MCAT Psychology

Question 1

A medical student is feeling a high level of stress due to upcoming exams and pressure from his family to engage in activities at home. He chooses to go to the gym for a workout to help himself relax. This workout is which type of stress?

A) Hassle
B) Frustration
C) Distress
D) Eustress

Answer 1

D

A positive stressor creates eustress. Because working out is used to relax, it is considered a eustress. Hassle and frustration are both types of distress, or negative stressors.

Question 2

A 28-year-old male comes to a clinic concerned that he has pancreatic cancer. Review of his medical records shows that this is the fourth time in the past year that the patient has appeared for medical attention. No identifiable medical problem is found. When confronted with this history, he confess he feels relieved after being told that all of the tests are negative, but soon becomes worried again that he has cancer. Based on the information, the most likely diagnosis for this patient would be:

A) Major depressive disorder
B) Illness anxiety disorder
C) Conversion disorder
D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer 2

B

In illness anxiety disorder, the person is preoccupied with fears that he has—or will come down with—a serious disease, and these fears continue even after medical exams and tests have returned negative results.

Question 3

Matt and Cati discuss the reasons why they avoid driving above the speed limit. Matt says that he wants to avoid a traffic fine, while Cati says that speeding is dangerous and, if everyone did it, there would be more accidents and people would get hurt. According to Kohlberg, which of the following describes the phases of moral reasoning demonstrated by Matt and Cati, respectively?

A) Preconventional; conventional
B) Preconventional; postconventional
C) Conventional; preconventional
D) Postconventional; conventional

Answer 3

A

Matt’s reasoning reflects a desire to avoid punishment, which reflects stage one in Kohlberg’s preconventional phase (obedience). Cati’s reasoning takes into account social order, reflecting stage four in the conventional phase (law and order).

Question 4

Your neighbor asks you to check his mail while he is out of town, and you agree. Later that day, he asks you to water his plants as well. What technique for compliance is he using in this scenario?

A) Lowball technique
B) That’s-not-all technique
C) Foot-in-the-door technique
D) Door-in-the-face technique

Answer 4

C

This is a prime example of the foot-in-the-door technique. The neighbor first asks for a small favor and, after receiving commitment, asks for a larger favor.

Question 5

Simultaneously processing of conscious emotions and physiological activation is the defining feature of which theory of emotion?

A) Schachter-Singer theory
B) James-Lange theory
C) Incentive theory
D) Cannon-Bard theory

Answer 5

D

The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion is based on the premise that conscious feelings and physiological components of emotion are experienced at exactly the same time. In this theory, this combination then leads to action. This is commonly confused with the Schachter-Singer, in which the nervous system arousal occurs and then is labeled based on the context provided by the environment.

Question 6

Becoming a college graduate requires hard work and diligence in academics. As such, being a college graduate could be considered a(n):

A) Ascribed status
B) Achieved status
C) Master status
D) Pigeonholed status

Answer 6

B

An achieved status is one that is acquired through personal efforts. This is in contrast to an ascribed status in which the status is involuntarily given based on race, ethnicity, gender, family background, and so on. A master status is one that influences all aspects of an individual’s life. While being a college graduate is an important aspect of day-to-day life, it does not usually pervade every part of our lives.

Question 7

Which of the following are true regarding nerve cells?

A) Sensory neurons are also referred to as efferent neurons
B) Interneurons are also referred to as afferent neurons
C) Motor neurons transmit information from receptors to the brain
D) Sensory neurons transmit information from receptors to the brain

Answer 7

D

Sensory neurons are also referred to as afferent neurons, while motor neurons are also referred to as efferent neurons. Motor neurons transmit motor information from the brain to the body and sensory neurons transmit sensory information from receptors to the brain.

Question 8

Which component of the nervous system is NOT involved in the initial response to pain?

A) Spinal cord
B) Cerebral cortex
C) Interneuron
D) Motor neuron

Answer 8

B

The cerebral cortex is not involved in the initial reflexive response to pain. Instead, the sensory receptors send information to the interneurons in the spinal cord, which stimulate a motor neuron to allow quick withdrawal. While the brain does ultimately get the signal, the reflexive withdrawal has already occurred by that time.

Question 9

A child has experienced nervous system damage and can no longer coordinate the movements to dribble a basketball, although she can still walk in an uncoordinated fashion. Which region of the central nervous system was most likely affected?

A) Forebrain
B) Midbrain
C) Hindbrain
D) Spinal cord

Answer 9

C

The hindbrain is responsible for balance and motor coordination, which would be necessary for dribbling a basketball. The midbrain manages sensorimotor reflexes that also promote survival. The forebrain is associated with emotion, memory, and higher-order cognition. The spinal cord is likely not damaged as the child can still walk.

Question 10

The temporal lobe deals with all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Language comprehension
B) Memory
C) Emotion
D) Motor skills

Answer 10

D

The temporal lobes have many functions, but motor skills are not associated with this area. The temporal lobes contain Wernicke’s area, which is responsible for language comprehension. The temporal lobes also function in emotion and memory because they contain the amygdala and hippocampus. Motor skills are associated with the frontal lobe (primary motor cortex), basal ganglia (smooth movements), and cerebellum (coordination).

Question 11

Which part of the brain deals with both homeostasis and emotions?

A) Cerebellum
B) Pons
C) Hypothalamus
D) Thalamus

Answer 11

C

The hypothalamus is responsible for homeostatic and emotional functions. The cerebellum is responsible for maintaining posture and balance while the pons is above the medulla and contains sensory and motors tracts between the cortex and the medulla. The thalamus acts as a relay station for sensory information.

Question 12

Which of the following activities would most likely be completed by the right hemisphere of a left-handed person?

A) Finding a car in a parking lot
B) Learning a new language
C) Reading a book for pleasure
D) Jumping rope with friends

Answer 12

A

The right hemisphere is usually the nondominant hemisphere, even in left-handed individuals. Sense of direction is an ability of the nondominant hemisphere. The other choices are all abilities attributed to the dominant hemisphere.

Question 13

Which of the following is/are true with regard to neurulation?

I. The neural tube differentiates from the endoderm
II. The neural tube becomes the peripheral nervous system
III. Neural crest cells migrate from their original site

A) I only
B) III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, and III

Answer 13

B

Neurulation occurs when the notochord causes differentiation of overlying ectoderm into the neural tube and neural crest cells. The neural tube ultimately becomes the central nervous system (brain and spinal cord), and neural crest cells migrate to other sites in the body to differentiate into a number of different tissues.

Question 14

Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT classified as a catecholamine?

A) Epinephrine
B) Norepinephrine
C) Dopamine
D) Acetylcholine

Answer 14

D

Acetylcholine is not a catecholamine; however, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and dopamine are.

Question 15

If the amount of acetylcholinesterase, an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, is increased, which of the following would likely be the result?

A) Weakness of muscle movements
B) Excessive pain or discomfort
C) Mood swings and mood instability
D) Auditory and visual hallucinations

Answer 15

A

If there were increased amounts of acetylcholinesterase, more acetylcholine would be degraded, lowering acetylcholine levels in the body. Low levels of acetylcholine would result in weakness of paralysis of muscles. Pain could result if one were injured and endorphins were found in low levels. Mood swings could be a result of varying levels of serotonin. Hallucinations have been seen to result from high levels of dopamine.

Question 16

The adrenal glands do all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Promote the fight-or-flight response via estrogen
B) Produce stress responses via cortisol
C) Produce both hormones and neurotransmitters
D) Release estrogen in males and testosterone in females

Answer 16

A

The adrenal glands do promote the fight-or-flight response, but through epinephrine and norepinephrine, not estrogen. The adrenal cortex produces both estrogen and testosterone in both sexes, thus serving as a source of estrogen in males and testosterone in females.

Question 17

A disorder of the pineal gland would most likely result in which of the following disorders?

A) High blood pressure
B) Diabetes
C) Insomnia
D) Hyperthyroidism

Answer 17

C

The pineal gland is responsible for producing melatonin, which controls the body’s circadian rhythm. Insomnia would be a disturbance of this circadian rhythm, and may be attributable to a pineal gland disorder in some cases. Hypertension, diabetes, and hyperthyroidism would be unrelated to issues with the pineal gland.

Question 18

Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with both schizophrenia and Parkinson’s disease?

A) GABA
B) Serotonin
C) Dopamine
D) Enkephalins

Answer 18

C

Schizophrenia is associated with high levels of dopamine or high sensitivity to dopamine. Parkinson’s disease is associated with destruction of the dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia.

Question 19

In a personality survey, which set of twins would be expected to score most similarly?

A) Identical twins raised in different homes
B) Fraternal twins raised in different homes
C) Identical twins raised in the same home
D) Fraternal twins raised in the same home

Answer 19

C

Personality is seen to be somewhat hereditary, as monozygotic, or identical, twins have been seen to express more of the same personality traits. However, environment is also a factor. Thus, identical twins raised in the same home would be expected to have the most similar personalities.

Question 20

During a physical examination, a physician brushes the bottom of the foot of a fifty-year-old patient with multiple sclerosis. Her toes are observed to curl toward the bottom of her foot, with no fanning of the toes. This response is:

A) Abnormal, and evidence that she is exhibiting a primitive reflex
B) Normal, and evidence that she is exhibiting a primitive reflex
C) Abnormal, and evidence that she is not exhibiting a primitive reflex
D) Normal, and evidence that she is not exhibiting a primitive reflex

Answer 20

D

The Babinski reflex is a primitive reflex that refers to an extension of the big toe accompanied by fanning of the other toes. It is normal in infants, but should disappear with time - certainly by the time a child begins to walk. In a fifty-year-old woman, the Babinski reflex would be abnormal. However, despite her neurological illness, this patient is exhibiting a normal response to the brushing of her foot; that is, she is not showing the Babinski reflex.

Question 21

Which of the following fine motor tasks would one expect to see first in an infant?

A) Grasping for objects with two fingers
B) Following objects with the eyes
C) Scribbling with a crayon
D) Moving a toy from one hand to the other

Answer 21

B

Motor skills tend to develop from the core toward the periphery. Following objects with the eyes occurs around four weeks of age. The other actions all require movements of the hand, which do not occur in an organized fashion until later.

Question 22

A weight lifter is just able to tell the difference between 100 and 125 pounds. According to Weber’s law, the lifter would notice a difference between:

A) 125 and 150 pounds
B) 5 and 6 pounds
C) 25 and 35 pounds
D) 225 and 275 pounds

Answer 22

C

Weber’s law posits that thresholds are proportional. Going from 100 to 125 pounds is a 25 percent increase. Choice C is a 40% increase while all the rest are under 25%.

