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Virology > MC Questions > Flashcards

MC Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Following a viral infection, what biological response(s) can occur?
    A. Inflammation
    B. Recruitment of immune cells to site of infection
    C. Fever
    D. All of the above ***
A

All of the above

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2
Q
  1. Preventine vaccines are intended to protect _______________.
    A. Organisms already afflicted with the targeted viral infection
    B. Organisms free of the targeted viral infection
    C. Organisms that are immunocompromised
    D. Organisms that are defective in pathways regulating humoral immunity
A

b. Organisms free of the targeted viral infection

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of passive immune
    evasion viruses can do?
    A. Viruses produce proteins that actively block an aspect of immune response.
    B. Viruses express viral proteins that mimic host proteins.
    C. Viruses have spike proteins with antigenic epitopes that are hidden away and protected against from immune detection and surveillance.
    D. Viral latency
A

A. Viruses produce proteins that actively block an aspect of immune response.

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic of
    monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)?
    A. They are produced by one B cell subpopulation.
    B. They are very expensive to manufacture.
    C. They can recognize multiple antigens/epitopes on a viral glycoprotein.
    D. Batch-to-batch variability in the mAb production is very low to nil
A

C. They can recognize multiple antigens/epitopes on a viral glycoprotein.

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an attribute of active immunity?
    A. Short-term protection
    B. Can self-produce more neutralizing antibodies following viral infections
    C. Induces both humoral and cell-mediated immunity
    D. Produces memory response
A

A.Short-term protection

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6
Q
  1. Why is HIV a tricky virus to eliminate?
    A. Systematically eliminates CD4+ T cells
    B. Integrates its genome into the host cell’s genome in the nucleus and hides away from innate and adaptive immune defenses
    C. High mutation rates
    D. All of the above
A

All of the above

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7
Q
  1. Tamiflu is an antiviral treatment for seasonal influenza infections (influenza A and B viruses are the primary culprits). How does Tamiflu work to prevent type A/B influenza infections?

A. It prevents influenza A/B viruses from entering susceptible cells.
B. It prevents influenza A/B viruses from replicating their genome.
C. It prevents the complete release/budding of mature influenza A/B virions from infected cells.
D. All of the above

A

B. It prevents influenza A/B viruses from replicating their genome.

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8
Q
  1. Among the following descriptions, what feature of smallpox is not a factor that contributes to its eradication?

A. RNA genome of variola virus
B. No intermediate host
C. Smallpox vaccine is safe
D. Clinical symptoms are easily diagnosed.

A

A. RNA genome of variola virus

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is true regarding NRTIs?

A. NRTIs have a 3’-hydroxyl group.
B. NRTIs promote the synthesis of virally derived DNA molecules.
C. AZT is an example of an NRTI.
D. All of the above

A

C. AZT is an example of an NRTI.

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10
Q
  1. One vaccine candidate for influenza is a recombinant adenovirus expressing influenza virus hemagglutinin as an additional surface (spike) protein. Why would the use of adenovirus as a “carrier” virus advantageous?

A. Adenovirus carrier is dead and does not cause disease.
B. Adenovirus carrier is alive and does not cause disease.
C. Adenovirus carrier has an RNA genome.
D. Adenovirus carrier activates only the humoral immunity.

A

B. Adenovirus carrier is alive and does not cause disease.

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11
Q
  1. Fill in the blank: ______________________ are professional phagocytes in humans.

A. Neutrophils, dendritic cells, and macrophages
B. Dendritic cells, macrophages, and T cells
C. Dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells
D. Macrophages, T cells, and B cells

A

A. Neutrophils, dendritic cells, and macrophages

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is not an advantage of live
    attenuated virus vaccines?
    A. Can establish memory response that lasts for a long time and even forever
    B. Need fewer boosters
    C. There is a chance of reversion to a virulent strain.
    D. Adjuvant is unnecessary.
A

C. There is a chance of reversion to a virulent strain.

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following is true about Raltegravir?
    A. Blocks HIV’s integrase function
    B. Blocks HIV’s reverse transcriptase function
    C. Blocks HIV’s protease function
    D. Blocks HIV budding
A

A. Blocks HIV’s integrase function

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14
Q 
14. What immunoglobulin isotype(s) can cross the placenta from mother to fetus?
 A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. All of the above
A

B. IgG

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15
Q
  1. Therapeutic monoclonal antibodies can be used to treat viral infections. Which of the following is a chimeric monoclonal antibody?

A. Foravirumab (for rabies)
B. Palivizumab (for a type of respiratory infection)
C. Cosfroviximab (for Ebola)
D. Tuvirumab (for hepatitis B)

A

C. Cosfroviximab (for Ebola)

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following descriptions is false regarding innate immunity?

A. Innate immune responses are relatively quicker than adaptive immune responses.
B. Has high specificity of virus recognition and memory response
C. Does not discriminate one pathogen from another
D. Anatomical barrier defences are part of innate immunity.

A

B. Has high specificity of virus recognition and memory response

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17
Q 
17. What drug is effective against HSV?
A. Maraviroc
B. Aciclovir
C. Pleconaril
D. NNRTIs
A

Aciclovir

18
Q
  1. Which is not a characteristic of adaptive immunity?

A. Can remember previous exposure to same or very similar viruses
B. It takes time to synthesize all the necessary molecular signal repertoire and to produce mature B and T cells in order to establish an effective adaptive immune response; so speed of action is relatively slower than innate immunity.
C. One type of principal molecules involved is complement.
D. One type of principal molecules involved is antibody.

