hormones
  2. steroid hormones: derived from cholesterol
  3. Tyrosine derivatives: derived from tyrosine.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are some of examples of tyrosine derivative hormones?

A

thyroid and catecholamines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Autocrine hormones

A

hormones that elicit a response in the cells that made them or the cell immediately next to the cell that makes the hormone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Paracrine hormones

A

hormones that elicit a regional response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Endocrine hormones

A

function at a distance in the body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Thyroid gland

A

regulates our body’s metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

parathyroid gland

A

regulates our body’s calcium levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What are the two parts of the adrenal gland?

A

cortex and medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What hormones does the cortex of the adrenal gland release?

A

cortisol and aldosterone which regulate fluid volume and stress response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What hormone does the medulla of the adrenal gland release?

A

catecholamine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Which hormones does the gonads stimulate?

A

FSH and LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Gonads

A

release sex hormones, estrogen in female and testosterone in males.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Pancreas

A

release insulin and glucagon that regulate blood glucose levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Proprioception

A

knowing where you are in space.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Weber’s Law

A

delta I/I = k
Rate of increment threshold to background intensity is constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Just noticeable difference (jnd) a.k.a difference threshold

A

threshold at which you are able to notice an increase or a change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Absolute threshold

A

minimum intensity of a stimulus that is needed to detect a particular stimulus 50% of the time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Subliminal

A

stimulus that we cannot detect 50% of the time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The Vestibular system

A

sense of balance and spatial orientation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

cochlea

A

portion of inner ear that is full of specialized auditory receptors that process sound and send information about it to our brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

otolithic organs

A

helps us detect linear acceleration and head positioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Signal detection theory

A

at what point is a signal strong enough that we are able to notice it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

If signal is present and I say yes

A

hit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

If signal is present and I say no

A

miss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

If signal is absent and I say yes

A

false alarm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

If signal is absent and I say no

A

correct rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Conservative strategy

A

no unless you are 100% sure that the signal is present.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Liberal strategy

A

always say yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Bottom-Up Processing

A

stimulus influences our perception.
Ex: what am I seeing?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Top-Down Processing

A

uses your background knowledge to influence perception.
Ex: Is that something I’ve seen before?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Gestalt Principles

A

explains how we perceive things the way we do.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Law of similarity

A

items that are similar are grouped together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Law of pragnanz

A

reality is reduced to its simplest form.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Law of proximity

A

objects that are close together are grouped together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Law of continuity

A

lines are seen as following the smoothest path.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Law of closure

A

objects grouped together are seen as a whole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What are monocular depth cues?

A

motion parallex and interposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Motion parallex

A

objects moving at a constant speed across the frame will appear to move a greater amount if they are closer to an observer (or camera) than they would if they were at a greater distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Interposition

A

distances of two separate objects are judged based on the fact that one object partially obscures or overlaps the other object.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Binocular disparity

A

relies on different images seen by each eye to determine depth but it still takes each image as a separate piece of information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Convergence

A

relies on both eyes working together to create a single image that helps to determine depth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the sclera?

A

serves to protect the eye, and it also serves as an attachment point for muscles so we can move our eyeball around.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Cornea

A

Transparent, protects front of eye and serves to bend just a little bit of light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Conjunctiva

A

thin layer of epithelial cells that protects the cornea from friction, helps moisturize cornea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Aqueous humor

A

found inside of cornea, chamber filled with water and salt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Lens

A

(biconvex) can change shape, get thinner or thicker depending on whether an object is nearby or far away.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

_____________ change the shape of the lens.

A

ciliary muscle and suspensory ligaments change the shape of the lens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Iris

A

actually the part of the eye that is colored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Pupil

A

hole, size of hole controlled by iris.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Vitreous humor

A

transparent, helps suspend the lens in place and provides some structure for the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Retina

A

coats entire back of the eyeball.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What cells are retina made out of?

A

photoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Optic nerve

A

retina sends fiber through optic nerve which gets sent to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Choroid

A

network of blood vessels that nourishes the retinal cells and other cells within the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Fovea

A

in the very center filled with cones and allows us to see very high in detail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What are the two important cells that the retina contains?

A

rod and cone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Rods

A

really sensitive to light and really good for night vision.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Cones

A

responsible for color vision
there are red, green, blue cones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Phototransduction cascade

A

sets of things that occur as soon as light hits a rod or a cone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What happens when the light hits retina?

A
  1. light hits retina
  2. Rod turns off
  3. This turns on bipolar cells.
  4. Turns on retinal ganglion cell which sends axon to optic nerve.
  5. Optic nerve gives information to brain.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What proteins are contained in the disks of rods?

A

Rhodopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Explain the steps of phototransduction cascade.

A
  1. Retinal sits in rhodopsin.
  2. Light hits retinal and changes conformation from bent to being straight.
  3. Rhodopsin changes shape.
  4. Transducin breaks away from rhodopsin
  5. Alpha subunit comes to another part of disk and bonds to protein called phophodiesterase.
  6. Phosphodiesterase converts cGMP to GMP.
  7. Decrease in cGMP, causes sodium channels to close.
  8. Cell hyperpolarizes and turns off.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Why are rods on when there is no light?

A

sodium channels are open.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Photoreceptors

A

very specialized type of nerve that’s able to take in light and convert it into a neural impulse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Where are rods found?

A

in the periphery of the eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Where are cones found?

A

near the fovea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Differences between rods and cones

A

rods: sensitive to light, tells us whether or not light is present.

slow recovery time: it takes a lot longer for the rod to be able to fire another action potential.

cones: are not sensitive to light, results in color vision

cones have fast recovery time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Blind spot

A

back of fovea, no photoreceptors are present in this area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Optic chiasm

A

the point where the optic nerves coming from left and right eye converge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

All light that hits the ____________ side of either eyeball does not cross the optic chiasm.

