MCAT 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the four quantum number!

A
  1. Principle number - main energy level (shell) n
  2. Orbital angular momentum - subshell type s (l=0, p (l=1), d (l=2), f (l=3) corresponding to shape of the orbital occupied by the electrons. (n-1)
  3. Magnetic quantum number - number of orbitals of given type and their orientation within sub level. Mt (all integers from -l to +l)
  4. Spin quantum number -angular momentum of an electron, Ms
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2
Q

What is the formula for specific rotation?

A

[a]= a obs/cxl
C-concentration (g/ml)
L- path length (dm)
Specific rotation must be determined experimentally. Observer rotation is dependent on the sample concentration and sample cell length

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3
Q

What is needed for PCR?

A

Polymerase chain reaction is a thermal cycling technique used to amplify DNA fragments. It needs:
1. Source DNA template
2. C-G rich primer pairs
3. Thermostable DNA polymerase - to replicate the DNA template using pool of dNTPs.
4. Buffer solution with positively charged ions. It provides optimal environment for DNA polymerase to function. Neutralizing the - charge of DNA.

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4
Q

What is bottle neck effect?

A

Is the drastic reduction in population size that occurs in response to some sudden and uncontrollable disaster (eg flood, famine, humans induced catastrophe). No genotype or phenotype is protective and members of the population are eliminated randomly. This substantially alters the genetic diversity and allele frequencies of the population in a way that doesn’t necessarily follow the principle of natural selection.

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5
Q

What is variable expressivity and incomplete penetrance?

A

Penetrance -proportion of individuals with a specific genotype who express the corresponding phenotype.
Variable expressivity - range of phenotype outcomes shown by individuals who carry the same gene type

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6
Q

How mitochondrial genome is passed down to the offspring?

A

They have their own genome, known as mitochondrial DNA which is generally inherited in a maternal fashion (no paternal contribution). Mitochondria within sperm are not transferred into the ovum during fertilization

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7
Q

Why erythrocytes are different than cells in the body?

A

They are biconcave, disk shaped cells that mainly contain hemoglobin, the carrier protein that transport oxygen to body tissues. They expell their nucleus and other organelles during synthesis in the bone marrow to maximize the available space for hemoglobin. They don’t consume oxygen they are transporting because they produce energy only via anaerobic glycolysis

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8
Q

What is dissociative disorders?

A

Characterized by disruption to memory and identity.
1. Dissociative identity disorder - presence of two or more distant personalities, amnesia
2. Dissociative amnesia- inability to recall important autobiographical information (eg personal history, traumatic event)

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9
Q

Most sugars in nature are?

A

D configuration (R)

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10
Q

What is gene flow?

A

Is caused by migration of individuals (or their gametes) between populations and can result in allele frequency changes

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11
Q

What is genetic drift?

A

Is a mechanism of evolution, however unlike natural selection, the variability’s in allele frequencies occur randomly by chance. Because of smaller populations have a smaller gene pool, the random variations due to genetic drift can’t be buffered

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12
Q

What is 5 assumptions involved in hardy weinberg assumptions?

A
  1. No new mutations
  2. No natural selections
  3. No gene flow in and out
  4. Random mating
  5. Large population size
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13
Q

What is adaptive radiation?

A

Is the process of diversifying characteristics (claw and teeth size) to better fill in ecological niche. It can eventually lead to speciation if the subgroup continues to diverge and loses the ability to interbred with individuals from the original species.

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14
Q

What is speciation?

A

Is the evolutionary process of forming a new species from a previously existing species. The process occurs over many generations and results in organisms that can’t interbreed with the ancestral species!

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15
Q

How stress effects immune system?

A

In response to stress, hypothalamus stimulates the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone ACTH. As a result ACTH release; the adrenal cortex secretes glucocorticoid hormones such a cortisol. Cortisol mediate stress responses by increasing blood glucose level and decreasing inflammation and protein synthesis. Chronic exposure to cortisol can negatively impede immunological response, increasing the susceptiblility for diseases and affect reproduction health (fecundity)

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16
Q

Why alpha hydrogens are more acidic?

A

Protons on alpha carbons are more acidic than other protons bonded to a carbon atom because the carbonyl oxygen is electron withdrawing, resulting in less electron density around the alpha protons. Therefore alpha protons have lower pKa values and can be more easily removed by a base to form an enolate which can be stabilized by charge delocalization.

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17
Q

What is retro aldol reaction

A

Is the reverse of the aldol condensation. When heated and treated with a aqueous base, the carbon carbon bond between the alpha and beta carbons is broken, forming two ketone, two aldehydes, or one of each, sleeping on the substituents on the carbonyl carbon and the beta carbon. Aldehydes form if the carbonyl and beta carbon had hydrogen substituents whereas ketones form if all substituents are carbon chains

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18
Q

What is continuity equation?

A

Q1=Q2
Q=Av
A1v1=A2v2
Q- volumetric flow rate
A - cross sectional area
V - fluid velocity
The volumetric flow rate of ideal fluids through interconnected segments of any conduit must be equal at every point along the length of the conducts. Continuity equation can be used to relate volumetric flow rate of one conduit segment to another

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19
Q

What are the enzyme name of citric acid cycle that reduce NAD+ and FAD?

A

Three NADH, 1FADH2 molecules are produces by redox reactions. Enzymes are dehydrogenases because the transfer of electrons is often accompanied by the the transfer of hydrogen atoms.
1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
2. Alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
3. Succinate dehydrogenase
4. Malate dehydrogenase

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20
Q

What is sensory adaptation?

A

Occurs when the neural response to an unchanging stimulus is dampened and the perception of that stimulus either disappears or is diminished. Sensory adaptation can occur with vision, hearing, smell, taste and touch.

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21
Q

What is stereopsis?

A

Is the perception of depth that arise from the integrated information received from both eyes. Binocular depth cues allow accurate perception of depth through the integration of slightly different information from left and right eyes. Binocular depth cues include:
1. Retinal disparity - distance between eyes results in slightly different images.
2. Convergence - angular positioning of eyes. The brain interprets the angle of convergence as an indication of distance from the observer.

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22
Q

What is accommodation of eyes!

A

As an object approaches the eye, ciliary muscles alter the shape of the lens. This referred as accommodation and is processed by the brain as a depth perception cue. Accommodation is monocular cue

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23
Q

What is subjective contours in gestalt principles?

A

Also known as reification or illusory contours, describes how our mind fills in the gap.

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24
Q

What is invariance in gestalt principle?

A

Objects can be recognized despite alterations in orientation, lighting, scale and slight alterations in the objects component features.

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25
Q

What is difference between kinesthetic sense and vestibular sense?

A

Kinesthetic
1. Proprioceptors in muscles, joints, tendons, and skin detects movement and position of body/limbs.
2. Kinesthetic input provides awareness of location of parts of the body in space and now they are moving.
Vestibular
1. Maintains balance and orientation, detects gravity/acceleration and head rotation.
2. Motion sickness arises from conflict between vestibular system and visual input

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26
Q

Spatial orientation and balance rely on input from?

A
  1. Visual
  2. Vestibular input - semicircular canals, otolith organs.
  3. Somatosensory input - proprioception
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27
Q

The oral cavity aids in ingestion of what?

A

Initial digestion of carbohydrates and triglycerides via salivary amylase and lingual lipase respectively

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28
Q

What is pepsinogen do!

A

In the stomach, gastric chief release the zymogen (inactive) pepsinogen which is activated to pepsin upon mixing with hydrochloric acid in gastric juices. Pepsin is proteolytic enzyme responsible for the initial digestion of polypeptide into smaller peptides

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29
Q

What are the monocular cues?

A

Are depth cues that can be perceived using one eye only and often rely on comparisons between objects.
1. Interpositions - overlapping objects create a sense of depth
2. Light and shadow- patterns of lights and shadow create the illusion of 3D object
3. Texture gradient - closer objects to lol have coarser texture/ more detailed
4. Relative size - closer objects appear larger than objects further away
5. Relative height - further objects appear at higher distances within a field
6. Linear perspective- distance between parallel lines appear narrower as they become further away.

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30
Q

How conformity influence individual behavior?

A

Occurs when an individual’s thoughts or actions align with group norms (thoughts/behaviors of others) due to the implicit influence of others. There is no explicit request or command,yet an individual still goes along with the group. Increased conformity is correlated with individual (eg age, gender), group (eg size, power) and social (eg collectivism) characteristics

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31
Q

What is compliance?

A

Is a type of conformity whereby an individual publicly goes along with the group but privately maintains his or her own stance. Without information regarding the private stance of the subjects, it is not possible to determine if compliance is occurring

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32
Q

What is regression to the mean?

A

Refers to the tendency of extreme date points in a distribution to regress toward the mean value of the distribution upon repeated measurement. For example, an athlete who has an outstanding performance in one game is likely to underperform in the next game.

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33
Q

What is social facilitation effect?

A

Refers to the enhancement of performance when an individual has an audience (eg people tie their shoes faster when being watched) but it predicts that only simple or well learned tasks improve

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34
Q

What is social desirability bias

A

Describes the tendency of research subjects to respond to experimental questions in away that makes them look better in the eyes of the experimenter such as oversimulating positive behaviors and underestimating negative behaviors

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35
Q

What is normative social influence?

A

Describes when an individual conforms to fit in or avoid rejection by others. Eg a collage freshman noticed that everyone on campus wears yellow wristband so he wears one to fit it.

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36
Q

What is informational social influence?

A

Describes when people conform to what others are doing because they don’t know what to do. Eg if several group members have medical expertise regarding cancer, another participant of that group may conform because individual believes the others are experts with the best information about cancer risk

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37
Q

What is reliability in scientific finding?

A

Refers to the consistency of an experiment or measure. Reliable measures produce similar results every time.

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38
Q

What is validity in scientific finding?

A

Can be internal or external. Internal validity refers to the extent to which an experiment or measure is accurate (produces true result). Eg a broken scale might consistently show your weight as 10 lbs lighter which would be consistent ( reliable) but not accurate (valid)
External validity: known as generalizability is the extent to which study results can be applied outside the laboratory to real life situations.

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39
Q

What is B cells do in immune system?

A

Identify foreign pathogens, present antigens and produce antibodies

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40
Q

What is T cells do in immune system?

A

Mediate number of immune responses, including those against viruses, bacteria and parasites.

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41
Q

What is dendritic cells do in immune system?

A

Identify foreign pathogens present antigen and activate other immune cells

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42
Q

What is macrophages do in immune system

A

Degrade pathogens and dead body cells via phagocytosis

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43
Q

What is basophils do in immune system?

A

Release chemical mediators such as histamine that enhance an immune response

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44
Q

What is mast cells do in immune system?

A

Release chemical mediators such as histamine that makes modulate allergic reaction

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45
Q

What is neutrophils do in immune system?

A

Kill and phagocytize bacterial cells

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46
Q

What is eosinophils do in immune system?

A

Defend against parasitic infections and modulate immune response during
Allergic reactions

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47
Q

What is natural killer cells do in immune system?

A

Release toxins to destroy virus infected body cells

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48
Q

What is function of lymphatic systems? What are the main organs and tissues?

A

Is the network of vessels that collect and transport lymph ultimately draining this fluid into the bloodstream. It is important to the immune response and includes following lymphoid tissues and organs:
-Bone marrow
-Thymus
-Lymph nodes -filter lymph, macrophages housed within lymph nodes
-Spleen - blood is filtered. White blood cells remove pathogens and damaged or old red blood cells from the blood.

