MCAT Psychology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a retrospective chart review?

A

“Retrospective” indicates that past records are examined

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2
Q

What is a prospective chart review?

A

A review of incoming data

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3
Q

What is an embedded field study?

A

A study that would occur if the researchers posed as patients, for example

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4
Q

What is a longitudinal study?

A

A study that would consist of analysis of participants over time.

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5
Q

What is a mediating variable?

A

A mediating variable is one which explains the relationship between two other variables.

E.g. Consider the relation between social status and frequency of testicular exams. Education might be a mediator variable in that it explains why there is a relation between self-exam and social status

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6
Q

What is a moderator variable?

A

A moderator variable is one that influences the strength of a relationship between two other variables

E.g. Consider the relation between social status and frequency of testicular exams. Age might be a moderator variable, in that the relation between social status and testicular self-exam might be strong for older men and less strong or nonexistent for younger men.

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7
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

A confounding variable is on which is not typically of interest to the research but is an extraneous variable which is related to BOTH the dependent and independt variables.

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8
Q

What is the pre-encounter stage of Cross’s Nigrescence Model

A

In Cross’s Nigrescence Model, African-Americans are described as progressing through several stages of cultural awareness. In the first stage, pre-encounter, African-Americans tend to view the majority Caucasian culture as being more desirable and would view a white doctor as being more skilled.

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9
Q

What is the immerson-emersion stage of Cross’s Nigrescence Model?

A

Someone in this stage would view the majority caucasian culture with resentment and distrust and prefer to be treated by someone of his or her own race.

E.g. distrusting a white doctor and preferring to be treated by a black physician

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10
Q

What is the internalization stage of Cross’s Nigrescence Model?

A

Someone in the internalization stage has integrated aspects of his own culture with that of the majority culture and is working to rectify past racial injustices.

E.g. Recognizing historical injustices in medical care towards racial minorities and working to empower African-American patients to self-advocate

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11
Q

What does Cross posit in his Nigrescence Model?

A

Culture impact identity and worldview

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12
Q

Define depressant. Give an example

A

Depressants cause relaxation by reducing nervous system activity. Alcohol is the most common depressant. It works by stimulating the product of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), an inhibitory neurotransmitters associated with reduced anxiety, and dopamine, which promotes euphoria.

Alcohol slow the activity of the frontal lobe, reducing judgment and lowering inhibitions. People can become unable to recognize the consequences of their actions, and their speech may be slurred and motor skills diminished

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13
Q

Define opiate. Give examples

A

Opiates are derived from poppy plant and include drugs like morphine and codeine. Opiates cause a sense of euphoria and a decrease reaction to pain by binding to opioid receptors in the nervous system. Opiate overdose can cause death when the brain stops sending signals for respiration. After prolonged use, these drugs can cause the brain to entirely stop producing endorphins, meaning that withdrawal is very painful

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14
Q

Define stimulant. Give examples

A

Hallucinogens, such as lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) and ketamine, distort perception, enhance sensory experiences, and cause introspection, all while increasing heart rate and blood pressure, increasing body temperature and dilating pupils

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15
Q

Define marijuana

A

Marijuana has qualities of a stimulant depressant, and hallucinogen. Marijuana, which is the name used for the leaves and flowers of the plants Cannabis sativa and Cannabis indica, has an active chemical called tetrahydrocannabinol (THS) which affects certain receptors in the brain. Additionally, THC increase the production of GABA and dopamine. THC can cause an increase in appetite, dry mouth, fatigue, eye redness, lowered blood pressure, and increased heart rate

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16
Q

Drive-reduction and cognitive theorist would argue that depression is more strongly correlated with a deficiency in what fulfillment?

A

Arousal. Drive-reduction theories suggest that depression stems from a reduction in the motivating forces of arousal. A cognitive theorist would argue that arousal is essential to sustaining most behaviors.

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17
Q

What brain regions play a role in the development of depression

A

Frontal lobe, limbic system structures, hypothalamus

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18
Q

What roles are frontal lobe involved in?

A

The frontal lobe is involved in humans’ ability to project future consequence of current actions.

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19
Q

What roles are limbic system involved in?

A

Limbic system structure regulate emotion and memory,

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20
Q

What roles are hypothalamus involved in

A

Hypothalamus coordinates many hormones, some of which are involved in mood regulation.

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21
Q

Define mood disorder

A

Mood disorders are characterized by the persistent, abnormal elevation and/or lowering of one’s mood, which refers to sustained, internal state of feeling or emotion. These conditions include bipolar disorders, which are marked by swings between extreme moods. These moods may include depression and mania. Another mood disorder is major depressive disorder, which is characterized by at least one major depressive episode

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22
Q

Define anxiety disorders

A

Anxiety disorders involve a state of excessive apprehension, worry, or panic. This state of heightened physical arousal can be unpleasant and inhibit regular functioning. While most people feel anxiety occassionally, those with anxiety disorders experience it persistently, and it adversely impacts their lives

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23
Q

Define trauma and stress-related disorders

A

Trauma and stress-related disorders typically arise in response to a highly stressful or traumatic life event. The most common example is post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), which often manifests in people who experience warfare, sexual assault, or serious injury. PTSD can cause symptoms such as nightmares, flashbacks, and a propensity to avoid stimuli associated with the event.

