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MCALMS Tidbits Flashcards

1
Q

Ground evacuation ring

A

one long sustained ring

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2
Q

Bailout rings

  1. prepare to abandon aircraft
  2. bailout
A
  1. three short rings

2. one long sustained ring

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3
Q

Ditching or crash landing rings

  1. Ditching or crash landing imminent
  2. Brace for impact
A
  1. six short rings

2. one long sustained ring

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4
Q

Seven basic CRM coordination skills

A 
Decisiveness
Assertiveness
Mission Analysis
Communication
Leadership
Adaptability/Flexibility
Situation Awareness
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5
Q

Definition of hazard

A

Any real or potential condition that can cause injury, illness, or death to personnel; damage to or loss of equipment or property; degradation of mission capability or impact to mission accomplishment; or damage to the environment.

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6
Q

Definition of mishap

A

An unplanned event or series of events resulting in death, injury, occupational illness; damage to or loss of equipment or property; or damage to the environment.

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7
Q

Definition of risk

A

An expression of possible loss, adverse outcome or negative consequence; such as injury, illness in terms of probability and severity.

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8
Q

Two focuses of Risk Management

A

Identify risk

Mitigate risk

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9
Q

Four principles of Risk Management

A
  1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the cost
  2. Accept no unnecessary risk
  3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning
  4. Make risk decisions at the right level
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10
Q

Five-step Risk Management Process (I AM IS)

A
  1. Identify hazards
  2. Assess hazards
  3. Make risk decisions
  4. Implement controls
  5. Supervise
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11
Q

Six-phase Decision Making process (BAMCIS)

A
  1. Begin the planning
  2. Arrange for reconnaissance
  3. Make reconnaissance
  4. Complete the planning
  5. Issue the order
  6. Supervise
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12
Q

3 levels of the risk management process

A
  1. Time-critical
  2. Deliberate
  3. In-Depth
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13
Q

How many flaps? What type?

A

4 Flaps–each wing contains an outboard and inboard flap

Fowler high-lift type–combination of aft movement to increase wing area and a downward tilting movement to alter the airfoil section to increase lift and drag

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14
Q

How many flap drive screws are there and 90-degree gearboxes?

A

8 jackscrews 2 per flap

8 90-degree gearbox

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15
Q

Where is the solenoid-operated wing flap selector valve located?

A

It is located on the utility hydraulic panel, forward of the left wheelwell.

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16
Q

How long does it take the flaps to fully extend?

A

8 - 15 seconds

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17
Q

Where is the solenoid-operated landing gear selector valve located?

A

It is located on the utility hydraulic panel, forward of the left wheelwell

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18
Q

Where is the MLG hydraulic motor located?

A

Installed internally, forward, and above the main landing gear wheelwell

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19
Q

Components of the MLG

A

Four 90-degree gearboxes direct rotation from the manual drive gearbox to the torque shafts. Each 90 degree gearbox is connected to a ball screw by a vertical torque shaft. Ball screws raise and lower the MLG in vertical tracks. One ball screw is attached to each MLG shock strut in the landing gear wheelwell.

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20
Q

What do friction washers do for the MLG?

A

Serve as downlocks and prevent the MLG from retracting.

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21
Q

What is the FMC and where is it located?

A

The dual channel fuel management controller monitors and controls the basic aircraft fuel system. The FMC is located on the cargo compartment aft overhead equipment rack.

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22
Q

APU operating altitude

A

-1,000 to 20,000 ft

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23
Q

The APU fuel is gravity fed from the #_ tank if fuel quantity is greater than ____ lbs

A

2 tank

2000 lbs

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24
Q

EXTPWR/APU switch 3 settings and what do they do?

A

EXTPWR: supplies external ac power to the LH/RH ac bus, ESS ac bus and MAIN ac bus which in turn powers the avionics buses and all four TR

OFF: disconnects APU and EXT PWR from the A/C is the reset position for APU generator

APU: connects the APU generator to the ESS ac bus. If the APU is the only source of power it will power the MAIN and ESS ac buses

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25
Q

APU bleed air pressure

A

40 - 50 psi

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26
Q

Bleed air pressure check, 30-15 psi

A

Not less than 22 seconds

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27
Q

APU starter duty cycle

A

1 minute ON, 4 minutes OFF

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28
Q

When APU is operated in flight what does it supply?

