Mcat Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Where does electron transport chain happens?

A

Inner membrane of mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is reduced in complex 1 of electron transport chain?

A

NADH, electron goes to coQ. Reducing ubiquinone to ubiquinol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is reduced in complex 2 of ETC? I

A

FADH2, electron goes to CoQ. Reducing ubiquinone to ubiquinol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What happens in complex 3 of ETC?

A

CoQ delivers its electrons that comes from complex 1 and 2 and becomes supercharged to push H+ to the intermembrane space of mitochondria.
Electrons goes to cytC. For every pair of electrons received, 2 cyt c are reduced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What happens in complex 4 of ETC?

A

CytC electron moves to complex 4. Complex 4 supercharged and H+ goes to intermembrane space. Electrons in complex 4 goes to the final electron acceptor O2 becomes 2H2O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Sleep stages and their waves

A

Beta- Awake and active individual
Alpha- stage 1 or relaxation drowsy
Theta- stage 2 k complexes and sleep spindles
Delta- stage 3
Beta- REM
Note: stage 1,2 theta early stages, stage 3,4 delta slow deep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the equation for specific gravity?

A

S.G=density of the object/ density of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the density of water?

A

1000kg/m3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Specific gravity can measure what?

A

Fraction of the object submerged in water or any other liquid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is buoyancy force?

A

Fbuoyancy=density liquid x Volume of the liquid displaced x g
It is an upward force that exerted on object fully or partially immersed in fluid.
Fluid can be liquid or gas. Due to this force an object appears to lose weight, appears to be lighter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is archimede’s principle?

A

When a body is immersed fully or partially in fluid, it experiences an upward force that is equal to the weight of the fluid displaced by it.
Mnemonic: up wold
Upward force= weight of the liquid displaced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the formula for pressure in fluid?

A

P=density of fluid x d(change in height)x g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Relation between distance, acceleration and time?

A

D=1/2a x t^2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Plane mirror produces image where?

A

Produce an image behind its plane at a distance equal to the object distance in front of the plane.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Equation for power?

A

P=W/t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Normal thin layer chromatography separates compounds based on?

A

Polarity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In thin layer chromatography which phase is polar and which phase is non polar?

A

Stationary phase is polar (silica gel, alumina) and mobile phase is non polar( hexanes, ethyl acetate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In thin layer chromatography which compounds have larger Rf?

A

Non polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the general order of carboxylic acid derivative reactivity is?

A

Most reactive to least: acid halide, acid anhydride, ester, amide, carboxylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Esters can be formed by reaction between what?

A

Carboxylic acid and alcohol, under acidic condition, the reaction is known as Fischer esterification. It is formed by condensation of carboxylic acid and alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Anhydrides is most commonly made from which compounds?

A

Carboxylic acid and an acid chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How does esters named?

A

Alkyl group from the alcohol as a substituent prefix, and carboxylic acid as the root name with ic acid suffix replaced by ate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is heteroatom?

A

Atom other than carbon and hydrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How L and D designated?

A

L and D are relative configurations of the highest number chiral carbon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Three germ layers and their responding certain tissue types in the body?

A

Ectoderm - Nervous system, epidermis, hair.
Mesoderm- connecting tissues including bones, muscles, tendons. Blood cells and several organs heart, kidney, and gonads.
Endoderms: lining of digestive tube and associated organs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Antidiuretic hormone ADH acts to decrease urine output by?

A

Increasing the water permeability of the walls of the distal tubule and collecting duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Difference between urethra and ureter

A

Urethra: The urethra is a tubular structure that carries the urine from the urinary bladder to the outside.
ureters: carry the urine away from kidneys to the urinary bladder, which is a temporary reservoir for the urine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is the reduction potential calculated in 2 half reactions?

A

Ecell=Ered - Eox
Red cat, An Ox
Higher in the table better the reduction potential so better OA.
Stoichiometry doesn’t matter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How strecker syntheses make alpha amino acids?

A

It is used to generate alpha amino acids from aldehyde using ammonium chloride NH4Cl and KCN. The intermediate is planar (no stereocenters), nucleophilic addition can occur from either from above or below the plane. So it produces mixture of L and D amino acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Gas liquid chromatography is used to separate molecules based on what?

A

Based on boiling point. The mobile phase is inert gas with low boiling point eg N2, He or Ar. Higher boiling point molecules more readily reenter the liquid phase( stationary), moves slower through the column.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A mixture of organic molecules with acidic or basic functional groups can be separate by?

A

An acid base extraction. The acid and base components in the mixture are initially in the organic layer but can enter the aqueous phase by converting into ionic salt by deprotonation or protonation via extraction with aqueous base or acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Extraction is a technique used to separate molecules based on?

A

Solubility. Molecules will dissolve in solvents of similar polarity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Important wave numbers to know for IR spectrum

A

OH board peak at ~3300
NH Sharp peak at ~3300
CCOOH - broad peak at ~3000
And 1750
C=O sharp peak at ~1750

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How ester’s body is formed from carboxylic acid and alcohol

A

Carbon chain that includes carbonyl carbon stems from carboxylic acid and carbon chain bonded to oxygen atom stems from the alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the factors that can effect H NMR of chemical shift?

A

Degree of carbon substitution and proximity to electronegative atoms. Protons in alkyl group are among the most shielded and normally appear 0.9-1.4 ppm. (Downfield, de shielded), (upfield, shielded). CH3<C-CH2<C-CH etc the other extreme is H in carboxylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What mass spectrometry measures

A

Mass of the molecules and molecular fragments. It creates molecular ion, a radical cation with mass to charge ratio (m/z). Ionized material enters a magnetic field, which curves the path of the particles by their m/z. Only cations reaches the detector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What IR spectroscopy measure?

A

It’s provides the ability to molecular structure through analysis of vibrational and rotational molecular motion. The wave number of an IR absorption is proportional to the frequency of the motion. Highest wave number stretching vibration occurs for the bond with lightest combined mass of atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Rate of reaction indicates?

A

How quickly the reactant molecules are consumes and the product molecules produced. (E.g change in the species concentrations per unit time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gibbs free energy indicates?

A

Spontaneity (thermodynamic favorability) of the process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Entropy S indicates?

A

Molecular disorder of the system. Solids are low entropy and gasses have higher disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is specific heat capacity of a substance?

A

The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of the substance by 1•C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Molar enthalpy equation?

A

Delta H= q reaction/moles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does negative delta H mean?

A

A negative change in enthalpy delta H indicates an exothermic rxn that releases heat to the surroundings and raised temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What enthalpy measures?

A

Change in total energy of the a system. Enthalpy in is bond breakage which is positive. enthalpy out is bond formation which is negative. Total enthalpy is Sum of enthalpies of all bonds broken and formed. When pressure is not changed, delta H equals to amount of heat is absorbed or released by a reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hess’s law on enthalpy?

A

It states that if a reaction can be performed in more than one step, the heat of the overall rxn(overall enthalpy) is equal to the sum of the enthalpy changes from each step.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the numbers for STP?

A

Temperature=273K or 0C
Pressure=1atm
Gas occupies a volume of 22.4 L for every 1 mole of gas molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What dipole moment measure?

A

p=qd
The magnitude of a dipole moment across a polar covalent bond is equal to the magnitude of partial charge multiplied by the bond length separating the charges the difference in EN between two covalently bonded atoms is indicative of the magnitude the partial charge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Equation of Lorenz force?

A

F=qvB
Magnetic field is perpendicular to the particle’s velocity. As a result charge’s trajectory is forced into a curved, - charges and +charges bend opposite direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is conjugate acid/base?

A

Is the species that the acid or base becomes after losing or gaining one protons. A base is converted into its conjugate acid when the base accepts a proton. Acid is converted into its conjugate bases when the acid donates a proton.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is functionalism theory stands for?

A

Society=an organism, each part of society works to maintain dynamic equilibrium(homeostasis). It is macro perspective. Theorists are Emile Durkheim, Talcott parsons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is conflict theory stands for?

A

Society=struggle for limited resources. I qualify based on social class.
Macro perspective. Theorists are Karl Mark, Max Weber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is social constructionism stands for?

A

Social acorns define what is real. Knowledge about world based on interactions. Perspective is macro or micro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is symbolic interactionism stands for?

A

Meaning and value attached to symbols. Individual interactions based on these symbols. Micro perspective. Theorists are Charles Cooley, George Herbert Mead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What rational choice/ social exchange theory stands for?

A

Individual behaviors and interacts attempt to maximize personal gain and minimize personal cost. Micro perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is feminist theory stands for

A

Examines gender inequality in society. Perspective is macro or micro.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is Avogadro’s law states?

A

It states that the volume occupied by a gas is directly proportional it’s number of moles if the temperature and pressure are constant. The gas with more moles will occupies the larger volume.
V/n=constant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the different dipoles?

A
  1. Ion dipole interactions occur between the partial charge of a permanent dipole and the full charge of an ion.
  2. Dipole induced dipole i reactions occur when a permanent dipole induces a weak temporary dipole in a non polar bond or atom.
  3. Dipole dipole interactions occur between the partial charges of two permanent dipoles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

All blotting technique involves what general steps?

A
  1. Separation of bio molecules by electrophoresis to be separated by size.
  2. The separated biomolecules are transferred from gel to membrane
  3. The molecules are exposed to probes that specifically bind to the target molecule.
  4. The probe is visualized.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is epitope?

A

Antibody binding site within a protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

How does TCA cycle and ETC are interconnected?

A

TCA cycle oxidizes acetyl CoA to produce NADH and FADH2 which then feed into the ETC. Succinate dehydrogenase aka complex II of ETC, oxidizes succinate to fumarate to make FADH2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Fermentation allows ATP production by?

A

By glycolysis to continue in the absence of
Oxygen. Product of lactate allows regeneration of NAD+ which is necessary for glycolysis. Fermentation does that by reacting pyruvate and NADH together to produce lactate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is apoptosis

A

It is programmed, non inflammatory, resulting in cell death. When cells get damaged (eg increased buildup of ROS (reactive oxygen species), apoptosis activated and degradation of cellular components starts. Cell fragments gets eaten by macrophages (phagocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is necrosis

A

Passive accidental cell death resulting from environmental perturbations with uncontrolled release of inflammatory cellular contents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Chemical shifts to remember for H-NMR spectroscopy

A

TMS standard=0
Sp3 0-2
SP 2-3
Sp2 3-5
Aromatic carbon 6-9
Aldehyde 9-10
Carboxylic acid 10-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does Infrared Spectroscopy work

A

It uses infrared light source at various frequencies. This allows to determine the frequencies that cause particular covalent bonds to vibrate and stretch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Steps in action potentials with Na/K pump

A
  1. At rest neuron maintains a potential difference know as RMP, ~-70mV.
    INK- more negative inside the cell and more K inside. This is maintained by Na/K pump, K leaks channels, and passive diffusion of K.
  2. When stimulus causes Na pump to open, 3 Na+ rush into the cell, causing depolarization. When it is reaches threshold, AP initiated.
  3. If threshold is reached. Na keep remain open, causes overshoot to almost positive, that is when Na closes
  4. K channels open
  5. K rushes out of neuron resulting repolarization
  6. Because K close slower, the membrane potential briefly becomes more -, hyper polarization
  7. K closes, RMP restored.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the neuroglia?

A

Neuroglia are glial cells. They provide support functions to neurons and the nervous system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the different types of neuroglia and their functions in central nervous system?