A

temporal side.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

All information entering the eye from the right visual field goes to the ________ side of the brain.

A

left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Trichromatic theory of color vision

A

human eyes only perceive three colors of light: red, blue, and green.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Parvo pathway

A

responsible for figuring out what the shape of an object is. Allows us to see things in color.

Has high spatial resolution, poor temporal resolution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

If something is moving we cannot use _________________ pathway we use __________________ pathway.

A

parvo pathway
magno pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Magnopathway

A

set of specialized cells that allow us to encode motion.

high temporal resolution, poor spatial resolution, does not encode color.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Parallel Processing

A

being able to see color, form, and motion all at the same time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Photopic vision

A

occurs at high light levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Mesopic vision

A

occurs at dawn or dusk and involves both rods and cones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Scotopic vision

A

occurs at very low levels of light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Selective attention

A

ability to maintain attention while being presented with masking or interfering stimuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Joint Attention

A

focusing of attention on an object by two separate individuals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Divided Attention

A

occurs when an individual must perform two tasks which require attention, simultaneously.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Directed Attention

A

allows attention to be focused sustainably on a single task.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

How does a sound wave move through the ear?

A

pinna

auditory canal

eardrum, eardrum starts to vibrate and causes 3 bones (malleus, incus, stapes) to vibrate.

stapes attached to oval window

cochlea contains fluid, fluid goes all around cochlea until it reaches tip of cochlea.

Fluid goes in reverse direction and goes through a round window.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is the organ of corti composed of?

A

basilar membrane and the tectorial membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

External ear

A

from the pinna including the external auditory meatus and tympanic membrane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

Middle ear

A

malleus incus stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Inner ear

A

cochlea and semicircular canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Describe structure of cochlea

A

cochlea has hair cells on basilar membrane, the hair cell contain a sharp edge that is called hair bundle.

Hair bundle has a protein called kinocillium and tip link.

These are attached to a gate of potassium channel

potassium and calcium flow into cell

cell fires an action potential
spiral ganglion activated
another cell activated
signal goes to brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Basilar tuning

A

brain is able to differentiate between sounds with a very high frequency and sounds with a very low frequency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Which hair cells are activated in the cochlea by high frequency sounds?

A

hair cells at the base of the cochlea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Which hair cells are activated in the cochlea by low frequency sounds?

A

hair cells at the very apex of the cochlea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Primary Auditory cortex

A

found in the brain, responsible for receiving all of the information from the cochlea.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Tonotypical Mapping

A

mapping of sounds with a higher frequency vs. sounds of a lower frequency.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Cochlear Implant

A

surgical procedure that attempts to restore some degree of hearing to individuals that have sensorineural hearing loss.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

Sensorineural hearing loss

A

nerve deafness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Sensory Adaptation

A

a change over time and the responsiveness of the sensory receptor to a constant stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Adaptation

A

different cells in our body responding to a change in stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

What results in down regulation of sensory receptor in our body?

A

sensory adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

What results in up regulation of stimulus in environment?

A

amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Sensory strip

A

a specialized part of the brain that receives sensory input from entire body.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Sensory strip contains ___________.

A

somatosensory homunculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Kinesthesia

A

movement of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Somatosensory homunculus

A

map of body in our brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

What receptor is both responsible for pain and temperature?

A

TRPV1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

How is the TRPV1 receptor activated?

A

activated by changes in temperature and molecules such as capsaicin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Ruffini cylinder

A

has a large receptive field and responds to stretch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Merkel receptor

A

has a small receptive field and is important in sensing fine details.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Meissner corpuscle

A

has a small receptive field and is important in grip control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Pacinian corpuscle

A

has a fast adapting (FA II) mechanoreceptor that fires to on and off stimulus and responds to vibration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

Phantom pain

A

is the perception of pain in an area of the body which has been removed or lost due to injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Pheromones

A

chemical signal that is released by one member of a species and is sensed by another member of the species triggering an innate response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

What important structure is found in the nasal passage?

A

olfactory epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What structure makes up the olfactory epithelium?

A

accessory olfactory epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Accessory olfactory epithelium

A

sends projections to accessory olfactory bulb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

What structure is found in the accessory olfactory epithelium?

A

vomeronasal system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

What cells make up the vomeronasal system?

A

apical cell and basal cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

Describe the set of steps that take place in the vomeronasal system.

A
  1. molecule activates receptor on basal cell.
  2. basal cell will send axon through accessory olfactory epithelium.
  3. accessory olfactory bulb.
  4. synpase onto glomerulus
  5. mitral or tufted cell
  6. send axon to brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Amygdala

A

part of brain responsible for emotion and aggression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

signal transduction

A

molecule binds to receptor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Do humans rely on pheromones?

A

Very little

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Do humans have an accessory olfactory bulb?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Olfactory bulb

A

bundle of nerves sends little projections through the cribiform plate into the olfactory epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

Cribiform plate

A

separates brain from olfactory epithelium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

How does odor signal to the brain?

A
  1. odor
  2. GPCR
  3. G-protein activated
  4. Ion channel
  5. Action potential
  6. Mitral/Tufted cell
  7. Brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Olfaction is

A

smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Gustation is

A

taste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

What are five different things humans can taste?

A
  1. bitter
  2. salt
  3. sweet
  4. sour
  5. umami- glutamate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

Gustatory cortex

A

part of brain that receives input from various taste cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Which tastes are involved in PCR pathway?

A

sweet, umami, bitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Which tastes are involved in ion channels?

A

sour, salty.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Chorda tympani

A

branch of the 7th cranial nerve and transmits information from receptors in the anterior region of the tongue to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

The glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves

A

9th and 10th cranial nerves transmit information from the posterior region of the tongue and the throat to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

Taste is perceived from ________ side while vision, hearing, and touch input is mostly _________.