A

It will only supply electrical power

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29
Q

What does the PGB do and where is it located?

A

The propeller gearbox transmits shaft power from the torquemeter, reduces shaft rpm to run the propeller, and provides shaft power to the gearbox mounted accessory drive (GMAD). The PGB is located to the rear of the propeller and forward of the torquemeter.

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30
Q

The gearbox mounted accessory drive provides drive pads for?

A 
Oil-cooled ac generator
Hydraulic pump
PGB oil supply and scavenge pump
Propeller pitch control unit (PCU)
Propeller high pressure oil pump and overspeed governor
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31
Q

What does the torquemeter do?

A

Transmits engine output power to the PGB and supplies torque reference to the FADEC

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32
Q

Power section features?

A

A variable flow fourteen-stage compressor, a two-stage gas generator turbine, and a two-stage free power turbine

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33
Q

The power section accessory gearbox provides drive pads for?

A

FPMU
PMA
Oil pressure and scavenge pumps
Air turbine starter

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34
Q

Primary purpose of the engine

A

Supplies power to the propeller

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35
Q

The engine fuel system consists of:

A 
FPMU-fuel pump metering unit
CVG-compressor variable geometry hydraulic actuator
Fuel cooled oil cooler (FCOC)
Fuel flow sensor
Fuel nozzles
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36
Q

The engine oil system provides ________ and ______ for the engine, engine components, propeller gearbox, and for propeller speed governing during all modes of operation including zero gravity and negative gravity maneuvers.

A

Lubrication and cooling

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37
Q

Components of the engine oil system

A 
FCOC
Oil tank
Oil tank shutoff valve
Air oil separator
Pumps
Filters
Air oil cooler
Oil cooler augmentation system
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38
Q

What is MGT?

A

The measure of engine temperature.

Represents the temperature of the gases at the third stage power turbine vanes.

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39
Q

What is NG?

A

The measure of core engine speed.

Represents the percentage of maximum rated operating speed for the gas generator.

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40
Q

What is NP?

A

Indicates the percentage of maximum rated operating speed for the propeller and power turbine.

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41
Q

What is FF?

A

Indicates the rate the fuel, in pounds per hour, feeds into the engine.

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42
Q

What is G PSI?

A

Indicates the propeller gearbox supply oil pressure in psi.

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43
Q

What is E PSI?

A

Indicates the pressure, in psi, of the supply oil in the gas generator and power turbine section of the engine.

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44
Q

What is TEMP?

A

Indicates the temperature, in degrees Celsius, of the oil supplied to the engine.

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45
Q

What is QTY?

A

Indicates the total gallons of oil in each main oil tank.

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46
Q

Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining a start?

A

22 psi

A momentary drop below 22 psi when the starter valve opens is acceptable.

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47
Q

Automation sequence of engine starts

A
  1. ENG START switch to run
  2. Starter light illuminates
  3. Ignition is energized, fuel flow starts and NG stabilizes at approx. 20-25 secs
  4. Starter cutout occurs, starter light extinguishes, and ignition terminates
  5. NP on speed time is approx. 30 seconds
  6. Normal hyd pressure is indicated within 30 seconds after NP is on speed
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48
Q

Engine Start Stop Conditions

A
  1. No indication of oil px within 15 seconds of NG
  2. No indication of prop gearbox oil px within 15 seconds of NP
  3. No NG is present 10 seconds after placing ENG Start switch to start
  4. Torching (visible fire in the tailpipe for more than a few seconds), sparks in the exhaust, or excessive smoke
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49
Q

How many fuel nozzles are there?

A

16

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50
Q

How many igniters are there?

A

2

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51
Q

NG at low speed ground idle

A

71 to 75 % NG

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52
Q

The propeller system is comprised of?