A

They are glial cells.
1. Oligodendrocytes- form myelin sheaths around the axons to reduce leakage, decrease capacitance and increase action potential propagation speed along the axon in central nervous system.
2. Ependymal cells- line compartments and produce cerebrospinal fluids.
3. Microglia- serve as immune cells which phagocytize pathogens, damaged cells, and waste materials.
4. Astrocytes- contact blood vessels, regulating blood flow to coordinate synaptic activity and chemical changes. Also important for maintaining extracellulair fluid, ion, pH and neurotransmitter homeostasis.
Also provide nutrients for neuron function, development, maintainance, communication with other glial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the important neuroglia( glial cells) in peripheral nervous system?

A

Schwann cells- form myelin sheath around the axons to increase speed of conduction.
Satellite cells- provide structural support and supply nutrients to neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is behavioral isolation?

A

Two species exhibit different mating behaviors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is hybrid breakdown?

A

F1 offspring are viable and fertile but F2 hybrid offspring are unviable or sterile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the broad categories of barriers to hybridization between species?

A

Prezygotic barriers
Post zygotic barriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the prezygotic barriers for hybridization?

A
  1. Temporal isolation - May reproduce different times
  2. Ecological isolation
  3. Behavioral isolation
  4. Mechanical isolation
  5. Gametic isolation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the postzygotic barriers in hydridzation?

A

Hybrid sterility
Hybrid inviability
Hybrid breakdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is negative priming.

A

Impaired processing (eg slower response or reduced accuracy) that occurs when a stimulus is initially ignored and then later attended. Eg first bei g asked to pick a red pen and ignore other colors pens, then asked to pick a blue pen, response time is slower.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is hindsight bias?

A

Tendency to perceive an event as being likely after it has occurred, even if it was unlikely. Eg after getting a minor car accident, an individual states that she just know she should have stayed home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are cytokines

A

Signaling molecules that regulate immune cell functions. Helper T cells produce cytokines that function to activate other immune cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What T cells do?

A

They bind forging antigens displayed by major histocompatibility complex proteins found on the surfaces of other cells (eg other immune cells, infected cells)
Types:
Helper T cells which produce cytokines
Cytotoxic T cells which induce apoptosis in cells of infected by pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What are the different ovarian cycle phases?

A

Follicular, ovulation and luteal phase. In the follicular phase menses and proliferative phase happens, in luteal phase secretory phase happens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What hormones higher in follicular phase?

A

Day 1-13, follicle stimulating hormone FSH peaks during first week, stimulates the development of several ovarian follicles. Subsequently LH begins to surge, one follicle become dominant. Estrogen also increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What happens in the ovulation day?

A

Day 14, soon after LH surge, ovarian follicle matures and an oocyte is released

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What happens during luteal phase?

A

Day 15-28 FSH and LH cause follicle to be converted into the corpus luteum which produces progesterone. Progesterone stimulates the thickening of the endometrium to make it receptive to embryo implantation and surpasses FSH and LH. If fertilization doesn’t occur corpus lutheum degenerate and progesterone and estrogen level decline sharply. If pregnancy occurs, corpus luteum is still present and FSH and LH remain suppressed. Estrogen and progesterone levels will be high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is specific rotation?

A

Is the degree to which chiral molecules rotate plane polarized light, which unique to each chiral molecules. Clockwise rotations are + and counter-clockwise ones -. Enantiomers are nonsuperimposable mirror images and their specific rotations are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What are the stages of spermatogenesis?

A

Testes contain specialized coiled structure called seminiferous tubules which are locations of spermatogenesis. Steps:
1. Spermatogonia undergo mitotic division forming 2 daughter cells. One of them remains a spermatogonium while other becomes a primary spermatocyte and begins meiosis. Meiosis 1 results in 2 secondary spermatocytes.
2. Completion of meiosis 2 yields 4 spermatids.
3. Spermatids undergo several changes eg cytoplasm loss, acrosome formations tail development ultimately into spermatozoa.
4. Spermatozoa migrate to the epididymis where they continue maturation and acquire motility.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What Sertoli cells do?

A

Seminiferous tubules also contain specialized nurse cell called Sertoli cells which are responsible for providing nutrients to sperm as well as regulating cell development.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What does leydig cells do?

A

Secrets testosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is lactonization?

A

Is the intramolecular reaction between an alcohol and carboxylic acid that creates a cyclic ester( lactone).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is lactamization?

A

Is an intramolecular condensation reaction between an amine and a carboxylic acid that comes a cyclic amide. (Lactam)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which causes can cause disruption in primary structures of protein?

A

Primary structures are the sequence of amino acids from N terminus to C terminus and is formed by peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids. It can only disrupted bh events that alter sequence. Those include cleavage of peptide bonds by proteases and changes in amino acid sequence by mutations in DNA that encodes the protein of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Where is the ammonia in urea cycle comes from?

A

The ammonia that enters the cycle is derived from the amino group of amino acid backbones (deamination) and from amide side chains of glutamine and asparagine (deamidation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How does nitrogen of amino acid backbone is removed?

A

By transamination and deamination. (Removal of amine to produce a ketone), producing alpha keto acids in process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Which amino acid has secondary amine in their backbone?

A

Proline, it has pyrrolidine side chain, only amino acid in which backbone amino group is secondary amine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the ways to make alpha amino acid?

A
  1. Gabriel synthesis
    N-phthalimidomalonic ester goes under base (taking the H) and then alkyl halide introduced. Alkyl group is the side chain of the amino acid that is being created. Then it is hydrolyzed and heated to take the 1 one of the carboxylic group (CO2). The rest is amino acid.
  2. Skrecker synthesis elegant way
    NH3, KCN, aldehyde or ketone needed.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How many isoprenes in one terpene?

A
  1. That is 10 carbons in total.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Steroids are made out of which backbone structures?

A

Steroids made out of terpenes that form a backbone structure containing four fused hydrocarbon rings. 3 6membered rings and 1 5 membered rings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Why enantiomers are not readily separated?

A

Because they have the same chemical and physical properties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

How enantiomers can be separated?

A
  1. By adding resolving agent. This make it diastereomers which have different properties and can be separated
  2. Separation technique that uses chiral media. Eg: chiral column chromatography
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

How does chiral chromatography work?

A

It is used for separating enantiomers. Uses chiral stationary phase, which interacts with one enantiomers either R or S more strongly, causing that enantiomer to move slower through the column while other enantiomer with weaker interaction moves through the column more quickly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

How E/Z isomers are named?

A

E- high priority groups on opposite side
Z- high priority groups same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

In Sn1 reactions, nucleophile are in which order?

A

0th order with regard with the nucleophile and the rate of reaction is independent of the nucleophile identity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What is exocrine gland?

A

Glands in which the product is secreted through a duct onto the surface of the body or onto the epithelial lining of a cavity inside the body. Eg tears and bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the germ layer precursor for epithelial tissue?

A

All of them endoderm ectoderm and mesoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What does Gabriel synthesis do?

A

Aka malonic ester synthesis, is a method used to make primary amines, including alpha amino acids without overalkylation of the amine. The amine is generated from
Potassium phthalimide, a protected form of ammonia that prevents multiple alkylations due to the steric hindrance of the phthalimide group. Synthesis beging with Sn2 rxn, K phthalimide is nucleophile that attacks an alkyl halide.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How to know amino acid is L or D?

A

By convention, L amino acids are drawn with hydrogen behind the plane of the back bone(dashed line) whereas D amino acids are drawn with hydrogen in front of the plane (solid line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Amino acid cysteine is different from other amino acid because?

A

Side chain of cysteine has higher priority than the CO2H group so cysteine has an R configuration but all other natural amino acids are S.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Carbonyls are protected with which protecting group?

A

Hemiacetel acetal
Hemiketal ketal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Alcohol functional groups can be protected by which protecting group?

A

Mesylate, tosylate, tert-butyl ether, tert butyl dimethyl silyl TBDMS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Amines functional groups can be protected by which protecting group?

A

Tosylate, tert-butyl oxycarbonyl BOC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

In neutral environment (~pH7) amino acids are?

A

Zwitterions, N terminus +1 (NH3+) and C terminus is -1 (COO-). Carboxylic acid is deprotonated and amino group is protonated.
Pka COOH 2
Pka NH3 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is torque and its formula?

A

Rotational force that makes object spin about a pivot point. By convention, torques that cause an object to spin counterclockwise are positive and clockwise are negative. When object is in static equilibrium the net torque is 0.
Torque=rFsin@

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What is the difference between depolarization or hyporpolarization on action potential?

A

Depolarization of a neuron cell membrane promotes axiom potential initiation ( eg more positive membrane potential). Hyper polarization inhibits AP (eg more negative membrane potential) effux of K out or influx of Cl in

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is Dalton’s law of partial pressure states?

A

Mixture of gases, the total pressure Ptotal is equal to the sum of partial pressure of Pi of each constituent gas at constant volume and temperature. The partial pressure of each gas in the mixture depends only on the relative number of moles of each species and not the identity of the gas.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is somatic symptom disorder?

A

Extreme concern regarding one or more physical symptoms eg fatigue, pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is conversion disorder?

A

Neurological symptoms eg paralysis, blindness, that are not explainable by a medical condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is illness anxiety disorder?

A

Preoccupation with having or acquiring a serious disease eg HIV, cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is factitious disorder?

A

Symptoms or illnesses are intentionally fabricated without obvious external gain (eg disability benefits)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What is confounding variables?

A

Are uncontrolled variables that have an effect on the indecent and/ or dependent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is the overal steps to muscle contraction?

A
  1. Detection of depolarization by a receptor located in sarcolemmal tubes (called t tubules)
  2. In response Ca2+ released from sarcoplasmic reticulum
  3. Ca2+ binds to troponin, which enables binding of myosin head to actin by moving tropomyosin
  4. Each myosin is bound to ADP and p from previous contraction. Myosin head releases those phosphates. This enables myosin to pull on the actin filament.
  5. As units move, they release ADP
  6. ATP halts the gliding movement. Severing the bond between myosin and actin
  7. ATP decomposed into ADP and phosphate and the energy released will be stored in myosin heads
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the general skeletal muscle fiber types?

A
  1. Slow oxidative type 1
    Slow. Endurance activity, fatigue resistant, aerobic respiration, plenty of mitochondria, myoglobin, capillaries. Red
  2. Fast oxidative glycolytic type 2A
    Medium. Moderate endurance activity. Anaerobic glycolysis and aerobic respiration. Plentiful to moderately plentiful. Intermediate appearance.
  3. Fast glycolytic type 2X
    Fast. Explosive movement, easily fatigued, anaerobic glycolysis. Few mitochondria capillaries and myoglobin. White
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What are the 2 important language centers in the brain.

A

Language functions in the brain tend to be lateralized to the left hemisphere. 2 important center are broca-language production, wernicke - language comprehension.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How PET imaging works?

A

Positron emission tomography is a functional imaging technique that measure the emission of positrons that result from the metabolism of radioactive tracer. Radiolabeled form of glucose is used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How uncompetitive inhibitors work?

A

It binds only to enzyme-substrate complex and decreases both Vmax and Km values by same factor resulting in an unchanged Vmax/Km ratio. Because it binds to ES complex, it depletes ES levels by ESI complexes. this shifts the equilibrium such that additional free enzyme is induced to substrate, causing appearant decrease in Km.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How activators increase enzyme activity?

A

Enhance enzyme activity by increasing the turnover number kcat (=Vmax/Total enzyme). This helps to achieve higher Vmax by decreasing Michaelis constant (Km) to reach maximum rate at lower substrate concentration or increased catalytic efficiency (=kcat/Km).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is Doppler effect?

A

Pitch is how humans perceive sound frequency. Higher the frequency higher the pitch. This is the Doppler effect. It describes a change in frequency of a wave that is the result of a relative motion between a wave source and its observer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is frequency

A

Simple harmonic motion quantifies how many cycles occur in 1 second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is transverse wave?