A

ipsilateral; contralateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Labeled-Line theory of olfaction

A

describes a scenario where each receptor would respond to a specific stimuli and is directly linked to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Vibrational Theory of olfaction

A

asserts that the vibrational frequency of a molecule gives that molecule its specific odor profile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

Steric theory of olfaction (shape theory)

A

asserts that odors fit into receptors similar to a lock-and-key model.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

Gate theory of olfaction

A

is a theory of the processes of nociception not olfaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
230
Q

Aphasia

A

describes the loss of the ability to process or create language.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
231
Q

Agnosia

A

describes the loss of the ability to process sensory stimuli in a single modality.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
232
Q

Anosmia

A

describes the inability to perceive an odor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
233
Q

Orbitofrontal cortex

A

first place in the brain where the olfaction and gustation systems integrate.

234
Q

Consciousness

A

awareness of our selves and our environment.

235
Q

Sleep Stage 1 (N1)

A

states between sleep and wakefulness. Theta waves are present. In this stage people experience hypnagonic hallucinations and hypnic jerks.

236
Q

Hypangonic hallucinations

A

include hearing or seeing things that are not there.

237
Q

Hypnic jerks

A

feeling of falling or muscle twitches.

238
Q

Stage 2 Sleep (N2)

A

slightly deeper stage of sleep, harder to wake person up, more theta waves, K complexes and sleep spindles are present at this stage.

239
Q

K-complex

A

suppress cortical arousal, help with sleep-based memory consolidation.

240
Q

Sleep spindles

A

bursts of rapid rhythmic brain activity.

241
Q

Sleep Stage 3 (N3)

A

slow wave sleep, delta waves. Really difficult to wake person up.

242
Q

At which stage of sleep does sleep walking and sleep talking occur?

A

Stage 3 sleep (slow wave sleep)

243
Q

Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep

A

paralysis of muscles, active mind.

244
Q

Sleep cycle

A

N1 —> N2 —> N3 —> N2 —> REM —> N1

245
Q

Circadian rhythm

A

regular bodily rhythms across a 24 hour period.

246
Q

Freud’s idea of why we dream

A

dreams are our unconscious thoughts and desires that needs to be interpreted.

247
Q

Infants spend most time in ________ sleep.

A

REM

248
Q

Freud’s manifest content

A

what is happening in our dreams, the content of our dreams.

249
Q

Freud’s latent content

A

hidden meaning behind a dream.

250
Q

Activation-Synthesis hypothesis

A

dreams are simply a part of our brain, the frontal part of the cerebral cortex trying to make sense of electrical impulses in our brain stem.

251
Q

Insomnia

A

persistent problems in falling or staying asleep.

252
Q

Narcolepsy

A

disorder when people can’t help themselves from falling asleep.

253
Q

Sleep apnea

A

people stop breathing while they sleep. No N3 sleep (slow-wave sleep).

254
Q

What is sleep apnea called when there is a problem in the airway?

A

Obstructive sleep apnea.

255
Q

What is sleep apnea called when there is a problem in the brain?

A

central sleep apnea, problem with control system for ventilation.

256
Q

Polysomnography

A

sleep study

257
Q

Cheynes-Stroke breathing

A

crescendo-descrescendo pattern of breathing in central sleep apnea that is a result of heart failure, strokes, and renal failure.

258
Q

What is sleep apnea called when there is a problem in the lungs?

A

hypoventilation, CO2 increases, O2 decreases. Problems with lungs/chest, due to drugs such as narcotic painkillers, obesity. Right sided heart failure.

259
Q

Arrhythmia

A

abnormal heart rhythms over time.

260
Q

polycythemia

A

very elevated amount of red blood cells in our blood.

261
Q

Hypnosis

A

is a changed state of awareness and increased relaxation that allows for improved focus and concentration.

262
Q

Meditation

A

training people to self regulate their attention and awareness.

263
Q

Beta endorphin

A

opioid neuropeptide that have a role in pain perception, some behavioral patterns, and obesity.

264
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory neurotransmitter and has a role in decreasing anxiety.

265
Q

Serotonin

A

important in mood regulation, memory, and sleep.

266
Q

Arm

A

refers to a group of participants in a randomized controlled trial, who are allocated a particular treatment.

267
Q

Placebo comparator

A

only the placebo was administered.

268
Q

Experimental arm

A

group receiving the treatment to be tested.

269
Q

Sham comparator

A

mock therapy

270
Q

Active comparator arm

A

group of participants who receive a treatment that is considered effective.

271
Q

Nicotine

A

agonist of acetylcholine receptor.

272
Q

Positive symptoms

A

delusions, hallucinations.

273
Q

Negative symptoms

A

loss of emotional affect and social withdrawal.

274
Q

What are the four dopamine pathways?

A

nigrostriatal, mesocortical, mesolimbic, tuberoinfundibular.

275
Q

Nigrostriatal pathway

A

associated with motor planning and purposeful movement.

276
Q

Mesocortical pathway

A

associated with cognition, affect, and negative symptoms of schizophrenia.

277
Q

Tuberoinfundibular pathway

A

one of the major dopamine pathways in the brain originating from hypothalamus. Release of dopamine regulates prolactin secretion by the pituitary gland.

278
Q

Chronotype

A

time which person feels most alert.

279
Q

Dopamine

A

associated with reward, learning, and attention.

280
Q

Serotonin

A

associated with mood, appetite, social behavior, and memory.

281
Q

Hypocretin/orexin

A

in the central nervous system, controls sleep and arousal.

282
Q

Psychoactive drugs

A

drugs that alter our consciousness.

283
Q

What are the four main classes of psychoactive drugs?

A
  1. depressants
  2. hallucinogens
  3. stimulants
  4. opiates
284
Q

What effect do stimulants have?

A

excite our central nervous system. Increases heart rate, blood pressure, and alertness.

285
Q

What are some examples of stimulants?