A 
Propeller blades
Hub assembly
Pitch actuator
Pitch control unit (PCU)
Subassemblies
High pressure pump
Overspeed governer (OSG)
Auxiliary feather pump
Magnetic pulse unit (MPU)
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53
Q

X-wind takeoff

A

plus or minus 45 degrees (wind is from 045 degrees to 315 degrees), and if the wind is greater than 15 but less than 35 knots, then the limitation is 2,500 HP until 35 knots

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54
Q

Bleed air system components:

A 
Cross-ship manifold
Bleed air ducts
Bleed air compensators
Bleed air valves
Mix-muff assemblies
Pressure transducers
Temperature sensors
Bleed air/environmental control system (BA/ECS) controller
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55
Q

What is the function of the BA/ECS controller?

A

Regulates bleed air temperature and pressure

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56
Q

The components of the Electrical Power Distribution System?

A

self-generated primary ac
self-generated primary dc
external power

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57
Q

How many electronic circuit breaker units are there?

A

14

Each unit contains 24 dc and 15 ac ECBs per unit

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58
Q

The ac power system is comprised of?

A

6 ac buses

4 ac inverters

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59
Q

How many batteries, what are they?

A

Utility and avionics battery

AV battery supplies power to the avionics battery bus and to the avionics dc bus

UTIL battery supplies power to the utility battery bus and to the isolated dc bus.

24Vdc, 35 ampere hours

Identical and interchangeable

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60
Q

Three hydraulic systems

A

Utility
Booster
Auxiliary

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61
Q

What does the utility system power?

A 
wing flaps
main landing gear
nose landing gear
normal brakes
nosewheel steering
aerial refueling reels
half flight controls
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62
Q

Booster system powers?

A

half flight controls

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63
Q

Auxiliary hyd system

A

Powers cargo door and ramp
emergency brakes
emergency nose landing gear extension

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64
Q

Major components of the utility and booster hydraulic systems

A 
Hydraulic reservoirs
Suction boost pumps
Engine-driven hydraulic pumps
Shutoff valves
Check valves
Pressure relief valves
Filters
Accumulators
Utility-ground test valve
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65
Q

Utility hyd reservoir capacity and location

A

5.5 gallons

forward of the left main landing gear wheelwell

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66
Q

Booster hyd reservoir capacity and location

A

3.1 gallons of fluid and is located forward of the right main landing gear wheelwell

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67
Q

How many hydraulic filters are in the utility and booster system?

A

4 hydraulic filters
1 system return filter
1 engine pump case drain filter
2 high pressure engine filters

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68
Q

Auxiliary hydraulic system components

A 
Hydraulic reservoir
Hydraulic pump
Handpump
Two filters
Two check valves
Ground test valve
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69
Q

Aux hyd reservoir capacity and location

A

5.3 gallons

Aft of the left paratroop door

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70
Q

Where is the aileron booster assembly located?

A

The booster assembly is mounted in the center of the fuselage in the center wing area

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71
Q

How many aileron trim tabs are there and which one is controllable?

A

The left trim tab is moved by an electrical actuator–mounted inside the aileron.
Right is fixed in place and only adjustable on the ground.

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72
Q

The rudder booster assembly does what and where is it located?

A

Provides hydraulic pressure to operate the rudder and is mounted above the aft cargo door on the right side of the cargo compartment.

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73
Q

The elevator booster assembly is located where?

A

The booster assembly is mounted on the centerline of the aircraft above the aft cargo door.

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74
Q

Components of the avionics cooling system

A

2 underfloor fans
2 overhead control panel fans
and the BA/ECS ECU

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75
Q

Which cabin pressurization system component is mounted in the aft left side of the cargo door?

A

Safety valve

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76
Q

How many flight station windows are heated?

A

Eight flight station windows

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77
Q

When do icing conditions exist?

A

May exist when the SAT is 10 degrees C or less and there is visible moisture is present in any form (e.g., clouds, fog with visibility of 1 mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals).

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78
Q

Anti-icing mode is intended for use during when?

A

During approach and landing in icing conditions.

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79
Q

How many engines need to be high-speed for the icing test?

A

The test requires at least three engines (preferably four engines) supplying bleed air in HSGI. However, if the test passes with one or more engines in LSGI, the system is safe for flight in icing conditions.