Question 23

A man is at a party with his wife. There is loud music in the background and the location is crowded. While listening to the music he hears what he believes to be his wife’s laughter and turns around to investigate. The man is exhibiting:

A) Feature detection
B) Bottom-up processing
C) Vestibular sense
D) Signal detection

Answer 23

D

The man is discerning a specific noise within a field of many noises. This is the definition of signal detection. In an experimental setup, his response would be considered a hit if his wife was indeed laughing; his response would be considered a false alarm if his wife was not laughing.

Question 24

A woman is at a restaurant and orders a spicy entrée. After the first bite, she experiences burning in her mouth and becomes concerned that her food is too hot for her. The next few bites are similarly uncomfortable, but after a while the spiciness seems to subside somewhat, and by the end of the meal, she doesn’t notice the spice level. The end of the meal experience is best described as:

A) Adaptation
B) Signal detection
C) A difference threshold
D) Pain perception

Answer 24

A

The spicy food can be considered an extreme stimulus because it eclipses what the woman believes she can handle in terms of heat. However, after experiencing the stimulus over and over, the experience of spice drops to barely perceptible. This is sensory adaptation: a reduction in response to a stimulus over time.

Question 25

Which sensory receptors send signals in response to tissue damage? A) Chemoreceptors B) Nociceptors C) Osmoreceptors D) Photoreceptors

Answer 25

B Nociceptors are important for pain sensation, which would be expected during tissue damage. Chemoreceptors response to chemicals, whether volatile or aerosolized (olfaction) or dissolved (taste). Osmoreceptors respond to changes in blood osmolarity, and photoreceptors respond to light.

Question 26

Which part of the eye is responsible for gathering a focusing light? A) Cornea B) Pupil C) Iris D) Retina

Answer 26

A The cornea is responsible for gathering and focusing light. The iris and pupil are both involved in regulating the amount of light coming into the eye but not focusing it. The retina transduces the light into electrical signals that are sent to the brain. The lens serves a similar function to the cornea and would also be a valid answer to this question.

Question 27

A man is looking for change to do laundry. He decides to look under the seats of his car. He uses a flashlight but is still unable to get more than an obscured look at the space below. there are various items such as wrappers and papers, but the man sees the glint of silver from an object laying flat and determines it to be a coin. To make this determination, this man used: A) Signal detection B) Sensory adaptation C) Feature detection D) Kinesthetic sense

Answer 27

C This man was able to distinguish the coin from other items by recognizing specific features of the coin; in this case, it was the glint of the metal surface and its position in the car. This phenomenon is called feature detection.

Question 28

Upon which part of the eye are images projected and transduced into electrical signals? A) Cornea B) Pupil C) Retina D) Lens

Answer 28

C The retina is the part of the eye upon which images are projected. Rods and cones in the retina then convert the electromagnetic radiation into electrical signals.

Question 29

The ability to sense stimuli against one's own skin is known as: A) Somatosensation B) Kinesthetic sense C) Vestibular sense D) Chemoreception

Answer 29

A Somatosensation refers to the various modalities of touch: pressure, vibration, temperature, and pain. Kinesthetic sense refers to the ability to tell where one's body is in space. Vestibular sense refers to the detection of linear and rotational acceleration in the middle ear. Finally, chemoreception refers to sensing chemicals in the environment.

Question 30

Which of the following is NOT a taste modality? A) Sweet B) Floral C) Savory D) Bitter

Answer 30

B The five tastes are sweet, sour, salty, bitter and umami. Floral would be related to smell rather than taste.

Question 31

Which of the following best describes the difference between endolymph and perilymph? A) Endolymph is found in the vestibule, while perilymph is found in the cochlea. B) Endolymph is found in the cochlea, while the perilymph is found in the vestibule. C) Endolymph is found in the membranous labyrinth, while perilymph is found in the bony labyrinth. D) Endolymph is found in the bony labyrinth, while perilymph is found in the membranous labyrinth.

Answer 31

C Endolymph is the potassium-rich fluid that bathes the hair cells of the inner ear, all of which are found within the membranous labyrinth. Perilymph is found in the space between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth. Both the membranous labyrinth and bony labyrinth contribute to the cochlea and the vestibule.

Question 32

Chemicals that compel behavior after binding with chemoreceptors are known as: A) Pheromones B) Olfactory receptors C) Somatostimuli D) Papillae

Answer 32

A Pheromones are the volatile chemicals given off by organisms that bind with olfactory chemoreceptors and influence behavior. It is debatable if pheromones serve a role in humans, but are known to affect foraging and sexual behavior in some animals.

Question 33

Prolonged vitamin B12 deficiency can be associated with subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Patients with this disease have difficulty walking because they lose the ability to feel where their feet are in space. This represents a loss of: A) Vestibular sense B) Kinesthetic sense C) Parallel processing D) Feature detection

Answer 33

B Kinesthetic sense, or proprioception, refers to the ability to tell where body parts are in three-dimensional space. The sensors for proprioception are found predominantly in the muscles and joints. Loss of vestibular sense would also cause difficulty walking, but this would be due to a sense of dizziness or vertigo, not an inability to feel one's feet.

Question 34

A person proofreading a paper reads over a long, misspelled word in which an "e" is replaced with an "o". The person does not recognize the error and reads the word as correct. Which of the following could explain why the proofreader read the word as correct? A) Parallel processing B) Feature detection C) Top-down processing D) Bottom-up processing

Answer 34

C The proofreader used a larger pattern to identify the word and expected to see an "e," thus missing the error. This is related to top-down processing; the proofreader used recognition and expectations, which led to missing a detail. Bottom-up processing would be the analysis of each detail individually before creating a cohesive image.

Question 35

A patient comes in with a tumor of the pituitary gland which has grown upward into the optic chiasm and caused a visual field defect. The most likely defect from compression of the optic chiasm is: A) Complete blindness in one eye B) Loss of the upper visual fields in both eyes C) Loss of the nasal visual fields in both eyes D) Loss of the temporal visual fields in both eyes

Answer 35

D The optic chiasm houses the crossing fibers from each optic nerve. Specifically, the fibers coming from the nasal half of the retina in each eye cross in the chiasm to join the optic tract on the opposite side. Remember that the lens of the eye causes inversion, so images on the nasal half of the retina actually originate in the temporal visual field. This condition is called bitemporal hemianopsia.

Question 36

Each individual in a group of teenagers is asked to estimate the height of a tree. One individual estimates the height to be 25 feet, but after discussing with the group is convinced that the height is likely closer to 40 feet. Which type of conformity is seen here? A) Obedience B) Identification C) Internalization D) Compliance

Answer 36

C Internalization refers to the type of conformity in which an individual changes her outward opinion to match the group and also personally agrees with those ideas.

Question 37

Researchers repeatedly startle a participant with a loud buzzer. After some time, the participant stops being startled by the buzzer. If the researchers interrupt the study with the sound of pans banging together, which of the following would likely be observed? A) Increased startle response to the buzzer B) Decreased startle response to the buzzer C) No change in the response to the buzzer D) Generalization to previously non-aversive stimuli

Answer 37

A After a while, the participant became habituated to the sound of the buzzer. Introducing a new stimulus, such as the banging pans, should dishabituate (resensitize) the original stimulus, causing a temporary increase in response to the sound of the buzzer.

Question 38

Many pets will run toward the kitchen when they hear the sound of a can opener opening a can of pet food. The sound of the can opener is a: A) Conditioned response B) Unconditioned response C) Conditioned stimulus D) Unconditioned stimulus

Answer 38

C The sound of a can opener would not normally produce a response on its own, making it a stimulus that must have been conditioned by association with food.

Question 39

A person suffers from food poisoning after eating a spoiled orange, and later finds that the smell of lemon and other citrus fruits make her nauseated. This is an example of: A) Acquisition B) Generalization C) Discrimination D) Negative reinforcement

Answer 39

B Generalization is the process by which similar stimuli can produce the same conditioned response. Here, the response to the taste and smell of oranges has generalized to that of all citrus.

Question 40

Which of the following processes would increase the likelihood of a behavior? A) Extinction B) Negative punishment C) Positive punishment D) Avoidance learning

Answer 40

D Avoidance learning is a type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior is increased to prevent an unpleasant future consequence. Extinction is a decreased response to a conditioned stimulus when it is no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus. Punishment lead to decreased behaviors in operant conditioning.

Question 41

A credit card company begins applying an interest rate to credit card accounts in response to late payments. This is an example of: A) Positive reinforcement because the bank will now make more money B) Negative reinforcement because the bank is adding a fee to motivate the person to pay their bills C) Positive punishment because the bank is adding a fee to reduce the incidence of late payments D) Negative punishment because the bank is decreasing the amount the person has to pay

Answer 41

C Because the credit card company wishes to decrease the behavior of late bill payments, this is a punishment. The company is adding something unpleasant by adding an additional fee, and is hoping to reduce the occurrence of late payments (the target behavior). The person is now having to pay additional money.

Question 42

A rat is trained to press a lever to obtain food under a fixed-interval schedule. Which of the following behaviors would the rat most likely exhibit? A) Pressing the lever continuously whenever it is hungry B) Pressing the lever exactly once and waiting for the food pellet before pressing it again C) Pressing the lever slowly at first, but with increasing frequency as the end of the interval approaches D) None of the above; the association formed by fixed-interval schedules is too weak to increase behavior

Answer 42

C In a fixed-interval schedule, the desired behavior is rewarded the first time it is exhibited after the fixed interval has elapsed. Both fixed-interval and fixed-ratio schedules tend to show this phenomenon; almost no response immediately after the reward is given, but the behavior increase as the rat gets close to receiving the reward

Question 43

Which of the following is true of teaching an animal a complicated, multistage behavior? I. The individual parts of the behavior should not run counter to the animal's natural instincts. II. The behaviors must be tied to a food reward of some kind. III. Rewarding individual parts of the behavior on their own interferes with reinforcement of the entire behavior. A) I only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III only

Answer 43

A Complicated, multistage behaviors are typically taught through shaping, so statement III must not be part of the correct answer. Reinforcers do not necessarily need to be food-based, and instinctive drift can interfere with learning of complicated behaviors; therefore, only statement I is accurate.

Question 44

Which of the following is true of controlled processing? A) It is the means through which the information enters short-term memory B) Information that requires controlled processing cannot become automatic C) It always requires active attention to the information being encoded D) Most information we can later recall is encoded using controlled processing

Answer 44

C This is the definition of controlled processing and is the only answer choice that is necessarily true of controlled processing. Effortful processing is used to create long-term memories, and - with practice - can become automatic. Most of our day-to-day activities are processed automatically.

Question 45

Which of the following methods of encoding is most conducive to later recall? A) Semantic B) Visual C) Iconic D) Acoustic

Answer 45

A Semantic encoding, or encoding based on the meaning of the information, is the strongest of the methods of encoding. Visual encoding is the weakest, and acoustic encoding is intermediate between the two. Iconic memory is a type of sensory memory.

Question 46

Which of the following would be most likely to be stored in long-term memory? A) A list of nonsense words B) A list of the dates of birth of 15 randomly selected people C) A list of the names of musicians in an individual's favorite bands D) A list of the dates of battles in the Peloponnesian War

Answer 46

C The self-reference effect indicates that information that is most meaningful to an individual is the most likely to be memorized. Choice C is the most personally relevant to the individual memorizing the list.

Question 47

An individual memorizes a shopping list by associating each item with an image that corresponds with a number. This individual is using which of the following memories? A) Clustering B) Method of loci C) Elaborative rehearsal D) Peg-words

Answer 47

D The association of words on a list to a preconstructed set of ideas is common to both the method-of-loci and peg-word mnemonics. Method-of-loci systems associate items with locations, while peg-word systems use images associated with numbers.

Question 48

A researcher uses a partial-report procedure after presenting participants with an array of nine numbers for a fraction of a second. Which of the following is the most likely result of this procedure? A) The participants will be able to recall any of the rows or columns in great detail but only immediately after presentation. B) The participants will only be able to recall the first few numbers in the array due to the serial position effect. C) The participants will be able to recall approximately seven of the numbers for a few seconds following presentation of the stimulus. D) The participants will not be able to recall any of the numbers verbally, but will be able to draw the full array under hypnosis.

Answer 48

A Partial-report procedures, in which the individual is asked to recall a specific portion of the stimulus, are incredibly accurate, but only for a very brief time. This is a method of studying sensory (specifically, iconic) memory. Both the serial position effect and the 7 +/- 2 rule are characteristics of short-term memory.

Question 49

Which of the following is an example of a semantic memory? A) Having the ability to drive a car B) Knowing the parts of a car engine C) Remembering the experience of learning to drive D) Associating a car with other vehicles in a semantic network

Answer 49

B Semantic memory is the category of long-term memory that refers to recall of facts, rather than experiences or skills. Be careful not to confuse semantic memory with semantic networks, which are the associations of similar concepts in the mind to aid in their retrieval.

Question 50

Which of the following is an example of a semantic memory? A) Having the ability to drive a car B) Knowing the parts of a car engine C) Remembering the experience of learning to drive D) Associating a car with other vehicles in a semantic network

Answer 50

B Semantic memory is the category of long-term memory that refers to recall of facts, rather than experiences or skills. Be careful not to confuse semantic memory with semantic networks, which are the associations of similar concepts in the mind to aid in their retrieval.

Question 51

Which of the following would elderly individuals be most likely to have trouble recalling? A) The circumstances of meeting his or her significant other in college B) A doctor's appointment scheduled for 1:00 p.m. C) The names of the characters in his or her favorite television show D) That a library book needs to be returned when passing by the library on a morning walk

Answer 51

B Elderly individuals have the most trouble with time-based prospective memory, which is remembering to do an activity at a particular time. Other forms of memory are generally preserved, or may decline slightly but less significantly than time-based prospective memory.

Question 52

Which of the following terms describes how existing schemata are modified to incorporate new information? A) Assimilation B) Adaptation C) Affirmation D) Accommodation

Answer 52

D Jean Piaget hypothesized that new information is processed by adaptation. Adaptation is too broad of an answer because it includes both assimilation and accommodation. Assimilation is incorporation of new information into existing schemata. If the new information doesn't fit, then accommodation occurs. Accommodation is the modification of existing schemata to account for new information.

Question 53

Which of the following of Piaget's stages of cognitive development occur before adolescence? I. Preoperational II. Sensorimotor III. Formal operational A) I only B) II only C) I and II D) II and III

Answer 53

C The sensorimotor, preoperational, and concrete operational stages occur prior to adolescence. The formal operational stage generally coincides with adolescence.

Question 54

A student is volunteering in a hospital with a stroke center. When asked what he believes is the prevalence of stroke among those greater than 65 years old, the student states that it is probably about 40% even though data analysis indicates that is is significantly lower. What accounts for this error? A) Deductive reasoning B) Representativeness heuristic C) Base rate fallacy D) Confirmation bias

Answer 54

C The base rate fallacy occurs when prototypical or stereotypical factors are used for analysis rather than actual data. Because the student is volunteering in a hospital with a stroke center, he sees more patients who have experienced a stroke than would be expected in a hospital without a stroke center. Thus, this experience changes his perception and results in base rate fallacy. Deductive reasoning refers to drawing conclusions by integrating different pieces of evidence. The representativeness heuristic involves categorization and classification based on how well an individual example fits its category. Confirmation bias occurs when a person only seeks information that reinforces his or her opinions.

Question 55

Which of the following types of intelligence is NOT described by Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences? A) Fluid intelligence B) Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence C) Visual-spatial intelligence D) Linguistic intelligence

Answer 55

A Fluid intelligence consists of problem-solving skills and is not one of Gardner's seven multiple intelligences. Gardner's theory lists linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, and intrapersonal intelligences.

Question 56

EEG waveforms during REM sleep most resemble which of the following states of consciousness? A) Alertness B) Slow-wave sleep C) Stage 1 sleep D) Meditation

Answer 56

A EEG during REM is composed mainly of beta waves, which are present during alertness. SWS consists mainly of delta waves, which are not typically present during REM sleep. Stage 1 sleep consists mainly of theta waves. Meditation is quieting of the mind, and consists mainly of slow alpha and theta waves.

Question 57

Which of the following indicates the pattern of sleep stages during a complete sleep cycle early in the night? A) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 1 - 2 - REM B) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 - 3 - 2 - REM C) 4 - 3 - 2 - 1 - 2 - 3 - REM D) 4 - 3 - 2 - 4 - 3 - 1 - REM

Answer 57

B Early in the evening, sleep cycles include deepening of sleep (Stages 1 - 2 - 3 - 4), followed either by lightening of sleep (Stages 4 - 3 - 2) and then REM, or just directly moving from Stage 4 into REM. Later in the evening, the cycle may be shortened as slow-wave sleep becomes less common.

Question 58

Increases in which of the following hormones cause sleepiness? A) Cortisol B) Growth hormone C) Melatonin D) Oxytocin

Answer 58

C As light diminishes throughout the day, the pineal gland increases secretion of melatonin, resulting in sleepiness. Cortisol levels increase throughout the early morning, resulting in wakefulness. Growth hormone secretion peaks during slow-wave sleep. Oxytocin is associated with uterine contractions in childbirth, milk letdown, and bonding behavior.

Question 59

Which theory of dreaming states that dreams and thoughts during wakeful periods use the same stream-of-consciousness system? A) Activation-synthesis theory B) Problem solving theory C) Cognitive process theory D) Neurocognitive theory

Answer 59

C Cognitive theorists proposed in the cognitive process dream theory that wakeful and dreaming states use the same mental systems within the brain, particularly stream-of-consciousness. The activation-synthesis theory states that dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry. The problem-solving dream model indicates that dreams are used to solve problems while sleeping due to untethering of dreams from obstacles perceived while awake. The neurocognitive theorists seek to unify cognitive and biological perspectives by correlating the subjective dream experience with the physiological experience of dreaming.

Question 60

A 19-year old college student is picked up by campus police after shoplifting a large bag of corn chips and a dozen ice cream sandwiches. His eyes are bloodshot. During questioning, he repeatedly asks for water because his mouth is dry, and he cannot stop giggling. Which is the psychoactive substance in the drug this student has most likely recently taken? A) Alprazolam B) 3,4-Methylenedioxy-N-methylamphetamine C) Diacetylmorphine D) Tetrahydrocannabinol

Answer 60

D The description of the student matches the clinical features of marijuana (cannabis) use: hunger (presumably, based on his loot), redness of the eyes, dry mouth, and euphoria. Marijuana may also cause an increased heart rate, short-term memory loss, paranoia, and - in high doses - hallucinations. Tetrahydrocannabinol is the primary active substance in marijuana.

Question 61

Language consists of multiple components. Which of the following involves the order in which words are put together? A) Phonology B) Semantics C) Syntax D) Pragmatics

Answer 61

C Syntax refers to how words are put together to form sentences and create meaning. Phonology refers to the actual sounds of a language. Semantics refers to the association of meaning with a word. Pragmatics refers to changes in usage, and inflection based on context.

Question 62

A child speaks in sentences of at least 3 words, but makes grammatical errors including misuse of the past tense. How old is this child likely to be? A) 14 months B) 22 months C) 30 months D) 5 years

Answer 62

C A child who speaks in three-word sentences but has not yet mastered most of the fundamental rule of language, including past tense, is likely to be between two and three years old.

Question 63

Which language theory states that language development occurs due to preferential reinforcement of certain phonemes by parents and caregivers? A) Nativist theory B) Learning theory C) Social interactionist theory D) Neurocognitive theory

Answer 63

B Learning theory, largely based on the work of B. F. Skinner, states that parents reinforce phonemes that sound most like their language, resulting in preferential preservation of these phonemes. Nativist theory posits a critical period during which language acquisition occurs. Social interactionist theory indicates that language develops via interaction with parents and caregivers as well as a desire of the child to communicate. Neurocognitive theory is concerned with the subjective experience of dreaming and the physiology of dreaming.

Question 64

A nine-year-old girl is brought to the pediatrician. Her parents describe that any time she is startled, she appears to collapse and fall asleep. She also complains of waking up in the morning unable to move. Which sleep disorder should be suspected? A) Insomnia B) Sleep deprivation C) Narcolepsy D) Sleep apnea

Answer 64

C The patient and her parents are describing cataplexy ( a sudden loss of muscle tone and intrusion of REM sleep during waking hours, usually in response to a startling or emotional trigger) and sleep paralysis (an inability to move despite being awake, usually when waking up in the morning). These symptoms are highly suggestive of narcolepsy; in fact, some consider cataplexy to be pathognomonic for (absolute indicative of) the disorder.

Question 65

During which of the following stages does dreaming occur? I. Stage 3 II. Stage 4 III. REM A) I only B) II only C) III only D) I, II, and III

Answer 65

D About 75% of dreaming occurs during REM, but dreams occur in all other stages of sleep as well. More bizarre dreams are likely to occur during REM.

Question 66

A college student strives for excellent grades and hopes to graduate with a better GPA than his brother. This type of motivation is considered: A) Extrinsic motivation B) Intrinsic motivation C) A primary drive D) A secondary drive

Answer 66

A Due to the competitive nature of the motivation, this is considered extrinsic motivation. Extrinsic motivation is based on external conditions, including perceived reward or fear of punishment. In this case, the reward is beating his brother. There is no suggestion of an uncomfortable internal state or tension, which is an aspect of drives.

Question 67

When practicing her recital song at home, a teenage girl sounds perfectly in pitch to her family and friends. However, when performing at the recital in front of a large audience of peers, strangers, and coaches, her pitch and tone are off, resulting in a poor performance. This second performance is best explained by: A) Drive reduction theory B) Instinct approach theory C) Maslow's hierarchy of needs D) The Yerkes-Dodson law

Answer 67

D The Yerkes-Dodson law states that there is an optimal level of arousal necessary to perform. If levels of arousal are too high, poor performance can result. In the case of this girl performing at her recital, her arousal level is very high as a result of nervousness and anxiety, resulting in a poor performance.

Question 68

Seeking homeostasis to reduce an uncomfortable internal state is associated with which motivational theory? A) Drive reduction theory B) Instinct theory C) Arousal theory D) Incentive theory

Answer 68

A Drive reduction theory is the theory that one will act to eliminate uncomfortable internal states known as drives. The body will push toward equilibrium, or homeostasis.

Question 69

People from cultures around the world can identify which of the following emotions? A) Happiness, sadness, and surprise B) Happiness, anger, and apathy C) Sadness, anticipation, and happiness D) Excitement, anger, and disgust

Answer 69

A The seven universal emotions are happiness, sadness, contempt, surprise, fear, disgust and anger.

Question 70

Experiencing emotion involves three components, which are: A) Behavioral, reactionary, and cognitive B) Emotional, physical, and mental C) Physiological, cognitive, and behavioral D) Emotional, cognitive, and behavioral

Answer 70

C The three components of emotion are the physiological (changes in the autonomic nervous system), cognitive (subjective interpretation of an emotion), and behavioral (facial expressions and body language) responses.

Question 71

The statement "I noticed my heart racing and breathing rate increasing when I saw a bear, so I am afraid," corresponds most closely with which theory of emotion? A) Schachter-Singer theory B) Yerkes-Dodson theory C) Cannon-Bard theory D) James-Lange theory

Answer 71

D Experiencing a physiological reaction to a stimulus and then labeling that response as emotion is in line with the James-Lange theory of emotion. In the statement, seeing the bear is the stimulus, an increase in heart rate and breathing rate is the physiological reaction, and identifying this as fear is the emotion experienced.

Question 72

Which theory of motivation is most significantly informed by Darwin's theory of evolution? A) Arousal theory B) Drive reduction theory C) Instinct theory D) Incentive theory

Answer 72

C According to Darwin's theory of evolution, all species have instincts that help them survive. The instinct theory of motivation states that people are motivated to act based on instincts that they are programmed to exhibit.

Question 73

Simultaneous processing of conscious emotions and physiological activation is the defining feature of which theory of emotion? A) Schachter-Singer theory B) James-Lange theory C) Incentive theory D) Cannon-Bard theory

Answer 73

D The Cannon-Bard theory of emotion is based on the premise that conscious feelings and physiological components of emotion are experienced at exactly the same time. In this theory, this combination then leads to action. This is commonly confused with Schachter-Singer theory in which nervous system arousal occurs and then is labeled based on the context provided by the environment.

Question 74

All of the following brain regions are primarily responsible for the experience of emotions EXCEPT the: A) Amygdala B) Prefrontal cortex C) Basal ganglia D) Thalamus

Answer 74

C The amygdala, prefrontal cortex, and thalamus all play a role in the experience of emotions. The basal ganglia are involved in smooth movement and are not primarily responsible for the experience of emotions.

Question 75

A person with high left frontal lobe activity is most likely experiencing which emotion? A) Happiness B) Sadness C) Surprise D) Disgust

Answer 75

A The left frontal lobe is associated with positive feelings, corresponding with joy and happiness. The right frontal lobe is associated with negative feelings, such as sadness and disgust.

Question 76

Determination of the intensity and risk of a stressor occurs during which stage(s) of stress appraisal? A) Primary appraisal only B) Secondary appraisal only C) Both primary and secondary appraisal D) Neither primary not secondary appraisal

Answer 76

B Secondary appraisal of stress is the stage at which the ability of the organism to cope with the stressor is evaluated. This is based on the harm, threat, and challenge of the stressor, which are all correlated with its intensity. Primary appraisal is simply the initial determination of whether there is a negative association at all, not its intensity.

Question 77

Which type of conflict is associated with the LEAST amount of stress? A) Approach-approach conflict B) Avoidance-avoidance conflict C) Approach-avoidance conflict D) Avoidance-escape conflict

Answer 77

A Approach-approach conflict is one in which both results are good outcomes. While one must be chosen, neither choice results in a negative outcome: for example, choosing between two desserts. Avoidance-escape conflict is not a recognized form of conflict; these two terms are related to types of negative reinforcers.

Question 78

While cleaning your home, you notice a large spider on the wall by your head and feel your heart rate jump up and your skin temperature grows warm. Which stage of stress response are you experiencing? A) Alarm B) Resistance C) Exhaustion D) Homeostasis

Answer 78

A The initial reaction to stress, which is activation of the sympathetic nervous system, is the alarm stage of stress response.

Question 79

Each of the following responses to stress is considered maladaptive EXCEPT: A) Drug use B) Social withdrawal C) Progressive muscle relaxation D) Avoiding the stressor

Answer 79

C Progressive muscle relaxation is a relaxation technique demonstrated to help reduce stress in a manner that is beneficial to the body and psyche. The other methods described here, including avoidance of the stress serve to increase stress or merely change the source of the stress.

Question 80

Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom seen in schizophrenia? A) Auditory hallucinations B) Disorganized behavior C) Disturbance of affect D) Delusions

Answer 80

C Negative symptoms are the absence of normal or desired behavior, which include disturbance of affect and avolition. Positive symptoms are the addition of abnormal behavior, including hallucinations, disorganized behavior and delusions.

Question 81

Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom seen in schizophrenia? A) Auditory hallucinations B) Disorganized behavior C) Disturbance of affect D) Delusions

Answer 81

C Negative symptoms are the absence of normal or desired behavior, which include disturbance of affect and avolition. Positive symptoms are the addition of abnormal behavior, including hallucinations, disorganized behavior and delusions.

Question 82

As a gender identity, androgyny is defined as: A) Low femininity, low masculinity B) High femininity, low masculinity C) Low femininity, High masculinity D) High femininity, High masculinity

Answer 82

D Androgyny is defined as scoring highly on scales of both femininity and masculinity. Achieving a low score on both scales would be considered undifferentiated, while B and C would be considered feminine and masculine, respectively.

Question 83

A high school student struggles consistently with math and feels that no matter how hard he studies, he "just doesn't get it." Which of the following is the most likely short-term result with respect to his ability to do math? A) Low self-esteem B) Low self-efficacy C) Learned helplessness D) An external locus of control

Answer 83

B Because there is nothing in the question stem to suggest this situation will fundamentally change this student's attitudes in the short term, A and D can be eliminated. Learned helplessness requires a repeated inability to have any effect on a situation over a long period of time and is much more severe, usually manifesting as depression. It is far more likely that the student will simply feel ineffective when it comes to math, which is low self-efficacy.

Question 84

A district attorney with an internal locus of control wins an important court trial. Which of the following best represents the lawyer's attribution of the events? A) "I won because I made great arguments and had more experience that the defense." B) "I won because the jury was on my side from the beginning and believed my arguments." C) "I won because the defense did not adequately present their side of the case." D) "I shouldn't have won because I don't deserve to be successful."

Answer 84

A Because we know the lawyer has an internal locus of control, we expect her to believe she is in control of the events that happen in her life. Both B and C attribute success to outside factors, representing an external locus of control. While D perhaps represents an attribution that could correlate to low self-esteem, it is not indicative of locus of control.

Question 85

A person keeps his desk extremely tidy and becomes very nervous whenever things are disorganized or out of place. In which of the following stages would a psychodynamic therapist say the man had become fixated? A) The oral stage B) The anal stage C) The phallic stage D) The genital stage

Answer 85

B Both excessive organization and excessive sloppiness are indicative of fixation in the anal stage of psychosexual development - what is commonly referred to as anal-retentiveness.

Question 86

According to Erikson's stages of psychosocial development, which of the following would be the most important for a recent college graduate to accomplish? A) Figuring out what identities are most important to him or her B) Feeling like a contributing member of society C) Forming an intimate relationship with a significant other D) Finding a feeling of accomplishment in his or her life

Answer 86

C As a postadolescent young adult, this person would be described by Erikson as experiencing the conflict of intimacy vs. isolation, and so forming significant relationships with others would be a primary goal. B and D represent the next two stages in life (generativity vs stagnation and integrity vs. despair, respectively), while A is the conflict that Erikson would say should have been resolved in adolescence (identity vs. role confusion).

Question 87

Matt and Cati discuss the reasons why they avoid driving above the speed limit. Matt says that he wants to avoid a traffic fine, while Cati says the speeding is dangerous and, if everyone did it, there would be more accidents and people would get hurt. According to Kohlberg, which of the following describes the phases of moral reasoning demonstrated by Matt and Cati, respectively? A) Preconventional; conventional B) Preconventional; postconventional C) Conventional; preconventional D) Postconventional; conventional

Answer 87

A Matt's reasoning reflects a desire to avoid punishment, which reflects stage one in Kohlberg's preconventional phase (obedience). Cati's reasoning takes into account social order, reflecting stage four in the conventional phase (law and order).

Question 88

A child finds that she cannot make an origami swan by herself, but is able to do so when observing and being assisted by an adult. This scenario is described in the ideas of which of the following theorists? A) Albert Bandura B) Alfred Adler C) B.F. Skinner D) Lev Vygotsky

Answer 88

D This situation is best described by Lev Vygotsky's zone of proximal development theory, which holds that children are often unable to perform tasks by themselves, but can complete the task with the help of a more knowledgeable other.

Question 89

Matt and Cati discuss the reasons why they avoid driving above the speed limit. Matt says that he wants to avoid a traffic fine, while Cati says the speeding is dangerous and, if everyone did it, there would be more accidents and people would get hurt. According to Kohlberg, which of the following describes the phases of moral reasoning demonstrated by Matt and Cati, respectively? A) Preconventional; conventional B) Preconventional; postconventional C) Conventional; preconventional D) Postconventional; conventional

Answer 89

A Matt's reasoning reflects a desire to avoid punishment, which reflects stage one in Kohlberg's preconventional phase (obedience). Cati's reasoning takes into account social order, reflecting stage four in the conventional phase (law and order).

Question 90

A child finds that she cannot make an origami swan by herself, but is able to do so when observing and being assisted by an adult. This scenario is described in the ideas of which of the following theorists? A) Albert Bandura B) Alfred Adler C) B.F. Skinner D) Lev Vygotsky

Answer 90

D This situation is best described by Lev Vygotsky's zone of proximal development theory, which holds that children are often unable to perform tasks by themselves, but can complete the task with the help of a more knowledgeable other.

Question 91

Which of the following is a conclusion that can be made from research in role-taking and observational learning? A) Young children will only model actions performed by their parents B) Celebrities and athletes are an adolescent's most important role models C) Children who role-take identities that are not gender typical are more likely to take on those roles later in life D) A female child is more likely to model the behavior of another female than a male

Answer 91

D C has no support from role-taking research and can be eliminated. A and B are both inaccurate; the Bobo doll experiment shows young children modeling behavior not performed by their parents, and teen are most influenced by their peers, not celebrities and athletes. The research does suggest, however, that children are more likely to engage in behavior modeled by individuals who are like themselves; thus, a female child is more likely to imitate behavior by another female.

Question 92

Which of the following is an example of a negative symptom seen in schizophrenia? A) Auditory hallucinations B) Disorganized behavior C) Disturbance of affect D) Delusions

Answer 92

C Negative symptoms are the absence of normal or desired behavior, which include disturbance of affect and avolition. Positive symptoms are the addition of abnormal behavior, including hallucinations, disorganized behavior, and delusions.

Question 93

A man feels extremely guilty after having an extramarital affair. According to the psychodynamic perspective, which of the following is responsible for this anxiety? A) The id B) The ego C) The superego D) The libido

Answer 93

C The superego is responsible for moral guilt when we do not live up to our ideals. While the id and the libido may be responsible for the urge to have an affair, the superego is responsible for the anxiety one feels afterward.

Question 94

A woman advances through the ranks of a company, eventually becoming the CEO. Which of the following Jungian archetypes reflects this woman's drive to be successful within the company? A) The persona B) The anima C) The animus D) The shadow

Answer 94

C Jung saw the drive for power and success as typically male traits, so Jung would say this woman is exercising her "inner man." The animus is the archetype that most closely reflects this quality.

Question 95

Researchers discover that polymorphisms in the DRD2 gene can be associated with thrill-seeking behavior, and that individuals with certain forms of the gene are more likely to become extreme athletes and have more dangerous hobbies. Which of the following theories is supported by this discovery? I. The social cognitive perspective II. The behavioral perspective III. The biological perspective A) I only B) III only C) I and III only D) II and III only

Answer 95

C The research supports a link between genetic expression and behavior, which is a central tenet of the biological perspective. The social cognitive perspective also holds that people's behaviors and traits shape their environments, which in turn have an effect on their identity, so the discovery also supports this perspective. Behaviorism is not supported, as the discovery is not related to rewards and punishments.

Question 96

An EMT sees himself as a bit of a rebel, but is highly sociable and is able to keep calm in an emergency. This person would likely score in the lower range of which of the following traits? A) Psychoticism B) Neuroticism C) Extraversion D) Conscientiousness

Answer 96

B As a rebel and a sociable person, this individual would score highly on both psychoticism and extraversion, respectively. Neuroticism is associated with high emotional arousal in stressful situations, so being able to keep calm in an emergency is a sign of low neuroticism. Conscientiousness, a trait associated with being hardworking and organized instead of impulsive, is not described in the question stem.

Question 97

Stockholm syndrome is a phenomenon in which a victim of a kidnapping or hostage situation may begin to identify with or even feel affection for his or her captors. A psychoanalyst might explain Stockholm syndrome by citing which of the following defense mechanisms? A) Reaction formation B) Regression C) Projection D) Displacement

Answer 97

A Reaction formation is a defense mechanism that converts unwanted feelings into their exact opposite. A psychodynamic theorist would say that the terror and hatred one feels toward his or her captor might be unconsciously turned into affection in an effort to reduce the stress of the situation.

Question 98

Having struggled for years through an economic recession, a young professional begins to buy lottery tickets every Friday. "If I won the lottery," he reasons, "I'd finally have the life I've always wanted. All my stress would go away and I could live comfortably." His thoughts regarding winning the lottery are most representative of: A) A cardinal trait B) Fictional finalism C) Functional autonomy D) Unconditional positive regard

Answer 98

B Fictional finalism is comprised of internal, idealistic beliefs about the future, The assumption that winning the lottery will solve all of his problems is representative of this form of thinking. Cardinal traits are the traits around which one organizes his or her entire life. Functional autonomy is when a behavior continues after the drive behind the behavior has ceased; for example, if this young professional continued purchasing lottery tickets after winning simply because he enjoyed them, then this behavior would have gained functional autonomy. Unconditional positive regard is used in some forms of humanistic therapy in which the therapist believes in the internal good of the client and does not judge the client negatively for any words or actions.

Question 99

During an interview with a schizophrenic patient, a psychiatrist notices that the patient keeps repeating what the psychiatrist says. This phenomenon is known as: A) Echolalia B) Echopraxia C) Loosening of association D) Neologisms

Answer 99

A Echolalia is an involuntary repetition of others' words and utterances and may be seen in schizophrenia. Echopraxia is imitation of others' actions. Loosening of associations is a type of disordered thought in which the patient moves between remotely related ideas. Neologisms are newly invented words.

Question 100

A 42-year-old woman has always been extremely neat and tidy. She works as a secretary and stays long after normal working hours to check the punctuation and spelling of letters she prepared during the day. her boss referred her for counseling after she repeatedly got into fights with her coworkers. "They don't take the job to heart," she says. "They just joke around all day." The most likely preliminary diagnosis for this patient is: A) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder B) Antisocial personality disorder C) Narcissistic personality disorder D) Borderline personality disorder

Answer 100

A Focusing on details, loving routine, having a sense that there is only one right way to do things, and lack of humor suggest an obsessive-compulsive personality disorder.

Question 101

Which of the following is true with regard to a major depressive episode? A) It may last less than two weeks B) It must involve thoughts of suicide of a suicide attempt C) It may involve decrease in sleep D) It must involve feelings of sadness

Answer 101

C Depression is marked by a period of at least two weeks in which the patient has five of nine cardinal symptoms, one of which must be depressed mood or lack of interest (anhedonia). While decreased need for sleep is commonly seen in manic episodes, it may also appear in depression as sleep disturbance is one of the nine cardinal symptoms. Not all depressed individuals are suicidal. In older men, depression may often manifest as anhedonia without feelings of sadness.

Question 102

A 36-year-old who works from home is referred for evaluation. He is reluctant to venture out to meet with other people and rarely has people in to visit. When selected for a company-wide award, he refused to have his picture taken for the company newsletter. During an assessment, he averts his face and asks the examiner to "stop looking at me." Although he is average in appearance, he is convinced that his face is ugly and misshapen. The most likely diagnosis for this man would be: A) Schizophrenia B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder C) Body dysmorphic disorder D) Schizoid personality disorder

Answer 102

C The central issue is the negative appraisal of his own appearance, indicating body dysmorphic disorder. Thus, it is likely that all other symptoms this patient is experiencing arise from this disorder. The other disorders listed in the answer choices cannot explain ALL of the symptoms.

Question 103

A young woman of unknown age is brought by the Philadelphia police to the local emergency department for evaluation after they found her wandering in a park. She carries no purse or identification. She is unable to state her name or any details about her life, except that the name Phoenix seems familiar. The police in Arizona are contacted and find a missing persons report matching the patient's description. Based on the information, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is: A) Depersonalization/derealization disorder B) Dissociative identity disorder C) Somatic symptom disorder D) Dissociative amnesia with dissociative fugue

Answer 103

D Dissociative fugue is characterized by sudden travel or change in normal day-to-day activities and occurs in some cases of dissociative amnesia. Symptoms include an inability to recall one's past or confusion about one's identity.

Question 104

In addition to being a freestanding diagnosis, agoraphobia is most often seen in association with which other psychiatric diagnosis? A) Obsessive-compulsive disorder B) Avoidant personality disorder C) Generalized anxiety disorder D) Panic disorder

Answer 104

D Agoraphobia, or a fear of places or situations in which it would be difficult to escape, is commonly seen in panic disorder. Concern about having a panic attack in public may make these individuals fearful of leaving their home.

Question 105

A physician is attempting to diagnose a patient's mental disorder based on a set of symptoms. The confirmed symptoms currently include appetite disturbance, substantial weight change, decreased energy, a feeling of worthlessness, and excessive guilt. What two disorders could these symptoms indicate? A) Major depressive and bipolar disorders B) Dissociative amnesia and depersonalization/derealization disorder C) Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease D) Specific phobia and panic disorder

Answer 105

A The symptoms listed indicate a major depressive episode. However, depressive episodes can be a part of bipolar disorders, which also contain manic episodes. Thus, if manic episodes have not yet been asked about, one cannot choose depression or bipolar disorder as the correct diagnosis.

Question 106

A physician is attempting to diagnose a patient's mental disorder based on a set of symptoms. The confirmed symptoms currently include appetite disturbance, substantial weight change, decreased energy, a feeling of worthlessness, and excessive guilt. What should the physician ask about to distinguish between the two possible disorders affecting this patient? (Major depressive or Bipolar disorders) A) Whether the patient has amnesia B) Whether the patient has also had manic episodes C) Whether the patient is irrationally afraid of anything D) Whether the patient has experienced difficulty performing familiar tasks

Answer 106

B To determine if this patient has major depressive disorder or a bipolar disorder, the presence of manic (or hypomanic) episodes should be confirmed. Bipolar disorders contain manic (or hypomanic) episodes, while major depressive disorder does not.

Question 107

A mother notices that her teenage son seems to have a phobia for snakes. In the past week, on several occasions, the teenager has had more severe fear symptoms than usual, without seeing or even thinking about a snake. Which mental disorder could cause this reaction? A) Schizophrenia B) Antisocial personality disorder C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder D) Panic disorder

Answer 107

D Exhibiting sign of panic and irrational fear without any instigating object present indicates panic disorder. The teenager may have diagnoses of both specific phobia (for snakes) and panic disorder.

Question 108

Splitting is a defense mechanism commonly seen with which personality disorder? A) Antisocial personality disorder B) Borderline personality disorder C) Histrionic personality disorder D) Narcissistic personality disorder

Answer 108

B Splitting, the consideration of others as either "all good" or "all bad," is characteristic of borderline personality disorder.

Question 109

A woman comes to the doctor with a two-week history of complete paralysis of her left arm. She has had no injury to the extremity, and full neurological workup fails to demonstrate any underlying cause. She seems more worried about an argument she had one month ago in which she hit her daughter. Based on this information, the woman's most likely diagnosis is: A) Conversion disorder B) Generalized anxiety disorder C) Illness anxiety disorder D) Histrionic personality disorder

Answer 109

A Conversion disorder is marked by a motor or sensory symptom in the absence of an underlying physical or neurological cause. It is associated with an inciting event that, in this cause, may have been the argument with her daughter. Her lack of concern over the deficit is referred to as la belle indifference.