A

caffeine, amphetamine, methamphetamine, cocaine, nicotine, ectasy.

286
Q

What effect do hallucinogens have?

A

distorted perceptions. Hallucinations, sensations.

287
Q

What are some examples hallucinogens?

A

LSD, psilosibian, peyote,

288
Q

What effect do opioids have?

A

depress central nervous system functions; decrease heart rate, blood pressure.

289
Q

Analgesic

A

reduce the perception of pain. Ex: morphine and heroin.

290
Q

__________ disrupts REM sleep.

A

Alcohol

291
Q

What are the side effects of barbiturates?

A

reduced memory, judgement, and concentration.

292
Q

Are benzodiazepenes inhibitory or stimulatory neurotransmitters?

A

inhibitory, enhances brain’s response to GABA.

293
Q

Explain the biochemical pathway of benzodiazepenes.

A
  1. benzodiazepenes open up GABA activated channels in neurons.
  2. This allows more chloride ions to enter the neuron and make it more negatively charged.
  3. This makes the neuron more resistant to excitation.
294
Q

Which benzodiazepenes are preferred for insomnia?

A

short acting benzodiazepenes and intermediate acting benzodiazepenes.

295
Q

Which benzodiazepenes are preferred for anxiety?

A

long-acting benzodiazepenes.

296
Q

Why are opiates used to treat pain?

A

opiates act at body’s receptor sites for endorphins.

297
Q

Cocaine

A

releases dopamine, serotonin, norephinephrine. Depletes brain’s supply.

298
Q

Ectasy

A

increases dopamine and serotonin leading to feeling of euphoria.

299
Q

LSD

A

interferes with serotonin transmission. Visual as opposed to auditory.

300
Q

What are the different routes for drug entry?

A

oral, inhalation, injection, transdermal, and intramuscular.

301
Q

Describe the oral route of entry.

A

swallow substance, slowest route of entry because it has to go through gastrointestinal tract.

302
Q

Describe the inhalation route of entry.

A

smoke or snorted faster.

303
Q

Describe the injection route of entry.

A

intravenous injection, goes right into blood vein.

304
Q

What is the transdermal route of entry?

A

drug is absorbed through the skin.

305
Q

What is the intramuscular route of entry?

A

needle is stuck directly into the muscle, can be very fast.

306
Q

Describe the reward pathway in the brain.

A
  1. dopamine is produced in the ventral tegemental area (VTA).
  2. Dopamine is send to the amygdala, prefrontal cortex, hippocampus, and nucleus accumbens.
307
Q

Prefrontal cortex is responsible for…

A

attention and planning.

308
Q

Nucleus accumbens is responsible for…

A

controls body’s motor functions.

309
Q

Hippocampus is responsible for…

A

found in the temporal lobe, responsible for the formation of memories.

310
Q

What part of the brain is the VTA found?

A

midbrain

311
Q

With the continued activation of this reward circuit, ____________ goes up at the same time a neurotransmitter called ______________ goes down.

A

dopamine; serotonin

312
Q

Tolerance

A

getting used to substance so that you need more of it in order to acheive the same effect.

313
Q

Withdrawal

A

when you don’t take substance anymore, after a prolonged period of time.

314
Q

Intoxication

A

drug exerts its effect on somebody.

315
Q

Mania

A

moods that are too high.

316
Q

Psychosis

A

loss of contact with reality.

317
Q

Can we develop substance use disorder with caffeine?

A

drug addiction treatment.

318
Q

Detoxification

A

flush out all the toxins from the body.

319
Q

Methadone

A

opioid agonist, activates opioid receptor. Reduces cravings, eases withdrawal symptoms.

320
Q

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy

A

patients learn to recognize problematic thought patterns and develop more positive thought patterns and coping behaviors.

321
Q

Motivational enhancement therapy

A

working with the patient to find intrinsic motivation to change.

322
Q

Relapse

A

recovering addict takes substance again after treatment.

323
Q

Why do excess amounts of caffeine beverages cause jitters?

A

caffeine inhibits an enzyme that breaks down cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP). The increase in cAMP increases glutamate production. This increase in cellular activity results in action potentials that are briefer and released in bursts.

324
Q

Mescaline

A

psychedelic that acts as norephinephrine.

325
Q

Haloperidol

A

is an antipsychotic medication used to treat schizophrenia.

326
Q

Anchoring-and-adjustment heuristic

A

requires a person to create a set point or anchor. The answer is adjusted based on comparing new information to the anchor.

327
Q

Representativeness heuristic

A

when a decision’s probability is judged based on how similar or representative the aspect is to a specific person, group, or population.

328
Q

Availability heuristic

A

is a decision making heuristic where choices are based on quick, easily accessible examples.

329
Q

Affect heuristic

A

involves an individual making a decision based on emotion.

330
Q

Symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can be alleviated through the use of __________.

A

benzodiazepenes.

331
Q

Longitudinal study

A

follows variables over a long period of time to look for correlations.

332
Q

Observational study

A

researcher is unable to control the assignment of groups. A type of study in which individuals are observed or certain outcomes are measured.

333
Q

Quasi-Experimental Design

A

A quasi-experiment is an empirical interventional study used to estimate the causal impact of an intervention on target population without random assignment.

334
Q

3 x 2 factorial design

A

2 independent variables each with three levels.

335
Q

Cross tolerance

A

Cross-tolerance is a phenomenon that occurs when tolerance to the effects of a certain drug produces tolerance to another drug.

336
Q

Franz Gall

A

phrenology; associated development of a trait with growth of its relevant part in the brain.

337
Q

extirpation

A

various parts of the brain are surgically removed and the behavioral consequences are observed.

338
Q

William James

A

father of American psychology, pushed for importance of studying adaptations of the individual to his or her environment.

339
Q

Functionalism

A

studies how mental processes help individuals adapt to their environment.

340
Q

John Dewey

A

argued for studying the entire organism as a whole.