A

Waves with displacement perpendicular to the axis of motion. Eg water wave in water, electromagnetic waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What is longitudinal waves?

A

Waves with displacement parallel to the direction of motion. Eg sound waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What kind of image concave mirror form

A
  1. Inverted, Real image when the reflected object is located outside the focal length
  2. Upright virtual images are formed when object is placed inside the focal length.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What kind of image formed in convex mirror?

A

Always form upright virtual image.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What is focal length?

A

Reflected light rays converge to form an image.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is osmosis.

A

Is the diffusion of solvent across semi permeable membrane from a solution of lower solute concentration into a solution of higher solute concentration until the solution concentration equalize.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

During osmosis, solvent diffusion imparts an osmotic pressure that is calculated by п=iMRT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What is the i (van ‘t Hoff factor) of fructose in solution?

A

It is 1 because it doesn’t dissociate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the differences between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure.

A

Hydrostatic pressure is the force that pushes the fluid out of blood capillaries whereas oncotic pressure is the force that pushes the fluid into the blood capillaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure!

A

Force exerted by the fluid inside the blood capillaries against the capillary wall. It aids the movement of fluid from the blood capillaries to the interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What is anomeric carbon?

A

is the carbon derived from the carbonyl carbon (the ketone or aldehyde functional group) of the open-chain form of the carbohydrate molecule and is a stereocenter. An important feature is the direction of the OH group attached to the anomeric carbon, indicating that it is either alpha or beta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

How sugars are classified based on their configuration?

A

L or D based on the configuration of the highest numbered chiral carbon (anomeric carbon is assigned the lowest number possible). R configuration at the highest numbered stereo center designates a D sugar and S configuration designates an L sugar. Sugar also classified as alpha and beta. Alpha- anomeric carbon is on the opposite side of the ring as the highest chiral center Beta is same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Where does fatty acid synthesis occur?

A

In cytosol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Where does fatty acid catabolism (B oxidation) occur?

A

It occurs in the mitochondria. Since long chain fatty acids are made in cytosol of the cell, it needs to move to mitochondria by transport and activation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Malonyl CoA is intermediate in which metabolic pathway.

A

In fatty acid synthesis and it inhibits long chain fatty acid transport to the mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What is the characteristic of strong nucleophilic molecule?

A

Nucleophiles donate electrons to electrophiles in nucleophilic substation. There are several factors that contribute to nucleophilicity, including charge and EN. Stronger the EN, less nucleophilicity it is. Strong EN less likely to donate the electron and it is more stable to hold on to their electrons vs less EN atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Different characteristics of thermodynamic enolate vs kinetic enolate?

A

Thermodynamic: more substituted, requiring small base, higher activation energy, higher rxn temp, forms more stable products
Kinetic: opposite of thermodynamic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is inductive effect?

A

Electron density is donated through sigma bonds. Carbocations are stabilized by electrons donating group because they donate electrons to positively charged carbon, they are destabilized by electron withdrawing groups because they will electrons away from the carbocation, creating two adjacent positive charge, making it unstable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is Coulomb’s law states about the electric force on 2 charged objects?

A

Magnitude of the electric force F between two charged objects is directly proportional to the products of each object’s charge magnitude Q1 Q2 and inversely proportional to the square of the charge’s separation distance r.
F=|Q1||Q2|/r2
Increasing the charge on one object increases the electrostatic force on the other object.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is self serving bias?

A

Is a type of attribution bias in which a person takes credit for a success ( I did well on the test because I am smart) or blames a failure on an external factor (test was unfair). This bias serves to protect self esteem, one’s overall opinion of self worth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What are the methods of problem solving?

A
  1. Trail and error
  2. Algorithms
  3. Heuristics - strategy or shortcut yielding approx results, fast, potentially error prone
  4. Insight- solution occurs in an Aha moment, typically after a mental break from the problem. Valuable, occurs infrequently
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What is self fulfilling prophecy?

A

Is a belief about something (which may or
May not be true) that influences behavior such that the belief actually comes true. Beliefs (I am bad at chemistry) impact expectations (I won’t do well on the chemistry test) which then influence behavior (not studying). The result (failing the test) then reinforce the belief.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What is belief perseverance?

A

Is a type of cognitive bias in which person steadfastly holds a belief even when confronting strong evidence to the contrary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What is incentive theory

A

Incentive theory suggests that behavior is primarily motivated by extrinsic( external) rewards rather than internal reward or biological drives. Eg, studying hard to get good grade not because he/she interested in the subject

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

How sympathetic nervous system increase blood pressure?

A

In times of stress, SNS mobilizes the body’s resources to deliver blood toward the vital organs and away from extremities. One way is increase blood pressure by releasing neurotransmitter norepinephrine to directly stimulate the constriction of vascular smooth muscle. SNS also can increase BP by activating the renin-angiotensin aldosterone system in the kidneys.
Vasoconstriction increase blood presssure by decreasing the volume inside blood vessels. When this volume is lowered, the force of blood flow is raised, thereby increasing blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Difference between vasoconstriction and vasodilation?

A

Vasoconstriction: small blood vessel diameter, lower blood flow, increased blood pressure
Vasodilation: larger blood vessels diameter, higher blood flow, lower blood pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

How do you know how many acetyl CoA is made from fatty acids?

A

FA can be oxidized to form acetyl-CoA and those with an even number of carbons produce half as many acetyl CoA molecules as they have carbons. FA with odd number of carbons produce propionyl-CoA in addition to the acetyl CoA. Unsaturated FA require isomerization reactions to convert cis bonds to trans bonds whereas saturated FA don’t. PS. Carboxylic acid in the beginning of FA is carbon 1 and includes in the carbon tails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

What is thermodynamically stable/unstable means?

A

Thermodynamically stable bond forms during spontaneous reactions (delta G is -, no energy needed). In contrast, thermodynamically unstable bonds forms during nonspontaneous reactions. Those require energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

What is kinetically stable means?

A

Spontaneous reactions don’t necessarily proceed quickly. The rate of reaction is described by activation energy. Bonds that break in slow reactions said to be kinetically stable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

What is by product during peptide bonds?

A

Peptide bonds are formed through a dehydration reaction in which the carboxyl group of one amino acid loses a hydroxyl group and the amino group of another loses a hydrogen atom. H2O is released as a byproduct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What is structure of glyceraldehyde?

A

It is an aldose that can be derived from the oxidation of glycerol. It contains an aldehyde and two hydroxyl groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

How frequency shifts when there is wave source and observer Are in relative motion?

A

Frequency shift occurs when there is relative motion between the source of a wave and an observer. When the source approaches the observer, the frequency is higher, when the source recedes from the observer, the frequency is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

What is frustration-aggression theory?

A

Individuals exhibit violent as a result of having a goal or effort blocked or defeated (eg frustration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

What is transesterification reaction?

A

Is the reaction between an ester and an alcohol that results in an exchange of alkoxy and alcohol R groups. The reaction can be either acid or base catalyzed. It involves nucleophilic attack by the alcohol on the carbonyl carbon of ester to form new alkoxy group. The original alkoxy group leaves and becomes protonated to form a new alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

What is saponification reaction.

A

Is the remodel of an alkoxy group from ester by a base. It forms a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

How gas chromatography works!

A

Separate based on boiling point. Low BP elude first. For compounds with same carbon atoms, alkanes have the lowest BP, followed by aldehyde ketones, alcohols and carboxylic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What is G cells do in the stomach?

A

Secretory product is gastrin which signal parietal cells to secrete hydrochloric acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What is parietal cells do in the stomach?

A

It produces hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factors. Hydrochloric acid is primary component of gastric juice, activates proteolytic enzymes, kills microbes and denature (unfolds) proteins. Intrinsic factors aids in the absorption of vitamin B12 in the illeum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is chief cells do in the stomach?

A

It produces pepsinogen and gastric lipase. Pepsinogen cleaves polypeptides into smaller peptides when activated by the low pH of gastric juice. Gastric lipase carries out hydrolysis of lipids in the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

What is mucous cells do in the stomach?

A

Produces mucus and bicarbonate. Those protects the stomach wall from autodigestion by gastric juice which contains acid and proteases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Where Most of water is reabsorbed into the body in nephron?

A

In descending loop of henle. In the loop of henle, active transport of NaCl from the ascending limb maintains the high salt concentration in the kidneys medulla, facilitating the reabsorption of water from the descending limb.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Kidneys are anatomically divided into parts of?

A

Outer Cortex and inner salty medulla

168
Q

When super heating happens?

A

When a liquid is heated above its boiling point but it doesn’t boil. Surface tension causes the vapor pressure inside bubbles to increases as they form causing them to explode at the surface.

169
Q

What boiling chips help with.

A

Are made of non reactive porous material and provide nucleation sites where small bubbles of vapor can form. This effect overcomes the surface tension and allows the liquid to boil evenly at its normal boiling temperature thereby preventing superheating.

170
Q

What is formula for effective nuclear charge Zeff?

A

Zeff=Z-S
Z= #of proton in nucleus (+)
S shielding constant (core electron)

171
Q

What is the formula for magnification.

A

M=hi/ho

172
Q

Concave/convex mirror VS lens?

A

Concave mirror= converging
Convex mirror= diverging
Concave lens= diverging
Convex mirror=converging

173
Q

Concave VS convex lens’s F?

A

Convex lens F=positive +
Concave lens F=negative -

174
Q

Qualities of concave lens?

A

F=negative
Diverging
Image is always on the left, virtual, upright, smaller.

175
Q

Convex lens qualities?

A

F=+
Converging
If object is left of F, image is inverted, Real,
Enlarged
If object is between F and lens, upright, virtual, enlarged.

176
Q

What is the thin lens equation and related conventions?

A

1/f=1/do +1/di
M=hi/ho =-di/do
|m|>1 enlarged
M=negative is inverted
M=positive is upright
hi positive is real
hi negative is virtual
When di is on the right, it is positive and real image
When di is in the left, it is negative and virtual image

177
Q

Main components gastrointestinal tract consists of?

A
  1. Mouth (mechanical and chemical digestion)
  2. Esophagus (peristalsis movement)
  3. Stomach (mechanical and chemical digestion of food into chyme)
  4. Small intestine (digestion of macromolecules, water and nutrients absorption)
  5. Large intestine (absorption of remaining water and electrolytes, bacterial flora)
    *bacterial flora - metabolize carbohydrates into FA, synthesize vitamins.
178
Q

What are the subdivisions of small intestine?

A

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum.

179
Q

What is bile and it’s role?

A

Digestion of lipids in the small intestine is aided by bile, which is nonenzymatic solution produced by liver cells and stored in gallbladder

180
Q

Subdivisions of large intestine?

A

Cecum, colon, rectum

181
Q

What are the different products of pancreatic cells?

A

Beta cells -produces insulin
Alpha cells- produces glucagon
Delta cells -produces somatostatin

182
Q

Formula for Ohms law?

A

V=IR
Voltage=current x resistance

183
Q

What is equation for slope intercept form.

A

y=mx +b
M-slope
X-x intercept
Y-y intercept
Slope=rise/run
1. Find the y intercept
2. Then go rise and run on the graph.

184
Q

What products formed when anhydrides goes under nucleophilic acyl substitution?

A

Cleaved into 2 molecules: carboxylic acid and either ester or amide depending on the nucleophile (alcohol or amine). Cyclic anhydrides are not cleaved but instead ring is broken, placing CA group and the ester(or amide) at opposite ends of the new molecule

185
Q

How to produce grignard reagents?

A

Can be prepared from introducing alkyl halides into magnesium turnings in diethyl ether or THF.