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24
Q

Define somatic disorders

A

Somatic disorders are unified by somatic (bodily) symptoms that can cause stress and impairment to the sufferer. These symptoms generally lack an identifiable physical cause. Alternatively, the individual may be impaired by irrational fears of developing or having a disease, as in illness anxiety disorder.

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25
Q

Define schizophrenia

A

Schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder, meaning that sufferers experience at least one of the following symptoms: delusions, disorganized thoughts, hallucinations, catatonia and negative symptoms

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26
Q

Define dissociative disorders

A

Dissociative disorders involve the disruption or breakdown of perception, identity, memory, or awareness. Individuals with these conditions feel disconnect from reality. Often, this dissociation serves to provide an unintentional escape from reality or barrier against stress from a life event

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27
Q

Define personality disorder

A

Personality disorders are characterized by long-lasting maladaptive patterns of behavior that can impair cognition, emotion, interpersonal behavior and communication, and/or impulse control

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28
Q

Define incidence

A

Incidence describes the number of new cases of a disease during a specific interval (e.g. a year)

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29
Q

Define risk ratios

A

Risk ratios compare risk of a disease among one group with risk among another group

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30
Q

Define prevalence

A

Prevalence rates describe how common a disease is. They tell us how many people (new cases and current cases) have the disease within a certain amount of time

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31
Q

Define mortality rate

A

Number of deaths cause by a disease within a specific population and a certain amount of time

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32
Q

Define external locus of control

A

When a person has an external locus of control, they believe that they have no control over events in their lives and things that happen to them.

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33
Q

Define randomized controlled trials

A

Randomized controlled trials randomly assign participants to one of two groups: an experimental group and a control group

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34
Q

Define cross-sectional designs

A

Cross-sectional designs examine a group of individuals at one point in time

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35
Q

Define case control designs

A

Case control designs compare information about individuals with disease or condition against people without the disease or condition.

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36
Q

Define the Law of Closure (defined with an example)

A

A child taking an incomplete figure - a smiley face comprised of disconnected pieces - and is perceiving it as a complete whole.

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37
Q

Define the Law of Symmetry

A

The law of symmetry says that we tend to perceive stimuli as grouped symmetrically around a center point

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38
Q

Define the Law of Similarity

A

The law of similarity says that we perceive similar objects as being grouped together

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39
Q

Define the Law of Proximity

A

The law of proximity asserts that we tend to perceive objects close to each other in groups, rather than as large collection of individual pieces

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40
Q

Define attrition bias

A

Attrition bias occurs when participants drop out of long-term experiment or study

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41
Q

Define social desirability bias

A

Social desirability bias is a type of bias related to how people respond to research questions. The physicians may have known that the researcher was examining unethical behavior and responded a certain way.

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42
Q

Define selection bias

A

Selection bias refers to a type of bias related to how people are chosen to participate. For example, people who witnessed unethical behavior in medical school may have been more likely to response to a survey about that topic

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43
Q

Define distress

A

Distress is a negative type of stress that build over time and is bad for your body. It happens when you perceive a situation to be threatening to you some way (physically or emotionally) and your body become primed to respond to the threat

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44
Q

Define eustress

A

Eustress is a positive type of stress that happens when you perceive a situation as challenging, but motivating. Eustress is enjoyable.

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45
Q

Define neustress

A

Neustress is a neutral type of stress. Neustress happens when you are exposed to something stressful, but it doesn’t actively or directly affect you. For example, news about a natural disaster on the other side of the world may be very stressful, but your body doesn’t perceive that stress as food or bad for you so you aren’t affected.

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46
Q

Define positive reinforcement

A

Positive reinforcement refers to adding a stimulus to increase a behavior

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47
Q

Define negative reinforcement

A

Negative reinforcement refers to removing a stimulus to increase a behavior

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48
Q

Define negative punishment

A

negative punishment refers to removing a stimulus to decrease a behavior

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49
Q

Define positive punishment

A

Positive refers to adding a stimulus, and punishment refers to a consequence that decreases behavior. A meeting with the dean was added, and this decrease the behavior (unprofessional behavior), so this is positive punishment

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50
Q

Define bystander effect

A

The bystander effect is a phenomenon where people stand by during a situation where someone else is at risk. They do not intervene.

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51
Q

Define deindividuation

A

Deindividuation happens when a person in a group loses awareness of their individuality and acting in a way that they wouldn’t normally act if they were alone.