341
Q

Hermann von Helmholtz

A

measured the speed of a nerve impulse.

342
Q

Sir Charles Sherrington

A

inferred the existence of synapses.

343
Q

What are the three different types of nerve cells in the nervous system?

A

Sensory neurons, motor neurons, and interneurons.

344
Q

What is the function of sensory neurons?

A

transmit sensory information from receptors to the spinal cord and brain.

345
Q

What is the function of motor neurons?

A

transmit motor information from the brain spinal cord to muscles and glands.

346
Q

What is the function of interneurons?

A

They are located in the brain and spinal cord and linked to reflexive behavior.

347
Q

What are the two divisions of the peripheral nervous system?

A

somatic and autonomic

348
Q

What does the somatic nervous system consist of?

A

sensory and motor neurons.

349
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system consist of?

A

regulates heartbeat, respiration, digestion, and glandular secretions.

350
Q

What is the function of the meninges?

A

help protect the brain, keep it anchored within the skull, and resorb cerebrospinal fluid.

351
Q

What are the three layers of the meninges?

A

dura mater, arachnoid mater, and the pia mater.

352
Q

What is the cerebrospinal fluid?

A

is the aqueous solution in which the brain and spinal cord rest.

353
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

a group of neural structures primarily associated with emotion and memory.

354
Q

What is the cerebral cortex?

A

outer covering of the cerebral hemispheres.

355
Q

Where is the hindbrain located?

A

located where the brain meets the spinal cord.

356
Q

What is the function of the hindbrain?

A

controls balance, motor coordination, breathing, digestion, and general arousal processes such as sleeping and waking.

357
Q

What is function of the medulla oblongata?

A

is a lower brain structure that is responsible for regulating vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure.

358
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

above the hindbrain is the midbrain; which receives sensory and motor information from the rest of the body.

359
Q

What is the function of the forebrain?

A

has the greatest influence on human behavior, associated with complex, perceptual, cognitive, and behavioral processes.

360
Q

regional cerebral bloodflow (rCBF)

A

detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased blood flow to different parts of the brain.

361
Q

regional cerebral bloodflow (rCBF)

A

detects broad patterns of neural activity based on increased blood flow to different parts of the brain.

362
Q

What is the function of the lateral hypothalamus?

A

referred to as the hunger center, has special receptors that detect when the body needs more food or fluids.

363
Q

What is the function of the lateral hypothalamus?

A

referred to as the hunger center, has special receptors that detect when the body needs more food or fluids.

364
Q

What is the function of the ventromedial hypothalamus?

A

provides signals to stop eating.

365
Q

What is the function of the anterior hypothalamus?

A

controls sexual behavior, regulates sleep and body temperature.

366
Q

The __________ gland secretes a hormone called melatonin which regulates circadian rhythms.

A

pineal gland.

367
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

coordinate muscle movement.

368
Q

What are the primary components of the limbic system?

A

septal nuclei, amygdala, and hippocampus.

369
Q

Septal nuclei

A

contains one of the primary pleasure centers in the brain.

370
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A

plays a vital role in learning and memory processes.

371
Q

anterograde amnesia

A

not being able to establish new long-term memories.

372
Q

retrograde amnesia

A

refers to memory loss of events before brain injury.

373
Q

Where is the neurotransmitter acetylcholine found?

A

acetylcholine found in both the central and peripheral nervous systems.

374
Q

What is the function of acetylcholine in the central nervous system?

A

acetylcholine has been linked to attention and arousal.

375
Q

What is the function of acetylcholine in the peripheral nervous system?

A

transmit nerve impulses to the muscles.

376
Q

Which neurotransmitters are catecholamines?

A

epinephrine, norephinephrine, dopamine

377
Q

What are the functions of epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

involved in controlling alertness and wakefulness.

378
Q

What is the difference between epinephrine and norepinephrine?

A

norepinephrine acts on a more local level while epinephrine acts on a more systematic level.

379
Q

What is the function of dopamine?

A

normally found in the basal ganglia, which help smooth movements and maintain postural stability.

380
Q

Dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia

A

argues that delusions, hallucinations, and agitation associated with schizophrenia arise from either too much dopamine or from oversensitivity to dopamine in the brain.

381
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

is associated with a loss of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia.

382
Q

What is the function of serotonin?

A

play roles in regulating mood, eating, sleeping, and dreaming.

383
Q

Oversupply of serotonin is thought to produce _____________, undersupply is thought to produce ___________.

A

manic states; depression.

384
Q

What is the function of GABA?

A

produces inhibitory postsynaptic potentials and plays a role in stabilizing neural activity in the brain. GABA exerts its effect by causing hyperpolarization of the post synaptic membrane.

385
Q

What is the function of glycine?

A

serves as an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS by increasing chloride influx into the neuron which hyperpolarizes the post synaptic membrane.

386
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is glutamate?

A

excitatory neurotransmitter.

387
Q

The Babinski reflex

A

The big toes extends while the other toes fan outward.

388
Q

The grasping reflex

A

infant closes his or her fingers around an object placed in his or her hand.

389
Q

What are the two classes of motor skills?

A

gross and fine motor skills.

390
Q

Gross motor skills

A

incorporate movement from large muscle groups and whole body motion.
Ex: sitting, crawling, and walking.

391
Q

Fine motor skills

A

involve the smaller muscles of the fingers, toes, and eyes.

392
Q

Parallel play

A

in which children will play alongside each other without influencing each other’s behavior.

393
Q

The Moro reflex

A

the infant extends the arms, then slowly withdraws them and cries.

394
Q

The rooting reflex

A

infant turns his or her head toward anything that brushes the cheek.

395
Q

Exogenous cues

A

external cues, we have to look for them in order for them to capture our attention.

396
Q

Endogenous cues

A

more internalized, they involve the internal knowledge and the intention to follow it.