186
Q

What is Grignard reagents are used for?

A

Carbon to carbon bond formation reactions between its alkyl group and an electrophilic molecule. When electrophile is carbon is from ketone or aldehyde, it uses nucleophilic addition to the carbonyl, generating alkoxide. Protonation of alkoxide during acidic workup results in alcohol and adds one alkyl group to the electrophilic carbon.

187
Q

What are the different endocrine glands?

A

Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Pineal
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Pancreas
Adrenal medulla
Adrenal cortex
Ovary
Testis

188
Q

What adrenal glands do?

A

Secrete hormones mediating stress response.

189
Q

What adrenal cortex secretes?

A

Cortisol and aldosterone. It secretes steroid hormones. (Glucocorticoids and mineralcorticoids.)
Long term stress response:
Glucocorticoids - promote gluconeogenesis, increase blood glucose, inhibition of immune system, promote lipolysis.
Mineralcorticoids- reabsorption of Na+ and water
Increase blood volume and blood pressure

190
Q

What is adrenal medulla secretes?

A

Amino acid based hormones, norepinephrine and epinephrine (catecholamines)
Short term response to stress:
Increased heart rate, blood pressure, metabolic rate, dilation of bronchioles, decreased digestive and urine output.
Glycogenolysis results in glucose release
Into bloodstream

191
Q

What is dimarization?

A

Dimer is structure containing two identical or similar units. Units may be associated by covalent bonding or by noncovalent forces

192
Q

What is highest priority lists on functional groups when it comes to IUPAC nomenclature?

A

1.carboxylic acid
2. Ester
3. Amide
4. Aldehyde
5. Ketone
6. Alcohol
7. Amine
8. Alkene
9. Alkyne
10. Alkane
11. Ether
12. Alkyl halide

193
Q

What is substitution reaction.

A

Involves the displacement of one group by another

194
Q

What is addition reactions.

A

Involves 2 groups adding across a pi bond, consuming the pi bond in the process

195
Q

What is elimination reactions?

A

Involves loss of 2 groups from adjacent carbon atoms and the formation of new a pi bond

196
Q

How nucleophilic acyl substitution reaction happens.

A

Carboxylic acid derivative 1 +nucleophile -> tetrahedral intermediate -> carboxylic acid derivative 2 + LG (good leaving group). If not good LG then it becomes nucleophilic addition reaction.

197
Q

Reduction potential measures?

A

Measure of an oxidized molecule’s affinity for electrons in redox half reactions.
Electrons are transferred from species with low reduction potential to species with higher reduction potential( more affinity for electrons)

198
Q

What are the different cells that bone made of?

A

Osteoprogenitor - stem cells that differentiate into osteoblast
Osteoblast
Osteoclast - breaks down old bone
Osteocyte - mature and mitotically inactive Bone cells that maintain bone structure. Those cells releases signals to other bone cells to regulate compact bone remodeling. Because they are confined to lacunae within a firm matrix in compact bone, signaling molecules released from osteocytes that regulate bone remodeling Must travel to their target cells via canaliculi.

199
Q

What is glycolytic bond?

A

Is the linkage between monosaccharides and is made up of a hemiacetal or hemiketal from one sugar and the hydroxyl group of another molecule. This bond is broken by hydrolysis reaction.

200
Q

What is sucrose made out of?

A

Glucose + fructose

201
Q

What is tollens test is used for?

A

is used to identify the presence of aldehyde and hydroxy ketones, including reducing sugars which has a free anomeric carbon (carbon that has 2 bonds to oxygen). Tollens test uses oxidizing agent Ag(NH3)2 to oxidize aldehyde to carboxylic acid. Ketoses can undergo tautomerization via an enedial intermediate to their aldose form, resulting positive Tollens read and formation of s silver mirror appearance.

202
Q

What are the different types of kinship?

A

Consanguineal - based on genetic relationship ( eg biological parents)
Affinal - based on marriage ( eg spouses)
Fictive - social ties that are not consanguineal or affinal (eg adopted children)

203
Q

What are the five stages of Freud’s theory of psychosexual development?

A

Stage 1 oral, infancy, birth-1 year,
Stage 2 anal, early childhood, 1-3 years,
Stage 3, phallic, preschool, 3-6 years old, their libido is now focused on their desire for the opposite sex. Oedipus complex (young boy to his mom), Electra complex ( young girl to his dad), penis envy. This fixation can result into relationship problems in the future (narcissistic, vain, sexually aggressive, incapable of love)
Stage 4: latency, School age, 6-12, libido is focused on developing friendships, social skills and hobbies.
Stage 5: genital, adolescent, 12-18, sexual interests begin to rise again, libido is focused on needs of others. Fixation of this stage can lead to fetishes, homosexuality and asexuality in the future

204
Q

What are the different stage of Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development?

A

Stage 1: trust vs mistrust, infancyC birth to 1 year, basic virtue is hope.
Stage 2: autonomy vs shame & doubt, early childhood, 1-3 years, basic virtue is will.
Stage 3: initiative vs guilt, preschool, 3-6 years old, basic virtue is purpose.
Stage 4: industry vs inferiority, school age, 6-12, basic virtue is competency
Stage 5- identity or role confusion, adolescent, 12-18, basic virtue is fidelity.
Stage 6: intimacy vs isolation, young adulthood, 18-35, basic virtue is Love
Stage 7: generativity vs stagnation, middle age, 35-60, basic virtue is care
Stage 8: integrity vs despair, old age, 60+, basic virtue is wisdom.

205
Q

What is the stages of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development?

A

3 distinct stages, each has 2 sub stages. Each stage must be completed before progress to the next.
Stage 1: preconventional, subs: obedience & punishment avoidance, individualism & self interest
Stage 2: conventional, subs: conformity to expectations, need to uphold laws and social order.
Stage 3: post conventional, subs: greater good, universal ethics and justice based laws

206
Q

What is the idea behind vygotsky’s theory of social cultural development?

A

More knowledgeable order MKO, acts as a model of behavior through collaborative dialogue and the child internalizes those behaviors.
Elementary mental functions EMF that children initially have; attention, sensation, perception, memory. For higher mental functions, they need help from MKO

207
Q

Why Pka value of alpha amine is lower than the Pka value of side chains?

A

Inductive effect of the alpha carboxylate lowers the Pka of the alpha amine. Protonated amines are destabilized by withdrawn electrons. Cardoxylate group withdraws electrons through inductive effect.

208
Q

How enolate forms?

A

When a base deprotonates an alpha carbon (carbon adjacent to a carbonyl C=O). For unsymmetrical carbonyl, the type of base is used and the reaction temperature affect which alpha carbon is deprotonated

209
Q

What is kinetic enolate?

A

This one results from deprotonation of the least substituted alpha carbon. This enolate forms quickly because base can access the less substituted carbon more easily. Large bulky base such as LGA and lower temperature yields this product.

210
Q

What is thermodynamic enolates formed?

A

By deprotonation of more substituted alpha carbon using a small base such as NaH at higher temperature. This enolate is more stable but forms more slowly than kinetic enolate.

211
Q

What is deviance and its different theories?

A

Is behavior that violate social norms, the customary ways of doing things in society. Three major theories of:
Strain
Differential association
Labeling

212
Q

What is the strain theory of deviance?

A

Predicts that individual experience tension (strain) when there is a disconnect between goals and the available means for achieving those goals.

213
Q

What is theory of differential association on deviance?

A

Deviance is learned through interactions with others engaging in deviance. Eg if gang members carry illegal firearms, new recruits quickly learn that this is normal and expected.

214
Q

What is labeling theory on deviance?

A

When individuals are labels as deviant, they will confirm the label by acting deviant. Initial acts (primary deviance) are usually mild but lead to the deviant label and social stigma. Internalization of deviant label leads to more serious transgressions

215
Q

What are the most common problem solving barriers?

A
  1. Confirmation bias - seeking information that support belief. Ignoring information that refutes belief, interpretation of ambiguous information as support
  2. Functional fixedness - inability to see a use for an object beyond its intended use
  3. Mental set- inability to see a problem from a new perspectives, inclination to use old methods to solve new problems
216
Q

What is Hawthorne effect?

A

When research subject behave differently as a result of knowing that they are being observed

217
Q

What is social epidemiology!

A

Subfield of epidemiology, focusing on the social factors that influence the health of an individual or population

218
Q

What is relative deprivation?

A

The discontent people experience when they believe they are entitled to something yet are being deprived of it. Deviant behavior can arise from those feeling of discontent.

219
Q

What is push and pull factor?

A

Help explain human migration patterns. Push factors describe why people move away from their native country and pull factors describe why people move to new country

220
Q

What is more!

A

Mores are serious norms with moral significance (eg adultary)

221
Q

What are sanctions?

A

Sanctions are means of social control in society. Formal sanctions are those that are codified into society as rules or laws . Informal sanctions are those are not codified eg adultery results in social shunning from the community

222
Q

What are the cultural capital?

A

Non-financial and nonsocial network assets that confer advantage in society. Eg education, hard work, attractiveness

223
Q

Bonds that are maintained between different structures of protein?

A

Primary - peptide bond
Secondary - hydrogen bond
Tertiary and quaternary- van Der waals,
Hydrogen, ionic bonds and disulfide bonds

224
Q

What is charge of electron?

A

-1.6x10^-19

225
Q

What is social cognitive theory?

A

It suggests that people learn through observing others. Vicarious learning takes places through watching other people behave in a certain way and then get rewarded or punished for it. Depending on the outcome, the observer may or may not choose to behave in the same way as the model.

226
Q

What is elaboration likelyhood model?

A

It define two routes of persuasion:
Central route (focusing on logical content for the message) is most effective when the audience is motivated by the message
Peripheral route (focusing on superficial characteristics of the message) is more effective when people are not motivated by the message

227
Q

What is cognitive dissonance theory on motivation?

A

People are motivated to think and behave in ways that are cognitively consistent. Divergent thought and or behaviors result in discomfort, motivating them to change their behaviors and or attitudes so they can align. Eg. A person who runs and smokes, would be motivated to quit smoking.

228
Q

How role play effects behaviors!

A

People tend to behave in ways that are consistent with the role they are playing. Role playing effects, most famously demonstrated by the Stanford prison experiment, predict that when individuals are asked to behave in ways that align with an assigned role, they often demonstrate attitude changes.

229
Q

What are cognitive biases?

A

Are irrational thought processes that commonly occur and result in illogical conclusions.
1. Self positivity bias - belief that less vulnerable to negative outcome
2. Optimism bias
3. Actor observer bias - individuals attribute other people’s behavior to internal causes (eg she yelled at her child because she is bad mother) while attributing their own behavior to external causes (eg I yelled at my child because I had a bad day at work)
4. The confirmation bias - tendency to look for information that supports the conclusion one has already reached, ignoring information undermines that conclusion
5. Overconfidence bias- people are sure of their belief is greater than the accuracy of that belief.

230
Q

In distillation why slowly heating is important!

A

So that the molecule with the lowest boiling point can evaporate before the molecules with higher BP.

231
Q

How does base mediated ester hydrolysis work?

A

It is known as saponification and begins by the addition of hydroxide to the carbonyl, creating a tetrahedral intermediate. The reaction forms carboxylic acid and alcohol

232
Q

Triacylglycerols are composed of same fatty acyl groups?

A

They are composed of three fatty acyl groups bonded to glycerol through ester linkages. Basic hydrolysis of the ester linkage releases three FA salts and glycerol. The number of unique FA salts released depends on composition of the hydrocarbon tails on the fatty acyl groups

233
Q

What are the steps in activation of B lymphocytes by helper T cells?