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80
Q

Airspeed during flight operations with inop windshield anti-icing below 10,000 feet

A

187 KIAS

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81
Q

Emergency equipment includes:

A

survival equipment
fire extinguishing systems
emergency signaling
emergency data recording systems

82
Q

Survival equipment includes:

A 
Liferafts
Life vests
Emergency exit lights
First aid kits
Hand axes
Anti-exposure suits
83
Q

Where are the liferafts located and what do they contain?

A

They are stowed in the top center wing trailing edge area.

Contains: sea dye markers, distress signal kit, water storage bags, emergency drinking water, first aid kit, water desalinator, sunburn protection, food packets, bailing sponge, casualty blankets, hand generated flashlight, flare guns, signal strobe light, chemical lights, signal mirror, emergency radio and beacon, whistle, compass, pocket knife, and 50 feet nylon cord

84
Q

To ensure sufficient liferaft capacity, no more than __ persons, including crewmembers, should be carried on extended over-water flights that operate more than __ nautical miles from the nearest shore line

A

80 persons

50 nautical miles

85
Q

Extended over-water operations with mixed cargo/passenger loads are restricted to a maximum of __ occupants per unobstructed overhead exit.

A

35 occupants

86
Q

How many mounting provisions exist for first aid kits?

A

22 first aid kits

87
Q

How many portable emergency exit lights are there?

A

8 portable, battery-operated Night Vision Imaging System (NVIS) emergency exit lights are installed in the aircraft.

88
Q

Where are the fire extinguishing agent bottles located and what is contained inside of them?

A

They are located above the left wheel well.

Each bottle contains 27 pounds of Halon 1211 fire extinguishing agent.

89
Q

How many hand-operated fire extinguishers are provided for fighting interior fires?

A

4 total
1 in the flight station
3 in the cargo compartment

When using these fire extinguishers don oxygen masks because the agent removes oxygen from the air, smothering the fire.

90
Q

What is the ELT and what does it do?

A

Emergency Locator Transmitter

It emits a distress signal which includes the identification and geographic coordinates of the aircraft in distress.
The message is transmitted continuously for 24 hours after activation to orbiting satellites on 406.025MHz. In addition it broadcasts on 121.5 and 243.0 MHz until the ELT battery is depleted approx. 50-72 hours

91
Q

What are the emergency exits?

A

Three overhead escape hatches, two side emergency exits, the crew entrance door, the paratroop doors, cargo door and ramp, and hinged windows

92
Q

The liquid oxygen converter holds __ liters of liquid oxygen, which it converts to __,___ usable liters of gaseous oxygen.

A

25 liters;

20,131 liters

93
Q

How many oxygen regulators are there and where are they located?

A

There are six regulators in the flight station and four in the cargo compartment.

94
Q

How many portable oxygen bottles are there and where are they located?

A

4 portable bottles

Two are stowed in the flight station. One mounted in the right side of the forward bulkhead. The fourth is mounted on the right side of the aft section of the cargo compartment.

95
Q

What do you verify regulator pressure reads ___-___ psi.

A

270-455 psi

96
Q

Ground Minimum Control Speed (Vmcg)

A

Minimum airspeed during takeoff ground run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inop, it is possible to maintain control of the aircraft using rudder alone and take off safely while maintaining takeoff power on the remaining engines.

97
Q

Vmcg conditions

A
  1. # 1 engine failed w/ prop auto-feathered
  2. Max t/o power on all remaining engines
  3. Automatic Thrust Control System (ATCS) operating
  4. Max rudder deflection limited by 150 pounds of rudder pedal force or maximum rudder control surface deflection
  5. Flaps at 50 percent
  6. Minimum takeoff weight
  7. No nosewheel steering required
  8. Max lateral deviation from initial runway track of 30 feet
98
Q

Air Minimum Control Speed (Vmca)

A

The slowest speed at which the pilot can maintain directional control of the aircraft in flight.

99
Q

Vmca conditions

A
  1. # 1 engine failed w/ prop auto-feathered
  2. atcs operational
  3. maximum takeoff power on all remaining engines
  4. no more than 5 degrees of bank into operating engines
  5. maximum rudder deflection limited by 150 pounds or max deflection
  6. zero rudder trim
  7. minimum flying weight
100
Q

Vmca2

A
  1. # 1/#2 engines inop/ #1 propeller wind milling or feathered and #2 propeller auto-feathered
  2. maximum takeoff power is set on the two remaining engines
  3. 150 lbs of rudder pedal force or the maximum rudder
  4. flaps 50
  5. minimum flying weight
  6. bank angle of 5 degrees away from the failed engines
  7. rudder trim as required for a three degree glide path with 3 operating engines
  8. landing gear is down
101
Q

What is critical field length?