397
Q

Cocktail Party Effect

A

ability to attend to one voice even amidst other voices.

398
Q

Inattentional blindness

A

we are not consciously aware of things that happen in our visual field when attention is directed elsewhere.

399
Q

Change blindness

A

fail to notice changes in the environment. Fail to notice a difference between a previous state and a current state.

400
Q

Priming

A

is an effect where exposure to one stimulus influences a response to another stimulus.

401
Q

Resource Model of Attention

A

we have limited resources when it comes to attention.

402
Q

Covert orienting

A

is the act of bringing the spotlight of attention on an object or event without body or eye movement.

403
Q

Over orienting

A

a person turns all or part of the body to alter or maximize the sensory impact of an event.

404
Q

Selective Attention

A

describes the ability to sustain attention during distraction.

405
Q

Divided Attention

A

occurs when 2 or more tasks must be completed simultaneously.

406
Q

Attentional capture

A

occurs when attention is attracted by the motion of an object or stimulus.

407
Q

Neglect syndrome

A

occurs when damage to the brain causes a change or loss in the capacity of the spatial dimension of divided attention.

408
Q

Internal validity

A

describes the extent that a study is able to show cause-effect relationship between the variables tested in the study.

409
Q

External validity

A

describes the extent that the results of a study can be generalized or repeated in multiple settings.

410
Q

The good-subject tendency

A

refers to the tendency of participants to act according to what they think the experimenter wants.

411
Q

The Hawthorne Effect

A

occurs when an individual participant changes his or her behavior specifically due to awareness of being observed.

412
Q

Vigilance

A

like active search, selective attention, and divided attention is a type of attention described as main functions.

413
Q

Alerting attention

A

is affected by regular aging.

414
Q

Orienting attention

A

involves the capacity to change the focus of attention from one stimulus to another stimulus.

415
Q

Executive attention

A

involved in goal-directed behavior, monitoring conflicts between internal processes, and anticipating the effects of behavior.

416
Q

Endorphins

A

natural painkillers produced in the brain.

417
Q

What is the pathway for a stimulus to reach conscious perception?

A

sensory receptor —–> afferent neuron —–> sensory ganglion —-> spinal cord —-> brain.

418
Q

What are the two blood vessels that supply the eye with nutrients?

A

choroidal vessels and retinal vessels.

419
Q

What is the function of the cornea?

A

gather and focuses the incoming light.

420
Q

What is the function of the pupil?

A

allows passage of light from the anterior to posterior chamber.

421
Q

What is the function of the iris?

A

controls the size of the pupil.

422
Q

What is the function of the ciliary body?

A

produces aqueous humor, accommodation of the lens.

423
Q

What is the function of the canal of Schlemm?

A

drains aqueous humor.

424
Q

What is the function of lens?

A

refracts the incoming light to focus it on the retina.

425
Q

What is the function of the retina?

A

detects images.

426
Q

What is the function of the sclera?

A

provides structural support.

427
Q

linear acceleration in the ear is detected by the ____________ and rotational acceleration in the ear is detected by the __________.

A

utricle and saccule

semicircular canals

428
Q

short term memory is primary housed in the _______.

A

Hippocampus.

429
Q

Information Processing Model

A

proposes that our brains are similar to computers, we get input from the environment, process it, and output decisions.

430
Q

Sensory memory

A

first interacts with the information in your environment.

431
Q

What are the two types of sensory memory?

A

iconic memory and echoic memory.

432
Q

What is iconic memory?

A

memory for what you see.

433
Q

What is echoic memory?

A

memory for what you hear.

434
Q

Working memory

A

whatever you are thinking about right at this moment.

435
Q

What are the two types of long term memory?

A

explicit and implicit.

436
Q

What is explicit memory?

A

facts or events that you can clearly describe.

437
Q

What is implicit memory?

A

things that you may not be able to articulate; procedural memory.

438
Q

What are the two types of explicit memory?

A

semantic memory and episodic memory.

439
Q

Semantic memory

A

having to do with words.

440
Q

Episodic memory

A

memory for events

441
Q

How does priming contribute to implicit memory?

A

previous experience influences your current interpretation of an event.

442
Q

Encoding

A

moving information from the temporary store in your working memory into the permanent store in your long term memory.

443
Q

What are the different encoding strategies?

A

rote rehersal, chunking, and mnemonic devices.

444
Q

What is rote rehersal?

A

say the same thing over and over again.

445
Q

What is chunking?

A

group the information that we are getting into meaningful units.

446
Q

Mnemonic devices

A

memory devices that help you link what you’re trying to learn into previously existing information.

447
Q

What is self referencing?

A

think about new information and how it relates to you personally.

448
Q

Spacing

A

spread out study sessions over time.

449
Q

What are two different types of retrieval cues?

A

context dependent memory and state-dependent memory.

450
Q

Context dependent memory

A

when you are retrieving information, being in the same environment that you encoded that information is helpful.

451
Q

State dependent memory

A

state can refer to your mood, or any other internal state.

452
Q

Retrieval

A

pull something out of your long term memory and bring it into working memory.

453
Q

Primacy effect

A

where you have a high probability of recall for the first items on the list.

454
Q

Recency effect

A

tend to remember the last few things in a sequence.

455
Q

Source monitoring

A

keeping track of where various information came from.

456
Q

Flashbulb memories

A

highly emotional memories that feel extremely vivid.

457
Q

Synaptic plasticity

A

ability of synapses to change their strength.

458
Q

Long term potentiation

A

as synapses are strengthened and the strength is retained; this leads to more easy recall of previous experiences.

459
Q

What was Ebbinghaus famous for?

A

studied memory decay and relearning.

460
Q

Retroactive interference

A

is interference where learning a new piece of information reaches back and impairs ability to retrieve something you used to know.

461
Q

Proactive interference

A

something you learned in the past gets in the way of your ability to learn and retrieve something correctly in the future.