A
  1. Pathogens binds to B lymphocytes receptor, is endocytized, and presented in MHC II
  2. Helper T cell binds foreign antigen and release cytokines that activate the B lymphocytes.
  3. Activated B lymphocytes divides into many clones that differentiate into plasma cells or memory cells.
234
Q

What is humoral immunity?

A

Is an antibody immune response,
Is driven by B lymphocytes that secretes antibodies which circulate throughout the blood and lymph, binding foreign antigens and marking them for destruction by other immune cells. Mature B lymphocytes are inactive until their receptors bind a specific foreign antigen.

235
Q

What is Cori cycle?

A

During anaerobic exercise, pyruvate is reduced to lactate to regenerate NAD+.
Lactate that builds up in the muscles is sent to the the liver; where is converted back to glucose and returned to muscles. This process is called cori cycle.

236
Q

Why tile Feels colder than carpet in a room that has same temperature?

A

The rate of heat transfer through conduction depends on the thermal conductivity of a substance. Objects at the same temperature but with different thermal conductivity are perceived to be different temperatures. Tile Feels colder because it has high thermal conductivity than carpet.

237
Q

Why protons on alpha carbon is more acidic?

A

Alpha carbon (carbon adjacent to carbonyl) are more acidic than other protons bonded to a carbon because they are electron deficient and can be abstracted by a base to yield an anion. The charge is delocalized to form a more stable resonant structure known as an enolate.

238
Q

Characteristics of Kinetic product of Aldol condensation?

A

Kinetic enolates require low activation energy and for rapidly under low temperature and bulky base (eg LDA) reactions conditions. And it involves the deprotonation of less substituted alpha carbon.

239
Q

Steps of base catalyzed aldol condensation?

A
  1. Formation of an enolate
  2. Nucleophilic addition to a carbonyl
  3. Protonation
  4. Acid or base catalyzed dehydration to form an alpha, beta unsaturated carbonyl.
240
Q

Thermodynamic aldol reaction favors?

A

Higher temperature with smaller base eg NaH, would lead to deprotonation of the more substituted alpha carbon.

241
Q

What are the four oxidative steps of citric acid cycle?

A

Citric acid cycle is an oxidative process.
1. Isocitrate to alpha ketoglutarate CO2 leaves. One NADH is produced
2. Alpha ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA. CO2 leaves, one NADH is produced.
3. Succinate to fumarate, produces FADH2
4. Malate to oxaloacetate, NADH is produced.

242
Q

Roles strain vs role conflict?

A

Role strain occurs when single role involves multiple competing expectations which produce tension. Eg physician instructor who struggles to balance patient care and student instruction.
Role conflict occurs when 2 or more roles simultaneously held by an individual compete, producing tension. A physician who reduces patient load because she feels tension between her career, to her children or family.

243
Q

What are mechanical waves

A

Eg sounds waves, waves on a string are perturbations created by oscillations in a medium such as air or a string. When a wave moves from one medium to another, the amplitude and wavelength change but the frequency of the wave remains constant.

244
Q

What is intelligence?

A

Is the ability to learn and apply new information and skills, adapt to the environment and reason through complex situations

245
Q

What is fluid intelligence?

A

Is the ability to use logic and creativity to solve novel problems and identify in new situations. It is thought to peek in early adulthood and decline with age

246
Q

What is crystallized intelligence?

A

Is the ability to apply skills and knowledge that have already been learned. It is thought to increase with age

247
Q

What is selective attention?

A

Is the ability to focus on one stream of information while ignoring other stimuli

248
Q

What is divided attention?

A

Is the ability to attent to more than one stimulus or task at a time.

249
Q

What are the three steps of memory?

A

Encoding storage and retrieval

250
Q

What are the three types of retrieval processes?

A

Recall, recognition, and relearning

251
Q

What memories are decline with age and what memories don’t?

A

Decline with age: episodic, flashbulb, source
Don’t: semantic and procedural

252
Q

What is anterograde amnesia vs retrograde amnesia?

A

Anterograde: is a form of pathological memory loss in which a person cannot form new memories after the incident that caused the amnesia.
Retrograde: is a form of pathological memory loss in which a person cannot access memories that were encoded before the incident that caused the amnesia.

253
Q

What is mechaelis menten equation?

A

Vo=Vmax [S]\Km+[S]

254
Q

Mass is intensive vs extensive property?

A

Intensive properties that belong to the sample or substance itself, regardless of amount. Eg density; temperature, specific heat capacity
Extensive properties that depend on the amount of sample or substance available eg mass and volume, heat; heat capacity

255
Q

Km and Vmax intensive or extensive properties?

A

Km is intensive, doesn’t vary with the amount of enzyme present.
Vmax is extensive, does vary on the amount of enzyme present.

256
Q

What is an intermediate in a reaction?

A

Is a transient chemical species that is formed in one elementary step and consumed in a subsequent step. They don’t appear as reactants or products in overall reaction (net)

257
Q

When Sn2 reaction fastest!

A
  1. For less sterically hindered carbon.
  2. Requires strong nucleophile and will attack the most sterically accessible carbon atom that contains a Good LG.
  3. Polar aprotic solvents often used to promote Sn2 reactions. Polar aprotic solvents contain polar functional groups that lack the ability to hydrogen bond.
    Eg acetone, acentonitrile, dimethylsulfoxide. DMF etc
258
Q

How Walden inversion is effected during Sn2 reaction?

A

In an Sn2 reaction, Walden inversion occurs only at the carbon (chiral) that is attacked by the nucleophile. Other chiral carbon atoms are not effected by it. If attacked carbon is achirel, it is not effected

259
Q

What is latent heat!

A

Is the amount of heat 1 mole of a substance must absorb (or release) to produce a change in phase (eg solid to liquid, gas to liquid) while maintaining constant temperature.

260
Q

What are the three main types of organization?

A
  1. Normative - people voluntarily unite based on shared values and or goals. Eg sororities, church members
  2. Utilitarian -members are compensated for their involvements, typically through money eg paid employment or certification/diploma Eg university students
  3. Coercive eg prisoners, military service members
261
Q

What steps are necessary for long fatty acids to get into inner mitochondrial membrane?

A
  1. Activation, in the cytosol, the enzyme acyl CoA synthetase catalyzes the rxn of FA with coenzyme A to form acylCoA molecule. This needs ATP hydrolysis
  2. Acyl CoA migrate to intermembrane space where they can react with carnitine to form acylcarnitine. The transport protein acylcarnitine translocase located on the inner mitochondrial membrane carries into the mitochondrial matrix
  3. Acylcarnitine is then converted back to acyl CoA (digested by beta oxidation) and carnitine (transported out of the matrix)
262
Q

What happens in Sn1 reaction?

A

It occurs in 2 steps. First a carbocation intermediate is formed when the bond between the leaving group and adjoining carbon atom is broken. Next the nucleophile adds to the carbocation to form the reaction product. Substrates that form a more stable carbocation react faster

263
Q

What tertiary alcohol can’t be oxidized.

A

Oxidation requires a decrease in CH bond and increase in C-O bonds. Primary and secondary alcohols can be oxidized to carboxylic acid and ketones. But tertiary alcohols cant oxidized because it doesn’t have CH bonds to lose

264
Q

What is common sense view of emotion suggests?

A

Emotion is experienced first followed by physiological and behavioral events. We see something scary and feel scared and then break into a cold sweat. It is opposite of James Lange theory of emotion

265
Q

What is James Lange theory of emotion suggest?

A

Emotion occurs after a physiological response. We see something scary which causes physiological response then causes brain to register the associated emotion. I am afraid because my heart is pounding

266
Q

What is schachter singer theory of emotions suggest?

A

Emotion is result of physiological arousal and cognitive appraisals. My pounding heart signifies fear because I have appraised the as dangerous

267
Q

What are the parts of brain involved in limbic system?

A

The limbic system is a network of brain regions involved in emotion, learning and memory. Includes amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus and cingulate gyrus.

268
Q

What is hypothalamus’s role in limbic system?

A

Is responsible for primarily for the physiological component of emotion such as changes in heart or respiratoration rate by regulating the pituitary gland and the automatic nervous system

269
Q

What is mirror neurons?

A

Are the type of neuron that fires when an individual both observes and performs a behavior, they may play a central role in observational learning and experience of vicarious emotion

270
Q

What is vicarious emotion?

A

Occur when an observer intuits the feeling that another might be experiencing. They are thought to be have evolved to help individuals relate to and understand one another through shared emotional expression.

271
Q

What happens in inspiration of breathing?

A

During inspiration the diaphragm contracts ( moves downward), expanding the thoracic cavity and reducing intra pulmonary pressure. This causes king to expand. As lung volume increases, intra pulmonary pressure drops below the atmospheric pressure and air flows from atmospheric (higher) pressure into lungs (lower pressure)

272
Q

What are the three different cartilage types and it’s roles?

A
  1. Hyaline - reduces friction between bony structures to facilitate joint movements. Allow linear bone growth at the epiphyseal plate in childhood. Reinforces respiratory Passageways. Supports the external nose.
  2. Elastic - highly flexible, withstand distortion without damage and reverts to its original shares eg external ear
  3. Fibrous - limits movement, resists compression forces and stretch.prevents direct contact between bones eg between vertebrae of the spine
273
Q

What are the functions of ligament and tendon?

A

Ligaments and tendons are rope like dense connective tissue structures. Ligaments attach bones to other bones whereas tendons generally attach bones to surrounding muscles

274
Q

Differences between delta G and standard condition va delta G at physiological conditions

A

Delta G=delta D standard +RTlnQ
Standard condition is 1M all reactants pH 7. The equation shows that delta G physiological varies with the concentrations of the reactants and products involved. Changing concentration of products and reactants can shift reactions in the forward or reverse direction and the delta G will change to reflect the new equilibrium even if the delta G standard is not spontaneous

275
Q

What are the major sociological approaches to aging?

A
  1. Activity - remaining physically and socially active improves quality of life for older adults
  2. Continuity- older adults attempts to maintain the habits and behaviors from their youth
  3. Disengagement- older adults withdraw from social relationships/society as society withdraws from them
  4. Life course- aging viewed holistically in terms of social, biological, cultural and psychological contexts.
276
Q

What is dependency ratio formula?

A

Dependency ratio= (#child) +(#retired dependents)/(#people in workforce) time 100%
Child- people under age 15
Retired -over 64

277
Q

What is malthusian theory?

A

Population growth is exponential but resource growth is linear. When population outgrow available resources, preventable checks decrease the birth rate and positive checks increase the death rate. Malthusian catastrophes are large scale positive checks (war, disease epidemics)

278
Q

What are the different fertility rate measurements?

A
  1. Total fertility rate- is the average number of children born per woman during her lifetime
  2. The crude birth rate- refers to number of live births per year for every 1000 people in population (regardless of sex)
  3. General fertility rate - total number of live births per year for every 1000 women of childbearing age in a population
  4. Age specific fertility rate -number of live births per year for 1000 women in a certain age group in a population
279
Q

In HPLC, longer retention time indicates? (Mobile phase is hexane)

A

Compounds with longer retention times have a greater affinity for the stationary phase and lower affinity for the mobile phase

280
Q

Formula for resistors in series vs parallel?

A

Resistors in series: Req=R1+R2+…
Resistors in parallel: 1/Req=1/R1+1/R2…

281
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

Pressure that caused by the weight of static fluid molecules within a column of fluid. The magnitude of hydrostatic pressure depends on density of fluid, acceleration of gravity, and height of the fluid. Unrelated to the container shape. 1atm is 760nnhg

282
Q

What is positive reinforcement Do?

A

Occurs when a desirable stimulus is presented to encourage behavior.

283
Q

What does negative reinforcement do?