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49
Q

What is ascribed status?

A

Is an involuntary social position assigned by society that is typically based on a social construct such as age, gender, or race/ethnicity

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50
Q

What is symbolic interactionism?

A

Person person to interactions that shape society. Through social interactions people develop subjective meaning for things (people, places, events, behaviors) which are more important than objective facts. what people believe to be true is more important than what is actually true. Subjective meaning differ by context and culture. A fundamental concept in symbolic interactionism is “definition of the situation” - describe how people enter into social situations with clearly defined expectations for their own behaviors and the behavior of others. It allows people to understand the statuses and roles of everyone involved in a situation so each person acts accordingly.
Charles Cooley, looking glass self

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51
Q

What is rational choice/ social exchange theory do?

A

Individuals behaviors and interactions attempt to maximize personal gain and minimize personal cost

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52
Q

What is cognitive dissonance

A

Occurs when an individual’s thoughts and actions don’t align or if an individual holds two competing attitudes. Eg if a student wants go to medical school but rarely studies for the mcat and this disparity could cause mental distress or discomfort. Individuals are motivated to reduce this dissonance by aligning their thoughts, attitudes and actions

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53
Q

What are the classifications of ion channels.

A
  1. Ligand gated ion channels
  2. Mechanically gated ion channels- responds to mechanical forces like pressure and tension
  3. Voltage gated ion channels- responds to changes in the membrane potential that have usually been caused by other channels.
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54
Q

What are the approximate pKa value of ionizable amino acid side chains?

A

Basic: Arg 12, Lys is 10.5, His 6
Polar ionizable: Tyr 10, Cys 8
Acidic amino acid: Glu 4, Asp 4

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55
Q

What is Henderson hasselbalch equation?

A

pH=pKa +log [A-]/[HA]
At pH values different from the pKa, the concentration predominant and minor forms can be calculated using this equation

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56
Q

How does mass spectrometry works?

A

Is a technique that measures molecular weight of a molecule. Molecules in a sample are bombarded with a beam of electrons, producing positively charged ions and fragments of the molecule. The ionized fragments are detected and a mass spectrum is generated with the y axis representing ion abundance and the x axis representing the mass to charge ratio m/z

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57
Q

What is coding and non coding RNA?

A

Coding: messenger RNA (mRNA) - is translated into protein by ribosomes
Non coding:
1. rRNA- associates with specific proteins to form ribosomes
2. t RNA- pairs mRNA codons with specific amino acids during translation
3. Small nuclear RNA (sn RNA) - associates with specific proteins to from small nuclear ribonucleoproteins, the building block of splicesomes
4. Small interfering RNA (si RNA) - functions in RNA i Terence, binds complementary mRNA and signals for its degradation
5. MicroRNA -mi RNA - functions in RNA interference, binds Target complementary sequence on mRNA molecules to silence gene expressions

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58
Q

What is Doppler effect?

A

Describes a waveform phenomenon in which the frequency of the waveforms perceived by an observer is greater or less than the real, native frequency of waveform emitted from source.
Fo=v+-vs/wavelength

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59
Q

How osmoregulation works in kidney?

A

The kidney is a vital organ in homeostasis, regulating water and ion content of blood in the process known as osmoregulation. This is accomplished by balancing the intake of specific molecules with the excretion of specific molecules in urine. Eg when large amounts of water are consumed, the osmolarity of blood decreases. To maintain homeostasis, higher concentrations or solutes (eg Na+) will be reabsorbed while more water will be excreted by the kidneys, producing a larger volume of dilute urine.

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60
Q

Microfilaments are one of the three families of protein fibers. What does it do?

A
  1. Microfilament - protein subunit: actin, 7nm, motor protein is myosin
    Function: help determine cellular shape, cellular locomotion (crawling like movement), responsible for muscle contractions, involved in cytokinesis.
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61
Q

Intermediate filaments are one of the three families of protein fibers. What does it do?

A

Protein subunit: keratin, lamins, vimentin, desmin
10nm
Function; help determine cellular shape,
Make up the nuclear lamina,
Anchor organellas to specific cellular compartments.

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62
Q

Microtubules are one of the three families of protein fibers. What does it do?

A

Protein subunit: tubulin
25nm
Motor proteins; kinesin, dynein
Function; help determine cellular shape. Intracellular transport of vesicles and organelles,
Mitotic chromosome movement,
Cellular locomotion (cilia and flagella)

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63
Q

How mitochondria is unique from other organelles?

A

Have roles in cellular metabolism and the initiation of apoptosis. They are semiautonomous, possessing their own genes and self replicating via binary fission.

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64
Q

What is the equation for acceleration ?

A

=v+vo/2

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65
Q

Whist is distance travelled equation when initial velocity is not known?

A

Delta x=vt +1/2at^2

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66
Q

What is the distance traveled when current velocity is not known?

A

Delta x=vot+1/2at^2

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67
Q

What is velocity equation when time is not known?

A

v^2=vo^2 +2a deltaX

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68
Q

What is velocity equation when displacement is not known?

A

V=vo+at

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69
Q

How to find displacement when graph velocity vs time is given?

A

Displacement of a moving Kinect over an interval of time can be derived from the graph by calculating the total area under the curve during that interval.
A triangle=1/2baseheight
A rectangle =base
height

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70
Q

What is difference between availability vs representativeness heuristics?

A

Availability heuristic- tendency to believe that if something is easily recalled from memory, it must be common or likely. Eg several relatives have been diagnosed with lung cancer; an individual might inaccurately assume that lung is the most common type of cancer
Representativeness heuristic- is tendency to compare things (eg people, events) to mental prototype when making judgments. Eg assuming a women dressed in scrubs is a nurse rather than a surgeon.

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71
Q

What is x and y intercept on lineweaver burk plot represents?

A

X-intercept: -1/Km
Y-intercept: 1/Vmax
Competitive inhibitors bind reversibly to an enzyme’s active site and block substrate access, causing an increase in Km but no change in Vmax.
Noncompetitive- Vmax decreased, upward shift
Uncompetitive- Vmax decreased, Km decreased.
Upward shift for Vmax
Left shift for -1/Km

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72
Q

What is ubiquitination!

A

Proteins are tagged for degradation in a process known as ubiquitination, which causes the proteasome to recognize and degrade the marked proteins via proteolysis (peptide bond cleavage). This system is responsible for degrading damaged or unnecessary proteins/enzymes

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73
Q

What is loading controls?

A

They normalize protein detection and ensure that protein loading is standardized across the gel. Proteins used as loading controls tend to be ubiquitously (expressed in all cell/tissue types) and have consistent concentrations across all cell/tissue types. House keeping genes are most common loading controls. Eg alpha beta tubulin proteins.

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74
Q

Types of inhibition and it’s effects on Vmax and Km.

A
  1. Competitive inhibitors- bind to active site and prevent substrate binding.
    Km increased
    Vmax unchanged
  2. Noncompetitive inhibitors- binds to both the enzyme and enzyme substrate complex ES with equal affinity. It’s slow the reaction rate and decrease Vmax.
    Vmax decreased
    Km unchanged
  3. Uncompetitive inhibitors- only bind to ES. Decreases both Vmax and km same factor
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75
Q

Difference between transverse and longitudinal waves?

A

A mechanical wave is motion created by a disturbance in a medium. It can propagate through medium in two different wave forms.
1. Transverse - waves displace the components of the medium perpendicular to the direction of the wave’s propagation.
Eg: a water wave in the ocean, where water rises and falls vertically relative to the ocean surface but wave travels horizontally parallel to the surface.
2. Longitudinal waves displace the medium in a direction parallel to the direction of the wave’s propagation. Eg sounds waves, they create disturbances in the air; causing air molecules to oscillating back and forth parallel to the direction of sound wave travels though the air.

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76
Q

What is diastereomers?

A

Are stereoisomers that are not mirror images. They contain at least 2 stereocenters in which one or more ( but not all) of the stereocenters on corresponding carbon atoms are in opposite configurations

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77
Q

What is conformational isomers?

A

Are different forms of same molecule that are generated as atoms rotate about their bonds. Unlike other stereocenters, they can rapidly interconvert by rotation without the need to break any bonds

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78
Q

What is difference between kinase, phosphorylase, phosphatase?

A
  1. Kinase - adds phosphate, required ATP.
  2. Phosphorylase - adds phosphate, no ATP required
  3. Phosphatase - remove phosphate group and generate ATP
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79
Q

During activation of the sympathetic nervous system blood flow is directed where?

A

Directed toward brain and skeletal muscles,

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80
Q

What is equation for Henry’s law of solubility?

A

C=Kh*Pgas
Pgas -partial pressure of gas
Kh- solubility constant specific to gas and solution
C- concentration of gas dissolved

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81
Q

For a floating object, what is the buoyant force and the weight of the object?

A

For the object floating at the surface, the vertical forces (its buoyancy and weight) cancel each other out and there is no net vertical force or acceleration.
Therefore: Fb=W=mg

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82
Q

What is refraction?

A

The bending of light; occurs at the boundary between two different mediums with different values of n. If light passes from high to low n, such as water (n=1.3) and air (n=1), light bends away from the normal axis and toward the surface. At a critical angle, light is refracted at 90degree and it parallel to the surface. Above this angle, all of the light will be reflected away from the surface (total internal reflection)

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83
Q

What is diffraction?

A

Is the bending of light around physical corners or very narrow gaps.

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84
Q

What is dispersion?

A

Is the spreading of light unit it’s different frequencies (colors) due to differences in the index of refraction for different frequencies of light.

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85
Q

What is alternative splicing?

A

During transcription, mRNA complementary to a DNA template is synthesized. Subsequently, the mRNA is processed with non coding portions (introns) removed, and coding portions (exons) joined. A process known as alternative splicing generates multiple mRNA transcripts and different proteins can be formed from a single gene.

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86
Q

What is cross sectional studies?

A

Are observational studies that assess date from large section of the population at a given point and can determine the prevalence of a disease.

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87
Q

What is case studies?

A

Are observational studies that assess one or more individuals in depth over a certain period.

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88
Q

What is illness experience perspective!

A

Is a symbolic interactionist perspective that examines how individuals understand and cope with serious or chronic illnesses that impact daily life and self identity. Chronically ill individuals employs strategies that involve illness work (eg taking medicine), everyday work (eg maintaining a household), and biographical work (Ed explaining the illness to others) to cope with and make sense of their illness.

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89
Q

What is sick role theory?

A

In sociology, sick role theory (Talcott Parsons), conceptualize illness as a socially acceptable form of deviance. A sick person has the right to be excuse from normal responsibilities and to be held blameless for the illness. A sick person has the obligation to attempts to get well a soon as possible and to seek and comply with the advice of medical professionals

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90
Q

What is conformational isomers?

A

Are structures that have the same connectivity and can be inter converted by the rotation of sigma bonds. Because they are identical expect for the bond rotations they are same compound

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91
Q

What is difference between SDS-PAGE and size exclusion chromatography?

A

Both techniques separate proteins by size but relationship between size and speed of migration differs.
In SDS page- SDS is an anionic detergent that denatures proteins. Native shape is lost and native charge is hidden. Proteins then separated by size only. SDS coats proteins in negative charges and then strong electromotive force pulls the proteins through gel matrix. Smaller proteins navigate more easily whereas larger proteins are hindered by the gels.
SEC- relies on gentler forces like gravity flow. Which allows molecule to diffuse into and out of the porous chromatography resin. Smaller goes slower and larger proteins excluded faster.