462
Q

What part of memory declines with aging?

A

recall, episodic memory, processing speed, divided attention.

463
Q

What part of memory is stable with aging?

A

implicit memory and recognition memory.

464
Q

What part of memory improves with aging?

A

semantic memory, crystallized intelligence, and emotional reasoning.

465
Q

What is crystallized intelligence?

A

ability to use knowledge and experience.

466
Q

Dementia

A

decline in memory and other cognitive functions; most common form of dementia is Alzheimer’s disease.

467
Q

Korsakoff’s syndrome

A

lack of vitamin B1 or thiamine in the brain; severe memory loss.

468
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

precursor to Korsakoff’s syndrome, poor balance, abnormal eye movements, confusion, memory loss.

469
Q

Semantic network

A

concepts are linked together based on similar meaning.

470
Q

What is the relationship between node link strength and association in learning?

A

As node link strength increases, the degree of association increases. This reduces the processing time.

471
Q

Content validity

A

is a measure of comprehensiveness and examines whether or not a test covers every single element of a construct.

472
Q

Retest reliability

A

measures stability and examines whether or not results are consistent over time.

473
Q

Interrater reliability

A

measures whether or not different test administrators give the same score.

474
Q

Concurrent validity

A

measures how well a test matches up with a benchmark test.

475
Q

Paivio’s dual coding theory

A

states that both verbal association and visual images are used to store and process information.

476
Q

Situational Modification

A

decisions made in one situation can be extrapolated and adjusted to help solve new problems.

477
Q

What are Piaget’s Stages of Cognitive development?

A
  1. sensorimotor stage
  2. preoperational stage
  3. concrete operational stage
  4. formal operational stage
478
Q

What is the sensorimotor stage?

A

0-2 yrs
object permanence: infants don’t recognize that objects still exist even though they can’t see them.

479
Q

What is the pre-operational stage?

A

2-7 yrs
pretend play, children at this stage are very egocentric.

480
Q

What is the concrete operational stage?

A

7-11 yrs
conservation, math

481
Q

What is the formal operational stage?

A

12+ years
abstract, sophisticated moral reasoning

482
Q

What are schemas?

A

mental models, use them as frameworks by which we organize and interpret new information.

483
Q

Assimilation

A

describes how we interpret new experiences in terms of our current understanding.

484
Q

Accommodation

A

how we later adjust our schemas to better incorporate new experiences.

485
Q

What are some of the methods of problem-solving?

A

Trial and Error
Algorithm
Heuristic

486
Q

What is trial and error?

A

take random guesses until something finally works.

487
Q

What is algorithm?

A

logical, step-by-step procedure of trying solutions until you hit on the right one.

488
Q

What is heuristic?

A

mental shortcut that allows us to find a solution more quickly.

489
Q

Fluid Intelligence

A

consists of problem solving skills.

490
Q

Crystallized Intelligence

A

related to the use of learned skills and knowledge.

491
Q

Delirium

A

rapid fluctuations in cognitive development.

492
Q

Functional Fixedness

A

the inability to consider how to use an object in a non-traditional manner.

493
Q

Deductive Reasoning

A

starts from a set of general rules and draws conclusions from the information given.

494
Q

Inductive Reasoning

A

create a theory via generalizations, start with specific instances and draw conclusion from them.

495
Q

Fixation

A

getting stuck on a wrong approach.

496
Q

Incubation

A

letting a problem sit in your mind while you are not really thinking about it.

497
Q

Decision

A

making a judgement about the desirability or the probability of some outcome.

498
Q

Availability Heuristic

A

use examples that come to mind to solve problems.

499
Q

Representativeness Heuristic

A

we judge the probability of an event based on our existing prototype or general concept of what is typical.

500
Q

Base rate fallacy

A

using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical information.

501
Q

What is overconfidence?

A

more confident than correct.

502
Q

What is belief perseverance?

A

inability to reject a particular belief despite clear evidence to the contrary.

503
Q

Confirmation Bias

A

actively seek out information that confirms your existing beliefs.

504
Q

Framing

A

how you present the decision.

505
Q

Intuition

A

defined as the ability to act on perceptions that may not be supported by available evidence.

506
Q

Recognition-primed decision model

A

sorting through a wide variety information to match a pattern.

507
Q

Emotion

A

is the subjective experience of a person in a certain situation.

508
Q

What is intelligence?

A

mental quality, allowing you to learn from experience, solve problems, and use your knowledge to adapt to new situations.

509
Q

General Intelligence theory proposed by Charles Spearmen

A

people who score really well on one type of test also tend to score really well in other types of tests. Characterized by g factor.

510
Q

What are Robert Sternberg’s multiple intelligences in his Triarchic Theory of Intelligence?

A

analytical intelligence, creative intelligence, and practical intelligence.

511
Q

What is analytical intelligence?

A

academic abilities or the ability to solve well-defined problems.

512
Q

What is creative intelligence?

A

the ability to react adaptively to new situations and to generate novel ideas.

513
Q

What is practical intelligence?

A

the ability to solve ill defined problems.

514
Q

Emotional Intelligence

A

helps you perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions in your interactions with others.

515
Q

What type of intelligence decreases with age?

A

fluid intelligence

516
Q

Heritability

A

proportion of variability due to genes.

517
Q

What are the various components of Howard Gardner’s multiple intelligence theory?

A

linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, intrapersonal, and interpersonal.

518
Q

Who developed the IQ tests?

A

Alfred Binet

519
Q

Formula for IQ

A

IQ = mental age/chronological age x 100

520
Q

Cognitive dissonance

A

is the discomfort experienced when holding two or more conflicting cognitions.

521
Q

Temporal monotonicity

A

assumes that adding pain at the end of a painful experience will worsen the retrospective evaluation of the experienced pain and adding pleasure at the end will enhance the retrospective evaluation.