A

Undesirable stimulus taken away to encourage behavior
Eg teenager doesn’t have to do chores after getting all As

284
Q

What is positive punishment do?

A

Undesirable stimulus added to discourage behavior
Eg toddler gets spanked for running into the street

285
Q

What does negative punishment do?

A

Desirable stimulus is taken away to discourage behavior
Eg teenager gets grounded for getting bad grades

286
Q

What is Primary reinforcers?

A

Fulfill a biological urge and Are naturally rewarding. Eg food, comforting physical contact and praise.

287
Q

What is secondary reinforcers

A

Are not inherently rewarding but are conditioned to be desirable through associative learning. Eg if a child brings home good grade, the parent may reinforce this behavior with praise or candy (primary reinforcers) the child feels happy. The child then associate feeling good with good grades resulting grade becoming a secondary reinforcer

288
Q

What is primary punishers?

A

Are naturally undesirable and cause negative emotions such as pain or fear. Eg electric shock or loud noise.

289
Q

What is secondary punishers

A

Are not inherently negative but are conditioned to be undesirable through associative learning. For example if child bring home bad grades parents may punish this behavior by scolding ( primary punishers) so the child feels bad. The child then associates feeling bad with bad grades, resulting in grades becoming a secondary punisher

290
Q

What is electromotive force?

A

Is the energy per unit of charge that is supplied by a battery or other generator to move charge through a circuit. In principle it is equal to the observed terminal voltage E=V however in real systems it is not perfectly efficient and as result internal resistance dissipate some of the electric potential energy. Vloss=IR
V=E-Vloss

291
Q

What is considered to be operating at Vmax?

A

When the substrate bound to every enzyme active site in solution. In michaeli menten graph, [S] is significantly larger than [E] at every [S] measured. However, Vmax occurs only when the concentration of substrate [S] is high enough that all enzyme active site are bound

292
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

Occurs when the likelyhood of an individual repeating a behavior is influenced by the outcome of that behavior ( reinforcement or punishment)

293
Q

What is the structure of fatty acids?

A

Are Made up of nonpolar hydrocarbon chain with polar carboxyl head group and can be classified as either saturated or unsaturated. Free FA are usually not
Found in blood plasma but rather exist as derivative such as triacylglyceride or phospholipid. Hydrolysis of those releases free FAs.

294
Q

What is triacylglycerols made up of?

A

Three fatty acids (can be different each of them) and glycerol molecule connected through ester linkages. Hydrolysis releases FA and glycerol

295
Q

What is saponification?

A

Is the hydrolysis of an ester with strong base. It hydrolyze triacylglycerols into free FA as (sodium salts)and glycerol.

296
Q

What is peptidoglycan? How is it connected to cell wall?

A

Regardless of classification (eukaryotic or prokaryotes) all cells are surrounded by a plasma membrane. In addition to this membrane, some cell types have cell wall. Nearly all prokaryotes have cell wall but only some eukaryotic cells do. Major component of cell walls in bacteria is peptidoglycan. All eukaryotic cells lack peptidoglycan even if they have a cell walls.

297
Q

Is bacteria cells prokaryotic or eukaryotic?

A

All bacteria are prokaryotic

298
Q

How covalent bonds share their electrons?

A

The type of bond formed between two atoms depends on the relative difference in EN between them. Atoms with large difference in EN (usually a metal and a nonmetal) form ionic bonds. Atoms with a small difference in EN (usually two nonmetals) form covalent bonds.

299
Q

What are the two types of sleep wake disorders?

A
  1. Parasomnias -
    More common in children, involves an oral function the nervous system during sleep, falling sleep or when rousing from sleep. Common examples: somnambulism (sleep walking), and night terrors
  2. Dyssomnias-
    More common in adults, involve interference with the quality or timing of sleep. Common examples insomnia, sleep apnea, narcolepsy ( extreme daytime sleepiness)
300
Q

What is the role of suprachiasmatic nucleus?

A

The hypothalamus has several nuclei (collections of neuronal cell bodies) that have specialized functions, one of them is suprachiasmatic nucleus which regulates the circadian pacemaker that controls circadian rhythms.

301
Q

What are the stages of George Herbert Mead’s theory of the social self?

A
  1. Preparatory - infancy and toddler, imitation- often lacks understanding
  2. Play - preschool age, role taking- taking on role of specific others
  3. Game - school age, generalized other - understanding all roles and overarching rules.
    I - preparatory and game stage
    Me- game stage
302
Q

What is longitudinal studies?

A

Involve collecting date over a period of time. It can be either experimental or observational.

303
Q

What is ethnographic studies!

A

Use observation and interview to qualitatively study people with their own communities and provide descriptive information about their cultures, behaviors, norms and values.

304
Q

What is cross sectional study?

A

Is an observational study that measures a variable in a population or sub population at one time point

305
Q

What is randomized controlled trail?

A

Randomly sorts subjects into treatment and control groups

306
Q

What is life course approach.

A

Is a holistic, multidisciplinary framework for understanding how psychological, biological, and socialcultural factors across lifetime have a cumulative effect on health outcome. This perspective considers how personal life events (eg illness in infancy), individual choices/behaviors (eg having unprotected sex) and socialcultural and historical context (eg being born during wartime) impact health and illness.

307
Q

What is sick role theory?

A

Is a functionalist approach describing how distraction to typical social activity (eg work) caused by illness is minimized through the sick role, which legitimize illness as socially acceptable deviance.

308
Q

What is illness experience perspective?

A

Is a symbolic interactionist approach to understanding how people incorporate and make sense of illness as part of their self identity and daily routine

309
Q

How does monosaccharides can be classified?

A

By the number of carbons they contain. Eg pentose, hexose. Also they are classified by the position of the anomeric carbon. When the anemoric carbon is on carbon 1, the linear form of the sugar contains aldehyde group. (Aldoses). When anomeric carbon is at carbon 2; the linear form of the sugar contains ketone. And sugar is ketose.
Note: six carbon sugar can change from five membered ring to six membered ring, hexose name is not changing, only it changes from furanose to pyranose

310
Q

Sound travels faster or slower in warmer
Temperature?

A

The speed of waves is determined by the physical properties of the medium through which they travel. For example the speed of sound waves depends on temperature of the medium. Sound travels faster in warmer air and slower in cooler air.

311
Q

Energy of the wave is related to the wave’s…?

A

Intensity and loudness.
But not the wave’s frequency. Dissipation of energy doesn’t effect the frequency of a wave.

312
Q

What is passive transport and its kinds?

A

Solutes move from area or higher to low concentration, no energy required.
1. Simple diffusion
2. Facilitated transport - large, polar solutes transported across membrane with the help for protein carrier

313
Q

What is active transport and its kinds?

A

Solutes move from area of low to high concentration, energy required
1. Primary - solutes transported across membrane using energy from ATP hydrolysis
2. Secondary - solutes transported across membrane using energy released by another solute going down its concentration gradients

314
Q

What is vacuum distillation used for?

A

Is performed under reduced pressure, lowering compound’s boiling point relative to its boiling point at atmospheric pressure. It is ideal for compounds with a BP above 150C to prevent degradation

315
Q

What is the principal behind gas liquid chromatography?

A

Is a technique that separates compounds based on BP. Compounds with low BP have shorter retention time. BP of similar number of carbon, BP deepen on the functional group and the strength of intermolecular forces present.

316
Q

What is internal and external factors influence gene expression?

A

In multicellular organisms many distinctive cell types must be formed from a single Celled zygote. During development both external ( eg secreted signals, environmental cues) and internal factors (eg chromatin remodeling; DNA methylation, asymmetric distribution of cellular components) influence gene expression in a differential manner which culminates in the differentiation of cells into a variety of cell types.

317
Q

What is long term potentiation?

A

Describes the neural changes responsible for learning, memory, and associations. LTP occurs when a neuron’s firing rate increases after repeated stimulation or simultaneous stimulation by multiple input (association). LTP result from an increase in neurotransmitter release and postsynaptic receptors.

318
Q

What is Neuroplasticity!

A

Refers to physical changes that occur in the brain throughout a lifetime including both increasing (potentiation) and decreases (depression) in neural responses/connections. Neuroplasticity occurs through physical modifications at the synapses (immediate and delayed plasticity) and the structural level (delayed plasticity only)

319
Q

How does synaptic plasticity changes?

A

It results from changes in the firing rate of the presynaptic neuron which alters the amount of neurotransmitter released into the synaptic cleft and the number of receptors on the postsynaptic target. The changes can be immediate or delayed in potentiation or depression. At the structural level it can change through sprouting (increased connections between neurons), rerouting ( new connection between neurons) and pruning ( decreased connection between neurons) which contribute to structural plasticity

320
Q

What is ablation?

A

Remove or destruction of tissue

321
Q

What happens when ablate hippocampus?

A

Produces anterograde amnesia, the inability to form new memories. However bilateral hippocampal ablation would also result in some degree of retrograde amnesia and the inability to recall memories that were previously encoded. The hippocampus controls memory consolidation

322
Q

Types of memory

A
  1. Sensory: auditory (few seconds) visual (iconic), less than a second
  2. Short term memory: 20 sec, 7-+2 items
  3. Long term memory: lifetime, unlimited
    Long term has:
    A. Explicit/ declarative memory - episodic (experiences, events) semantic -(facts, concepts)
    B. Implicit/non declarative memory - procedural (skills and tasks), emotional/ reflexive
323
Q

Celebellum is responsible for?

A

Is central to motor learning; maintaining balance and posture, coordinating complex movements and controlling precision of fine motor movements. The cerebellum doesn’t initiate voluntary movement which occurs in the primary motor cortex of the frontal lobe. However the cerebellum is critical for most other aspects of motor planning and execution

324
Q

What is major function of parietal lobe?

A

Processes spatial information (proprioception) and is responsible for cognitive mapping, our ability to represent mentally the spatial relationships concerning things in our environment. Also somatosensation

325
Q

What is main function of frontal lobe?

A

Executive functions. Active manipulation of information involved in reasoning and problem solving (known as working memory) and the initiation of voluntary motor movements

326
Q

What is the main functions of temporal lobe?

A

Learning, memory and auditory processing

327
Q

What is difference between hydrolyzable vs non hydrolyzable lipids?

A

Hydrolyzable -lipid contains hydrolyzable ester or amide linkages
Eg: phospholipids, glycerolipids, sphingolipids (amide linkage), waxes
Non hydrolyzable-don’t have those linkages. Eg steroids, prostaglandins, fat soluble vitamins.

328
Q

How does gluconeogenesis can happen from noncarbohydrate molecules?

A

The 3 carbon molecules lactate, pyruvate and glycerol (from FA) are gluconeogenuc precursors as Are most amino acids except leucine and lysine

329
Q

What is altruism?

A

Is behavior that benefits others in a group at a potential cost or risk to oneself. It can explained by the theory of inclusive fitness which states that an individual’s genetic success is partially derived from the success of genetic relatives and by Hans theory which evaluates the relative successes of particular behavioral phenotypes such.

330
Q

What is inclusive fitness?

A

Is sum of its direct fitness (own reproduction) and indirect fitness (cooperative behavior that aids kin).

331
Q

Name the different phase changes and its opposite

A

Solid to liquid -fusion, opposite is freezing
Liquid to gas - vaporization opposite is condensation
Gas to solid- deposition, opposite is sublimation

332
Q

What are the main types of thermodynamic systems?

A

Open
Closed - allows heat exchange but not matter
Isolated - don’t allow exchange of heat or matter. Calorimetry device is one example

333
Q

How dilution factors can be calculated?