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52
Q

Define social loafing

A

Social loafing happens when one person in a group doesn’t take on their share of the responsibility - this is common in group projects

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53
Q

Define group polarization

A

Group polarization refers to the tendency to adopt extreme views when in a group.

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54
Q

Define conformity

A

When an individual may privately disagree with a behavior but publicly goals along with the behavior of a normative social group

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55
Q

Define obedience

A

Obedience takes place when a person has the authority to directly compel someone to engage in a certain behavior

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56
Q

Define self-fulfilling prophecy

A

A self-fulfilling prophecy might occur if a student enters medical school assuming that medical students must behave in certain negative ways, and then winds up shaping her behavior based on that assumption

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57
Q

Define informational social influence

A

Information social influence refers to a situation where a medical student would conform by turning to others in their group for information about what is correct.

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58
Q

Define Schachter-Singer theory of emotion using Robin as an example

A

As I pet Robin, my blood pressure decreases and my brain increases release of oxytocin. I then cognitively interpret how much I love my cat, and experience happiness as a result.

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59
Q

Define foor-in-the-door technique

A

Foor-in-the-door technique says that when someone has agreed to make a small commitment towards something, they are then much more likely to follow up with a greater commitment.

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60
Q

Define cognitive dissonance

A

Cognitive dissonance is the unpleasant feeling a person experiences when holding two contradictory beliefs at the same time.

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61
Q

Define variable-ratio

A

Variable-ratio reinforcement schedules tend to produce the highest response rates that are the most resistant to extinction, which is exactly why casinos use them

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62
Q

Define attribution theory

A

Attribution theory relates to how we “attribute” (assign) perceived caused of behavior and events.

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63
Q

Define socialization

A

Socialization refers to how individual attitudes are shaped by social factors. Socialization is a lifelong process through which people inherit, develop and disseminate social norms, customs, and belief systems. It is through socialization that we develop the habits and skills necessary for successfully living in society.

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64
Q

Define conflict theory

A

Conflict theory refers to social class conflict

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65
Q

Define the Stroop effect

A

The Stroop effect describes the phenomenon in which it is harder for an individual to reconcile difference pieces of information relating to colors than to reconcile similar pieces of information.

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66
Q

Define discrimination

A

Discrimination is the unfair treatment and harmful actions against others based on their membership in a specific social group.

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67
Q

Define stigma

A

Stigma is disapproval attached to disobeying the expected norms so that a person is discredited as less than normal.

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68
Q

Define racism

A

Racism is the belief that all members of each race possess characteristics or abilities specific to that race, especially so as to distinguish it as inferior or superior to another race or races

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69
Q

Define prejudice

A

Prejudice is the preconceived opinions or attitudes that are usually negative and not based on any facts or experience. Prejudice is an attitude and discrimination is actually acting on that feeling.

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70
Q

Define groupthink

A

Groupthink is a phenomenon in which people strive for agreement when in a group

Groupthink occurs when a homogenous group is so concerned with maintaining unanimity that they fail to evaluate all options. Groupthink members see themselves as part of an in-group working against an out-group opposed to their goals.

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71
Q

Define stretch receptors

A

Stretch receptors measure the stretching of tissues. That is how you know your stomach is full

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72
Q

Define nocireceptors

A

Nocireceptors are pain receptors

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73
Q

Define social facilitation

A

Social facilitation is the tendency for people to perform better when in the presence of others

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74
Q

Define regression to the mean

A

Regression to the mean is a phenomenon in which, over time, scores become more average

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75
Q

Define null hypothesis

A

A null hypothesis is a statement that suggests there is no relationship between two variables

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76
Q

Define semantic memory

A

Semantic memory is the type of memory related to facts and information

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77
Q

Define episodic memory

A

Episodic memory is a type of memory related to personal experiences

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78
Q

Define procedural memory

A

Procedural memory it a type of memory related to action or behaviors, like placing an IV or suturing a wound

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79
Q

Define conditioned memory

A

Conditioned memory is type of memory that is formed base on your associations between two things. For example, if your professor rings a bell at the end of the exam, you will remember the bell as the sign that the exam is over.

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80
Q

Define intrinsic motivation

A

Boosting inner motivation to succeed and learn

81
Q

Define extrinsic motivation

A

Extrinsic motivation is motivation to do something based on an external reward (like money or fame)

82
Q

Define drive-reduction motivation

A

Drive-reduction motivation is motivation based on the need to fulfill certain drive, like hunger or thirst

83
Q

Define amotivation

A

Amotivation is lack of motivation

84
Q

Define minority influence

A

When a new idea arises, it is automatically a minority opinion. This idea can then be spread through the influence of the minority on other accepting this view.