A

Is the distance required to accelerate on all four engines to the critical engine failure speed, lose an engine, then continue the takeoff, or stop within the same distance.

102
Q

What is refusal speed (V1)? What does it assume?

A

Is the maximum speed at which an engine failure could occur and the aircraft could abort takeoff and stop within the distance remaining.
It assumes: two symmetrical engines are in reverse, one engine is in ground idle, one is feathered, max anti-skid braking is applied

103
Q

What is critical engine failure speed (Vcef)?

A

Is the highest speed at which an engine failure could occur and the aircraft could either successfully take off or safely stop on the remaining runway.

104
Q

Minimum field length for a maximum effort takeoff

A

Is the length of runway needed to accelerate to refusal speed, experience an engine failure and stop, or continue acceleration to maximum effort takeoff speed within the remaining runway.

105
Q

Typical time from starter activation until NP is on speed?

A

30 seconds

106
Q

Allow up to _ minutes after NG is on speed for onset of propeller rotation.

A

2 minutes

107
Q

Fuel flow is indicated at approximately __ percent NG?

A

40 percent

108
Q

If a start is not successful, the FADEC will shut fuel off after __ seconds from starter switch activation.

A

70 seconds

109
Q

If an automatic shutdown occurs, place the ENGINE START switch to ____ and allow __ to decrease to ____ then wait __ seconds before attempting a restart.

A

STOP

NG to decrease to zero and wait 30 seconds

110
Q

DO NOT commence a start if MGT is above ___ degrees C.

A

175 degrees C

111
Q

During a start pull the fire handle for what?

A 
ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) FIRE
ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) MGT HI
START VLV 1 (2, 3, or 4) OPEN
Visible indications of a fire
Visible fluid leak
112
Q

During a start place the ENGINE START switch to stop for?

A

No NG within 10 seconds of the START activation
No indication of oil pressure within 15 seconds of NG
No indication of oil pressure within 15 seconds of NP
ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) FLAMEOUT
ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO LIGHTOFF
ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) STAGNATED START

113
Q

Aural alert for most advisories and the aural and visual master alerts for most caution and some warning conditions are inhibited during takeoff roll above __KIAS and below ___KIAS or ___feet radar altitude.

A

70KIAS-140KIAS

below 400 feet RADALT

114
Q

Abort decision criteria below 70 KIAS

A

Abort if a major condition arises
Abort with any Warning and Caution ACAWS.
Abort with any Advisory ACAWS associated with a malfunction.

115
Q

Abort decision criteria between 70 to V1 (refusal speed)

A

Abort only if a major condition arises
Abort for a MASTER WARNING or MASTER CAUTION aural and visual alert that threatens continued takeoff.
Abort for an engine failure, an aircraft fire or serious directional control problem.

116
Q

Abort decision criteria Above V1 (refusal speed)

A

Continue takeoff unless airworthiness of the aircraft is in serious jeopardy.

117
Q

Do not move the power levers below the FLT IDLE above ___ KTAS due to the possibility of an over frequency condition due to high prop RPM transients leading to all engine-driven generators tripping off-line.

A

139 KTAS

118
Q

Nomenclature of the Countermeasures Dispensing System

A

AN/ALE-47

119
Q

Components of the CMDS

A

CMDS programmer
Five safety switches with safety pins
Nine sequencers
18 dispensers

120
Q

Allow approximately _ seconds for warmup of CMDS

A

5 seconds

121
Q

If flaps are set greater than __% what dispensers are inactive.

A

15 percent flaps or more

pylon chaff dispensers are inactive

122
Q

What happens in SEMI mode for the CMDS?

A

When the CMDS is interfaced with the MWS and RWR, the programmer automatically dispenses flares in reaction to an MWS alert. The programmer also requests consent to launch chaff in reaction to an RWR alert by displaying CMDS READY.

123
Q

What happens in MAN mode for the CMDS?