A

Dilutions are performed to decrease the concentration of a solution when small amounts is needed. A small volume of concentrated solution Vt is transferred to certain solvent Vs so final V is sum of those two. Dilution factor can be determined from ratio of Vf and Vt
Vf= Vt +Vs
DF=Vf/Vt in single step, multiple step keep multiplying the each ratios from each dilution.

334
Q

What are the major psychotherapeutic approaches?

A
  1. Cognitive behavioral therapy
  2. Psychoanalytic therapy
  3. Humanistic therapy (person centered therapy)
335
Q

What does cognitive behavioral therapy do?

A

Attempts to change negative thoughts/beliefs (cognitions) and maladaptive behaviors.
Uses various techniques (desensitization, self talk) used to replace destructive thoughts/behaviors with healthy ones.

336
Q

What does psychoanalytic therapy (talk therapy) do?

A

Attempts to uncover how unconscious conflicts rooted in childhood shapes behaviors.
Various techniques ( eg free association, dream analysis) used to analyze unconscious

337
Q

What does humanistic therapy (person centered therapy) do?

A

Attempt to empower individual to lobe toward self-actualization.
Unconditional positive regard and empathy used to encourage client to reach full potential.

338
Q

What is Thomas theorem suggests?

A

It predicts that an individual’s response or reaction to a situation is the result of her interpretation of the situation. In other words, our actions are based on our perception of reality.

339
Q

What is yerkes-dodson law suggests?

A

There is an optimal level of psychological or mental arousal at which performance is maximized, performance will decline with too little or too much arousal. For example, athletes tend to perform best when nervous but not too much.

340
Q

What is Hawthorne effect describe?

A

Experimental subjects modifying their behavior or responses because they know they are being observed

341
Q

What is general adaptation syndrome describes?

A

Proposed by Hans Seyle, describes how the body reacts to stress that is acute or long lasting. There are three stages of stress response:
1. alarm stage - first few minutes of stress response. Sympathetic Nervous system prepares the body to act.
2. Resistance stage - can last for hours days or even months. During this stage Body attempts to resist or address the stressor. Body attempts to establish new equilibrium.
3. Exhaustion stage - state of arousal but with depleted energy. During this stage, chronic diseases can develop. The body is no longer able to resist the impact of stressors.

342
Q

What is the three components of attitude?

A

Attitude refers to a person’s evaluation or disposition toward something.
Components:
1. Affective - how a person feels about something. Eg I hate x candidate
2. Cognitive- person’s beliefs, thoughts, opinions about something. Eg I think candidate Y is qualified.
3. Behavioral- how person acts toward something. Eg voting for candidate Y

343
Q

What is expectancy theory of motivation?

A

Proposes that individuals are motivated to act based on the expected outcomes of their behavior. According to this theory, motivation involves
1. Expectancy - is the belief that one will be able to achieve the desired outcome
2. Instrumentality - is the belief that one has control over the desired outcomeZ
3. Valence - involves the value placed on the desired outcome

344
Q

What is Drive reduction theory proposes?

A

Motivation is a result of a disruption of homeostasis which generates a biological need. The biological need generates a drive to fulfill that need which prompts action. For example, when blood glucose level drop, an organism feels hungry and engages in food seeking behavior.

345
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

Describes feeling of powerlessness and loss of control, often occurring after a series of failures or trauma. Learned helplessness is tied to low self efficacy (personal beliefs about one’s abilities ) and an external locus of control (personal beliefs about whether one can influence the outcome of a situation)

346
Q

What is the wavelength range for visible light spectrum

A

400-750. It is in between infrared and ultraviolet

347
Q

Intensity of light and sound waves is associated with, what can it measure it with?

A

Their brightness or loudness. Is defined as the amount of power (energy per unit time) delivered per unit area. Intensity=power/area=(energy/time)/area

348
Q

What is formules related to electromagnetic radiation!

A

Electromagnetic radiation is propagated by oscillating particles called photons which consists of oscillating electric and magnetic fields. Photons are packets of energy that travel at a constant speed of light (in vacuum). It is characterized by its wavelength and frequency c=wavelength x frequency and the energy of a photon is directly proportional to its frequency and planks constant. E=hf

349
Q

What is homologous chromosome pair?

A

The two homologous chromosomes in a diploid 2n cell each contain alleles for the same genes. During DNA replication it becomes sister chromatids which are identical copies of each homologous chromosome

350
Q

What is ploidy?

A

Refers to the total number of homologous chromosome sets in a cell nucleus. Diploid 2n has sets, triploid has 3n sets etc

351
Q

What Kohlberg proposed a theory of moral development?

A

Pre conventional level (direct consequences to the individual)
morality is externally controlled by punishment (stage 1, obedience & punishment) and reciprocity with other (staged 2 self interest), eg I will help you if you help me
Conventional level (society’s norms and values)
Morality is based on conforming to norms (stage 3 conformity and interpersonal accord) eg I will do homework so the teacher likes me. And obeying the law (stage 4 law and order).
Post conventional level, own ethical principles
Morality is based on social contract (stage 5 social contract) and a personal code of ethics (stage 6 universal ethical principles) Few people achieve this.

Kohlberg posts cum and penis

352
Q

What is identify development theory by James Marcia?

A

Evaluates the psychological progress of individuals based on their level of commitment and degree of development, yielding four identity statues.
1. Diffusion- low commitment, low exploration. At This level, people lack direction haven’t explored options and haven’t committed to particular career path or future
2. Foreclosure - high commitment, low exploration: people accepted an identity that they have been assigned (typically by a parent or authority figure) without contemplation or exploration
3. Moratorium- low commitment, high exploration: still trying new activities and thinking about a career path but haven’t yet arrived at a decision.
4. Achievement- high commitment, high exploration: people at this level have explored their options and typically feel confident about who they are and what they want to do in the future

353
Q

What are the main types of myocytes?

A
  1. Skeletal muscle
  2. Cardiac muscle
  3. Smooth muscle
354
Q

What are characteristics of skeletal muscle cell?

A

Long, cylindrical fibers that each possess many nuclei. Contain sarcomeres, striated appearance. Lack gap junctions, electrically isolated from one another

355
Q

What are the characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?

A

Short, branched cells with one or two nuclei. Possess sarcomeres = striated appearance. Connected to adjacent cells via intercalated discs which contains desmosomes and gap junctions.

356
Q

What are the characteristics of smooth muscle cells?

A

Short, wide in the middle and tapered at each end. Each muscle cell possesses single nucleus. Lack sarcomeres. Possess gap junctions

357
Q

Level of capillary action depends on?

A

Less capillary action: low adhesive, high cohesive forces
More capillary action: High adhesive, low cohesive forces

358
Q

What are the main theories of language development?

A
  1. Learning perspective ( behaviorist theory) learned via operant conditioning and language imitation & practice.
  2. Nativist perspective - innate and biologically predetermined. Occurs during a critical (time sensitive) period early in life.
  3. Interactionist perspective: biological AND social (due to interaction, reinforcement, desire/motivation to communicate)
359
Q

What is cognition?

A

Refers to thought related mental processes (eg thinking, planing, reasoning)

360
Q

What are the major theories that deal with relationship between language and cognition?

A

On the spectrum:
Cognition shapes languages:
Universalism perspective - cognition completely controls language
Or
Piagetian perspective- cognition influences language
Language shapes cognition (aka Sapir-Whorf hypothesis):
Linguistic determinism perspective- completely controls cognition
Or
Linguistic relativity perspective- language influences cognition
In between those two extremities:
Vygotsky: language and thought develop independently and simultaneously, merging later. Social interactions precedes and it is necessary for both cognition and language development which initially separate but then later merge to generate inner speech (verbal thought)

361
Q

What are the stages of Jean Piaget’s theory of cognitive development?

A
  1. Sensorimotor stage: birth to 2, milestone is object permanence.
    Infants explore the world using their sense and motor movements
  2. Preoperational stage; 2-7, milestone is language.
    Ability to use language and pretend play. Unable to assume the point of view of another person (egocentric). Eg when asked what her dad’s favorite book is, a young girl will often repost her own favorite book.
  3. Concrete operational stage: 7-12, milestone is conservation.
    Think logically about concrete events and learn to classify objects into simple categories
  4. Formal operations stage: 12- adulthood, milestone is abstract logic/reasoning.
362
Q

What is critical period of language development?

A

It suggests that there is a time sensitive period early in life during which language acquisition is easier (with proper exposure) as compared to the period afterward. Age 0-18?
The nativist theory of language asserts that humans are biologically programmed to acquire language and will learn whatever language languages they are exposed to during the critical period.

363
Q

Formula for power?

A

P=W/t=F*v
v-velocity

364
Q

What are the main 2 categories for bias in scientific research?

A
  1. Bias on part of the study: experimental bias, sampling bias and question-order bias
  2. Bias on the party of the subjects:
    Response bias, social desirability bias, Hawthorne effect.
365
Q

What is social desirability bias

A

Describes the tendency of research participants to provide the most favorable or acceptable responses to research questions. Participants may overemphasize positive behaviors while downplaying or underreporting undesirable behaviors

366
Q

What is experimenter bias?

A

Occurs when researchers deliberately or inadvertently influence the result. Often this bias lead to result that confirm what the researcher was expecting

367
Q

What is the difference between explicit/declarative VS implicit/nondeclarative memories?

A

Explicit memory is memory for facts and events that can be consciously or intentionally recalled, including semantic and episodic memory (personal experiences)
Implicit memories is memory for things that can’t be consciously recalled, such as skills, tasks, emotions and reflexes

368
Q

List of heaviest to lightest deoxyribonucleotides?

A

Heaviest: guanosine,
Adenosine
Thymidine
Lightest; cystidine

369
Q

What is ideal fluid?

A

No viscosity (no tendency to resist flow l), laminar flow, Incompressible (uniform density)

370
Q

What is pascal’s law states?

A

External pressure applied to an ideal fluid is uniformly transmitted to all regions of the fluid. As a result, the ratios of any force and the area to which it is applied must be equal.
P=F/A
F1/A1=F2/A2

371
Q

Visible light postion and their wavelengths?

A

ROY G BIV (750-400)

372
Q

How conjugation and HOMO-LUMO energy gap relate?

A

Conjugation decreases the size of the HOMO-LUMO energy gap and leads to absorption photons with a lower energy

373
Q

What is the base peak in mass spectrometry represent?

A

Base peak is the highest abundance peak which corresponds to the cation with the greatest stability and or relative rate of formation and it can provide structural clues toward the identity of the original molecule.

374
Q

What is the peak with highest m/z value represent in mass spectrometry?

A

Is normally molecular ion which is the original molecule less of mass of one electron

375
Q

What is peroxisomes do!

A

Are small organelles specialized to facilitate certain oxidation reduction reactions involving peroxides as well as the metabolism of specific lipids. In addition, reactions in peroxisomes can facilitate detoxification of harmful substances within cells

376
Q

What is transcription factor?

A

Are proteins that influence transcription by binding to specific DNA sequences in the promoter region for target gene. They bind those specific DNA sequence with much greater affinity than other stretches of DNA and such binding can facilitate transcription in which case the TF is called activator. In other cases TF binding can repress transcription in which case TF is referred as a repressor

377
Q

What is operant conditioning

A

Is a type of learning that occurs when the likelihood of an organism repeating a behavior is influenced by the outcome of that behavior (eg reward or punishment).

378
Q

What is acquisition and extinction are in classical conditioning?

A

In classical conditioning, the strength of the conditioned response tends to follow a characteristic pattern over time:
1. Acquisition- refers to the learning that takes place as an association is formed between unconditioned stimulus and the neutral stimulus
2. Extinction - occurs when a conditioned response gradually stops occurring in absence of the unconditioned stimulus
3. Spontaneous recovery - occurs when an extinct response reappears after a period of time

379
Q

What is capacitor, it’s related formula?