85
Q

Define double approach-avoidant conflicts

A

Double approach-avoidant conflicts consist of two options with both appealing and negative characteristics, which seems to represent the jury’s dilemma. If they rule the defendant guilty, they would either be punishing the criminal (approach) or punishing an innocent (avoidant). If they rule the defendant innocent, they would either be letting a criminal walk away unpunished (avoidant) or freeing an innocent (approach)

86
Q

Define approach-approach conflicts,

A

In approach-approach conflicts, two options are both appealing

87
Q

Define avoidant-avoidant conflicts

A

In avoidant-avoidant conflicts, both options are unappealing

88
Q

Define approach-avoidant conflict

A

Approach-avoidance conflict is observe when one option has both positive and negative aspects

89
Q

Define attribution theory and attribution error

A

Attribution theory relates to an attempt by an individual to interpret actions by assigning causes to them; fundamental attribution error is when an individual interprets another’s actions incorrectly by overemphasizing internal characteristics instead of external events

90
Q

What is Jean Piaget known for?

A

Psychologist Jean Piaget proposed that cognitive development occurs in four discrete stages.

91
Q

What are the stages of cognitive development and who proposed them?

A

Psychologist Jean Piaget proposed that cognitive development occurs in four discrete stages. In the first stage (sensorimotor stage) (birth to age 2), second stage is preoperational stage (ages 2-7), third stage is the concrete operational stage (ages 7 to 11), fourth stage is formal operational (age 12+)

92
Q

What is the first stage of cognitive development as proposed by Piaget?

A

In the first stage, termed the sensorimotor stage (birth to age 2), the individual experiences the world exclusively through sensing and moving through their environment. A key event in this stage is the development of object permanence, the understanding that objects continue to exist even though we are not looking at them.

93
Q

What is the second stage of cognitive development as proposed by Piaget?

A

The next stage is the preoperational stage (ages 2-7). Here, the individual develops symbolic thinking, or the idea that things and ideas can be represented through symbols such as words or gestures. During this stage, children tend to focus on a single aspect of a thing or experience, a phenomenon called centration, and they also display an inability to comprehend conservation, or the idea that a quantity remains the same despite a change in shape. Children in this stage are egocentric, meaning they do not understand that other people have thoughts or perspectives different from their own.

94
Q

What is the third stage of cognitive development as proposed by Piaget?

A

The third stage is the concrete operational stage (ages 7 to 11). Here, children develop an understanding of conservation and begin to understand mathematics. They also become less egocentric and can think logically about concrete events and objects, but they still have not developed a full capacity for abstract thought.

95
Q

What is the fourth stage of cognitive development as proposed by Piaget?

A

Finally, the fourth stage is the formal operational stage (age 12+). Here, people develop the abilities of abstract and moral reasoning.

96
Q

What are Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development?

A

Erikson posited that each developmental stage is marked by a key conflict; resolution of this conflict promotes healthy development, while a lack of resolution can lead to related problems later in life 1. Trust vs. mistrust (0-1) 2. Autonmy vs. shame/doubt (1-3) 3. Initiative vs. guilt (3-6) 4. Industry vs. inferiority (6-12) 5. Identity vs. role confusion (12-20) 6. Intimacy vs. isolation (20-40) 7. Generativity vs. stagnation (40-65) 8. Ego vs. despair (65+)

97
Q

What is the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion?

A

In this theory, sensation and emotion are perceived independently. The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion asserts that the physiological arousal and the subjective feeling of an emotion arise from different parts of the brain and are separate and independent of one another. Emotions and bodily changes do not share a cause-and-effect relationship. Rather, they occur simultaneously, following a stimulating event.

98
Q

What is the James-Lange theory of emotion?

A

In this theory, a physical sensation precedes the emotion. The question does not specify that a physical sensation is perceived. The James-Lange theory hypothesized that a stimulus triggers a physiological response, which then leads to the subjective, conscious experience of emotion. For example, if you are watching a scary movie, your heart rate may become elevated, and that leads to the perception of fear. However, this theory is limited, since certain physiological states may be experienced as different emotions depending on context (such as either fear or excitement)

99
Q

What is the Schachter-Singer theory?

A

The Schachter-Singer theory stated that a stimulus first leads to physiological arousal, then a cognitive interpretation of the circumstances, and finally a perception of emotion. This resembles the James-Lange theory, but adds the element of cognitive appraisal, which helps explain how (for example) an elevated breathing rate can be interpreted as multiple different emotions based on context.

100
Q

How did Paul Ekman describe the universal human emotions?

A

Anger, contempt, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness, surprise

101
Q

What does functionalist theory say about aspects of culture?

A

Functionalist theories assert that aspects of culture are necessary and need-based.

102
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

Symbolic interactionism focuses on the symbolic meaning that people develop and rely upon in the process of social interactions. Smoking is an excellent example, because the social symbolism of smoking is a point of contention across social groups. In previous years—and to some extent in certain social circles now—smoking was seen as trendy, whereas in others it may be seen negatively as a symbol of poor self-regard and ignorance.

103
Q

What is conflict theory?

A

Conflict theory emphasizes the role of coercion and power in producing social order. It sees society as fragmented into groups that compete for social and economic resources. Social order is maintained by those with the most power, usually those with the greatest political, economic, and social capital. Conflict theory assert that bias and inequality are underlying aspects of education. Conflict theory states that individuals compete with each other in society over limited resources. Because of this, certain institutions, such as corporations, rise to the top, which statement II reflects. Groups can also come together, such as in a union

104
Q

What is functionalism?

A

Functionalism views society as a system of interconnected parts that carry out a specific role that enables them to cooperate to maintain social equilibrium for society as a whole.

105
Q

What is game theory?

A

Game theory views social interaction as a game in which there will be winners, losers, and proper ways to “play” in order to achieve “victory.”

106
Q

What is social exchange theory?

A

Social exchange theory views society as a series of interactions that are based on estimates of rewards and punishments. Similar to rational choice theory, social exchange posits that interactions are determined by the rewards or punishments that we receive from others. For example, if a relationship partner become “more trouble than he or she is worth,” the person may decide to end the relationship.

107
Q

What is rational choice theory?

A

Rational choice theory posits that people make individualistic, rational, and calculated decisions about all things in their lives. Since money is of primary importance to most people, individuals are often motivated by money and will calculate the costs and benefits of any action before deciding what to do.

108
Q

What is Maslow’s theory of self-actualization?

A

According to Maslow, self-actualization is a level of high achievement, in which you have done all you can and accomplished your goals to the best of your ability. This theory fits best with the idea that education should help children develop and reach their highest potential. Note that self-actualization is only one part of Maslow’s larger theory, termed his hierarchy of needs (from top to bottom: self-actualization, esteem, love/belonging, safety, physiological). According to this theory, individuals must fulfill the lower needs (like physiological or safety needs) before being free to work towards fulfilling the higher needs, of which self-actualization is the highest.

109
Q

What is Freud’s superego?

A

An aspect of the subconscious that emphasizes moral behavior

110
Q

What is Skinner’s operant conditioning theory?

A

Skinner’s operant conditioning theory is based on the idea that reward and punishment guide behavior

111
Q

What is Festinger’s cognitive dissonance theory?

A

Festinger’s cognitive dissonance theory suggests that incongruence between beliefs and behaviors guides behavior change.

112
Q

What are mores?

A

Mores are norms that are deemed highly necessary to the welfare of a society and have consequences if violated. Health behaviors (like seeking help for an acute medical illness) are standards of behavior that are necessary for the well-being of everyone; if a person does not seek help, they may be shunned by family members or friends.

113
Q

What are folkways?

A

Folkways are norms that govern everyday behavior (like holding a door open).

114
Q

What is social desirability bias?

A

Ex. participants may have felt pressured to respond in a way that minimizes ethnocentrism and promotes cultural relativism, because that may be the more socially acceptable response. This could cause a social desirability bias. This type of bias is most likely to affect research on cultural relativism and ethnocentrism.

115
Q

What is test-retest bias?

A

Test-retest bias can happen when participants take the same exam over and over again, which affects their responses

116
Q

What is Researcher bias?

A

Researcher bias occurs when a study’s design is biased.

117
Q

What is Harlow’s experiment?

A

In Harlow’s experiment, the infant monkeys preferred spending their time clinging to the cloth mother. Even when only the wire mother could provide food, the monkeys visited her just to eat. Harlow concluded that there was much more to the mother/infant relationship than milk and that this “contact comfort” was crucial to the psychological development and health of infants. After monkeys were paired with a Wire Mother, they showed abnormal behavior, which could not be corrected later in life by pairing them with a Cloth Mother

118
Q

Who is Sigmund Freud?

A

Sigmund Freud, the “father of psychoanalysis,” developed well-known theories focused on unconscious desires. Freud’s work centered around his ideas of the id (one’s largely unconscious set of primal urges), superego (one’s sense of moral purpose), and ego (the logic-based, more conscious balance between the two). Freud put his theories into practice in psychoanalytic therapy, a process in which a psychologist or other therapist converses with a patient one-on-one to address certain mental or emotional issues.

119
Q

Who is B.F. Skinner?

A

American psychologist B. F. Skinner was an early behaviorist, meaning that he systematically studied behavior in conjunction with other factors (environmental, motivational, etc.). Skinner is best known for his work in operant conditioning, where he used a device called a “Skinner box” to study the effects of rewards and punishments on behavior.

120
Q

Who is Gordon Allport?

A

Psychologist Gordon Allport is known for his studies of personality, where he outlined a form of trait theory that included three basic types of traits: cardinal traits, central traits, and secondary traits. Cardinal traits are those around which people organize their entire lives. In contrast, central traits are defining characteristics of a person that can be easily inferred from that person’s behavior. Finally, secondary traits are those that only occur sometimes, particularly when a person is in a certain social situation

121
Q

Who is John B. Watson?

A

John B. Watson’s Little Albert experiment involved the use of classical conditioning and stimulus generalization to cause a healthy young boy to fear furry animals and objects.

122
Q

Who is Soloman Asch?

A

Solomon Asch’s conformity experiment demonstrated that individuals often conform to a group view, even when the group view differs from a clearly correct answer. Asch used a task in which a participant, along with several of Asch’s confederates, were told to judge the relative lengths of drawn lines. The confederates would give a clearly-incorrect opinion regarding which line was shorter or longer, causing the participant (who did not know that the others in the room were “in on it”) to conform to this incorrect view in some cases.

123
Q

Who is Albert Bandura?

A

Albert Bandura, a social cognitive psychologist, famously conducted his “Bobo doll” experiments, which showed that children can display observational learning for aggressive behavior when they watch adults exhibit such behavior.

124
Q

Who is Zimbardo Stanford?

A

Zimbardo’s Stanford prison experiment focused on the effects of power and authority on individuals. Participants designated as “guards” were given power over participants designated as “prisoners,” and over time, the guards began to exhibit progressively more abusive and problematic behavior.

125
Q

Who is Milgram?

A

Milgram’s electric shock experiment also relates to authority. This experiment indicated that participants were willing to administer painful stimuli to others if instructed to do so by an authority figure. In reality, the “others” in the study were actors who were simply pretending to be shocked.

126
Q

Who is Abraham Maslow?

A

Abraham Maslow famously developed Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, a schematic of human needs in order from the most basic (food, water, etc.) to the most high-level (self-actualization).

127
Q

Who is Hans Eysenck?

A

Hans Eysenck studied personality with a strong focus on the biological perspective, which considers personality differences to be the result of biological factors.

128
Q

Who is Harry Harlow?

A

Harry Harlow examined parent/child attachment, social isolation, and dependency in rhesus monkeys.

129
Q

Who is Muzafer Sharif?

A

Muzafer Sharif’s Robber’s Cave experiment examined the intergroup conflicts that arise in response to competition over limited resources.

130
Q

Define anomie

A

Anomie refers to society feeling fragmented and lacking cohesiveness. There are rapid changes in society, low levels of income, and high heterogeneity

131
Q

What functions are involved in the prefrontal cortices?

A

The prefrontal cortices of adolescents are still developing. Much executive decision-making, such as considering risk and making choices, takes place in this area.

132
Q

What functions are involves in the hippocampus?

A

The hippocampus plays an important role in memory function, but it does not relate to risk-taking.

133
Q

What functions are involved in neural plasticity?

A

Neural plasticity is the ability of the neurons of the brain to “rewire” and strengthen connections over time. If anything, younger individuals would display greater neural plasticity than older adults.

134
Q

Define internal validity

A

Internal validity refers to the degree to which causal conclusions can be drawn from a study, which can include accounting for potential confounding variables. E.g. Adding the additional measurement point of pre-intervention condom use and controlling for that variable statistically would considerably improve the degree to which one could make conclusions about how Truvada use affected participants’ behavior.

135
Q

Define external validity

A

External validity describes the degree to which the findings of a study are generalizable to the population as a whole. Typically, this involves issues regarding the size and representativeness of the sample.

136
Q

Define face validity

A

Face validity describes the extent to which a study appears to assess what it is intended to assess—that is, more or less, the degree to which it “seems right” to participants and researchers.

137
Q

Define content validity

A

Content validity refers to whether a study comprehensively accounts for all the relevant facets of the phenomenon it is intended to investigate.

138
Q

What is test-test reliability?

A

Test-test reliability refers to the fact that a good test should give stable results over time.

139
Q

What is validity?

A

Validity is a measure of how well a given experiment actually measures what it sets out to measure. If a study has internal validity, then the study has internally been well constructed, using things like large random samples, safeguards against confounding variables, reasonable and reliable processes and instruments, etc. If a study is internally valid, we can then assess whether it has external validity—can the results of the experiment be generalized to other settings? After all, if a study only shows that X is related to Y for this experimental group, then it’s not very valuable for drawing conclusions about the larger population. To have external validity, an experiment must tightly control any situational variables in the execution of the study. Finally, construct validity refers to how well a given assessment (a survey, a test, etc.) actually measures what it claims to measure— whether it has been properly constructed to measure the relevant thing.

140
Q

What is the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion?

A

In the cognitive appraisal theory of emotion, individuals make different interpretations about stimuli, such as interpreting stigma negatively or non-negatively. According to the theory, stress is a two-way process; it involves the production of stressors by the environment as well as the response of an individual subjected to these stressors. Cognitive appraisal occurs when a person considers the threat posed by and the resources needed to minimize the stressors affecting them.

141
Q

What is the Darwinian theory of emotion?

A

Darwin studied the evolution of emotion, examining emotion from the perspective of its value in successful reproduction.

142
Q

What does thinning in operant conditioning refer to?

A

In operant conditioning, thinning refers to reducing the frequency of rewards or a given action. E.g. reducing the frequency of rewards for medication compliance

143
Q

In peer relationships and self-esteem, late physical maturation in pubescents has been found to what kind of effect on males? Females? (Positive or negative)

A

Females tend to benefit from maturing later, due in part to feeling less self-conscious about body image. In contrast, males tend to feel more self-conscious if they develop later.

144
Q

What is impression management?

A

Impression management involves the control of information about oneself and is characterized by flattery, boasting, and ingratiation.

145
Q

Define self-actualization

A

Self-actualization refers to the individual’s striving to realize his or her potential and to develop inherent talents and capabilities.

146
Q

Define self-awareness

A

Self-awareness is the “peak” level of consciousness, which signifies perception of the autobiographical character of a person’s life experience.

147
Q

Define self-concept

A

Self-concept is an individual’s mental model of his or her abilities and attributes.

148
Q

Define self-efficacy

A

Self-efficacy is the belief that one can perform adequately in a particular situation.

149
Q

Define self-esteem

A

Self-esteem, often analogized to self-image, is the attitude which influences moods and exerts a powerful effect on an individual’s personal and social behaviors.

150
Q

Define self-fulfilling prophecy

A

Self-fulfilling prophecy is the phenomenon wherein an individual believes an event will occur and, consciously or unconsciously, behaves in such a way as to bring about this prediction. The prophecy can be positive or negative.

151
Q

Define self-handicapping

A

Self-handicapping is the process of developing (anticipating failure) behavioral reactions and explanations that minimize personal responsibility for the failure.

152
Q

Define self-perception theory

A

Self-perception theory posits that people observe themselves in order to figure out the reasons they act as they do.

153
Q

Define self-serving bias

A

Self-serving bias is a set of biases in which people take credit for their successes and deny responsibility for failures.

154
Q

Define role strain

A

Role strain involves a problem fitting into an existing role, such as the student’s problem with getting good grades.

155
Q

Define role conflict

A

Role conflict involves two roles coming into conflict, such as when the student experiences conflict as a student and worker.

156
Q

Define role

A

A role is a collection of behaviors, values, norms, attitudes, and beliefs that are expected of a person holding a particular status. Every status can have multiple, varied roles attached to it. This collection of roles is known as a role set. These different roles are often defined by one’s role partner, the person with whom one interacts within a given role.

157
Q

What is Erikson’s stage of generativity vs. stagnation?

A

Generativity vs. stagnation is a basic conflict that occurs during middle adulthood (ages 40-65), when individuals are trying to balance employment and being parents.

158
Q

What is Erikson’s stage of intimacy vs. isolation?

A

Intimacy vs. isolation occurs during young adulthood (19-40 years), when individuals need to form intimate relationships with other people.

159
Q

What is Erikson’s stage of ego integrity vs. despair?

A

validity is a measure of how well a given experiment actually measures what it sets out to measure. If a study has internal validity, then the study has internally been well constructed, using things like large random samples, safeguards against confoundi

160
Q

What is Erikson’s stage of identity vs. role confusion?

A

Identity vs. role confusion occurs during adolescence (12 to 18 years), when teens are trying to develop social relationships with others and find a sense of self or personal identity.

161
Q

Define sympathetic response

A

The sympathetic response refers to the release of epinephrine and norepinephrine during the “fight-or-flight” response to stress or danger, as assessed by the body.

162
Q

Define activation-synthesis hypothesis

A

Activation-synthesis theory deals with the differences in neuronal activity of the brainstem during waking and REM sleep, and the hypothesis proposes that dreams result from brain activation during REM sleep.

163
Q

Define general adaptation syndrome

A

General adaptation syndrome is a term created by Hans Selye to describe the body’s short-term and long-term reactions to stress. Selye thought that the general adaptation syndrome involved two major systems of the body, the nervous system and the endocrine system. He then went on to outline what he considered as three distinctive stages in the syndrome’s evolution. He called these stages the alarm reaction (AR), the stage of resistance (SR), and the stage of exhaustion (SE).

164
Q

Define the house money effect

A

Thaler and Johnson have found that individual risk-taking behavior is affected by prior gains and losses. They found that after a prior gain, people become more open to assuming risk since the new money is not treated as one’s own.

165
Q

Define the gambler’s fallacy

A

The gambler’s fallacy is the mistaken belief that, if something happens more frequently than normal during some period, it will happen less frequently in the future, or vice versa. For example, someone who bets on red on a roulette wheel because the last 5 spins have all landed on black.

166
Q

Define the prisoner’s dilemma

A

The prisoner’s dilemma is a standard example from psychological game theory that shows why two completely “rational” individuals might not cooperate, even if it appears that it is in their best interests to do so.

167
Q

Define a ratio level of measurement

A

A ratio level of measurement is one in which there are a range of quantitative responses, ordered at equally-spaced intervals, and with it being possible to score 0 (complete absence of the quantity)

168
Q

Define assimilation

A

Assimilation is a strategy in which the individual seeks to interact with the new culture and reject the native culture

169
Q

Define separation

A

Separation is rejecting the new culture and maintaining the native culture.

170
Q

Define marginalization

A

Marginalization involves the rejection of both cultures.

171
Q

Define integration

A

Integration involves identifying with both cultures.

172
Q

Define general strain theory

A

General strain theory holds that individuals who have experienced negative events feel negative emotions, which lead to negative behaviors.

173
Q

Define relative deprivation theory

A

Relative deprivation theory posits that individuals who perceive themselves as having less resources than others will often act in ways to obtain these resources.

174
Q

Define the id

A

one’s largely unconscious set of primal urges

175
Q

Define the ego

A

the logic-based, more conscious balance between the two

176
Q

Define the superego

A

one’s sense of moral purpose

177
Q

What makes up the parietal lobe and what is its function?

A

The parietal lobe integrates multiple inputs of sensory information, from spatial sense and navigation (proprioception) to temperature (thermoreceptors) and touch (mechanoreceptors). Lesioning this area of the brain would likely interfere with the dowser’s ability to detect hot objects, if this were the true basis of the ability. The parietal lobe is associated with integrating various sensory input, and both the parietal and temporal lobes are important for language.

178
Q

What is the lateral geniculate nucleus?

A

The lateral geniculate nucleus is a visual information relay center in the thalamus. The LGN detects and interprets information from the retina and passes it on to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe.

179
Q

What functions are the frontal lobe involved in?

A

The frontal lobe does not process information from thermoreceptors or mechanoreceptors. It is primarily involved in controlling cognitive skills, such as emotion expression, judgment, problem solving, and sexual behavior.

180
Q

What makes up the brain stem and what is its function?

A

The brainstem consists of the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata, and provides the connection from the brain to the spinal cord. It regulates crucial functions basic to the survival of the organism, such as like heart rate, respiration, sleep, and overall activation of the rest of the CNS

181
Q

Where is the cerebellum and what is its function?

A

The cerebellum, found just underneath the occipital lobe, serves to direct complex coordinated movement, such as walking or playing the piano.

182
Q

What are the basal ganglia and what are their function?

A

The basal ganglia are involved in several functions, including voluntary movement, habitual behaviors, learning, and emotion.

183
Q

Where are the cerebral cortices, what makes them up, and what are their functions?

A

The cerebral cortices overlay the rest of the brain’s structures and are responsible for many of the higher functions seen in humans. The cortices can be divided into four lobes: frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal.

184
Q

What is the function of the frontal lobe?

A

making judgments and regulating behavior as a part of executive functioning

185
Q

What is the function of the occipital lobe and where is it?

A

The occipital lobe is most closely related to visual processing, as data from the optic nerves are sent directly there.

186
Q

Where is the amygdala and what is its function?

A

in the forebrain include the amygdala, which processes memory, emotions, and decision-making

187
Q

What is the function of the hippocampus?

A

consolidates short-term memory into long-term memory

188
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

major link between the nervous and endocrine systems via the pituitary gland

189
Q

What is the pineal gland?

A

modulates sleep through melatonin productions

190
Q

What is the thalamus?

A

relays sense and motor signals and regulates sleep and awareness

191
Q

What is the limbic system?

A

The limbic system includes the hypothalamus, hippocampus, amygdala, and several other structures, and plays a major role in emotions, memory, and motivation. It is distinct from the mesolimbic pathway (or reward pathway), which is located in the midbrain and plays a role in addiction.

192
Q

Define reciprocal determinism

A

Reciprocal determinism is the theory set forth by Albert Bandura that a person’s behavior both influences and is influenced by personal factors and the environment. IEx, a skeptic does not believe in the supernatural power of a medium, but attends multiple séances where they may see evidence that could soften their views. It appears this behavior of attending séances, in conjunction with the social environment of others who attend the séances, caused the skeptic’s views on supernatural phenomena to shift.

193
Q

Define social facilitation

A

Social facilitation refers to improved performance while in the presence of a group.

194
Q

Define social control

A

Social control refers to enforcement of conformity.

195
Q

Define social cognitive theory

A

Social cognitive theory asserts that people learn by watching others, and if they see someone is rewarded for a behavior, they are more likely to behave that way too

196
Q

Define classical conditioning theory

A

Classical conditioning involves pairing two stimuli to produce a specific response.

197
Q

Define operant conditioning theory

A

Operant conditioning uses reinforcement or punishment to increase or decrease likelihood of an individual’s behavior. In this case, the first rude shopper was reinforced for acting like a jerk, so he is more likely to behave that way in the future, but the second shopper hasn’t had any consequences to increase or decrease her rude behavior.

198
Q

Define protectionism

A

Protectionism refers to a country rejecting trade with others and being isolative, which is inversely proportional to globalization.