A

The manual programs switch selects manual programs 1-4, 5, or 6 from the DEFENSIVE SYSTEMS control panel. Chaff or flares are dispensed using the chaff/flare eject button or the remote dispense switches.

124
Q

Nomenclature of the missile warning system

A

AN/AAR-47 MWS

125
Q

What does the MWS do?

A

It is an electronic warfare system designed to protect the aircraft against infrared guided or laser guided surface-to-air and air-to-air missiles. The MWS detects, classifies, and automatically responds to detected missile launches.

126
Q

What are the components of the MWS?

A

Consists of a central processor (CP) and two forward and two aft electro-optical sensors

127
Q

What does the central processor for the MWS do?

A

It analyzes the incoming signals received from the electro-optical sensors to determine which ones are valid threats from incoming missiles.

128
Q

Nomenclature of the Radar Warning Receiver

A

AN/ALR-56M

129
Q

Components of the RWR?

A 
The E-J band antennas
C/D band antenna
The direction finding (DF) receiver
The C/D band receiver/power supply
Analysis processor
The superheterodyne receiver
The superheterodyne controller
130
Q

How does the RWR system work?

A

The RWR system receives and processes radio frequency (RF) signals. The RWR determines both the direction and source of RF signals. Signals identified as a radar source are processed again by the RWR to determine if they are a threat or non-threat radar.

131
Q

What does PRI on the MODE of RWR do?

A

The five highest threats appear on the HDD NAV/RADAR display

132
Q

In the off position the __ highest threats appear on the NAV/RADAR for the MODE on the RWR

A

12 highest threats

133
Q

How long is the BIT test for the RWR?

A

3-5 minutes and if it fails it could take up to 9 minutes

134
Q

Standard holding patterns

A

A standard holding pattern uses right turns and an inbound leg of one minute at or below 14,000 ft MSL or one and half minutes above 14,000 ft MSL

135
Q

What are the holding pattern max speeds?

A

SFC-6000 ft MSL – 200 KIAS
6001-14000 ft MSL – 230 KIAS
14001 and above – 265 KIAS

Normal holding speed for KC-130J is 170 KIAS

136
Q

When the hold is active what are the three options to end the hold?

A

EXIT HOLD NOW – bypasses the hold fix, the next waypoint on the flight plan becomes the active waypoint
EXIT HOLD ARM – provides guidance to the holding fix. After passing the holding fix, guidance is to the next flight plan waypoint.
DIR INTC – to a follow on waypoint

137
Q

Why do you execute a missed approach?

A

Visual reference with the runway environment is insufficient to complete the landing at the missed approach point or Decision Height (DH), the controlling agency instructs the pilot to execute a missed approach, a safe landing is not possible, or the aircraft does not meet the stabilized approach requirements at the stabilized approach gate.

138
Q

What is the acceptable visual reference for the intended runway per FAR, section 91.175?

A 
Approach lighting system
Threshold
Threshold markings
Threshold lights
Runway end identifier lights
The Visual Approach Slope Indicator
The touchdown zone
Touchdown zone markings
Touchdown zone lights
Runway
Runway markings
Runway lights
139
Q

Glideslope facility for an ILS provides a path which flares from __to__ feet above the runway.

A

18-27 feet

140
Q

Autopilot is capable of intercepts up to __ degrees, but to enhance performance a maximum of __ degrees is recommended

A

90 degrees

and 45 degrees

141
Q

What is bank angle limited to during localizer course capture? Once established what is it limited to?

A

25 degrees during course capture

10 degrees once captured

142
Q

During an ILS approach when should you disengage auto-pilot? When should you disengage the autothrottles?

A

Prior to passing 200 feet AGL

Autothrottles NLT crossing runway threshold

143
Q

Where is the outer marker beacon located on an ILS?

A

4 to 7 miles from the end of the runway

aural identification is 2 dashes per second

144
Q

For a typical ILS, each dot on the CDI represents?

A

Each dot represents 1.25 degrees of lateral placement

145
Q

The GSI dots represent?

A

Each dot represents 0.35 degrees of deviation.

146
Q

When does the runway outline get displayed in the HUD?

A

Between 100-500 radalt

147
Q

Where is the Middle Marker (MM) beacon located?