A

Is a common component of electrical circuits that stores electric charge between equally but oppositely charged conductive surfaces (plates) separated by a fixed distance (d). Capacitors generate electric potential (voltage) by storing charges. The quantity of charge stored by a capacitor is a product of capacitance (capacitor strength) and the voltage generated by charge storage.
Q=VC

380
Q

What is difference between state dependent vs context dependent memory effect?

A

State dependent memory effect occurs when it is easier to retrieve a memory while in the same mood as when the memory was encoded. Context dependent memory effect occur when it is easier to retrieve a memory while in the same physical environment as when the memory was encoded

381
Q

In age related cognitive effects in older adults, what are the things that decline vs remains stable?

A

Declines:
1. Episodic memory
2. Fluid intelligence (ability to creatively solve new problems and see new patterns)
Remain stable:
1. Semantic memory and procedural memory
2. Crystallized intelligence (ability to apply established skills and knowledge)

382
Q

What is the pattern for normal memory decay of learning?

A

The initial rate of decay is highest right after material is first learned, then plateaus one time unless the material is reviewed.

383
Q

What is the main difference between James Lange theory of emotion and schachter-singer theory?

A

James Lange theory suggests that the physiological response elicited by a stimulus produces emotion. Schachter singer theory is similar expect for an additional component of cognitive interpretation of the psychological response. This addresses the major limitation of James Lange theory which is the fact that most emotions correspond with nearly identical psychological responses.
Canon bard theory suggests that psychological and emotional responses occur simultaneously and independently

384
Q

What is limbic system consists of?

A

The limbic system is a network of brain regions that are involved in emotion, learning and memory. It is composed of Amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, thalamus, Cingulate gyrus

385
Q

What is amygdala’s role?

A

Is a small, almond shaped structure located deep within the temporal lobe on both sides of the brain. It functions in the processing of primal emotions (eg fear, anger, sexual arousal) and the encoding of other emotionally charged memories. It plays key role in fear conditioning.

386
Q

What is the main role of basal ganglia?

A

Contain a high concentration of dopamine producing neurons, the function of which it to produce smooth, purposeful movements and inhibit excessive movement. Loss of dopamine producing neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia results in the characteristic resting tremor seen in Parkinson disease

387
Q

What are the three components of human emotion?

A
  1. Cognitive - mental processing accompanying an emotion and involved in appraisal of the situation. Examples; thoughts, belief, expectations and rationalization
  2. Behavioral- immediate outward reaction to an emotion that is involuntary and automatic. Examples smiling, gasping
  3. Physiological- bodily processes that accompany an emotion. Examples: heart rate changes, respiration rate changes and sweating
388
Q

What is Kirchhoff’s junction rule?

A

Junctions are points in a circuit where three or more circuit elements are connected. According to Kirchhoff’s law, the sum of all currents entering a junction equal the sum of all currents exiting that junction Iexit.
I enter=I exit

389
Q

What are the major personality theories?

A
  1. Psychoanalytic -unconscious conflicts between impulses and social restraints
  2. Trait - consistent and enduring personality dispositions
  3. Humanistic - inner drive toward growth and self actualization
  4. Behavioral- learning from the environment
  5. Social cognitive- cognitive expectations and social learning/modeling
  6. Biological - genetic predispositions, brain structure/function, evolution
390
Q

What is trait theory on personality?

A

Personality is the result of a combination of traits are relatively stable over time. This theory doesn’t account for external influences or personality or for the reasons underlying personality traits.
Major trait theorists:
Allport - trait theory, cardinal, central and secondary traits.
Cattel- 16personality factors
Eysenck - PEN theory, (psychosis, extraversion, neuroticism)
Costa& McCrae- big five or five factor model. Openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

391
Q

What is neuroticism of big five personality traits measure?

A

Neuroticism or emotional instability is characterized by a tendency to experience or express negative emotions (anxiety, anger, fear, sadness). Individual who score high on this tend to find common challenges (eg getting flat tire) hopelessly difficult and are more easily agitated by stressors.

392
Q

What is sigmund Freud’s take on personality?

A

Personality results from the interaction between the id, ego, and superego. The id is selfish, compelling us to seek pleasure and avoid pain. The ego is realistic, compelling us to behave in ways that are socially acceptable and acts as a mediator between the id and superego. Superego is moralistic and idealistic, compelling us toward perfection.

393
Q

What kind of methods cognitive behavioral therapy uses?

A

Classical and operant conditioning, observational learning and cognitive therapy to treat varies concerns including phobias, anxiety, and maladaptive personality traits. Employ various techniques including:
desensitization,
rewarding healthy behaviors,
observing others and
challenging and replacing maladaptive self talk

394
Q

What are the major defense mechanisms in psychoanalytic theory?

A

Defense mechanisms are largely unconscious means of dealing with anxiety or stress, often through distorting or ignoring aspects of reality.
1. Projection - attributing one’s unacceptably thoughts/behaviors to someone or something else. Eg calling the sidewalk stupid after tripping
2. Regression- behaving as if much younger to avoid unacceptable thoughts/behaviors. Eg moving back in with parents to avoid adulthood stress.
3. Displacement- taking out unacceptable thoughts/behaviors on safe target. Eg punching a pillow when angry about being fired
4. Sublimation - transforming unacceptable thoughts/behaviors to acceptable thoughts/behaviors. Eg taking up boxing as a hobby to vent anger

395
Q

What is power and its formula that is related to electric potent in energy for charge flowing in a circuit?

A

P=IV
Ohms law: V=IR
P=V(squired)/R

396
Q

What are the current and voltage in parallel circuit?

A

Same voltage through battery and resistors.
Isum=I1+I2 etc

397
Q

What is difference between Sn1 and Sn2 mechanism when it comes to stereospecificity?

A

Sn1 reaction occurs in two steps and is NOT steriospecific whereas Sn2 reactions occur in a single step and is stereospecific. In Sn1, nucleophile can add to either the top or bottom of the planar carbocation,
Leading formation of two products. In Sn2, nucleophile always attacks on the side opposite the leaving group (backside) causing inversion, forms only one product

398
Q

What are the ligand gated ion channels, how it works?

A

They are membrane proteins that facilitate the movement of ions across the membrane. These proteins are closed at rest, with the passage of ions blocked by a closed gate. Presence of agonist, which binds to proteins as ligands in order to activate them, induces confirmational changes that results in opening of the gate and the passage of ions through the proteins themselves

399
Q

What is formula for delta G?

A

Delta G=G products - G reactants
Spontaneous reactions have a lower free energy than the reactants. The lowest free energy is found at the end of a spontaneous event or chain of events

400
Q

What is anabolic processes? What energy it uses?

A

Is the synthesis of complex biological molecules from complex constituents and it requires energy input. Energy provided by cleaving high energy phosphodiester bonds in nucleotide triphosphates such as ATP, GTP or UTP. These cleavage events either release the gamma phosphate as inorganic phosphate or they release the gamma and beta phosphate as pyrophosphate. Alpha phosphate remains attached to the NTP. Three phosphate on NTP designated as the alpha phosphate being linked to the nucleoside and gamma phosphate being farthest away from nucleoside.

401
Q

During alpha and beta decay, how the number of protons and neutrons change?

A

Alpha decay- ejects two protons, and two neutrons bound together as an alpha particle (helium nucleus)
Original atom minus 2 protons and helium
Beta decay -
Beta minus decay -ejects electron, atomic number increases by one
Beta plus decay- ejects positrons, atomic number decreases by one
Electron capture - electron added, atomic number decreased by one

402
Q

What are the different definitions of acids and bases?

A
  1. Arrhenius:
    acid H+ donor
    Base- OH- donor
  2. Brønsted-Lowry:
    Acid H+ donor
    Base H+ acceptor
  3. Lewis:
    Acid electron acceptor
    Base electron donor
403
Q

What is gravitational potential energy
And it’s formula?

A

Is energy that is stored based on an object’s position relative to a referenced point within gravitational field. It is Often referred as the energy of position.
Solids: PE=mgh
Fluids: PE/volume=densitygh

404
Q

How many NAD+ is consumed in glycolysis?

A

Glycolysis consumes 2 NAD+ to produce two NADH and two pyruvate. (In cystosol)
Additional two is required to convert the pyruvate to acetyl CoA (in mitochondria)

405
Q

What is imine and how it can be made?

A

An imine is an analogue of ketones and aldehydes that contains a carbon nitrogen double bond. Imines are formed ketone or aldehyde and NH3 or primary amine via an acid catalyzed addition of the amine followed by an acid catalyzed dehydration.

406
Q

How strecker synthesis used to make alpha amino acids?

A

From aldehyde using NH3 and KCN. First step is Protonation of the carbonyl oxygen by H3O+ followed by nucleophilic attack of the carbonyl carbon by NH3 resulting in dehydration and imine formation. Then hydration, followed by nuclepphilic attack from CN-, then Protonation by H3O+

407
Q

What is monoamine hypotheses?

A

Is a biomedical model of depression. Central to this hypothesis is the idea that depletion of monoamine neurotransmitters in the central nervous system directly causes depression symptoms. The monoamines are serotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrine, the have a single amine group in their molecular structure and are associated with emotion regulation

408
Q

What is parkinson disease? How body is effected?

A

It is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that involves the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, resulting in motor abnormalities ( resting tremor; muscle rigidity, bradykinesia, shuffling gait, lack of coordination) and symptoms of depression. Basal ganglia is involved in the selection and execution of voluntary motor programs.

409
Q

The reward pathway in the brain made out of which structures?

A

Ventral tegmental area which produces dopamine. Plus Nucleus accumbens, and prefrontal cortex, amygdala, hippocampus and many other structures of the limbic system

410
Q

What is numbers for CH stretches

A

Sp3 3000
Sp2 3100
Sp 3300

411
Q

What is second law of thermodynamics

A

Total entropy of isolated system will always increase over time during any spontaneous process. Entropy assesses disorder and it is a measure of extent to which the energy of the system is unavailable to do work.
Delta S=q/T

412
Q

What is the difference between heat capacity and specific heat capacity!

A

Heat capacity C of a sample (or object) is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of the ENTIRE sample by 1C. In contrast, the specific heat capacity Cp of a substance is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1g of substance by 1C. Consequently, two objects that are made of the same substance but have different masses will have a different heat capacity but an identical specific heat capacity.

413
Q

Which part of gastrointestinal tract absorb nutrients?

A

The brush border of the small intestine is a microvilli-covered epithelial surface where digestion and absorption of nutrients occur. The small intestine is composed of duodenum, jejunum, ileum. Duodenum is involved in digestion of nutrients, and the jejunum and ileum are involved in absorption of these nutrients.

414
Q

What are the order of subdivisions of large intestine?

A

Cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, sigmoid colon, rectum
As indigestible materials move through the large intestine, peristaltic contraction speed decreases

415
Q

How renin angiotensin system works?

A

RAS is a multiorgan molecular cascade activated when BP falls. A drop in BP causes the juxtaglomerular cells in the kidney to release renin, enzyme that cleaves the plasma protein angiotensinogen to form angiotensin 1. Angiotensin converting enzyme then cleaves angiotensin 1 to form angiotensin 2 which ultimately raises BP by inducing both the release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex and constriction of arterioles.

416
Q

What Co(II) means for cobalt

A

It loses 2 electrons to get +2 charge. Elemental cobalt has 9 valence electrons,

[Ar]3d^7 4s^2

It loses 2 electrons from 4s because those electrons have higher reactivity, so it is:

[Ar]3d^7

417
Q

How many meter 1micro meter and 1nano meters equal?

A

1 µm=10^-6
1 nm=10^-9