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92
Q

What is the formula for percent yield?

A

%yield=actual yield/theoretical yield *100%
Assesses the extent to which the starting materials are converted into products during a reaction.
Where theoretical yield is the maximum amount of the product that can from if 100% of the limiting reactant is converted into products.

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93
Q

What is the three layers of skin?

A
  1. Epidermis - can be further divided into five additional layers (strata) that contain Merkel cell, langerhans cells, keratinocytes and melanocytes. Deepest layer is basale, consists of single row of stem cells that continually dived to give rise to new stem cells.
  2. Dermis - contains blood vessels, immune cells, sensory receptors, sweat and oil glands and hair follicle.
  3. Hypodermis - inner most layer, composed of insulating and shock absorbing adipose tissue
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94
Q

What is stratum basale do in the epidermis?

A

Consists of single row of stem cell that continually divide to give rise to new stem cell. Of the two daughter cells proxies from each mitotic division in the stratum basale, one cells remains in the basal layer and other one begins differentiating into mature keratinocyte. As constant cell division pushes the keratinocyte outward through the epidermal layers, they will work keratin, flatten and lose their organelles.

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95
Q

What is epidermal langerhans cell do?

A

Are immune (dendritic) cells that recognize and ingest antigens before migrating to nearby lymph nodes to present those antigens to T cells, activating the adaptive immune response.

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96
Q

What is thermoregulation do when body is above the normal temperature!

A
  1. Vasodilation- widening of skin arterioles increase blood flow to skin capillaries and maximize heat loss through the skin. Blood is warmed in the body core, transfers heat to the environment when it passes through skin capillaries. Vasodilation occurs when the smooth muscle surrounding the blood vessels relaxes.
  2. Sweat - hypotonic solution is secreted onto skin surface by sweat glands. Heat loss and subsequent cooling occurs due to the evaporation of the water in sweat and endothermic process that absorb heat from body.
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97
Q

What is entropy?

A

Is a measure of the disorder within a system. Increased order means negative entropy change whereas increased disorder means positive entropy change. The water molecules surrounding folded protein have greater entropy than those surrounding unfolded proteins because the hydrophobic molecules on the surface of unfolded proteins force water to form a rigid solver ion layer.

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98
Q

What is protease enzymes do?

A

Proteins can be degraded by protease enzymes. During peptide hydrolysis, a water molecules is used to cleave the C-N bond in a the amide linkage using an acid H+) or base (OH-). In contrast, the reverse of amide hydrolysis is amide bond condensation; which involves the formation of water molecule from two amino acids to form a larger peptide.

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99
Q

What enzyme can alter and can’t alter?

A

Enzymes don’t alter free energy change delta G or the equilibrium constant Keq of reaction but by increasing the reaction rate they do decrease the time taken for the reaction to reach equilibrium. Deleterious mutations involving the enzyme’s active site are likely to alter the enzyme’s affinity for its substrate (increase Kd) and interfere with enzymatic function (decrease reaction rate).

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100
Q

What is missense mutation do?

A

It changes to different amino acid

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101
Q

Formula for electrostatic force on a charge in electric field?

A

F=qE

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102
Q

What is direction of electric field?

A

+ away
- into

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103
Q

What are the equation current can be represented?

A

Current refers to movement of electric charge.
I=Q/t
SI unit: ampere A=Coulomb/second
Ohms law: I=V/R
P=IV (watt) =AV

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104
Q

What is in the cell body of motor neuron?

A

Contains nucleus, the site where transcription of neuronal nuclear encoded genes.

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105
Q

How to calculate mean, median, mode, range?

A
  1. Mean- add all the numbers and divide the total sum by number of values
  2. Mode - count the frequency of values in the data set and mode is value that occurs the most frequently
  3. Median- order numbers from lowest to highest value, if it is odd amount of numbers it is the middle number. If it is even amount of numbers, add the middle 2 and divide by 2.
  4. Range- order numbers lowest to highest value, identify minimum and maximum. Subtract minimum from maximum
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106
Q

What is standard deviation indicates?

A

Is statistic indicting how far the values are spread around the mean

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107
Q

What is divisions of peripheral nervous system?

A

Sensory
Motor - 1. Somatic 2. Autonomic nervous system
Autonomic nervous system; a. Sympathetic
b. Parasympathetic

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108
Q

What is efferent pathway of peripheral nervous system?

A

Ganglion is collection of several nerve cell bodies within the peripheral nervous system and is the site where preganglionic nerves synapse with postgangionic nerves. Parasympathetic pathways typically involve acetylcholine released from both pre and postganglionic neurons. Sympathetic pathways employ also acetylcholine released from preganglionic but typically release norepinephrine from postsynaptic neurons.

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109
Q

What is the role of nodes of Randvier in transmission of neural impulses?

A

They are small interruptions in the myelin sheath. By exposing a short segment of unmyelinated axon, the nodes of randvier promote entry of extra cellular Na+ into axons while limiting the total number of ion channels that must open, thereby greater increasing the rate at which neural impulses are conduction along myelinated axons.

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110
Q

What is reflex arc?

A

Reflexes are involuntary responses to stimuli that may or may not require input from brain. A reflex arc is the specific neuronal pathway that facilitates the direct muscular or glandular effect associated with a particular reflex. Reflex arcs begin with stimulation of sensory neuron which leads to an electrical impulse that travels toward the spine or brain along a sensory nerve. Impulse can happen in two days:
Directly to the effector neuron
Or
Indirectly through interneuron that interfaces with the effector neuron

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111
Q

What happens to the body when sympathetic nervous system is activated?

A

Oxygen delivery to skeletal muscles is maximized ( eg increasing heart rate, dilating airways, constricting blood vessels that supply the visceral organs, glands and skin). Glycogen in the liver is broken down into glucose which is then released into circulation to provide energy for skeletal muscles. The pupils dilate to maximize light intake by the eye, facilitating vision. It inhibits nonessential functions auxin as those related to digestion and reproduction. Relaxes bladder and promotes ejaculation and vaginal contraction

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112
Q

Why action potential can’t occur during repolarization?

A

Repolarization begins when K+ channels open, causing K ions to rapidly leave the cell. Simultaneously, the inactivation gates of the Na + channels close, preventing the re entry of Na+ ions. The absolute refractory period is the period during which no new APs can be generated regardless of strength of stimulus received. The Na+ channel inactivation gates must open and the Na+ channels must be return to a deactivated (closed) state before the next AP can occur

During hyper polarization new AP can be generated because unactivation gates have been opened but a stronger than normal stimulus is would be needed. This period is called the relative refractory period.

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113
Q

What is changes in number of Na+ ions transported into a myelinated axon during transmission of neural impulse along it’s length?

A

In myelinated fibers, the voltage gated Na+ ion channels only present at the nodes of Ranvier. As a result, the hunger of Na+ ions transported into a myelinated fiber increases in a stair step pattern with increments of approximately equal size in the number of transported Na+ ions at each node of Ranvier.

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114
Q

Wake is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Is a progressive neurodegenerative brain disease characterized by the presence of plaques composed of beta Amyloid proteins and neurofibrillary tangles composed of tau proteins. The presence of these amyloid beta plaques and neurofibrillary tangles are toxic to neurons and lead to cell death.

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115
Q

What is multiple sclerosis?

A

Is a neurodegenerative disease in which immune cells are unable attach myelin sheath surrounding axons in the central nervous system.

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116
Q

What is Huntington disease?

A

Is an autosomal dominant genetic neurodegenerative disease in which neuronal loss occurs in extensive regions of the brain including the basal ganglia

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117
Q

What is gray and white matter in central nervous system?

A

The central nervous system, including brains and spinal cord is composed of white and gray matter. Located in the center of spinal cord, gray meter is composed of unmyelinated neuronal cell bodies and dendrites. In the peripheral of the spinal cord; white matter is compared of myelinated and unmyelinated axon that allow for long distance communication between neurons.
White matter consists of afferent and efferent axons

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118
Q

What is pathway communication between presynaptic and postsynaptic neuron?

A

Axon ->synapse->dendrite ->soma
Neurons are cells that receive, integrate, and transmit information in the nervous system. Communication between neurons involves an electrochemical process in which electrical signals are converted to chemical signals (and vice versa) as they travel from the presynaptic to postsynaptic neuron.
1. An electric signal in the presynaptic neuron travels down a thin fiber called an AXON that conducts the signal to the axon terminals.
2. From there chemical messengers called neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft (synapse), the region between the axon terminals and the dendrites of the next neuron (postsynaptic neuron).
3. Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the Dendrites of the postsynaptic neuron, altering the electric potential of the cell.
4. Change in electric potential spreads to the cell body ( soma)

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119
Q

What is components of simple somatic reflex?

A

Stimulus-> sensor-> input signal ->integrating center -> output signal ->response
Neural reflexes can be either somatic (involving skeletal muscle) or autonomic (involving tissues other than skeletal muscle). Both reflexes include afferent neuron carrying sensory info to CNS and an efferent neuron that activates a response in a target tissue. In some somatic ( and all autonomic) reflexes additional neurons called interneurons

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120
Q

What is the difference between monosynaptic and postsynaptic reflexes?

A

Monosynaptic - somatic reflexes only require an afferent neuron delivering the sensory info to the spinal cord and an efferent motor neuron activating the muscle response. Eg knee jerk by stimulus
Polysynaptic- reflexes incorporate at least one more neuron in the reflex

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121
Q

What are the different kinds of reflexes?

A
  1. Neural - neurons plays part
  2. Endocrine tissue - adjusts hormone production based on level of another hormone in the blood
  3. Neuroendocrine reflexes- involve both neurons and endocrine
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122
Q

What are the classifications of innate immune system?

A
  1. Physical barriers: skin, mucous membranes, stomach acid.
    Prevents foreign pathogens from entering the body
  2. Immune cells: white blood cells (leukocytes)
    A. Phagocytic cells eg macrophages, nonspecifically engulf and destroy foreign pathogens
    B. Chemical releasing cells eg basophils, natural killer cells - secrete chemicals that enhance the immune response response and promote pathogen destruction
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123
Q

What are the function of neutrophil?

A

They are part of innate immune system. They for many functions:
1. Destruction of pathogens via phagocytosis
2. Release of granules containing antimicrobial compounds
3. Release of neutrophil extra cellular traps containing DNA
4. Neutrophils release cytokines (chemical signal) that regulate different immune responses
They are the most abundant type of white blood cells and first responder to an infection.

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124
Q

What is lymphocytes?

A

They are 2nd most common type of white blood cell but not all lymphocytes are part of innate immune system. There are 3 types; B cell, T cell and natural killer cells.
B and T are part of adaptive immune system and natural killer cells are innate immune system.
Natural killer cells - respond to cells infected by viruses and tumors to lull them and prevent the spread of infection.

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125
Q

What is difference between. MHC I and MHC II?

A

T cells recognize antigens through the help of major histocompatibillty complexes.
MHC I - is a protein expressed on the surfaces of all nucleated cells in the human body. It’s role is to take fragments of proteins within the cell and present them on the surface of the cell. When a cell is healthy, the protein being displayed will also be healthy and thus will elicit no response from the immune system. If infected cells present a viral protein, it will be recognized as an antigen and will elicit an immune response to kill those cells.
MHC II- is found in a smaller range of white blood cells that include macrophages, dendritic cells and B cells: these cells use machinery to destroy foreign objects in the body, displaying pieces of these foreign particles on MHC 2.
MHC I- presents proteins that were internal to the call
MHCII- presents proteins that were external to the cell

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126
Q

What is bone marrow do?