522
Q

Wernicke’s Aphasia

A

damage of Wernicke’s area, jumbled speech a.k.a fluent aphasia

523
Q

Global aphasia

A

wernicke’s aphasia + broca’s aphasia

524
Q

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area are connected in the brain by a bundle of nerve fibers called the ____________________.

A

arcuate fasciculus

525
Q

Conduction Aphasia

A

damage to arcuate fasiculus, ability to conduct information between listening and speaking is disrupted.

526
Q

Neural plasticity

A

brain’s ability to adapt and move functions to new parts.

527
Q

Universalism

A

thought comes before language.

528
Q

Vygotsky’s idea of language

A

language and thought are independent but they converge through development.

529
Q

Weak linguistic determinism

A

language influences thought.

530
Q

Strong linguistic determinism

A

language determines thought completely. (whorfian hypothesis)

531
Q

Nativist Theory of Language

A

children are born with the ability to learn language.

532
Q

Critical period

A

birth to ~ 9 yrs

period of time in which a child is most able to learn language.

533
Q

When does the language acquisition device operate?

A

during the critical period.

534
Q

Learning Theory

A

children only acquire language through reinforcement.

535
Q

Interactional Approach (a.k.a social interactionist approach).

A

thought by Vygotsky, biological and social factors have to interact in order for children to learn language.

536
Q

Syntax

A

refers to the way words are placed together to form language.

537
Q

Lexicon

A

entire set of morphemes in language.

538
Q

Phonemes

A

are the smallest unit of sound in a language.

539
Q

Morphemes

A

are the smallest significant unit of a meaning of a word.

540
Q

Lexical access

A

refers to identifying a word and connecting it to its meaning.

541
Q

Transformational grammer

A

different ways that words can be arranged to convey the same information.

542
Q

Linguistic Universals Theory

A

characteristics that remain consistent across all languages of different cultures.

543
Q

Linguistic Relativity Theory

A

there are significant linguistic differences between cultures.

544
Q

What are the four important structures of the limbic system?

A

hypothalamus, amygdala, thalamus, and hippocampus

545
Q

Which sense bypasses the thalamus?

A

smell.

546
Q

What is the Kluver-Bucy syndrome?

A

bilateral destruction of amygdala.

547
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

is a set of structures in the brain that deal with emotions and memory.

548
Q

Function of Hippocampus in relation to emotion

A

forms new memories.

549
Q

_________ emotions evoke more electrical activity on the left side of the brain.

A

Positive

550
Q

________ emotions evoke more electrical activity in the right side of the brain.

A

Negative

551
Q

What are Paul Ekman’s universal emotions?

A

happiness, sadness, fear, disgust, anger, and surprise.

552
Q

Why are these six emotions universal?

A

consistent facial expressions among cultures.

553
Q

James Lange Theory of emotion

A

interpretation of physiologic response causes the emotion.

Ex: I am crying therefore I am sad.

554
Q

Cannon-Bard Theory of emotion

A

physiological responses and the experience of emotion both occurred simultaneously.

Ex: I am sad because I am crying and I see my pet sick.

555
Q

Schachter-Singer Theory of emotion

A

physiological and cognitive responses may simultaneously form the experience of emotion.

Ex: I am sad because I am crying and everyone else is sad.

556
Q

Lazarus theory of emotion

A

proposed that the experience of emotion depends on how the experience is cognitively appraised.

557
Q

Flynn Effect

A

an observation regarding the growth of IQ from one generation to the next.

558
Q

Emotional Intelligence

A

ability to understand emotions present in oneself and how those emotions motivate oneself and others.

559
Q

The _________ is the brain structure most associated with disgust.

A

Insula

560
Q

Stress

A

responsible to challenging events.

561
Q

Cognitive appraisal

A

subjective evaluation of a situation that induces stress.

562
Q

Primary appraisal

A

initial evaluation of the environment and the associated threat, this appraisal can be identified as irrelevant, benign, or stressful.

563
Q

Secondary appraisal

A

evaluates whether an organism can cope with the stress.

564
Q

Stressor

A

is a biological element, external condition, or event that leads to a stress response.

565
Q

What are some causes of stressors?

A

environmental factors, daily events, workplace or academic setting, social expectations, and chemical and biological stressors.

566
Q

Distress

A

occurs when experiencing unpleasant stressors.

567
Q

Eustress

A

is a result of positive conditions.

568
Q

Approach-Approach conflict

A

refers to the need to choose between two desirable options.

569
Q

Avoidance-avoidance conflict

A

choices between two negative options.

570
Q

Approach-Avoidance conflict

A

deal with only one choice, goal, or event but the outcome could have both positive and negative elements.

571
Q

The sequence of physiological responses developed by Hans Selye

A

The general adaptation syndrome

572
Q

Three distinct stages of the general adaptation syndrome…

A
  1. Alarm
  2. Resistance
  3. Exhaustion
573
Q

What does the stage of alarm involve?

A

initial reaction to a stressor and the activation of the sympathetic nervous system.

574
Q

What does the stage of resistance involve?

A

continuous release of hormones allows the sympathetic nervous system to remain engaged to fight the stressor.

575
Q

What does the stage of exhaustion involve?

A

when the body can no longer maintain an elevated response with sympathetic nervous system activity.

576
Q

Anhedonia

A

inability to feel pleasure.

577
Q

Allostasis

A

describes systems that keep maintenance systems in balance.

578
Q

Allostatic load

A

describes the effects of chronic stress if the allostatic changes are not adequate in maintaining homeostasis.

579
Q

Rather than “flight or fight” a female may respond by _____________ to an non-life threatening stressor.

A

tend and befriend

580
Q

Internal locus of control

A

is associated with individuals who feel in control of situational outcomes.

581
Q

External locus of control

A

associated with individuals who feel environmental factors have more influence on situational outcomes.

MCAT Content (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions