MCAT Psychology Flashcards
A medical student is feeling a high level of stress due to upcoming exams and pressure from his family to engage in activities at home. He chooses to go to the gym for a workout to help himself relax. This workout is which type of stress?
A) Hassle
B) Frustration
C) Distress
D) Eustress
D
A positive stressor creates eustress. Because working out is used to relax, it is considered a eustress. Hassle and frustration are both types of distress, or negative stressors.
A 28-year-old male comes to a clinic concerned that he has pancreatic cancer. Review of his medical records shows that this is the fourth time in the past year that the patient has appeared for medical attention. No identifiable medical problem is found. When confronted with this history, he confess he feels relieved after being told that all of the tests are negative, but soon becomes worried again that he has cancer. Based on the information, the most likely diagnosis for this patient would be:
A) Major depressive disorder
B) Illness anxiety disorder
C) Conversion disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder
B
In illness anxiety disorder, the person is preoccupied with fears that he has—or will come down with—a serious disease, and these fears continue even after medical exams and tests have returned negative results.
Matt and Cati discuss the reasons why they avoid driving above the speed limit. Matt says that he wants to avoid a traffic fine, while Cati says that speeding is dangerous and, if everyone did it, there would be more accidents and people would get hurt. According to Kohlberg, which of the following describes the phases of moral reasoning demonstrated by Matt and Cati, respectively?
A) Preconventional; conventional
B) Preconventional; postconventional
C) Conventional; preconventional
D) Postconventional; conventional
A
Matt’s reasoning reflects a desire to avoid punishment, which reflects stage one in Kohlberg’s preconventional phase (obedience). Cati’s reasoning takes into account social order, reflecting stage four in the conventional phase (law and order).
Your neighbor asks you to check his mail while he is out of town, and you agree. Later that day, he asks you to water his plants as well. What technique for compliance is he using in this scenario?
A) Lowball technique
B) That’s-not-all technique
C) Foot-in-the-door technique
D) Door-in-the-face technique
C
This is a prime example of the foot-in-the-door technique. The neighbor first asks for a small favor and, after receiving commitment, asks for a larger favor.
Simultaneously processing of conscious emotions and physiological activation is the defining feature of which theory of emotion?
A) Schachter-Singer theory
B) James-Lange theory
C) Incentive theory
D) Cannon-Bard theory
D
The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion is based on the premise that conscious feelings and physiological components of emotion are experienced at exactly the same time. In this theory, this combination then leads to action. This is commonly confused with the Schachter-Singer, in which the nervous system arousal occurs and then is labeled based on the context provided by the environment.
Becoming a college graduate requires hard work and diligence in academics. As such, being a college graduate could be considered a(n):
A) Ascribed status
B) Achieved status
C) Master status
D) Pigeonholed status
B
An achieved status is one that is acquired through personal efforts. This is in contrast to an ascribed status in which the status is involuntarily given based on race, ethnicity, gender, family background, and so on. A master status is one that influences all aspects of an individual’s life. While being a college graduate is an important aspect of day-to-day life, it does not usually pervade every part of our lives.
Which of the following are true regarding nerve cells?
A) Sensory neurons are also referred to as efferent neurons
B) Interneurons are also referred to as afferent neurons
C) Motor neurons transmit information from receptors to the brain
D) Sensory neurons transmit information from receptors to the brain
D
Sensory neurons are also referred to as afferent neurons, while motor neurons are also referred to as efferent neurons. Motor neurons transmit motor information from the brain to the body and sensory neurons transmit sensory information from receptors to the brain.
Which component of the nervous system is NOT involved in the initial response to pain?
A) Spinal cord
B) Cerebral cortex
C) Interneuron
D) Motor neuron
B
The cerebral cortex is not involved in the initial reflexive response to pain. Instead, the sensory receptors send information to the interneurons in the spinal cord, which stimulate a motor neuron to allow quick withdrawal. While the brain does ultimately get the signal, the reflexive withdrawal has already occurred by that time.
A child has experienced nervous system damage and can no longer coordinate the movements to dribble a basketball, although she can still walk in an uncoordinated fashion. Which region of the central nervous system was most likely affected?
A) Forebrain
B) Midbrain
C) Hindbrain
D) Spinal cord
C
The hindbrain is responsible for balance and motor coordination, which would be necessary for dribbling a basketball. The midbrain manages sensorimotor reflexes that also promote survival. The forebrain is associated with emotion, memory, and higher-order cognition. The spinal cord is likely not damaged as the child can still walk.
The temporal lobe deals with all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Language comprehension
B) Memory
C) Emotion
D) Motor skills
D
The temporal lobes have many functions, but motor skills are not associated with this area. The temporal lobes contain Wernicke’s area, which is responsible for language comprehension. The temporal lobes also function in emotion and memory because they contain the amygdala and hippocampus. Motor skills are associated with the frontal lobe (primary motor cortex), basal ganglia (smooth movements), and cerebellum (coordination).
Which part of the brain deals with both homeostasis and emotions?
A) Cerebellum
B) Pons
C) Hypothalamus
D) Thalamus
C
The hypothalamus is responsible for homeostatic and emotional functions. The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining posture and balance while the pons is above the medulla and contains sensory and motors tracts between the cortex and the medulla. The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory information.
Which of the following activities would most likely be completed by the right hemisphere of a left-handed person?
A) Finding a car in a parking lot
B) Learning a new language
C) Reading a book for pleasure
D) Jumping rope with friends
A
The right hemisphere is usually the nondominant hemisphere, even in left-handed individuals. Sense of direction is an ability of the nondominant hemisphere. The other choices are all abilities attributed to the dominant hemisphere.
Which of the following is/are true with regard to neurulation?
I. The neural tube differentiates from the endoderm
II. The neural tube becomes the peripheral nervous system
III. Neural crest cells migrate from their original site
A) I only
B) III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III
B
Neurulation occurs when the notochord causes differentiation of overlying ectoderm into the neural tube and neural crest cells. The neural tube ultimately becomes the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord), and neural crest cells migrate to other sites in the body to differentiate into a number of different tissues.
Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT classified as a catecholamine?
A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dopamine
D) Acetylcholine
D
Acetylcholine is not a catecholamine; however, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine are.
If the amount of acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, is increased, which of the following would likely be the result?
A) Weakness of muscle movements
B) Excessive pain or discomfort
C) Mood swings and mood instability
D) Auditory and visual hallucinations
A
If there were increased amounts of acetylcholinesterase, more acetylcholine would be degraded, lowering acetylcholine levels in the body. Low levels of acetylcholine would result in weakness of paralysis of muscles. Pain could result if one were injured and endorphins were found in low levels. Mood swings could be a result of varying levels of serotonin. Hallucinations have been seen to result from high levels of dopamine.
The adrenal glands do all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Promote the fight-or-flight response via estrogen
B) Produce stress responses via cortisol
C) Produce both hormones and neurotransmitters
D) Release estrogen in males and testosterone in females
A
The adrenal glands do promote the fight-or-flight response, but through epinephrine and norepinephrine, not estrogen. The adrenal cortex produces both estrogen and testosterone in both sexes, thus serving as a source of estrogen in males and testosterone in females.
A disorder of the pineal gland would most likely result in which of the following disorders?
A) High blood pressure
B) Diabetes
C) Insomnia
D) Hyperthyroidism
C
The pineal gland is responsible for producing melatonin, which controls the body’s circadian rhythm. Insomnia would be a disturbance of this circadian rhythm, and may be attributable to a pineal gland disorder in some cases. Hypertension, diabetes, and hyperthyroidism would be unrelated to issues with the pineal gland.
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with both schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease?
A) GABA
B) Serotonin
C) Dopamine
D) Enkephalins
C
Schizophrenia is associated with high levels of dopamine or high sensitivity to dopamine. Parkinson’s disease is associated with destruction of the dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia.
In a personality survey, which set of twins would be expected to score most similarly?
A) Identical twins raised in different homes
B) Fraternal twins raised in different homes
C) Identical twins raised in the same home
D) Fraternal twins raised in the same home
C
Personality is seen to be somewhat hereditary, as monozygotic, or identical, twins have been seen to express more of the same personality traits. However, environment is also a factor. Thus, identical twins raised in the same home would be expected to have the most similar personalities.
During a physical examination, a physician brushes the bottom of the foot of a fifty-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis. Her toes are observed to curl toward the bottom of her foot, with no fanning of the toes. This response is:
A) Abnormal, and evidence that she is exhibiting a primitive reflex
B) Normal, and evidence that she is exhibiting a primitive reflex
C) Abnormal, and evidence that she is not exhibiting a primitive reflex
D) Normal, and evidence that she is not exhibiting a primitive reflex
D
The Babinski reflex is a primitive reflex that refers to an extension of the big toe accompanied by fanning of the other toes. It is normal in infants, but should disappear with time - certainly by the time a child begins to walk. In a fifty-year-old woman, the Babinski reflex would be abnormal. However, despite her neurological illness, this patient is exhibiting a normal response to the brushing of her foot; that is, she is not showing the Babinski reflex.
Which of the following fine motor tasks would one expect to see first in an infant?
A) Grasping for objects with two fingers
B) Following objects with the eyes
C) Scribbling with a crayon
D) Moving a toy from one hand to the other
B
Motor skills tend to develop from the core toward the periphery. Following objects with the eyes occurs around four weeks of age. The other actions all require movements of the hand, which do not occur in an organized fashion until later.
A weight lifter is just able to tell the difference between 100 and 125 pounds. According to Weber’s law, the lifter would notice a difference between:
A) 125 and 150 pounds
B) 5 and 6 pounds
C) 25 and 35 pounds
D) 225 and 275 pounds
C
Weber’s law posits that thresholds are proportional. Going from 100 to 125 pounds is a 25 percent increase. Choice C is a 40% increase while all the rest are under 25%.
A man is at a party with his wife. There is loud music in the background and the location is crowded. While listening to the music he hears what he believes to be his wife’s laughter and turns around to investigate. The man is exhibiting:
A) Feature detection
B) Bottom-up processing
C) Vestibular sense
D) Signal detection
D
The man is discerning a specific noise within a field of many noises. This is the definition of signal detection. In an experimental setup, his response would be considered a hit if his wife was indeed laughing; his response would be considered a false alarm if his wife was not laughing.
A woman is at a restaurant and orders a spicy entrée. After the first bite, she experiences burning in her mouth and becomes concerned that her food is too hot for her. The next few bites are similarly uncomfortable, but after a while the spiciness seems to subside somewhat, and by the end of the meal, she doesn’t notice the spice level. The end of the meal experience is best described as:
A) Adaptation
B) Signal detection
C) A difference threshold
D) Pain perception
A
The spicy food can be considered an extreme stimulus because it eclipses what the woman believes she can handle in terms of heat. However, after experiencing the stimulus over and over, the experience of spice drops to barely perceptible. This is sensory adaptation: a reduction in response to a stimulus over time.
Which sensory receptors send signals in response to tissue damage?
A) Chemoreceptors
B) Nociceptors
C) Osmoreceptors
D) Photoreceptors
B
Nociceptors are important for pain sensation, which would be expected during tissue damage. Chemoreceptors response to chemicals, whether volatile or aerosolized (olfaction) or dissolved (taste). Osmoreceptors respond to changes in blood osmolarity, and photoreceptors respond to light.
Which part of the eye is responsible for gathering a focusing light?
A) Cornea
B) Pupil
C) Iris
D) Retina
A
The cornea is responsible for gathering and focusing light. The iris and pupil are both involved in regulating the amount of light coming into the eye but not focusing it. The retina transduces the light into electrical signals that are sent to the brain. The lens serves a similar function to the cornea and would also be a valid answer to this question.
A man is looking for change to do laundry. He decides to look under the seats of his car. He uses a flashlight but is still unable to get more than an obscured look at the space below. there are various items such as wrappers and papers, but the man sees the glint of silver from an object laying flat and determines it to be a coin. To make this determination, this man used:
A) Signal detection
B) Sensory adaptation
C) Feature detection
D) Kinesthetic sense
C
This man was able to distinguish the coin from other items by recognizing specific features of the coin; in this case, it was the glint of the metal surface and its position in the car. This phenomenon is called feature detection.
Upon which part of the eye are images projected and transduced into electrical signals?
A) Cornea
B) Pupil
C) Retina
D) Lens
C
The retina is the part of the eye upon which images are projected. Rods and cones in the retina then convert the electromagnetic radiation into electrical signals.
The ability to sense stimuli against one’s own skin is known as:
A) Somatosensation
B) Kinesthetic sense
C) Vestibular sense
D) Chemoreception
A
Somatosensation refers to the various modalities of touch: pressure, vibration, temperature, and pain. Kinesthetic sense refers to the ability to tell where one’s body is in space. Vestibular sense refers to the detection of linear and rotational acceleration in the middle ear. Finally, chemoreception refers to sensing chemicals in the environment.
Which of the following is NOT a taste modality?
A) Sweet
B) Floral
C) Savory
D) Bitter
B
The five tastes are sweet, sour, salty, bitter and umami. Floral would be related to smell rather than taste.
Which of the following best describes the difference between endolymph and perilymph?
A) Endolymph is found in the vestibule, while perilymph is found in the cochlea.
B) Endolymph is found in the cochlea, while the perilymph is found in the vestibule.
C) Endolymph is found in the membranous labyrinth, while perilymph is found in the bony labyrinth.
D) Endolymph is found in the bony labyrinth, while perilymph is found in the membranous labyrinth.
C
Endolymph is the potassium-rich fluid that bathes the hair cells of the inner ear, all of which are found within the membranous labyrinth. Perilymph is found in the space between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth. Both the membranous labyrinth and bony labyrinth contribute to the cochlea and the vestibule.
Chemicals that compel behavior after binding with chemoreceptors are known as:
A) Pheromones
B) Olfactory receptors
C) Somatostimuli
D) Papillae
A
Pheromones are the volatile chemicals given off by organisms that bind with olfactory chemoreceptors and influence behavior. It is debatable if pheromones serve a role in humans, but are known to affect foraging and sexual behavior in some animals.
Prolonged vitamin B12 deficiency can be associated with subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Patients with this disease have difficulty walking because they lose the ability to feel where their feet are in space. This represents a loss of:
A) Vestibular sense
B) Kinesthetic sense
C) Parallel processing
D) Feature detection
B
Kinesthetic sense, or proprioception, refers to the ability to tell where body parts are in three-dimensional space. The sensors for proprioception are found predominantly in the muscles and joints. Loss of vestibular sense would also cause difficulty walking, but this would be due to a sense of dizziness or vertigo, not an inability to feel one’s feet.
A person proofreading a paper reads over a long, misspelled word in which an “e” is replaced with an “o”. The person does not recognize the error and reads the word as correct. Which of the following could explain why the proofreader read the word as correct?
A) Parallel processing
B) Feature detection
C) Top-down processing
D) Bottom-up processing
C
The proofreader used a larger pattern to identify the word and expected to see an “e,” thus missing the error. This is related to top-down processing; the proofreader used recognition and expectations, which led to missing a detail. Bottom-up processing would be the analysis of each detail individually before creating a cohesive image.
A patient comes in with a tumor of the pituitary gland which has grown upward into the optic chiasm and caused a visual field defect. The most likely defect from compression of the optic chiasm is:
A) Complete blindness in one eye
B) Loss of the upper visual fields in both eyes
C) Loss of the nasal visual fields in both eyes
D) Loss of the temporal visual fields in both eyes
D
The optic chiasm houses the crossing fibers from each optic nerve. Specifically, the fibers coming from the nasal half of the retina in each eye cross in the chiasm to join the optic tract on the opposite side. Remember that the lens of the eye causes inversion, so images on the nasal half of the retina actually originate in the temporal visual field. This condition is called bitemporal hemianopsia.
Each individual in a group of teenagers is asked to estimate the height of a tree. One individual estimates the height to be 25 feet, but after discussing with the group is convinced that the height is likely closer to 40 feet. Which type of conformity is seen here?
A) Obedience
B) Identification
C) Internalization
D) Compliance
C
Internalization refers to the type of conformity in which an individual changes her outward opinion to match the group and also personally agrees with those ideas.
Researchers repeatedly startle a participant with a loud buzzer. After some time, the participant stops being startled by the buzzer. If the researchers interrupt the study with the sound of pans banging together, which of the following would likely be observed?
A) Increased startle response to the buzzer
B) Decreased startle response to the buzzer
C) No change in the response to the buzzer
D) Generalization to previously non-aversive stimuli
A
After a while, the participant became habituated to the sound of the buzzer. Introducing a new stimulus, such as the banging pans, should dishabituate (resensitize) the original stimulus, causing a temporary increase in response to the sound of the buzzer.
Many pets will run toward the kitchen when they hear the sound of a can opener opening a can of pet food. The sound of the can opener is a:
A) Conditioned response
B) Unconditioned response
C) Conditioned stimulus
D) Unconditioned stimulus
C
The sound of a can opener would not normally produce a response on its own, making it a stimulus that must have been conditioned by association with food.
A person suffers from food poisoning after eating a spoiled orange, and later finds that the smell of lemon and other citrus fruits make her nauseated. This is an example of:
A) Acquisition
B) Generalization
C) Discrimination
D) Negative reinforcement
B
Generalization is the process by which similar stimuli can produce the same conditioned response. Here, the response to the taste and smell of oranges has generalized to that of all citrus.
Which of the following processes would increase the likelihood of a behavior?
A) Extinction
B) Negative punishment
C) Positive punishment
D) Avoidance learning
D
Avoidance learning is a type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior is increased to prevent an unpleasant future consequence. Extinction is a decreased response to a conditioned stimulus when it is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus. Punishment lead to decreased behaviors in operant conditioning.
A credit card company begins applying an interest rate to credit card accounts in response to late payments. This is an example of:
A) Positive reinforcement because the bank will now make more money
B) Negative reinforcement because the bank is adding a fee to motivate the person to pay their bills
C) Positive punishment because the bank is adding a fee to reduce the incidence of late payments
D) Negative punishment because the bank is decreasing the amount the person has to pay
C
Because the credit card company wishes to decrease the behavior of late bill payments, this is a punishment. The company is adding something unpleasant by adding an additional fee, and is hoping to reduce the occurrence of late payments (the target behavior). The person is now having to pay additional money.
A rat is trained to press a lever to obtain food under a fixed-interval schedule. Which of the following behaviors would the rat most likely exhibit?
A) Pressing the lever continuously whenever it is hungry
B) Pressing the lever exactly once and waiting for the food pellet before pressing it again
C) Pressing the lever slowly at first, but with increasing frequency as the end of the interval approaches
D) None of the above; the association formed by fixed-interval schedules is too weak to increase behavior
C
In a fixed-interval schedule, the desired behavior is rewarded the first time it is exhibited after the fixed interval has elapsed. Both fixed-interval and fixed-ratio schedules tend to show this phenomenon; almost no response immediately after the reward is given, but the behavior increase as the rat gets close to receiving the reward
Which of the following is true of teaching an animal a complicated, multistage behavior?
I. The individual parts of the behavior should not run counter to the animal’s natural instincts.
II. The behaviors must be tied to a food reward of some kind.
III. Rewarding individual parts of the behavior on their own interferes with reinforcement of the entire behavior.
A) I only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III only
A
Complicated, multistage behaviors are typically taught through shaping, so statement III must not be part of the correct answer. Reinforcers do not necessarily need to be food-based, and instinctive drift can interfere with learning of complicated behaviors; therefore, only statement I is accurate.
Which of the following is true of controlled processing?
A) It is the means through which the information enters short-term memory
B) Information that requires controlled processing cannot become automatic
C) It always requires active attention to the information being encoded
D) Most information we can later recall is encoded using controlled processing
C
This is the definition of controlled processing and is the only answer choice that is necessarily true of controlled processing. Effortful processing is used to create long-term memories, and - with practice - can become automatic. Most of our day-to-day activities are processed automatically.
Which of the following methods of encoding is most conducive to later recall?
A) Semantic
B) Visual
C) Iconic
D) Acoustic
A
Semantic encoding, or encoding based on the meaning of the information, is the strongest of the methods of encoding. Visual encoding is the weakest, and acoustic encoding is intermediate between the two. Iconic memory is a type of sensory memory.
Which of the following would be most likely to be stored in long-term memory?
A) A list of nonsense words
B) A list of the dates of birth of 15 randomly selected people
C) A list of the names of musicians in an individual’s favorite bands
D) A list of the dates of battles in the Peloponnesian War
C
The self-reference effect indicates that information that is most meaningful to an individual is the most likely to be memorized. Choice C is the most personally relevant to the individual memorizing the list.
An individual memorizes a shopping list by associating each item with an image that corresponds with a number. This individual is using which of the following memories?
A) Clustering
B) Method of loci
C) Elaborative rehearsal
D) Peg-words
D
The association of words on a list to a preconstructed set of ideas is common to both the method-of-loci and peg-word mnemonics. Method-of-loci systems associate items with locations, while peg-word systems use images associated with numbers.
A researcher uses a partial-report procedure after presenting participants with an array of nine numbers for a fraction of a second. Which of the following is the most likely result of this procedure?
A) The participants will be able to recall any of the rows or columns in great detail but only immediately after presentation.
B) The participants will only be able to recall the first few numbers in the array due to the serial position effect.
C) The participants will be able to recall approximately seven of the numbers for a few seconds following presentation of the stimulus.
D) The participants will not be able to recall any of the numbers verbally, but will be able to draw the full array under hypnosis.
A
Partial-report procedures, in which the individual is asked to recall a specific portion of the stimulus, are incredibly accurate, but only for a very brief time. This is a method of studying sensory (specifically, iconic) memory. Both the serial position effect and the 7 +/- 2 rule are characteristics of short-term memory.
Which of the following is an example of a semantic memory?
A) Having the ability to drive a car
B) Knowing the parts of a car engine
C) Remembering the experience of learning to drive
D) Associating a car with other vehicles in a semantic network
B
Semantic memory is the category of long-term memory that refers to recall of facts, rather than experiences or skills. Be careful not to confuse semantic memory with semantic networks, which are the associations of similar concepts in the mind to aid in their retrieval.
Which of the following is an example of a semantic memory?
A) Having the ability to drive a car
B) Knowing the parts of a car engine
C) Remembering the experience of learning to drive
D) Associating a car with other vehicles in a semantic network
B
Semantic memory is the category of long-term memory that refers to recall of facts, rather than experiences or skills. Be careful not to confuse semantic memory with semantic networks, which are the associations of similar concepts in the mind to aid in their retrieval.
Which of the following would elderly individuals be most likely to have trouble recalling?
A) The circumstances of meeting his or her significant other in college
B) A doctor’s appointment scheduled for 1:00 p.m.
C) The names of the characters in his or her favorite television show
D) That a library book needs to be returned when passing by the library on a morning walk
B
Elderly individuals have the most trouble with time-based prospective memory, which is remembering to do an activity at a particular time. Other forms of memory are generally preserved, or may decline slightly but less significantly than time-based prospective memory.
Which of the following terms describes how existing schemata are modified to incorporate new information?
A) Assimilation
B) Adaptation
C) Affirmation
D) Accommodation
D
Jean Piaget hypothesized that new information is processed by adaptation. Adaptation is too broad of an answer because it includes both assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation is incorporation of new information into existing schemata. If the new information doesn’t fit, then accommodation occurs. Accommodation is the modification of existing schemata to account for new information.
Which of the following of Piaget’s stages of cognitive development occur before adolescence?
I. Preoperational
II. Sensorimotor
III. Formal operational
A) I only
B) II only
C) I and II
D) II and III
C
The sensorimotor, preoperational, and concrete operational stages occur prior to adolescence. The formal operational stage generally coincides with adolescence.
A student is volunteering in a hospital with a stroke center. When asked what he believes is the prevalence of stroke among those greater than 65 years old, the student states that it is probably about 40% even though data analysis indicates that is is significantly lower. What accounts for this error?
A) Deductive reasoning
B) Representativeness heuristic
C) Base rate fallacy
D) Confirmation bias
C
The base rate fallacy occurs when prototypical or stereotypical factors are used for analysis rather than actual data. Because the student is volunteering in a hospital with a stroke center, he sees more patients who have experienced a stroke than would be expected in a hospital without a stroke center. Thus, this experience changes his perception and results in base rate fallacy. Deductive reasoning refers to drawing conclusions by integrating different pieces of evidence. The representativeness heuristic involves categorization and classification based on how well an individual example fits its category. Confirmation bias occurs when a person only seeks information that reinforces his or her opinions.
Which of the following types of intelligence is NOT described by Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences?
A) Fluid intelligence
B) Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
C) Visual-spatial intelligence
D) Linguistic intelligence
A
Fluid intelligence consists of problem-solving skills and is not one of Gardner’s seven multiple intelligences. Gardner’s theory lists linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal intelligences.
EEG waveforms during REM sleep most resemble which of the following states of consciousness?
A) Alertness
B) Slow-wave sleep
C) Stage 1 sleep
D) Meditation
A
EEG during REM is composed mainly of beta waves, which are present during alertness. SWS consists mainly of delta waves, which are not typically present during REM sleep. Stage 1 sleep consists mainly of theta waves. Meditation is quieting of the mind, and consists mainly of slow alpha and theta waves.
Which of the following indicates the pattern of sleep stages during a complete sleep cycle early in the night?
A) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 - 2 - REM
B) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 3 - 2 - REM
C) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 - 2 - 3 - REM
D) 4 - 3 - 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 - REM
B
Early in the evening, sleep cycles include deepening of sleep (Stages 1 - 2 - 3 - 4), followed either by lightening of sleep (Stages 4 - 3 - 2) and then REM, or just directly moving from Stage 4 into REM. Later in the evening, the cycle may be shortened as slow-wave sleep becomes less common.
Increases in which of the following hormones cause sleepiness?
A) Cortisol
B) Growth hormone
C) Melatonin
D) Oxytocin
C
As light diminishes throughout the day, the pineal gland increases secretion of melatonin, resulting in sleepiness. Cortisol levels increase throughout the early morning, resulting in wakefulness. Growth hormone secretion peaks during slow-wave sleep. Oxytocin is associated with uterine contractions in childbirth, milk letdown, and bonding behavior.
Which theory of dreaming states that dreams and thoughts during wakeful periods use the same stream-of-consciousness system?
A) Activation-synthesis theory
B) Problem solving theory
C) Cognitive process theory
D) Neurocognitive theory
C
Cognitive theorists proposed in the cognitive process dream theory that wakeful and dreaming states use the same mental systems within the brain, particularly stream-of-consciousness. The activation-synthesis theory states that dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry. The problem-solving dream model indicates that dreams are used to solve problems while sleeping due to untethering of dreams from obstacles perceived while awake. The neurocognitive theorists seek to unify cognitive and biological perspectives by correlating the subjective dream experience with the physiological experience of dreaming.
A 19-year old college student is picked up by campus police after shoplifting a large bag of corn chips and a dozen ice cream sandwiches. His eyes are bloodshot. During questioning, he repeatedly asks for water because his mouth is dry, and he cannot stop giggling. Which is the psychoactive substance in the drug this student has most likely recently taken?
A) Alprazolam
B) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-methylamphetamine
C) Diacetylmorphine
D) Tetrahydrocannabinol
D
The description of the student matches the clinical features of marijuana (cannabis) use: hunger (presumably, based on his loot), redness of the eyes, dry mouth, and euphoria. Marijuana may also cause an increased heart rate, short-term memory loss, paranoia, and - in high doses - hallucinations. Tetrahydrocannabinol is the primary active substance in marijuana.
Language consists of multiple components. Which of the following involves the order in which words are put together?
A) Phonology
B) Semantics
C) Syntax
D) Pragmatics
C
Syntax refers to how words are put together to form sentences and create meaning. Phonology refers to the actual sounds of a language. Semantics refers to the association of meaning with a word. Pragmatics refers to changes in usage, and inflection based on context.
A child speaks in sentences of at least 3 words, but makes grammatical errors including misuse of the past tense. How old is this child likely to be?
A) 14 months
B) 22 months
C) 30 months
D) 5 years
C
A child who speaks in three-word sentences but has not yet mastered most of the fundamental rule of language, including past tense, is likely to be between two and three years old.
Which language theory states that language development occurs due to preferential reinforcement of certain phonemes by parents and caregivers?
A) Nativist theory
B) Learning theory
C) Social interactionist theory
D) Neurocognitive theory
B
Learning theory, largely based on the work of B. F. Skinner, states that parents reinforce phonemes that sound most like their language, resulting in preferential preservation of these phonemes. Nativist theory posits a critical period during which language acquisition occurs. Social interactionist theory indicates that language develops via interaction with parents and caregivers as well as a desire of the child to communicate. Neurocognitive theory is concerned with the subjective experience of dreaming and the physiology of dreaming.
A nine-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician. Her parents describe that any time she is startled, she appears to collapse and fall asleep. She also complains of waking up in the morning unable to move. Which sleep disorder should be suspected?
A) Insomnia
B) Sleep deprivation
C) Narcolepsy
D) Sleep apnea
C
The patient and her parents are describing cataplexy ( a sudden loss of muscle tone and intrusion of REM sleep during waking hours, usually in response to a startling or emotional trigger) and sleep paralysis (an inability to move despite being awake, usually when waking up in the morning). These symptoms are highly suggestive of narcolepsy; in fact, some consider cataplexy to be pathognomonic for (absolute indicative of) the disorder.
During which of the following stages does dreaming occur?
I. Stage 3
II. Stage 4
III. REM
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I, II, and III
D
About 75% of dreaming occurs during REM, but dreams occur in all other stages of sleep as well. More bizarre dreams are likely to occur during REM.
A college student strives for excellent grades and hopes to graduate with a better GPA than his brother. This type of motivation is considered:
A) Extrinsic motivation
B) Intrinsic motivation
C) A primary drive
D) A secondary drive
A
Due to the competitive nature of the motivation, this is considered extrinsic motivation. Extrinsic motivation is based on external conditions, including perceived reward or fear of punishment. In this case, the reward is beating his brother. There is no suggestion of an uncomfortable internal state or tension, which is an aspect of drives.
When practicing her recital song at home, a teenage girl sounds perfectly in pitch to her family and friends. However, when performing at the recital in front of a large audience of peers, strangers, and coaches, her pitch and tone are off, resulting in a poor performance. This second performance is best explained by:
A) Drive reduction theory
B) Instinct approach theory
C) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs
D) The Yerkes-Dodson law
D
The Yerkes-Dodson law states that there is an optimal level of arousal necessary to perform. If levels of arousal are too high, poor performance can result. In the case of this girl performing at her recital, her arousal level is very high as a result of nervousness and anxiety, resulting in a poor performance.
Seeking homeostasis to reduce an uncomfortable internal state is associated with which motivational theory?
A) Drive reduction theory
B) Instinct theory
C) Arousal theory
D) Incentive theory
A
Drive reduction theory is the theory that one will act to eliminate uncomfortable internal states known as drives. The body will push toward equilibrium, or homeostasis.
People from cultures around the world can identify which of the following emotions?
A) Happiness, sadness, and surprise
B) Happiness, anger, and apathy
C) Sadness, anticipation, and happiness
D) Excitement, anger, and disgust
A
The seven universal emotions are happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust and anger.
Experiencing emotion involves three components, which are:
A) Behavioral, reactionary, and cognitive
B) Emotional, physical, and mental
C) Physiological, cognitive, and behavioral
D) Emotional, cognitive, and behavioral
C
The three components of emotion are the physiological (changes in the autonomic nervous system), cognitive (subjective interpretation of an emotion), and behavioral (facial expressions and body language) responses.
The statement “I noticed my heart racing and breathing rate increasing when I saw a bear, so I am afraid,” corresponds most closely with which theory of emotion?
A) Schachter-Singer theory
B) Yerkes-Dodson theory
C) Cannon-Bard theory
D) James-Lange theory
D
Experiencing a physiological reaction to a stimulus and then labeling that response as emotion is in line with the James-Lange theory of emotion. In the statement, seeing the bear is the stimulus, an increase in heart rate and breathing rate is the physiological reaction, and identifying this as fear is the emotion experienced.
Which theory of motivation is most significantly informed by Darwin’s theory of evolution?
A) Arousal theory
B) Drive reduction theory
C) Instinct theory
D) Incentive theory
C
According to Darwin’s theory of evolution, all species have instincts that help them survive. The instinct theory of motivation states that people are motivated to act based on instincts that they are programmed to exhibit.