Question 110

A woman notices that her father has started to move his fingers in such a way that it looks like he is rolling something, despite nothing actually being there. She also notes slowed movement and a shuffling gait. Which neurotransmitter is likely to be present in decreased levels in her father's brain? A) Epinephrine B) Histamine C) Dopamine D) Serotonin

Answer 110

C The symptoms indicate that the woman's father likely has Parkinson's disease. This disease is caused by decreased dopamine production in the substantia nigra.

Question 111

Which of the following is/are true regarding bipolar disorders? I. They have little, if any, genetic heritability II. They are associated with increased levels of serotonin in the brain III. They all require at least one depressive episode for diagnosis A) I only B) II only C) I and III only D) II and III only

Answer 111

B Bipolar disorders have been shown to be highly heritable and are associated with increased levels of norepinephrine and serotonin in the brain. Bipolar I disorder can be diagnosed with a single manic episode and does not require a major depressive episode. Bipolar II disorder requires at least one hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode. Cyclothymic disorder contains at least one hypomanic episode and dysthymia.

Question 112

The behavior of the individuals in the Stanford prison experiment is best explained by which of the following terms? I. Bystander effect II. Deindividuation III. Internalization IV. Social loafing A) I only B) III only C) II and III only D) II and IV only

Answer 112

C When fulfilling particular roles, an individual's behavior can be very out of character. The changing of one's behavior (and internal ideas) to match a group is called internalization conformity. This was a key part of the experiment. The experiment also involved deindividuation, the loss of self-identity in the group setting that can lead to antinormative or violent behavior.

Question 113

A jury member who initially feels that a strict penalty should be placed on the defendant votes for an even stricter penalty after deliberation with the other jury members. This behavior is best described by which social phenomenon? A) Social facilitation B) Group polarization C) Assimilation D) Socialization

Answer 113

B The fact that individual opinions became more extreme during group discussion is explained by group polarization. The jury member initially felt that a strict penalty should be given, but this opinion became more extreme after conversation with the rest of the group.

Question 114

Which of the following would decrease the likelihood of a bystander lending aid to a victim? A) Increasing the number of people in the room B) Increasing the degree of danger experienced by the victim C) Making the victim an acquaintance instead of a stranger D) Being alone in the room with the victim

Answer 114

A It has been observed that increasing the number of bystanders decreases the likelihood that any of them will aid a victim. Increasing the degree of danger experienced by the victim, making the victim an acquaintance instead of a stranger, and being alone in the room with the victim would increase the likelihood that the bystander would help the victim.

Question 115

During groupthink, members of the group do all of the following EXCEPT: A) Stereotype members outside the group B) Withhold opposing views C) Ignore warnings against the ideas of the group D) Create a sense of negativity against risk-taking

Answer 115

D With groupthink, a member would perform all of the actions described by the answer choices except create a sense of negativity against risk-taking; in fact, there is optimism and encouragement toward risk-taking in groupthink.

Question 116

Adult prison systems may attempt to change the behavior of inmates through all of the following mechanisms of socialization EXCEPT: A) Primary socialization B) Secondary socialization C) Anticipatory socialization D) Resocialization

Answer 116

A Primary socialization is the teaching of acceptable actions and attitudes during childhood, Which would occur too early to be part of the adult prison system. Resocialization is the process by which one changes behaviors by discarding old routines and patterns and transitions to new behaviors necessary for a life change. The prison environment is designed to change bad behavior into desired behavior, making this an incorrect choice. When entering prison, an inmate must also undergo secondary socialization, learning the rules of the specific social environment of the prison. Finally, if the inmate is not incarcerated for life, attempts at anticipatory socialization must be made before releasing the inmate in preparation for life outside of the prison.

Question 117

When you first meet Dustin, he is very rude to you. You run into him two more and he is very friendly, but you still dislike him because of your first meeting. What impression bias does this describe? A) Primacy effect B) Recency effect C) Reliance on central traits D) Proximity

Answer 117

A The impressions we form when meeting others are influenced by a number of perceptual biases. The primacy effect refers to those occasions when first impressions are more important than subsequent impressions.

Question 118

After sitting in a lecture, determining that a professor is a bad teacher based on his unprofessional attire and monotone speech is an example of which type of processing? A) Knowledge route processing B) Adaptive route processing C) Central route processing D) Peripheral route processing

Answer 118

D Peripheral route processing deals with processing information that is not based on content, but instead on superficial parameters such as boring speech patterns or appearance of the speaker. Central route processing is the processing of information through analysis of its content.

Question 119

In the Milgram shock experiment, many subjects were willing to give the maximal voltage shock because they were influenced by which psychological principal? A) Deviance B) Obedience C) Conformity D) Compliance

Answer 119

B The Milgram shock experiment showed that individuals would obey orders from authority figures even if they were not comfortable with the task at hand. Conformity and compliance also deal with changes in individual behavior, but are not based on the requests of an authority figure.

Question 120

Which of the following is NOT a component of the functional attitudes theory? A) Knowledge B) Acceptance C) Ego defense D) Ego expression

Answer 120

B The four functional areas of the functional attitudes theory are knowledge, adaptability, ego expression, and ego defense. Acceptance into a group may influence attitudes or opinions; however, this is not a part of the functional attitudes theory.

Question 121

The swimming times for all members of a swim team are tracked over a six-month period in team-only practices and at public meets. For 14 of the 16 members, top times were clocked at the meets. What social phenomenon does this evidence support? A) Social facilitation B) Peer pressure C) Identification D) Group polarization

Answer 121

A For 15 out of the 16 members, the record times were obtained during public meets. The fact that the team members performed better when in front of a crowd supports the notion of social facilitation.

Question 122

The swimming times for all members of a swim team are tracked over a six-month period in team-only practices and at public meets. For 14 of the 16 members, top times were clocked at the meets. What social phenomenon does this evidence support? A) Social facilitation B) Peer pressure C) Identification D) Group polarization

Answer 122

A For 15 out of the 16 members, the record times were obtained during public meets. The fact that the team members performed better when in front of a crowd supports the notion of social facilitation.

Question 123

Which of the following best reflects the difference between social action and social interaction? A) Social action refers to positive changes one makes in their society; social interaction refers to the route by which these changes occur. B) Social action refers to the effects of a group on an individual's behavior; social interaction refers to the effects that multiple individuals all have on each other. C) Social action refers to changes in behavior caused by internal factors; social interaction refers to changes in behavior caused by external factors. D) Social action refers to changes in behaviors that benefit only the individual; social interaction refers to changes in behavior that benefit others.

Answer 123

B Social action is best described as the effects that a group has on individual behavior, including social facilitation, deindividuation, the bystander effect, social loafing, and peer pressure. Social interaction describes how two or more individuals influence each other's behavior, including group polarization and groupthink.

Question 124

In the group setting, the mentality of "If you aren't with us, you're against us" is most representative of which factor of groupthink? A) Illusion of invulnerability B) Illusion of morality C) Pressure for conformity D) Self-censorship

Answer 124

C Placing spoken or unspoken expectations on individuals to agree with the ideas of the group is best described as pressure for conformity.

Question 125

Which of the following best describes the sociological definition of a status? A) The emotional state of a social interaction B) Expectations that are associated with a specific title in society C) A position in society used to classify an individual D) A means to describes one's peers

Answer 125

C A status is a position in society used to classify a person and exists in relation to other statuses. The specific behaviors associated with this status, (B), best describe a role.

Question 126

A bureaucracy is a specific example of a(n): A) Immediate network B) Primary group C) Organization D) Reference group

Answer 126

C A bureaucracy is an example of an organization, specifically one with the goal of performing complex tasks as efficiently as possible. Immediate networks and primary groups are characterized by strong, intimate bonds, which are not commonly seen in bureaucracies. Reference groups are those groups to which we compare ourselves for various characteristics.

Question 127

Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a bureaucracy? A) Rigidly defined work procedures B) Requirement for officials to hold an advanced degree C) Regular salary increases D) Election by constituents

Answer 127

D Generally, bureaucracies are marked by six characteristics: paid officials on a fixed salary; nonelected officials who are provided rights and privileges as a result of making their career out of holding office; regular salary increases, seniority rights, and promotions upon passing exams or milestones; officials who enter the organization by holding an advanced degree or training; responsibilities, obligations, privileges, and work procedures rigidly defined by the organization; and responsibility for meeting the obligations of the office one holds.

Question 128

Which of the following is a form of verbal communication? A) Facial expression B) Hand gestures C) Written text D) Body movement

Answer 128

C Verbal communication uses words (whether spoken, written, or signed). Nonverbal communication uses other means of signaling emotions or ideas, such as gestures, body language, facial expressions, prosody, eye contact, and personal space.

Question 129

Which of the following best describes the impression management strategy of aligning actions? A) Adhering to the behaviors that are expected for a given role in society B) Relieving tension brought about by holding conflicting views in one's head C) Providing socially acceptable reasons to explain unexpected behavior D) Dictating that members of a group should follow similar practices to one another

Answer 129

C Aligning actions is an impression management technique in which one provides socially acceptable reasons for unexpected behavior. This may manifest as providing an excuse for poor performance or laughing off an inappropriate comment as a joke. Tension created from having conflicting thoughts or opinions refers to cognitive dissonance.

Question 130

While on the phone, a friend says "A good friend would let me borrow the bike." This friend is using which impression management strategy? A) Managing appearances B) Alter-casting C) Ingratiation D) Self-disclosure

Answer 130

B Imposing a role on another person (in this case, "good friend") is the hallmark of alter-casting. This example is also the opposite of ingratiation because the implication behind the statement is that one is a "bad friend" if he or she does not lend the bike; ingratiation is the use of flattery or conformity to win over someone else.

Question 131

Which of the following is an example of a Gesellschaft? A) A large corporation B) A small rural neighborhood C) Members of the same family D) An ethnic enclave in a large city

Answer 131

A A Gesellschaft (society) is one in which individuals are working toward the same goal, such as a company or country. Gemeinschaften (communities), on the other hand, are those that are bonded together by beliefs, ancestry, or geography.

Question 132

In some cultures, it is considered taboo for one to show too much sadness at a funeral. In other cultures, wailing and crying loudly is expected. These cultures differ in their: A) Characteristic institutions B) Display rules C) Authentic selves D) Peer groups

Answer 132

B Display rules are those that dictate cultural expectations of emotion. In some cultures, sadness is considered personal and internal; in others, sadness is shared externally with the community.

Question 133

Which of the following is NOT a dimension of the system for multiple level observation of groups (SYMLOG)? A) Friendliness vs. unfriendliness B) Dominance vs. submission C) Conformity vs. contrast D) Instrumentally controlled vs. emotionally expressive

Answer 133

C SYMLOG is a method for analyzing group dynamics and considers groups along three dimensions; dominant vs. submissive, friendliness vs. unfriendliness, and instrumentally controlled vs. emotionally expressive.

Question 134

Political campaign ads often focus on "exposing" an opposing candidate's negative characteristics. In the dramaturgical approach, one would describe this as: A) Bringing the front stage self to the back stage B) Bringing the back stage self to the front stage C) Removing the front stage self D) Removing the back stage self

Answer 134

B If a candidate is "exposed," then personal characteristics that are usually shielded from public view have been brought in front of the public. This would be pulling aspects of the back stage self to the front stage. It would not be considered removing the front stage self because the candidate still has a public image, even if it has been tarnished.

Question 135

In the context of impression management, which of the following selves is most similar to the ought self? A) The ideal self B) The tactical self C) The authentic self D) The presented self

Answer 135

B The ought self is who others think we should be: the expectations imposed by others on us. This is most similar to the tactical self, which is the self we present to others when we adhere to their expectation. The presented self is a combination of the authentic, ideal, and tactical selves.

Question 136

The evolutionary role of emotions has been used as support for which model(s) of emotional expression? A) The basic model only B) The social construction model only C) Both the basic model and social construction model D) Neither the basic model nor the social construction model

Answer 136

A The basic model of emotion, as proposed by Charles Darwin, states that emotions serve an evolutionary purpose, and thus are similar across cultures. The seven universal emotions have also been used as support for this theory. The social construction model states that emotions are always a product of the current social situation and does not posit any biological basis for emotions, implying a lack of a role for emotions in evolution.

Question 137

Which of the following is an example of intraspecific animal communication? A) A dog who barks when a stranger enters the house B) An anglerfish that uses a bioluminescent appendage to attract prey C) Bats using echolocation to detect the surrounding environment D) A cat who uses scent glands to mark his territory for other cats

Answer 137

D Intraspecific communication refers to communication between members of the same species. Interspecific communication, on the other hand, refers to communication between members of different species. Echolocation is not an example of intraspecific communication because the sender of the signal and the recipient are the same organism; this would be considered auto-communication.

Question 138

Primary groups differ from secondary groups in that: A) Primary groups are shorter-lived than secondary groups B) Primary groups are larger than secondary groups C) Primary groups are formed of stronger bonds than secondary groups D) Primary groups are assigned while secondary groups are chosen

Answer 138

C Primary groups have direct and close bonds between members, providing warm, personal, and intimate relationships to its members. Secondary groups, in contrast, form superficial bonds and tend to last for a shorter period of time.

Question 139

The tendency to become close friends with neighbors rather than people in other neighborhoods is most strongly related to which of the following factors? A) Proximity B) Reciprocity C) Self-disclosure D) Similarity

Answer 139

A Each of the answer choices influences social attraction; however, proximity deals with the tendency to be attracted to those who are physically close by.

Question 140

Which of the following would be associated with high levels of aggression? I. Increased amygdala activity II. Decreased amygdala activity III. Increased prefrontal cortex activity IV. Decreased prefrontal cortex activity A) I and III only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) II and IV only

Answer 140

B Aggression is influenced both by the amygdala and prefrontal cortex activity. Activity of the amygdala increases aggression. The prefrontal cortex should control aggression; decreased activity in the prefrontal cortex, therefore, is associated with increased aggression.

Question 141

A child who cries when his mother departs and smiles and runs to his mother when she returns is displaying which type of attachment pattern? A) Avoidant attachment B) Ambivalent attachment C) Disorganized attachment D) Secure attachment

Answer 141

D This attachment pattern is representative of secure attachment. Secure attachment is seen when a child has a consistent caregiver and is able to go out and explore, knowing he or she has a secure base to return to. The child will be upset at the departure of the caregiver and will be comforted and resume exploring upon the return of the caregiver.

Question 142

Elephant seal males mate with multiple females each mating season, while females only have one mate each. What type of mating system is this? A) Polyandry B) Polygyny C) Monogamy D) Promiscuity

Answer 142

B Polygamy involves a male having exclusive relationships with several females (polygyny) or a female having exclusive relationships with several males (polyandry). Monogamy consists of exclusive mating relationships. Promiscuity refers to a member of one sex mating with any member of the opposite sex.

Question 143

A person with a ventromedial hypothalamus injury will likely show which behavior? A) Increased empathy B) Decreased empathy C) Increased food intake D) Decreased food intake

Answer 143

C A person with ventromedial hypothalamus injury will never feel satiated when eating and will therefore never feel the sensation to stop eating. A person with a lateral hypothalamus injury will never feel hunger and will have decreased food intake.

Question 144

Female great reed warblers are attracted to males with larger song repertoires because they tend to produce offspring with higher viability. This is an example of which of the following? A) Runaway selection B) Sensory bias C) Direct phenotypic benefits D) Indirect phenotypic benefits

Answer 144

D Phenotypic benefits refer to observed traits in an individual that make them more attractive to the opposite sex. Benefits associated with increased fitness through direct material advantages are direct benefits, while indirect benefits involve increased genetic fitness for offspring.

Question 145

In several species of shrimp, the larger adults will sacrifice themselves to protect the younger, smaller shrimp. How is this behavior best explained? A) Inclusive fitness B) Direct benefit C) Sensory bias D) Foraging

Answer 145

A In evolutionary psychology, inclusive fitness is a measure of the number of offspring an individual has, how they support their offspring, and how their offspring can support others. Inclusive fitness promotes the idea that altruistic behavior can improve the fitness and success of a species; the behavior in this scenario can be described as altruism; benefitting another at one's own expense.

Question 146

Which of the following is NOT a component of social perception? A) The target B) The situation C) The perceiver D) The process

Answer 146

D There are three primary components of perception; the perceiver, the target, and the situation.

Question 147

Glen brings cookies to work. Although you have not yet tasted them, you say to another coworker, "Glen is such a great guy; I'm sure these cookies are fantastic!" What type of bias is this? A) Reliance on central traits B) Direct benefits C) Halo effect D) Similarity

Answer 147

C The halo effect is a cognitive bias in which judgments of an individual's character can be affected by the overall impression of the individual.

Question 148

A friend wins a tennis game and says, "I trained so hard--that was a great win!" When she loses a subsequent match, she says, "My baby brother kept me up all night crying; I was tired for the match." These statements reflect which of the following principles? A) Fundamental attribution bias B) Fundamental attribution error C) Self-serving bias D) Esteem bias

Answer 148

C Self-serving bias refers to the fact that individuals will view their own successes as being based on internal factors, while viewing failures as being based on external factors.

Question 149

Carl is always happy and smiling. Today, you notice he seems down and think something must have happened to him. What types of attribution are you making? I. Internal II. External III. Situational IV. Dispositional A) I and III only B) I and IV only C) II and III only D) II and IV only

Answer 149

C Types of attribution fall into two main categories: dispositional (internal) and situational (external). Dispositional (internal) causes are related to the features of the person whose behavior is being considered. Situational (external) causes are related to features of the surroundings.

Question 150

A group of men and women are going to be rated on their driving abilities. The role of gender is emphasized in the experiment and the women perform worse than the men. In another experiment, the role of gender is not mentioned and the ratings are comparable between the two groups. Which principle do these results support? A) Institutional discrimination B) Stereotype threat C) Prejudice D) The just-world hypothesis

Answer 150

B Stereotype threat refers to the concept of people being concerned or anxious about confirming a negative stereotype of their social group. Stereotype threat can hinder performance, creating a self-fulfilling prophecy.

Question 151

The behavior that accompanies the negative attitudes a person has toward a group or individual is referred to as: A) Stereotyping B) Cultural relativism C) Prejudice D) Discrimination

Answer 151

D Discrimination is when prejudicial attitudes cause individuals of a particular group to be treated differently than others. While prejudice is an attitude, discrimination is a behavior.

Question 152

Game theory is designed to study: A) Reliance on central traits B) Behavior attribution C) Decision-making behavior D) Self-enhancement

Answer 152

C Game theory was originally designed to study decision-making behavior in economics and mathematics; it has since been used to describe decision-making in politics, biology, philosophy, and other fields.

Question 153

Which of the following best describes a manifest function? A) An intended positive effect on a system B) An intended negative effect on a system C) An unintended positive effect on a system D) An unintended negative effect on a system

Answer 153

A A manifest function is an intended positive effect on a system. A latent function is an unintended positive effect on a system. A negative effect on a system is termed a dysfunction.

Question 154

Studying why a nod means "yes" in many cultures is most representative of which of the following sociological concepts? A) Demographic transition B) Expectancy theory C) Symbolic interactionism D) Demographic shift

Answer 154

C Symbolic interactionism studies how individuals interact through a shared understanding of words, gestures, and other symbols. A nod is thus a symbol in many cultures that signifies "yes."

Question 155

Which of the following ethical principles states that physicians should avoid using treatments with greater potential for harm than benefit? A) Autonomy B) Beneficence C) Justice D) Nonmaleficence

Answer 155

D The principles of nonmaleficence states that physicians must not only act in their patient's best interest (beneficence) but must also avoid treatments where the potential for harm outweighs the potential for benefit.

Question 156

A Cuban-American man living in the United States has the dominant physical features of a black man. He speaks Spanish, prefers Latin foods, and listens to Latin music. His preferences are best defined through which of the following attributes? I. Race II. Ethnicity III. Culture A) I only B) II only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III

Answer 156

C Although one's dominant physical features are associated with race, this man's preferences are those of Latin ethnicity and culture. Ethnicity is a social construct that considers language, religion, nationality, and cultural factors. Cultural relates to a group's way of life; the preferences listed in the question are examples of material and symbolic culture.

Question 157

A patient who resides in the United States says, "I love you," and hugs his doctor after every routine visit. This behavior violates: A) Personal beliefs B) Patient autonomy C) Social values D) Social norms

Answer 157

D In the United States, it is not a common practice to say, "I love you," and hug one's physician after each routine check-up; therefore, this behavior could be considered deviant, going against the social norm. Values are what an individual deems to be important.

Question 158

Which of the following demographics can be measures in events per 1000 people per year? I. Birth rate II. Fertility rate III. Mortality rate A) I only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III

Answer 158

B Both birth rate and mortality rate can be measured per 1000 people per year. Fertility rate is measured in number of children per woman during her lifetime.

Question 159

Because there are more than 500 Native American tribes, there are several different healing practices among them. Some tribes may have ceremonies that include chanting, singing, body-painting, dancing, and even use of mind-altering substances to persuade the spirits to heal the sick person. These ceremonies are examples of: A) Latent functions B) Rituals C) Cultural barriers D) Social movements

Answer 159

B Rituals are formalized ceremonial behaviors in which members of a group or community regularly engage. Therefore, these activities are examples of rituals performed for healing.