A

Is soft, spongy tissue that line the inside of bones and give rise to most cells involved in the immune response. Cells originating in the bone marrow begin as multi potential hematopoietic stem cells and can differentiate into lymphoid and myeloid progenitor cells.
Lymphoid progenitor cells- go on to become B, T and natural killer cells
Myeloid progenitor cells - further differentiate into erythrocytes, platelet-producing megakaryocytes, neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, monocytes and mast cells.

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127
Q

What is box and whisker plot do?

A

Is used to visually represent the median and distribution of dare into quartile ranges.
Upper quartile
Median
Lower quartile
Maximum and minimum - are the whiskers
Outliers

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128
Q

How autoimmune disorders occur?

A

Due to the immune system’s failure to identify and destroy immune cells that recognize self antigens. Self reactive B cells and T cells are normally eliminated in the bone marrow and thymus respectively.

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129
Q

What is negative selections?

A

Elimination of T cells that respond too harshly, sometimes against healthy human cells (the self) thus causing an autoimmune disorder. Is the process by which immature T cells and B cells processing receptors that bind to to self antigens are destroyed or inactivated.

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130
Q

What is positive selection?

A

Elimination of T cells that don’t appropriately respond to antigens and thus leave the body vulnerable to infection.

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131
Q

What is somatostatin?

A

Is a hormone that is released by pancreatic delta cells, has a generalized inhibitory effect on functioning of the digestive system. It can also suppress the release of insulin and glucagon from the pancreas.

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132
Q

Release of sweat is partially under control of which hormone?

A

Epinephrine

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133
Q

What are 5 layers of epidermis?

A

Most superficial:
1. stratum corneum - is composed of many layers of keratinocytes that have pushed up from the deeper layers and flattened in the process. These ones create barrier to invasion by external pathogens and help prevent water and salt loss through the skin surface
2. Stratum lucidum (only present in thick skin of palms and foot soles)
3. Stratum granulosum
4. Stratum spinosum
5. Stratum basale - consist of single layer of stem cells that divide continually to give rise to new stem cells

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134
Q

What is function of helper T cell and the cells get assisted by helper T cells?

A
  1. B lymphocyte - promotes its activation and proliferation. Induces differentiation of B lymphocyte in antibody- secreting plasma cells and memory cells.
  2. Cytotoxic T cell- promotes its cell activation and proliferation
  3. Macrophage - enhances activity of macrophage
  4. Other immune system- attracts other immune cells to site of infection
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135
Q

What is keratin?

A

Specialized cells in the skin (keratinocyte) make ketatin, a unique protein. It provides protection against injury to the skin. It also creates waterproofing quality to skin and helps guard against pathogen entry. When same area of skin is subjected to repeated friction, calluses or excessive keratin deposits can from. Nails are consists of hard keratinized cells

136
Q

What is main function of skin layers?

A

Epidermis
Dermis - connective tissue that gives skin its strength and flexibility
Hypodermis -adipose tissue that provides protection and insulation

137
Q

What is sebaceous glands?

A

Secrete sebum; an oil containing substance that helps prevent water loss from skin and hair. Sebum also contains certain substances (eg fatty acid) that inhibit the survival of pathogens, contributing to innate immunity

138
Q

How pre-mRNA changes to mature mRNA?

A

Genes are initially transcribed into pre-mRNA and that are modified to form mature mRNA molecules. Those modifications include:
Splicing - removal of non coding introns
Adding both 3’ poly -A tail, and 5’ GTP cap. They can protect the mRNA from being degraded in the cytoplasm

139
Q

Why mRNA is only small fraction of the total RNA in eukaryotic cell?

A

Majority of Cl cell’s DNA consists of repetitive sequences and some of those sequences are known to give rise to gene products (RNA, proteins) whereas most repetitive sequence correspond to transposable elements

140
Q

What is retrotranposons?

A

Transposable elements are DNA sequences that can move or be coped to different location in the genome. Most eukaryotic transposable elements are retrotransposons which use copy and paste mechanism involving an RNA intermediate to create additional copies of the retrotransposon DNA sequence in the genome. The RNA intermediate is reverse transcribed into DNA and inserted into the genome at the new location

141
Q

How sense and nonsense stand work?

A

In transcription, RNA polymerase reads the non coding DNA (antisense, template, ) strand to produce a complementary mRNA ( uracil replacing thymine). RNA he sequence of the mRNA transcript is identical to the sequence of the coding (sense) DNA.

142
Q

How mature mRNA is producedV

A

Transcription is the process of synthesizing RNA from template DNA begins with RNA polymerase II binding to the gene promoter region. RNA polymerase II reads the DNa strand in 3 to 5 direction to generate 5 to 3 pre mRNA molecule. Then it undergoes 5’ capping, the addition of 3’ poly A tail and excision of noncoding regions (introns) to be converted to mature mRNA

143
Q

Where splicesome removes introns from pre mRNA?

A

By locating specific sequences within introns called 5’ splice donor sites and 3’ acceptor site. Splice donor sites are located at 5’ end of intron next to the exon, and splice acceptor sites are found at the 3’ end of intron adjacent to the exon.

144
Q

Splicing occurs during?

A

Pre mRNA Processing. Transcription is DNA to pre mRNA.

145
Q

How acetylation work in gene expression

A

One of the most common epigenetic modification. It involves adding acetyl group to lysine residues on histones. Enzyme Histone acetyltransferases HATs perform this function. Normal DNA backbone is negatively charged and attracted to lysine residue so this strong electrostatic attraction between those prevents machinery from accessing snd transcribing DNA. Histones are acetylated, gene expression is upregulated. Opposite is deacetylation performed by histone deacetylases.

146
Q

What is methylation do in gene expression!

A

Adds methyl group to cytosine and adenine based. DNA methyltransferases add methyl groups. Methyl groups prevent polymerases from accessing the DNA. Opposite is DNA demethylation,

147
Q

What is enhancers do in gene expression?

A

Gene regulation in eukaryotes is mediated by DNA regulatory sequences called enhancers, located outside the coding sequence. Transcription can be activated or repressed by a transcription factor binding to enhancers which allows for the expression of genes. Enhancers alps modulate transcriptional activity by influencing chromatin organization

148
Q

What are the types of RNA polymerase in eukaryotic cells?

A

RNA polymerase I - Carries out transcription of rRNA
RNA polymerase II- Carries out transcription of mRNA and some miRNAs and snRNAs
RNA polymerase III- carries out transcription of tRNAs as well as some rRNAs, miRNAs, snRNAs.

149
Q

What happens in nucleolus?

A

In eukaryotic cells, the nucleolus is found within the nucleus and is the primary site of ribosomal RNA transcription by RNA polymerase. Ribosomal proteins synthesized in the cytoplasm are transported into the nucleolus where they combine with rRNA to form 40S and 60S ribosomal subunit precursors. These precursors are exported from the nucleus to fully mature in the cytoplasm

150
Q

What is telomeres and centromeres?

A

Centromeres join two sister chromatids and are essential for proper chromosomes division during mitosis. Telomeres are regions at the chromosomes ends that are repeatedly trunicated (shortened) each time cell divides. Both centromeres and telomeres of heterochromatin, a transcriptionally inactive and tightly condensed complex of DNA wrapped around histones

151
Q

What is steps in translation?

A
  1. Initiation - an initiator transfer RNA charged with methionine is recruited to the start codon
  2. Elongation - the ribs one adds amino acids to the polypeptide chain by reading each mRNA codons in 5’ to 3’ direction
  3. Termination - a stop codon is read and release factors induce translation complex dissociation
152
Q

What are ribosome sizes in prokaryotic and eukaryotes?

A

Eukaryotes produce 80S composed of 60S and 40S
Prokaryotes produce 70S composed of 50S and 30S

153
Q

How ribosomes synthesize proteins in different locations of the cell

A

They synthesize proteins in either free state in cytoplasm or the bound state when attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum ER. For the proteins that enter ER, a signal sequence within the target mRNA bound to the the ribosome is translated into a signal peptide that induces transport of ribosome-mRNA complex to rough ER. The complex synthesizes proteins into the lumen of the rough ER, which then assembles and modifies secretory, lysosomal and integral membrane proteins.

154
Q

How cDNA cloning work?

A

Reverse transcriptase generate a single strand of cDNA from a target mRNA sequence. DNA polymerase synthesizes the second complementary DNA stand amplifies the target cDNA sequence. The target cDNA can then be inserted vector via the actions of restriction enzyme (cuts both plasmid and vector) and DNA ligase (joins the cDNA to the vector)

155
Q

What is difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes replication fork?

A

Prokaryotes typically have circular DNA with a single origin of replication in the cytoplasm whereas eukaryotes have linear DNA with multiple origins of replication in the nucleus. An origin of replication expands to from a replication bubble which contains two replication forks that move apart in opposite directions during DNA synthesis

156
Q

How coupling of free nucleotide works during DNA replication?

A

DNA polymerase joins uncoupled deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates to the new DNA strand. As a result, the exergonic release of a pyrophosphate molecule leads to the formation of a covalent phosphodiester bond between the last nucleotide of growing strand and the incoming nucleotide

157
Q

Projection is one of the defense mechanism, what is it?

A

Attributing unacceptable thoughts/behaviors to someone or something else. Eg calling side all stupid after tripping

158
Q

Rationalization is one of the defense mechanism, what is it?

A

Making excuses for unacceptable thoughts/behaviors. Eg justifying cheating because “course is impossible”

159
Q

Regression is one of the defense mechanism, what is it?

A

Behaving as if much younger to avoid unacceptable thoughts/behaviors.
Eg moving back with parents to avoid personal responsibility

160
Q

Repression is one of the defense mechanism, what is it?

A

Blocking unacceptable thoughts/behaviors from consciousness. Eg being unaware of a traumatic past experience

161
Q

Displacement is one of the defense mechanism, what is it?

A

Taking out unacceptable thoughts/behaviors on a safe target. Eg punching a pillow when angry at parents

162
Q

Sublimation is one of the defense mechanism, what is it?

A

Transforming unacceptable thoughts/behaviors into acceptable thoughts/behaviors. Eg taking up boxing as way to channel one’s anger

163
Q

Reaction formation is one of the defense mechanism, what is it?

A

Behaving in a manner opposite unacceptable thoughts/behaviors. Eg expressing love for a person one despises

164
Q

What is token economy and how it is different than secondary reinforcement?

A

In a token economy, certain behaviors (eg completing homework) are positively reinforced though the use of tokens (eg gold stars), which are secondary reinforcers that can be exchanged for a desirable reward (eg 5 gold stars can be exchanged for candy)

165
Q

What is meritocracy?

A

A system in which individual status is based entirely on hard work and ability

166
Q

What is ambient stressor?

A

Include anything in the environment that causes a physiological or psychological negative reaction such as noise, pollution, bad smells; and flashing lights. Ambient stressors can promote chronically elevated cortisol level which have been correlated to poorer health

167
Q

What is role taking?

A

Also known as social perspective taking, occurs when individuals act out or take on roles of others. This practice allows one to understand situations from different perspective and it is important part of social learning and communication

168
Q

What is feature detection?

A

Involves the perceptual discrimination of specific aspects of given stimulus via feature detectors. They are specific neuron that preferentially fire in response to very specific stimuli.

169
Q

What is parallel processing?

A

Describes the brain’s ability to simultaneously process varies components (eg color, motion) of visual stimulus.

170
Q

What is spreading activation?

A

Occurs when a node (ie concept) within an individual’s semantic network (uniquely organized web of information) triggers the activation of other, related nodes, a process known as priming.

171
Q

What is the difference between habituation and desensitization?

A

Habituation - decreased response to a stimulus over time. Eg no longer noticing that sweater feels scratchy after wearing it for few minutes.
Desensitization- decreased response to a previously sensitized stimulus over time. Eg irritation from previously unbearable scratchiness diminishes over time.
Sensitization - increased response to stimulus over time. Eg sweater’s scratchiness becomes more irrational until it is unbearable

172
Q

What is the difference between escape learning and avoidance learning?

A

In operant conditioning, negative reinforcement is the withdrawal of an unpleasant stimulus (eg ongoing electric shock) following a behavior, which increases the likelihood that the behavior will occur again. Negative reinforcement can lead to escape and/ or avoidance learning.
Escape learning occurs when an organism learns how to terminate an ongoing unpleasant stimulus. Escape learning becomes avoidance learning when organism prevents coming into contact with an unpleasant stimulus ( a dog jumps over partition to avoid the electric shock before it occurs)

173
Q

What is intersectionality?

A

Describes the multiple, interconnected social identities (eg gender, age, and race, class) that intersect to impact individuals’ lives, perspective and treatment in societyZ

174
Q

What is structural functionalism?

A

Is a macro level sociological perspective that compares modern society to a biological organism. Varies organ systems cooperate to maintain an organism’s homeostasis, social institutions work together in the interest of societal balance, known as dynamic equilibrium. Social institutions have manifest functions which are expected and latent functions which are unintended. eg the higher education system is meant to teach students skills necessary to become functioning citizens in society (eg manifest function) but many students also end up meeting potential romantic partners in college (latent function).

175
Q

What is social constructionism?

A

Is sociological theory suggesting that reality is created through interactions, resulting in agreed on, shared meanings. Objects (eg money), behaviors (eg hand shaking), and categories (eg gender) have meaning only because individuals in society have agreed on that meaning. Eg money has value in society only because everyone has agreed that it has value,
This makes money a social construct

176
Q

What is personality disorder in cluster A?

A

Odd/eccentric
-paranoid
-schizoid
-schizotypal

177
Q

What is personality disorders in cluster B?

A

Dramatic/ emotional/ erratic
-antisocial
- borderline
- histrionic
- narcissistic

178
Q

What is personally disorders in cluster C?

A

Anxious/ fearful
- avoidant
- dependent
- obsessive -compulsive

179
Q

What is personality disorder?

A

Are characterized by inflexible and enduring patterns of thoughts, feelings, and behaviors that differ markedly from social norms and cause functional impairment. Individuals with personality disorders have pathological personal traits (eg rigidity; greediness) and maladaptive patterns of relating to others (eg hostility, superficiality) that are stable over time and across situations.

180
Q

What is divided attention?

A

Attention, cognitive processes that focus on certain stimuli while filtering out others, can be divided or selective. Divided attention (multitasking) describes attending to more than one stimulus/task at a time, while selective attention describes focusing on one stimulus and ignoring others. Multitasking is impacted by task similarity, difficulty and practices it is easier to perform two dissimilar tasks than two similar tasks

181
Q

What is motion parallax?

A

Or relative motion, is a monocular cue whereby objects in the foreground are perceived as moving faster than objects in the background. Motion parallax is a perceptual process that wouldn’t require 3D depth but would still allow subjects to perceive both depth and motion.

182
Q

What is phi phenomenon?

A

Also known as motion picture effect is an optical illusion in which a series of still photographs presented in rapid succession appear to be moving.

183
Q

What is biological perspective would suggest behavior results from?

A

Explains behavior in terms of the development, structure and function of the brain and central nervous system. The prefrontal cortex which controls executive functions (eg working memory, reasoning; impulse inhibition, attention), doesn’t reach full maturity until the mid-twenties

184
Q

What is working memory consists of?

A

Central executive (attention, task switching) and three lower subsystems:
1. Visuospatial sketchpad- visual/spatial information. Eg reading map.
2. Phonological loop (linguistic information) manipulating spoken and written information eg reading a book
3. Episodic buffer - (timeline, long-term memory integration) eg remembering how to multiply when figuring out a tip at a restaurant).
The central executive controls the lower subsystems

185
Q

What is ADHD?

A

Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder is characterized by inattention (distractibility, difficulty focusing) and impulsivity (acting without thinking about consequences)

186
Q

What are the defining features of bureaucracies?

A

A modern form of organization adopted by complex societies, is designed to be rational and maximize efficiency.
Features;
1. Division of labor
2. Hierarchical organization
3. Standardization
4. Impersonal

187
Q

What is class consciousness and false consciousness?

A

Class consciousness involves the recognition of class structure and an identification with one’s own social class such that individuals understand the people from other classes have needs and interests different from their own.
False consciousness refers to individuals from lower classes adopting misleading messages from the upper class.

188
Q

What is power and authority in sociology!

A

Power refers to the ability to influence and control others. Authority refers to whether others perceive that power is legitimate.

189
Q

What is difference between religiosity and religious affiliation?

A

Religiosity refers to the extent to which a religious doctrine is internalized and incorporated into individual’s life (eg behaviors and beliefs).
Religious affiliation describes the specific religious groups to which an individual identifies which is not synonymous with living one’s life according to the principles, behaviors, or customs of that religion. Eg one may consider oneself to be catholic but not attend church.

190
Q

What are the three major types of social change can effect a society’s emphasis on religion?

A
  1. Modernization - reduced importance of religion as society industrializes.
  2. Secularization - reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines
  3. Fundamentalism- renewed commitment to traditional religion as a reaction to secularization.
191
Q

What is racialization?

A

Is the process by which one group designates another group with a racial identity, often based on shared group qualities, such as physical attributes (eg skin pigmentation), or behaviors (eg religious practices). The designating group has more power (dominant group) and exerts social control over the designated group, which has less social power (subordinate group).

192
Q

What is group identification?

A

Refers to the extent to which an individual perceives himself or herself as a member of a larger collective. For example, identifying as a premed student associates an individual with a larger group of people who are studying who are studying for MCAT and applying to medical school.

193
Q

What is the difference between personal identity and social identity?

A

Social identity describes how one’s self concept (ideas and belief about the self) is shaped by group membership. The major social identities are sex/gender, sexuality, race/ethnicity, socioeconomic status, age, family status (eg married, parent) and occupation. Social identities define individuals in relation to others and allow for social groupings.
Personal identity describes how one’s self concept is shaped by more private or individual characteristics. For example ‘bookworm’, ‘cubs fan’.

194
Q

What is sexual orientation?

A

Describes people’s sexual identity in relation to their own sex category and the sex category to which they are attracted. Sexual orientation exits along a continuum (eg Kinsey Scale), even though it tends to be perceived as dichotomous (homosexual or heterosexual)

195
Q

How does neuroimaging method EEG work?

A

Electroencephalogram- electrodes placed on scalp and connected to an amplifier. It measures voltage fluctuations in the brain over time.

196
Q

How does neuroimaging method CT work?

A

Computerized tomography- computer combines multiple X-rays taken at different angles. It measures detailed structures of internal organs and tissues at the single point in time/

197
Q

How does neuroimaging method fMRA work?

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging- scanner detects the differential properties of oxyhemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin. Measures changes in blood oxygenation in the brain over time.

198
Q

How does neuroimaging method PEt work?

A

Positron emission tomography- scanner detects radioactive tracer attached to a glucose analog. Measure changes in glucose metabolism in the brain over time

199
Q

When dream can happen?

A

Dreaming can occur during both REM and NREM sleep, but it is more common, vivid, and easily recalled when it occurs during REM sleep. The duration of REM sleep is shortest earlier in the night and longest during the last sleep cycle, which occurs in the early morning hours.

200
Q

What happens during REM sleep to your body?

A

During NREM sleep, cardiopulmonary activity becomes regular and decreases, along with body temperature. During REM, cardiopulmonary activity becomes irregular and increases while body temperature drops to its lowest point. REM sleep is also characterized by rapid closed eye movement, muscle paralysis and brain activity resembling a waking state.

201
Q

What is confidence interval represent?

A

Represent a measure of uncertainty in a reported value by indicating how far the value reported might be from the true value (eg true median). Theoretically, a 95% CI indicates that if the same population were sampled countless times and CI were calculated each time; the resulting intervals would contain the true population value in approximately 95% of the cases.

202
Q

The relationship between internal and external validity in research?

A

In general, as a study more tightly controlled and confounding variables are limited, internal validity tends to increase but external validity tends to decrease.

203
Q

What is obedience?

A

Is a type of conformity in which an individual carries out orders given by an authority figure. Research on obedience suggests that people tend to obey even when doing so results in immoral or unethical behavior.
Factors correlated with increased obedience:
A.Personal factor - lower status, less power
B.Situational factors - proximity (authority is closer, victim is farther away.
Legitimacy - authority figure seems more legitimate, prestigious
Consensus- everyone else is obeying
C. Cultural factors- collectivism

204
Q

What is institutional discrimination?

A

Occurs when members of a certain group are negatively impacted because of systematic differential treatment. It can be intentional or unintentional. It can happens at the organizational or system level

205
Q

Who role of cognition plays role in prejudice?

A

The role of cognition in prejudice results from the quick, unconscious categorization of people using schemas based on age, race/ethnicity and gender. The implicit association test IAT is a psychometric technique designed to measure unconscious attitudes, including prejudice (negative feelings and beliefs)

206
Q

What is difference between dominant culture, subculture and counter culture?

A

The dominant culture establishes the norms, values, and rituals of a society. A subculture is distinct from the dominant culture in some way but still aligned with the norms and values of dominant culture. A counter culture opposes the norms and values of the dominant culture.

207
Q

What is difference between stereotypes, prejudice and discrimination?

A

Stereotypes- generalized beliefs (good or bad) about social groups. It is based on cognition. Eg Asians good at math, women are bad at math.
Prejudice- negative belief and feeling about someone based on membership in a social group. It is based on emotion.
Eg dislike of working with women based on the belief that they are bad at math.
Discrimination- negative treatment of someone based on membership in a social group. It is based on action.

208
Q

What is anomie?

A

Is a state of normlessness that occurs when a society fails to provide individuals with norms and values to guide behavior. In an anomic society, individuals lack guidance and purpose and feel aimless or alienated from society.

209
Q

What is relative deprivation?

A

Describes feeling of discontent experienced by those who are being deprived of something to which they feel entitled. Eg women were not allowed to vote in the US before 1920 and as result many felt deprived of this right of citizenship

210
Q

What is deindividualtion?

A

Describes process by which someone loses self awareness in a group and behaves in away that is out of character. Eg a person who is not normally violent may engage in looting when part of an emotionally charged, riotous crowd

211
Q

What are the different degrees of deviance?

A

Deviance is any behavior that violates culturally established norms.
Folkways - least deviant eg wearing clothes backward.
Mores- more deviant eg wearing no chooses in public
Taboos- most deviant- eg incest, suicide

212
Q

What is malthusian theory of population growth?

A

Asserts that when the population grows faster than the resources necessary to sustain that population, preventative checks (reducing the birth rate) or positive checks (increasing the death rate) can slow down growth. Malthusian catastrophe is a large scale positive check that slows or stops population growth

213
Q

What is the mere exposure effectV

A

Or familiarity effect; argues that just act of being exposed to something increases an individual’s affinity for it. Eg the more someone hears a song, the more they will like the song

214
Q

What are the two pathways for visual parallel processing?

A

Parallel processing is the brain’s ability to process different components of stimulus simultaneously.
Two separate pathways are:
Parvo pathways - processes color and form
Magno pathway- processes motion and depth

215
Q

What are the different sensory receptors in human?

A

Mechanoreceptors - are sensitive to mechanical stimulation caused by pressure, vibrations or movement. Stimuli: sound waves, touch. Eg hair cells.
Chemoreceptor- are sensitive to chemicals and play a key role in taste and smell.
Stimuli: molecules and solutes eg taste bud
Thermoreceptor
Photoreceptor - sensitive to light. Stimuli: visible light. Eg rods and cones

216
Q

What is place theory!

A

Explains the perception of sound pitch (how high or low a tone is). Inside of the cochlea, specific sound wavelengths generate basilar membrane vibrations at specific loci. Each locus (place) corresponds to a slightly different frequency. Hair cells located at the base of the basilar membrane are activated by high frequency sounds, and hair cells located at the apex of basilar membrane are activated by low frequency sounds

217
Q

What is social stratification?

A

Is the hierarchical organization of individuals in society based on social class, social status and power.
Social class- largely determined by economic resources (eg income, property).
Social status- one’s prestige (reputation).
Certain career, personal characteristics and achievements confer status that is not necessarily tied to wealth

218
Q

What is an attribution theory on behavior?

A

Behavior caused by internal factors- dispositional attribution
Eg based on internal characteristics such as motivation
Behavior caused by external factors - situational attribution
Eg based on external factors such as the neighborhood which one grew up

219
Q

What is hemispheric lateralization

A

Brain is divided into right and left hemisphere, each of which is specialized for certain processes. This specialization is known as hemispheric laterization. The corpus callosum permits the exchange of information between the two hemispheres.

220
Q

What is right hemisphere specialize in?

A

Spatial processing
Emotion
Art
Music
Visualization
Controls touch and movement on left side

221
Q

What is left hemisphere specializes in?

A

Analytical thoughts
Language
Reasoning
Math
Science
Controls touch and movement on right side

222
Q

What is the difference between retroactive and proactive interference?

A

Proactive interference occurs when older information interferes with the recall of newer information
Retroactive interference occurs when recently (new) learned information interferes with the learning of older information

223
Q

What is taste aversion

A

Is a specific and powerful type of classical conditioning that occurs after just one instance of becoming ill following food/beverage consumption. Taste aversions are long lasting and can develop despite many hours passing between consumption and illness

224
Q

When extinction happens in classical conditioning?

A

Occurs when a conditioned response gradually stops occurring in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. Eg a dog that has been conditioned to salivate (conditioned response) in response to the sound of a bell (conditioned stimulus) will gradually stop salivating to the sound of the bell if that sound is repeatedly presented without food.

225
Q

What is ego defense mechanism?

A

Are an unconscious way to deal with the anxiety caused by unacceptable urges and thoughts. Ego defense mechanisms were first proposed by sigmund Freud and later expanded by other psychoanalytic theorists. There are many defense mechanisms: denial, repression, rationalization, projection and sublimation.

226
Q

What is the difference between biopsychsocial model of mental illness assert and biomedical approach?

A

Biopsychsocial model of mental illness results from the interaction between biological factors, psychological factors and social factors.
Biomedical approach conceptualizes mental illness as directly resulting from chemical imbalances in the brain. This one emphasizes the use of pharmaceutical therapy to correct these imbalances

227
Q

What is ocd and related disorders?

A

Are characterized by obsessions (recurrent, persistent, unwelcome, intrusive, distressing thoughts and urges) and or compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts meant to neutralize obsessions)

228
Q

What is behaviorist theory do?

A

Behaviorism focus’s on how an individual’s behavior is shaped by the environment, particularly through reinforcement and punishment. Reinforcement tends to increase the likelihood of the behavior happening again whereas punishment decreases the likelihood of the behavior happening again

229
Q

What is popular culture?

A

Is defined as the ideas, attitudes and perspectives that are mainstream (eg relevant to most people in society). Popular culture includes anything the majority of individuals in society believe in, do, wear or buy/consume.

230
Q

What are fads?

A

Are trends or craze occurring over short period within a segment of the populations. Eg wearing bell bottom pants was fad for hippies in the 1960s

231
Q

How brain processes color and motion?

A

Color and motion are processed simultaneously but they are processed in different pathways in the brain.
Parvo pathway- known as what pathway, responsible for finer details such as form and color
Magno pathways- known as where pathway, responsible for perception of coarser detail such as depth and motion

232
Q

What does rods and cones do?

A

The retina contains two types of photoreceptors cones and rods.
Cones- sensitive to colors and high intensity lights . It responds to certain wavelengths of light, typically short (blue), medium (green), long (red). They are densely packed in the fovea.
Rods are sensitive to low level of light and responsible for night vision but not for color vision. More numerous than cones and they are primarily in the peripheral of the retina.

233
Q

What is Sapir Whorf hypothesis states about language and color?

A

Also known as linguistic relativity posits that language influences our perception and cognitive. For example if a person’s native language doesn’t have separate names for the colors blue and indigo that person may have difficulty discriminating blue from indigo in isolation but could learn to differentiate them with practice.
Linguistic determinism is stronger version of this hypothesis.

234
Q

What is linguistic determinism?

A

States that language controls perceptions and cognition. For example, if a person’s native language doesn’t have separate names for blue and indigo, this person wouldn’t able to perceive those two colors as distinct

235
Q

What is nativist hypotheses?

A

States that language is not learned the way other skills/behaviors are learned but is rather an innate process hardwired in the brain. As long as humans are exposed to language during critical (time sensitive) period early life, language development is biologically predetermined

236
Q

What is young helmholrz theory?

A

Also known as the trichromatic theory, states that all the colors we see are result of the combined activity of three types of photoreceptors. Those that respond to short medium and long wavelengths of light. Blue, green and red

237
Q

What is general circulation of blood in the heart?

A

Deoxygenated blood returning to the heart enter the right atrium, is transferred to the right ventricle, and is pumped to the lungs vie the pulmonary circuit. The left atrium receives oxygen anted blood and transfers this blood to the left ventricle which pumps oxygenated blood throughout the body.

238
Q

What are the phases of cell cycle

A

G1- cell growth and duplication of organelles
S- duplication of DNA (chromosome)
G2- cell growth and correction of replication errors
Mitosis - chromosomes segregation and nuclear division.
Cytokinesis - cytoplasmic division

239
Q

Where does Krebs cycle happens in prokaryotic cells?

A

Both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells carry out glycolysis in the cytoplasm. In eukaryotes, pyruvate molecules resulting from glycolysis are transported into the mitochondria, membrane bound organelle where reactions resulting from glycolysis are transported into the mitochondria, membrane bound organelles where reactions of the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain occur. In prokaryotic cells carry out the Krebs cycle in their cytoplasm and have ETC proteins embedded in the outer plasma membrane

240
Q

What is the size difference between virus, prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells!

A

Eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are surrounded by out plasma membranes. In contrast, the virus maybe surrounded only by a protein capsid (naked viruses) or have an outer phospholipid bilayer surrounding this protein coat (enveloped viruses). Eukaryotes are larger than prokaryotes and viruses are generally smaller than both type of cells

241
Q

What is the ideal sarcomeres resting length that provides greatest contractile force?

A

At the ideal sarcomere resting length, actin filaments must overlap with myosin filaments to allow maximum binding of myosin heads to actin on contraction. In addition, the distance between ends of the actin filaments and the M line should be maximized to provide the greatest distance for actin filaments to slide during contraction. Sacromeres exihibiting those characteristic generate the greatest amount of contractile force

242
Q

What are the enzymes.

A

Are biological catalysts that speed up biochemical reactions by lowering the free energy of the transition state, thus lowering the energy of activation. Enzymes don’t alter energy the free energy of either free product or reactant

243
Q

What does catalytic efficiency measure?

A

It is measures how quickly an enzyme catalyzes a reaction at low substrate concentrations. It is the ratio between kcat to km. More efficient enzymes have high kcat and low km values and require only a small amount of substrate to achieve a significant reaction rate.

244
Q

What does turnover number measure?

A

Kcat=Vmax/[ET]

245
Q

What is Penrose phosphate pathway doB

A

Is required for nucleotide and NADPH synthesis. It has oxidative (irreversible) and nonoxidative (reversible) parts. NADPH is used for cholesterol and fatty acid synthesis and glutathione antioxidant mechanism. Ribose 5 phosphate used for nucleotide synthesis

246
Q

Why glucose 6phosphatase is important for glucose level?

A

Several biological processes, including gluconeogenesis, glycogenplysis and
Cori cycle, help buffer blood glucose level. All these processes require G6Pase to catalyze the final step to release free glucose

247
Q

How blood glucose levels can be buffered by amino acids!

A

Most amino acids are glucogenic, with exception of leucine and lysine.

248
Q

What is the structure of ribose?

A

Pentofuranose. Nucleotide triphosphates consists of nitrogenous base, sugar and triphosphate. ribose it pentose that links to the nitrogenous base through glycosidic bond. Phosphoester bond links the 5’ carbon of ribose to the triphosphpte group

249
Q

What is the difference between pH and pKA?

A

The pKa of a chemical group is the pH at which the ratio of protonated to deprotonated species is 1:1.
Decreasing the pH below the pKa yields a higher proportion of protonated species and increasing the pH yields a lower proportion. Each pH unit above or below the pKa alters the ratio of protonated to deprotonated species by factor of 10.

250
Q

Where are the different metabolic processes occur?

A

Glycolysis and pentose phosphate pathway occur in cytosol.
CAC and fatty acid oxidation occur in mitochondria. The pyruvate dehydrogenase complex catalyzes the decarboxylation of pyruvate to form acetyl CoA which then enters the citric acid cycles. This process also happen in mitochondrial matrix

251
Q

What is transamination?

A

Amino acids are converted into alpha keto acids by transamination. During which amino group is transferred to alpha ketogluterate, forming glutamate and the alpha keto acid. Alpha keto acid can then proceed through oxidative pathway, eventually producing acetyl CoA or citric acid intermediates

252
Q

What is linear functions stands for

A

Y=mx+b
M- slope=delta y/delta x
B- y intercept (the point at which the line crosses the y-axis when x=0)
S

253
Q

What is state function?

A

Properties of a system that only depend on their current state (or value) and not the path taken to reach the current state. Eg coffee will lose heat weather it is left out to cool or whether ice is added.
Enthalpy, Gibbs free energy, entropy are state functions

254
Q

What is Gibbs free energy!

A

Is state function that describes the spontaneity (its likelihood to occur without additional intervention) of a reaction. It is related to the temperature, enthalpy, and entropy of the reaction via the equation:
Delta G(standard) =delta H - Tdelta S
T is given in K

255
Q

What are the effects of temperature on Gibbs free energy?

A

Delta H, delta S
-,+ always spontaneous with rising T
+,- always nonspontaneous with raising T
-,- spontaneous at low T, nonspon at highT
+,+ spontaneous at high T, nonspn at lowT

256
Q

How delta G is related to equilibrium constant?

A

Delta G=-RTlnKeq

257
Q

What is the characteristics of an ideal gas!

A
  1. No attractive or repulsive interactions
  2. Relatively negligible molecular volume
  3. Pressure produced by combined force of collisions
  4. KE increases with higher temperature
  5. Elastic collisions
258
Q

What lead to deviations from ideal gas behavior

A

Gas molecules with non negligible volume, significant intermolecular interactions occupy a gas system at high pressure and low temperature

259
Q

How electrons are transferred in electrochemical cell?

A

Electrons are always transferred from anode (where oxidation occur) to the cathode (where reduction occur). In galvanic cell, the overall cell potential must be positive and the electrode with the created standard reduction potential has greater tendency to be reduced and function as the cathode.
E=Ecat- Ean

260
Q

What are the situations that can cause vasoconstriction

A
  1. Loss of blood
  2. Exposure to cold temperatures
  3. Secretion of renin - secreted by kidney to promote renin angiotensin system to increase blood pressure and volume
261
Q

What hormones anterior pituitary gland secretes?

A

TSH, LH, FSH, ACTH, growth hormone.

262
Q

How does LH and FSH regulates reproductive function in males and females?

A

In females, FSH and LH stimulate follicle maturation, ovulation, and estrogen production. In males; spermatogenesis and testosterone are regulated by FSH and LH respectively

263
Q

What is structure of long bones

A

Epiphyses - are rounded ends that have joint surfaces covered by articular cartilage
Diaphysis - is the hollow shaft filler with bone marrow (primarily of the yellow type in adulthood)
Metaphyses - are the regions where the diaphysis and epiphyses meet.

264
Q

What is osteoarthritis and osteoporosis!

A

Osteoarthritis - is a disorder marked by the deterioration of articular (hyaline) cartilage, the connective tissue lining the ends of bones at most movable joints.
Osteoporosis - a disease marked by decreased bone density and mass.

265
Q

What is the structure of compact bone is like?

A

Compact bone is organized into structural units called osteons or haversian systems, which made up of lamellae (concentric rings of bone matrix) that surround a central haversion canal, a cylindrical channel that runs parallel to the long axis of bone and through which blood vessels and nerves traverse. Volkann canals which run perpendicular to the long axis of bone, allow passage of blood vessels and nerves between different havarsian canals.

266
Q

What is cartilage

A

Is a firm but flexible connective tissue that lacks blood vessels and nerves. Chondrocytes (cartilage cells) secrete chondrin which is specificalized extra cellular matrix that makes up cartilage. Hyaline cartilage is most common type which lines the ends of articulating bones and plays role in bone development

267
Q

What is incomplete dominance do?

A

Results in the expression of phenotypes in heterozygous offspring that are intermediate to the phenotypes of homozygous parents. For example cross between homozygous red flowers RR and homozygous white flowers WW producing heterozygous offspring RW that are pink.
If offsprings show different in variability, it indicates the variable expressivity (not incomplete dominance) of the phenotype

268
Q

What is blood made out of!

A
  1. Plasma -90% water and 10% of other substances like electrolytes, respiratory gases, hormones, nutrients, metabolic waste, and blood proteins (transferrin, albumin, antibodies, and fibrinogen)
  2. White blood cells and platelets
  3. Red blood cells
269
Q

What is signal sequence?

A

Short amino acid sequence present at the N terminus of immature proteins. They direct proteins to the rough endoplasmic reticulum for entry into the secretory pathways before being cleaved from the polypeptide

270
Q

What is lymph?

A

Hydrostatic pressure forces some liquid and smaller molecules to leak out of capillaries. At this point, the liquid is referred as interstitial fluid and it is present in the space between the blood vessels and surrounding cells. The interstitial fluid is then collected by the lymphatic vessels. The fluid is now called lymph, is filtered thought lymph nodes and returned to the circulatory system

271
Q

What is endocytosis

A

Is a type of transport in which molecules that are otherwise unable to cross the plasma membrane enter cell through vesicles (endosome) formed by the plasma membranes. It can take place in one of three ways: pinocytosis, phagocytosis, or receptor medicated endocytosis.

272
Q

What are the two circuit of circulatory system?

A

Blood vessels of circulatory system are divided into two circuits:
1. Systemic circuit - distributes nutrient rich blood that high in O2 and low in CO2 to all body tissue
2. Pulmonary circuit - move’s deoxygenated blood (drained from the systemic circulation) to the lungs to become oxygenated.
Deoxygenated blood travels as follow:
Arteries -> arterioles-> capillaries->venules-> veins (delivers blood to the left atrium of the heart. From the left atrium, blood will enter the systemic circuit and carry the oxygenated blood to systemic tissues for systemic gas exchange

273
Q

What is systemic gas exchange and pulmonary gas exchange do?

A
  1. Arterioles delivers oxygenated blood to body tissues.
    Venule - delivers deoxygenated blood to the heart
  2. Pulmonary artery delivers deoxygenated blood to the lungs
    Pulmonary vein delivers oxygenated blood to the heart.
274
Q

What is endothelial cells?

A

They make up the endothelium or the interior lining of the heart and blood vessels which are the components of the cardiovascular system.

275
Q

Difference between peptide hormones and steroid hormones?

A

Peptide hormones typically are hydrophilic , and circulate largely in the free form whereas steroid hormones are lipophilic and are predominantly bound to proteins in the circulation.

276
Q

What is parathyroid gland do?

A

It play role in the maintenance of normal blood calcium concentrations through release of parathyroid hormone. It does by;
1. Intestinal absorption of calcium from the diet
2. Reabsorption of calcium filtered by the kidney
3. Promoting release of bone calcium into the blood.

277
Q

What is calcitonin

A

When serum calcium is high, thyroid gland release calcitonin which leads to decrease in calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, decrease osteoclast activity.

278
Q

What is Hess’s law?

A

Delta H=sum of delta H (bonds broken) +sum of delta H(bonds formed)
Bond formation is exothermic process -
Bond breaking is endothermic process +

279
Q

What is the formula for delta H

A

Delta H=H product -H reactants
Exothermic reaction: Hproduct <Hreactant
Endothermic reaction: Hproduct>Hreact
On the enthalpy diagram enthalpy H is on y axis. Starts with reactant and end with product

280
Q

What are the different phase changes and it’s reversed change?

A
  1. Condensation (gas to liquid) vs vaporization (liquid to gas)
  2. Solidification (liquid to solid) vs melting (solid to liquid)
  3. Sublimation (Solid to gas) vs deposition (gas to solid)
281
Q

What is effect of temperature on the equilibrium constant?

A

Equilibrium constant Keq measure relationship between products and reactants at equilibrium.
Keq=[product]coeff/[reactant]coeff
Temperature dependence of Keq depends on whether the reaction is exothermic or endothermic.
Exothermic heat is released so it is on product side so it causes reaction to shift toward reactants so as temperature increases Keq decreases
Endothermic reactions heat is added to the reactants so as temperature in increases, Keq increases. Reaction shift to the product

282
Q

What is difference between galvanic cell and electrolytic cell?

A

Galvanic cell is thermodynamically favorable chemical reaction. Delta G<0 produces electric current. As a galvanic cell operates, the salt bridge (comprised of a conductive electrolytic solution) maintains a charge balance between the oxidation and reduction. Anions migrate toward the anode, where oxidation occurs. Cations migrate toward the cathode where reduction occurs.
Electrolytic cell is thermodynamically unfavorable chemical ration delta G>0 driven by current supposed from battery

283
Q

What is the equation for cell potential and delta G

A

Delta G=-nFE•
n - number of electron transferred
F- faraday constant 96000C/mole e

284
Q

What is electrolytic solution do in electrophoresis

A

During gel electrophoresis, a conductive electrolytic solution maintains a charge balance at the anode and cathode and assists the passage of electrons through the gel and solution. Without electrolytes, current can’t flow and the DNA will not migrate through the gel.

285
Q

What are isotopes?

A

Atoms of same element that have different number of neutrons in the nucleus and they can be identified by their mass number (sum of protons and neutrons)

286
Q

What is London dispersion forces and how it effects the boiling point!

A

Are intermolecular attractions between instantaneous dipoles induced by momentary distortions in the distribution of the electron cloud around atoms. As such, London dispersion forces are greater in larger molecules which have a larger electron clouds and thus more polarization and has higher boiling point

287
Q

What is catalyst do and don’t do when it is added to a reaction?

A

It increase rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy needed for the reaction to occur. It doesn’t change the amount of the products produced or the enthalpy (heat) of reaction

288
Q

What is homogeneous or heterogeneous catalyst?

A

A heterogeneous catalyst is in different phase than the reactants (eg solids interacting with reactants that are either liquids or gases) whereas a homogeneous catalyst is in the same phase as the reactants. Heterogeneous catalysts involve the adsorption of reactants into the surface of the catalyst and provide higher reaction rate with increased surface area. Eg more catalyst particles =increased surface area. (Fine powder)

289
Q

Which axis independent and dependent variable positioned on graphs that shows linear functions?

A

Y is dependent variables
X - independent values
Y=mx +b
b- y intercept
m- slope of the line

290
Q

What is buffer system?

A

Buffers are solutions that resist changes in pH when small amounts of acid and base are added. Buffers consist of mixture of either a weak acid and salt of its conjugate base or weak base and salt of its conjugate acid

291
Q

What is equivalence point and half equivalence point on titration curve (weak acid with strong base)?

A

1/2 equivalence point is in the middle of buffer region. Acid is half protonated.
pH=pKa
At equivalence point acid fully deprotonated.

292
Q

Formula for pKa?

A

pKa=-log[ka]
Ka- acid dissociation constant
Buffering range lies within one pH unit of pKa (pH range = pKa +-1 )

293
Q

What is ionization energy and its trend on periodic table!

A

The first ionization energy is the energy required to remove the first, most loosely bound valence electron from a neutral atom. It tends to increase scores the period(row) left to right and increases moving up the group (column)

294
Q

What is electron affinity and its trend on periodic table?

A

Is defined as the change in energy resulting from adding an electron to an neutral atom of an element in the gas state to form an anion with -1 charge. The magnitude increases (more negative) left to right and bottom to top. F is the highest

295
Q

What is bond enthalpy!

A

Is the energy needed to homolytically break 1 mole of a given type of bond between two atoms in the gas phase at 298K. According to Hess’s law, reaction can be assessed as a series of endothermic bond breaking and exothermic bond forming steps and the heat of reaction is equal to the sum of enthalpy changes for each step.
Delta H=energy in (consumed) -energy out(released)

296
Q

What is coordination number

A

Coordinate covalent bonds are formed between two atoms when one atom donates both shared electrons. Such bonds are often formed between electron poor metal ions and electron rich atoms in ligands in a complex and the coordination number of the complex refers to the number of coordinate bonds formed with the metal ion

297
Q

What is the formula for standard cell potential?

A

Ecell=Ered + E ox (here oxidation will have the sign reversed from reduction potential table)

298
Q

What is faraday?

A

The electric charge generate in a galvanic cell can be measured in a unit called the faraday; where 1 faraday equals the electric charge present in 1mole of electrons.

299
Q

What is equilibrium in terms of reaction rate?

A

Equilibrium is achieved when two opposing chemical reactions occur simultaneously at the same time. (Rate of forward and reverse reaction). Concentrations of product and reactants are constant at equilibrium

300
Q

What is solubility constant ksp?