A

approximately 3,500 feet from the runway

at the MM the aircraft will be 200 feet above the elevation of the touchdown zone–in most cases the DH

aural identification is alternating dashes and dots

148
Q

Category A: approach speed

A

Speed less than 91 knots

149
Q

Category B: approach speed

A

Speed 91 knots or more but less than 121 knots

150
Q

Category C: approach speed

A

Speed 121 knots or more but less than 141 knots

151
Q

Category D: approach speed

A

Speed 141 knots or more but less than 166 knots

152
Q

Category E: approach speed

A

Speed 166 knots or more

153
Q

If radio communications with the controller are lost for how long during radar vectors and how long on final approach during a PAR the pilot executes lost comm procedures.

A

1 minute or more during radar vectors

5 seconds on PAR final approach

154
Q

During a VOR approach what does each dot equate to on the CDI?

A

Each dot is equivalent to 5 degrees.

155
Q

What is a warning?

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in injury, death, or loss of aircraft if not carefully observed or followed.

156
Q

What is a caution?

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed.

157
Q

What is a note?

A

Explanatory information about an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that must be emphasized.

158
Q

What does shall mean?

A

Is used only when application of a procedure is mandatory.

159
Q

What does should mean?

A

Is used only when application of a procedure is recommended.

160
Q

What does may or need not mean?

A

Are used only when application of a procedure is optional.

161
Q

What does land immediately mean?

A

Means execute a landing without delay.

162
Q

What does land as soon as possible mean?

A

Means land at the first site at which a safe landing can be made.

163
Q

What does land as soon as practicable mean?

A

Means extended flight is not recommended. The landing site and duration of flight are at the discrection of the pilot in command.

164
Q

Two types of leadership?

A

Designated leadership–leadership by authority, crew position, rank, or title. Normal mode of leadership.

Functional leadership–leadership by knowledge or expertise. This is temporary and allows the most qualified individual take charge of the situation.

165
Q

Operational risk management 5 step process?

A 
Identify hazards
Assess hazards
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise
166
Q

Operational risk management is guided by four principles?

A
  1. Accept risk when benefits outweigh the costs.
  2. Accept no unnecessary risk
  3. Anticipate and manage risk by planning
  4. Make risk decisions at the right level
167
Q

Operational risk management utilizes three levels?

A

Time-critical–a quick mental review (in-flight mission/situation changes)

Deliberate–experience and brain storming are used to identify hazards and is done in groups (aircraft moves, fly on/off)

In-depth–more substantial tools are used to thoroughly study the hazards and their associated risk in complex operations (Weapons Det)

168
Q

DD-175-1 briefs are only valid for ___ hours past briefing/FWB delivery time or ETD plus one-half hour.

A

3.0 hours

and you should allow atleast 1 hour prior to proposed brief time

169
Q

If requesting a flight weather packet how long should you allow for preparation?

A

2 hours

170
Q

Minimum fuel requirements per CNAF M-3710.7

A
  1. If an alternate is not required, fuel to fly from takeoff to destination airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.
  2. If alternate is required, fuel to fly from takeoff to the approach fix serving destination and thence to an alternate airfield, plus a reserve of 10 percent of planned fuel requirements.
  3. In no case shall the planned fuel reserve after final landing at destination or alternate airfield, if one is required, be less than needed for 20 minutes of flight, computed as follows:
    max endurance at 10,000 feet
171
Q

Closing a flight plan at a military installation is accomplished by?

A

The pilot shall either verbally confirm the closing of the flight plan with tower or base ops personnel or deliver a copy of the flight plan form to base ops

172
Q

How do you close out a flight plan at a non-military installation?

A

The pilot shall close the flight plan with flight service through any means of communication available.

173
Q

True or False?

Cancellation of an instrument flight plan meets the requirement for closing out a flight plan.

A

False; it does not meet the requirement for closing out the flight plan. When a landing report has been properly delivered, the flight plan will be considered closed out.

174
Q

Why were military training routes created?

A

MTRs have been developed to accommodate high-speed, low-level tactical training in excess of 250 KIAS.

175
Q

MTRs that include one or more segments above 1,500’ AGL are identified by?