Question 160

Over the last few decades, the United States population has become: A) Bigger, older, and more diverse B) Bigger, younger, and more diverse C) Smaller, older, and less diverse D) Smaller, older, and more diverse

Answer 160

A With a decrease in mortality rate and a higher immigration rate than emigration rate, the United States population continues to grow, with an increasing average age and increasing racial and ethnic diversity.

Question 161

Which of the following is NOT an example of material culture? A) Traditional African clothing B) Japanese cuisine C) American values D) Native American sand paintings

Answer 161

C Material culture includes any cultural artifact--objects to which we assign meaning. Values are ideas, which are associated with symbolic culture.

Question 162

During which stage of demographic transition are both birth rates and mortality rates low? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4

Answer 162

D During demographic transition, both birth rates and mortality rates are high stage 1. Mortality rates drop during stage 2 and then birth rates drop during stage 3. In stage 4, both birth rates and mortality rates are low.

Question 163

Shortly after a state legalizes gambling in casinos, a formal coalition forms to oppose the building of any casinos in the major cities of the state. This scenario includes: I. Conflict theory II. Social institution III. A social movement A) I only B) I and III only C) II and III only D) I, II, and III

Answer 163

D In this scenario, a group is fighting for social power, which is an aspect of conflict theory. Further, this group is an example of a reactive social movement because it is running counter to social change. The fact that gambling had been legalized implies the involvement of the government, a social institution.

Question 164

A young adult male claims to have had sexual relationships mostly with other men, although he has been attracted to women at times. What would be his most likely score on the Kinsey scale? A) 0 B) 1 C) 5 D) 6

Answer 164

C This man is describing his sexuality as mostly homosexual, although he has also had some heterosexual attractions. The Kinsey scale scores a 6 as exclusively homosexual. A score of 3 would equate to bisexuality. Thus, this man would likely score a 4 or 5.

Question 165

Which of the following demographic variables is known to be biologically determined? A) Gender B) Sex C) Ethnicity D) Sexual orientation

Answer 165

B Sex is determined by one's genotype, and therefore is biologically determined. Gender may or may not match biological sex and therefore is not biologically determined. Ethnicity is a social construct that sorts people by cultural factors, and therefore is not biologically determined. Sexual orientation may have some biological component, but the relative role of biology and environment is not yet known.

Question 166

Which of the following would contribute to increasing population growth over time? A) A fertility rate less than 2 B) An immigration rate larger than emigration rate C) An increase in mortality rate D) A decrease in birth rate

Answer 166

B If the immigration rate in a geographic area is larger than the emigration rate, then there is a larger influx than efflux of people. This will increase the population of that area.

Question 167

Urbanization can cause all of the following negative effects EXCEPT: A) Decreased opportunity for social interaction B) Increased transmission of infectious disease C) Decreased air quality and sanitation D) Increased rates of violent crime

Answer 167

A Urbanization is the migration of people into urban centers to create cities. The increased population density should provide additional opportunities for social interaction, not decreased opportunities.

Question 168

Which of the following best describes the component of socioeconomic status attributable to direct individual efforts? A) Ascribed status B) Meritocratic competition C) Anomic condition D) Achieved status

Answer 168

D Social stratification based on direct efforts, such as merit, is a form of achieved socioeconomic status. Ascribed socioeconomic status is based on identifiable external characteristics. Achieved status may be due to meritocratic competition but other individual efforts can also be associated with achieved status. Anomic conditions are those that cause a breakdown between the individual and society and erode social solidarity.

Question 169

Which of the following displays a correct association? A) High social networking and low social capital B) High social mobility and low social capital C) Low social class and low social capital D) Low social networking and high social capital

Answer 169

C Low social class may lead to low social capital. Members of the lower class often have smaller numbers of weak ties in social networks, and therefore have les opportunity to invest in society and reap its benefits.

Question 170

Which of following concepts are LEAST likely to coincide? A) Hazardous waste facilities and low-income neighborhoods B) Tuberculosis and poor living conditions C) Environmental pollution and high minority population D) Globalization and global equality

Answer 170

D Globalization does not typically lead to global equality; rather, globalization tends to create further global inequalities. In regard to environmental justice, higher numbers of hazardous waste facilities tend to be found in low-income neighborhoods. Poor living conditions tend to be associated with greater health problems, including tuberculosis. Finally, environmental pollution is more prevalent in areas with minority populations, especially low-income minority populations.

Question 171

Which of the following trends is most likely FALSE? A) Mortality rates are increased in low-income racial and ethnic minorities B) Life expectancy is decreased in high-income groups C) Birth weights are decreased in children of low-income women D) Rates of lung cancer are increased in low-income groups

Answer 171

B High-income groups tend to have increased life expectancy rates, not decreased. Low-income racial and ethnic minorities have higher mortality rates than high-income groups. Low-income women tend to have children with lower birth weights. Finally, rates of various diseases, including lung cancer, are increased among low-income groups.

Question 172

A small town has 1000 residents, including 500 men and 500 women. In this town, 20 of the men have prostate cancer. During a calendar year, 10 more men are diagnosed with prostate cancer. Assume none of the men are cured or die during the year. What is the prevalence of prostate cancer in this population at the end of the year? A) 10 divided by 480 B) 10 divided by 1000 C) 20 divided by 500 D) 30 divided by 1000

Answer 172

D Prevalence is defined as the total number of cases divided by the total population during a period of time. Here, the period of time is defined as one point: the end of the year. At the end of the year, there are 30 total cases in a population of 1000 individuals, meaning the prevalence is 30 divided by 1000.

Question 173

A small town has 1000 residents, including 500 men and 500 women. In this town, 20 of the men have prostate cancer. During a calendar year, 10 more men are diagnosed with prostate cancer. Assume none of the men are cured or die during the year. What is the incidence of prostate cancer in this population during the year? A) 10 divided by 480 B) 10 divided by 1000 C) 20 divided by 500 D) 30 divided by 1000

Answer 173

A Incidence is defined as the total number of NEW cases divided by the at-risk population during a period of time. Here, the period of time is one year. There were 10 new cases in this year, and the at-risk population will be only the males who do not already have prostate cancer; the 20 men already diagnosed and the 500 women should not be included in the at-risk population. Therefore, the incidence in this population is 10 divided by 480.

Question 174

A low-income single mother works a part-time job and lives in a small apartment in the city. When her children grow up, they take similar jobs and live in similar housing. This is an example of: A) Upward social mobility B) Downward social mobility C) Social exclusion D) Social reproduction

Answer 174

D In this scenario, the children remain in the same socioeconomic class as their mother, indicating a lack of social mobility. Rather, this is an example of social reproduction, in which social inequality, especially poverty, is passed from one generation to the next.

Question 175

Which of the following is true with regard to relative poverty? A) Individuals in relative poverty have incomes below the poverty line B) Individuals in relative poverty exhibit downward social mobility C) Individuals in relative poverty may be in the upper class D) Individuals in relative poverty exhibit upward social mobility

Answer 175

C Relative poverty is a comparative term: it describes being poorer than those in the surrounding population. Members of the upper class can live in relative poverty compared to others in their neighborhood if they are not as well-off as their neighbors. Relative poverty is not directly associated with upward or downward social mobility; individuals living in relative poverty could exhibit mobility in either direction or no social mobility at all.

Question 176

In comparison to urban centers, suburbs tend to have: A) Larger racial and ethnic minority populations B) Higher rates of poverty C) Larger upper and middle class populations D) Higher rates of crim and homicide

Answer 176

C Suburbs tend to have larger upper and middle class populations than urban centers; urban centers tend to have larger low-socioeconomic status populations than suburbs. This is due, in part, to the increased mobility seen in upper and middle class populations, which permits their migration into the suburbs.

Question 177

Which of the following terms refers to the burden or degree of disease associated with a given illness? A) Morbidity B) Mortality C) Second sickness D) Chronicity

Answer 177

A Morbidity refers to the burden of illness, or the severity or degree of illness. Mortality refers to deaths caused by a given illness. Second sickness is a term used to describe the exacerbation of health outcomes due to social injustice. Chronicity refers to the duration of a disease, not its severity or significance for the patient.

Question 178

Compared to white Americans, which of the following racial or ethnic groups tend to have a better overall health profile? A) African Americans B) Asian Americans C) Hispanic Americans D) Native Americans

Answer 178

B In comparison to white Americans, Asian Americans tend to have better overall health profiles. African Americans tend to have worse overall health profiles. Hispanic Americans and Native Americans both have mixed health profiles in comparison to white Americans: they are better off in some categories and worse off in others. However, Hispanic and Native Americans do not have better overall health profiles than white Americans.

Question 179

Which of the following best describes the populations targeted by Medicare and Medicaid, respectively? A) Medicare: mostly patients without employer-guaranteed healthcare; Medicaid: mostly patients who have recently immigrated B) Medicare: mostly patients who have recently immigrated; Medicaid: mostly patients without employer-guaranteed healthcare C) Medicare: mostly patients in older age groups; Medicaid: mostly patients with low socioeconomic status D) Medicare: mostly patients with low socioeconomic status; Medicaid: mostly patients in older age groups

Answer 179

C Medicare covers patients over the age of 65 (older age groups), those with end-stage renal disease, and those with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Medicaid covers patients below a certain socioeconomic level.

Question 180

Morbidity is increased in low-income groups because of all of the following EXCEPT: A) Higher rates of obesity B) Less access to healthcare C) Higher rates of homicide D) Lower rates of physical activity

Answer 180

C Morbidity refers to the burden or severity of disease. All of the factors listed are true with regard to low-socioeconomic status populations; however, high homicide rates cause increases in mortality, not morbidity.

Question 181

Hypertension (high blood pressure) can be diagnosed by having two or more blood pressure readings higher than 140/90 on two different occasions, separated by a week. Suppose that the criteria were changed to include anyone with a reading higher than 130/80 on at least one occasion. How would this change the prevalence of diagnosed hypertension in the population? A) The prevalence would increase B) The prevalence would decrease C) The prevalence would remain the same D) There is not enough information to determine the change in prevalence

Answer 181

A If the threshold for hypertension (high blood pressure) were lowered, more individuals would fit the criteria for the disease. If the number of individuals with the disease increases and population stays the same overall, there will be an increased prevalence of the disease.

Question 182

Which of the following trends regarding healthcare disparities has NOT been documented? A) Females are more likely to be insured than males B) Primary care use is more likely among males than females C) Low-income individuals have more difficulty accessing care than high-income individuals D) LGBT individuals have more barriers to healthcare than heterosexuals.

Answer 182

B In comparison to females, males visit primary care doctors less frequently. All of the other trends listed here have been documented.