A

Is the equilibrium constant for the dissolution of a compound in a saturated solution at a given temperatures. Ksp is calculated as the product of the molar concentrations of the dissociated ion species raised to the power of their respective coefficients from the balanced dissolution reaction

301
Q

How number can change to ppm? Parts per million

A

Solubility measurements are usually reported as a mass ratio of the grams of solute that will dissolve per 100 g of solvent. However, for very dilute solutions, the ratio of the solute mass to the solution mass is sometimes expressed as part per million. Which is:
Mass of solute/ mass of solution x 10^6

302
Q

How oxidation states of molecules with can be determined by hydrogen and oxygen bonds?

A

For organic molecules, oxidation involves loss of electrons by forming bonds with oxygen or losing hydrogen.
When hydrogen forms a bond with carbon, the more EN carbon atom takes the electron from hydrogen and is reduced.
The loss of a bonds to hydrogen or formation of a bond to EN oxygen results in carbon losing electrons which is oxidation. Simple way to determine the oxidation state of an organic molecule is to count the number of CH CO bonds. Eg aldehyde is higher in oxidation state than an alcohol because it has 2 CO bonds and alcohol has single CO bond. Alkane are more reduced than alkenes.
Reduction often involves with formation of bonds to H
Oxidation often involves with formation of bonds to O

303
Q

What is catabolism?

A

It breaks down biological fuel molecules and it is oxidative process that releases energy. During catabolic of fuel of molecules, oxidizing agents such as NAD+ are reduced. Electron transduction from these reduced cofactors provides the energy for ATP synthesis.

304
Q

Relationship between ATP production and delta G?

A

ATP production requires energy input, which is measured by delta G. The number of ATP molecules that can be produced depends on the energy available

305
Q

What are the different pressure units?

A

P=F/A
Standard unit of pressure in SI unit is pascal Pa
1Pa=1N/m2
1atm=760mmHg=760torr=101,325Pa=101.325kPa

306
Q

What is disproportionation reaction?

A

Is a special case or an oxidation reduction reaction in which both the oxidation and the reduction occur to atoms of the same element. It can be identified by comparing the oxidation number of the same element in the products

307
Q

What is the difference between irreversible and reversible inhibitors when it comes to pre incubation time!

A

Irreversible inhibitors form covalent bonds with enzyme and become more potent given sufficient time to react (like preincubation). Reversible inhibitors quickly form noncovalent bonds with target enzymes and don’t require much time to achieve their full effect

308
Q

Important facts about fatty acid synthesis

A

Carboxylic acid +chain of hydrocarbons
Amphilphilic
Synthesis requires: acetyl CoA, NADPH (pentose phosphate pathway)
Occurs in cytosol
Stored in liver and adipose tissue.
Acetyl CoA carboxylase ACC is committed step(makes Malonyl CoA) it can be inhibited by glucagon, epinephrine, palmitoyl CoA and AMPK.
Increased by insulin and citrate, chREBP
Malonyl CoA decarboxlays so acetyl and Co2

309
Q

How many ATP and NADPH needed for fatty acid synthesis of 16 carbon FA?

A

Fatty acid synthesis is the process of linking acetyl CoA units together and reducing carbonyls to the alkyl form. To synthesize a fatty acid containing 2n+2 carbons, n ATP and 2n NADPH molecules must be consumed.
For 16 FA, 2n=14 n=7, need 7ATP and 14NADPH

310
Q

What is the difference between 1-4 and 1-6 linkages in glycogen?

A

1-4 - linkages occur in linear segments
1-6- linkages occur at branch points

311
Q

What enzymes are used when liver glycogenolysis produces glucose for transport to other tissues?

A
  1. Phosphorylase - releases residues from linear regions as glucose 1 phosphate
  2. Debranching enzyme - transfers/removes 4 branch residue le
  3. Phosphorylase - release remaining linear residues
  4. Phosphoglucomutase - converts glucose 1phosphate to glucose 6phosphate
  5. Glucose 6 phosphatase -dephosphorlyates glucose 6 phosphate
312
Q

What is the surface area to volume effects the average rate to glycogen breakdown?

A

During glycogenolysis, the glucose residues in glycogen particles are released via the action of glycogenolytic enzymes. The active sites of these enzymes must physically interact with the glucose residues. As result, fraction of stored glucose molecules accessible by glycogenolysis is related to the surface area to volume ratio of the glycogen particle. Bigger one better

313
Q

What are the common noncovalent interactions in protein

A

Hydrogen bond in secondary structure of protein
Salt bridge
Hydrophobic interactions

314
Q

What is difference between allosteric and non allosteric modulators?

A

Allosteric - reversible, noncovalent interactions at sites outside the active site, thereby initiating a change in the structure and function of the target protein.
Non allosteric - reversible, covalent

315
Q

What is isoelectric point

A

The charge of a protein depends on the pH at which the protein has a net charge of zero which is known as the isoelectric point pI.
pH<pI>pI net charge is negative
DeProtonation occurs as pH increases
Protonation occurs as pH decreases</pI>

316
Q

How different kinds of chromatography columns work

A

Ion exchange columns separate molecules by charge (cation exchange columns bind cations, anion exchange columns bind anions), size exclusion columns separate molecules by size and affinity columns isolate molecules that bind a particular ligand.

317
Q

General structure of nucleotide and how it adds new nucleotide

A

It has pentose sugar’s C1 is connected to nitrogenous base by glycosidic bond (N-C). The carbon 5 of this sugar is connected to phosphate groups via phosphoester bond. Nucleic acid grow when the 3’ hydroxyl group of a chain acts as a nucleophile to attack the 5’ alpha phosphate of an incoming nucleotide as catalyzed by RNA polymerase or DNA polymerase.

318
Q

How proteases break a bond?

A

It is type of hydrolase that break peptide bonds by hydrolysis.

319
Q

How insulin could decrease hyper tension?

A

High blood glucose levels contribute to rising blood pressure in capillaries. Insulin administration reduces the concentration of glucose in the blood by increasing glucose uptake and consumption. GLUT 4 is an inducible transporter that responds to the presence of insulin by increasing its uptake of glucose. Lowering blood glucose leads to decrease in hypertension

320
Q

What is right shift of -1/km is on lineweaver-burk plot means?

A

The binding affinity of a protein for its substrate is exhibited by the km for which lower value indicate higher binding affinities. A right shift show me km values has increased which suggest lower binding affinity for the substrate

321
Q

What is difference between zero order reactions and first order processes?

A

Enzymatic reactions typically behave as zero order or first order reactions. In zero order reactions, the rate is only dependent on the rate constant kcat because substrate concentrations exceed the Km value. First order reactions depend on substrate concentration and occur when km is greater than the substrate concentration.
Beginning of michel menton graph it is first order. Close to vmax is zero order kinetics

322
Q

General structure of pentose phosphate pathway?

A

It has oxidative (irreversible) and nonoxidative (reversible) parts. It consumes glucose 6phosphate to produce ribose 5-phosphate for nucleotide synthesis and NADPH for use in lipid synthesis and antioxidative processes. Excess ribose 5phosphate is converted into the glycolysis intermediates fructose 6phosphate and glyceraldehyde 3phosphate.
Oxidative part uses: glucose 6phosphate dehydrogenase (rate limiting step) and 6phosphogluconate dehydrogenase to reduce NADP+ to NADPH

323
Q

What physical and chemical properties enantiomers share?

A

Melting point, boiling point, acidity (eg pKa value).
Only biochemical differences can raise because of enzyme that act as biological catalysts are themselves chiral. Most enzyme that act on peptides have evolved to recognize and catalyze reactions with peptide composed of the more common amino acid enantiomers which are L amino acids.

324
Q

What are the three irreversible steps of kreb cycle?

A

Citrate synthase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, and alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. The activity of each enzyme can be increased or decreased when specific molecules bind to the enzymes and alter their shape (allostery). They are inhibited by NADH, ATP, citrate, and succinyl CoA and activated by ADP and calcium.

325
Q

What bonds keep the structure of 4 level of protein structure

A

Primary- peptide bond (covalent bond)
Secondary - hydrogen bonds between carbonyls and amides of the polypeptide backbone.
Tertiary - 3D folded form of protein. interactions of R groups including hydrogen, ionic, hydrophobic interactions, disulfide bonds. Primary driving force in the protein folding is the hydrophobic effect.
Quaternary- two or more polypeptide chains stabilized by same forces as tertiary structure.

326
Q

What phosphorylation does to the overall charge on a protein?

A

Proteins are frequently post translationally modified with non amino acid groups such as phosphates. (Lipidation, ubiquitination, glycosylation, phosphorylation, proteolysisd). Phosphorylation results in more negative charges on a protein. Dephosphorylation makes protein more positively charged

327
Q

Why hydrolysis of ATP is exothermic when breaking bond is always endothermic?

A

The energy consumed by breaking old bonds is less than the energy released by forming new bonds.
During hydrolysis two new bonds also form for each bond that is broken. One new bond is forms between H from water and the one of the atoms from the broken bond. A second new bond forms between the OH from water and the other atom from the hydrolyzed bond. It is common misconception that the heat produced by ATP hydrolysis is due to cleavage of the P-O bond but it consumes thermal energy and bond formation is always exothermic.
Inorganic phosphate -H
ADP-OH

328
Q

How L and D is given to molecules?

A

Biologically relevant stereoisomers are named after their similarity to glyceraldehyde.
For glyceraldehyde:
D- OH is the right - rotates polarized light clockwise
Most naturally occurring carbohydrates are D carbohydrates eg D glucose
L- OH is one the left, rotates in counterclockwise,
Most naturally occurring amino acids are L amino acids

329
Q

What are the two exception to the L and S configuration of natural amino acids

A

Glycine- achiral, no stereochemical designation
Cysteine- S is higher atomic number than oxygen, so side chin is higher priory than carbonyl carbon so it is still has L configuration but it’s absolute stereochemical designation is R

330
Q

What is glycerophospholipid and its structure?

A

Phospholipids are major components of cell and organelle membrane. The most common type is glycerophospholipid. It consists of glycerol backbone bound to phosphate groups through phosphoester (it is like ester bond except P instead of carbonyl carbon) bonds and two fatty acids through ester bonds

331
Q

Which molecules can be converted to oxaloacetate by single enzymatic reaction?

A

Oxalocetate is an intermediate in several metabolic pathways including gluconeogenesis ( pyruvate carboxylase catalyzes the carboxylation of pyruvate) CAC (malate dehydrogenase) and amino acid degradation (transamination of aspartate)

332
Q

What is cofactors!

A

Some proteins including some enzymes can function only with the help of non amino acid groups called cofactors. These groups can be organic (coenzyme) or inorganic and they can be tightly or loosely bound to the proteins they help. Tightly bound cofactors are called prosthetic groups.

333
Q

How lyases enzymes work?

A

Breaks bonds by forming a double bond elsewhere. Aldolase is a lyase

334
Q

What is Bose- Einstein condensate?

A

A state of matter in which separate atoms or subatomic particles, cooled to near absolute zero, coalasce into a single quantum mechanical entity, that is one that can be described as a wave function, on a near macroscopic scale.

335
Q

What is NADH stands for and its components of structure?

A

Nicotinamide (vitamin b3, one ring with amide) adenine (purine) dinucleotide (two nucleotide connected)

336
Q

What is FAD stands for and its structure?

A

Flavin (3ring) adenine dinucleotide