A

A three-digit identifier

176
Q

MTRs that do not have any segments above 1500’ AGL are identified by?

A

A four-digit identifier

177
Q

What is the weather required for VR routes?

A

Flight visibility of 5 miles or more

Flights shall not be conducted below a ceiling of less than 3,000 feet AGL

178
Q

What should you squawk on a VR route?

A

4000

179
Q

What do you squawk when you have a communication failure?

A

7600

180
Q

If there is an emergency what should you squawk?

A

7700

181
Q

What do you squawk if you are being hijacked?

A

7500

182
Q

What is a standard formation?

A

Proximity of no more than 1 mile laterally or longitudinally and within 100 feet vertically between the flight leader and each wingman.

183
Q

Weather minimums per CNAF M-3710.7?

A

Ceiling must be atleast 1,000 feet

Visibility must be atleast 3 statute miles

184
Q

Standard instrument rating takeoff minimums

A

Published mins for the available non-precision approach, but not less than 300-foot ceiling and 1-statute mile visibility. When a precision approach compatible with installed and operable a/c equipment is available, with published mins less than 300/1, t/o is authorized provided the weather is atleast equal to the precision approach mins for the runway in use, but in no case when the weather is less than 200-foot ceiling and 1/2-statute mile visibility/2400 foot runway visual range (RVR)

185
Q

Approach criteria for multipiloted aircraft

A

When reported weather is at or below published landing minimums for the approach to be conducted, an approach shall not be commenced in multi-piloted aircraft unless the aircraft has the capability to proceed to a suitable alternate in the event of a missed approach.

186
Q

Noise sensitive and wilderness areas shall not be flown at less than what altitude?

A

3000 feet AGL

187
Q

What is a noise sensitive area?

A

Breeding farms, resorts, beaches, and those areas designated by the U.S. department of interior as national parks, national monuments, and national recreational areas.

188
Q

What is the minimum altitude for jettisoning fuel?

A

6000 feet AGL

189
Q

What is a low light level defined as?

A

Low light is defined as light level less than 0.0022 lux.

190
Q

What is the definition for high light level?

A

Light level greater than or equal to 0.0022 lux.

191
Q

Engine malfunctions on multiengine aircraft, consider several factors such as:

A
  1. Nature of malfunction and possible mechanical difficulties that may occur if flight is continued
  2. Alt, weight, and usable fuel at engine stoppage
  3. Terrain and wx en route and at suitable landing points
  4. Possible ATC congestion
  5. Pilot familiarity with airport
  6. Power on remaining engine(s) is sufficient for en route conditions and available landing sites
192
Q

Antiexposure suits are good for what conditions?

A

The water temperature is 50 degrees F or below

The outside air temperature is 32 degrees F or below (based on the wind chill factor corrected temperature)

193
Q

All occupants aboard naval aircraft shall use supplemental oxygen on flights in which the cabin altitude exceeds how many feet?

A

10,000 feet

194
Q

When oxygen is not available to other occupants, flight between 10,000 and 13,000 feet shall not exceed _ hours duration and flight above 13,000 feet is prohibited.

A

3 hours

195
Q

Time above 10,000 feet without supplemental oxygen shall not exceed _ hour and altitude shall not exceed 13,000 feet

A

1 hour

196
Q

Crew rest is?

A

Is the non-duty time before a flight duty period begins.

197
Q

Crew rest includes free time for meals, transportation, rest and shall include an opportunity for _ hours of uninterrupted sleep time for every 24-hour period.

A

8 hours uninterrupted sleep

198
Q

When does crew rest begin?

A

Crew rest does not begin until after termination of official duties and is required prior to reporting for preflight preparations.

199
Q

Flight crew shall not be scheduled for continuous alert and/or flight duty (required awake) in excess of __ hours.

A

18 hours

200
Q

Minimum requirements for a standard instrument rating:

A

50 hours instrument pilot time simulated/actual
NATOPS instrument evaluation
Within 6 months preceding the instrument evaluation flight: 6 hours pilot time sim/act–12 final approaches sim/act; 6 precision/6 non precision
Within 12 months preceding the instrument evaluation flight: 12 hours sim/act time–18 approaches; 12 precision, 6 non precision

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