A

c. One type of principal molecules involved is complement.

19
Q
  1. Which of the following is an advantage of phage therapy?

A. It is not accessible for intracellular bacterial infections.
B. It is difficult to administer.
C. It has limited systemic use.
D. Phage are unaffected by antibiotic resistance.

A

D. Phage are unaffected by antibiotic resistance.

20
Q
  1. How does Pleconaril inhibit picornavirus infections?

A. Blocking viral RNA polymerase activity
B. Blocking the release of viral RNA genome from its capsid proteins into the cytoplasm, subsequently stopping viral protein synthesis and viral genome replication
C. Blocking the release/budding of mature virions from infected cells
D. All of the above

A

Blocking the release of viral RNA genome from its capsid proteins into the cytoplasm, subsequently stopping viral protein synthesis and viral genome replication

21
Q
  1. What is a disadvantage of inactivated virus vaccines?
    A. Cannot stimulate MHC-I response
    B. Cannot stimulate MHC-II response
    C. Induce the production of both memory B cell and T cells against the targeted virus
    D. There is a high chance of reversion to a virulent strain.
A

A. Cannot stimulate MHC-I response

22
Q 
22. Which of the following are Interferon-stimulated genes (ISGs)?
 A. PKR
B. Mx
C. OAS/RNaseL
D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

23
Q
  1. Use of virus-derived pest controls is fundamentally effective but remains limited. Which description below does not explain the on-going challenges facing the virus-derived pest control approach

A. lack of support from chemical pesticide companies
B. effects are fast but do not last long.
C. viruses can be inactivated in dry or heated environments where pest problems occur. D. the virus used may have a strict single-host tropism; making its use ineffective in cases where several different pests are involved.

A

B. effects are fast but do not last long.

24
Q 
24. HIV antiviral drugs are usually designed to target the function of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A. Reverse transcriptase
B. Integrase
C. Protease
D. All of the above
A

all of the above

25
Q
  1. In the topic of vaccines and vaccination, what is VRC01?

A. An attenuated version of HIV
B. A vaccine for hepatitis B
C. An antibody that can neutralize over 90 % of known HIV strains
D. A virus that causes tumours in monkeys

A

C. An antibody that can neutralize over 90 % of known HIV strains

26
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a limitation of antiviral drugs?

A. Lack of broad-spectrum effectiveness
B. Inability to completely cure long-term infections
C. They can be used as prophylactic treatments.
D. Symptoms often do not correlate with infection.

A

C. They can be used as prophylactic treatments.

27
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding Salk poliovirus vaccine?

A. Derived from polioviruses propagated in African green monkey kidney cells
B. Polioviruses in the vaccine were inactivated with formaldehyde.
C. Vaccine was later found to contain an oncogenic virus SV40.
D. Was a live attenuated virus vaccine.

A

D. Was a live attenuated virus vaccine.

28
Q
  1. Which statement is false regarding passive immunity?

A. Fetus achieves passive immunity when they receive maternally-derived antibodies from mother via the placenta.
B. In passive immunity, recipients do not develop memory cells against the virus the therapeutic treatment aims to eliminate.
C. It involves the introduction of exogenous/foreign antibodies into patients with the goal to slow down or stop the targeted virus infection.
D. It activates both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

A

D. It activates both humoral and cell-mediated immunity.

29
Q
  1. Herpesviruses are known as “immune escape artists” because they develop many sophisticated mechanisms to avoid the host’s immune system. Which of the following is true regarding how herpesviruses are able to do this?
    A. Down-regulate MHC-I and interfere with viral peptide loading into MHC-I
    B. Produce an analogue of the anti-inflammatory cytokine IL-10 to block cytokine synthesis
    C. Interfere with MHC-II expression
    D. All of the above
A

All of the above

30
Q 
30. What type of vaccine is FluMist?
 A. Live attenuated virus vaccine
B. Inactivated virus vaccine
C. Capsid/subunit vaccine
D. DNA vaccine
A

A. Live attenuated virus vaccine

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is false regarding ISGs?
    A. They are inducible by viral infections.
    B. They are inducible by viral PAMPs.
    C. They are inducible by type I IFNs.
    D. They are inducible by complements.
A

A. They are inducible by viral infections.

32
Q
  1. What type of gene therapy includes removing cells from a person, transfecting them with DNA, and reintroducing them into the patient?
A

Ex vivo somatic

33
Q
  1. Why is aciclovir’s toxicity so low?
    A. It is phosphorylated preferentially by a viral thymidine kinase.
    B. It is incorporated preferentially into viral DNA.
    C. It preferentially blocks virus enzyme activity.
    D. A and B
A

D. A and B

34
Q
  1. What is true about arboviruses?

A. They are airborne viruses.
B. They are monkey-infecting viruses.
C. They are arthropod-infecting viruses.
D. They are zoonotic viruses controlled and monitored by the Association of Regulatory Boards of Optometry (ARBO).

A

C. They are arthropod-infecting viruses.

35
Q
  1. Which statement is FALSE about bacteriophages?

A. They infect only bacteria.
B. They can be used to treat disease in human medicine.
C. They can be used to prevent food-borne illnesses.
D. All bacteriophages have a dsDNA genome.

A

D. All bacteriophages have a dsDNA genome.

36
Q 
34. What is not true regarding PRRs? 
A. They are constitutively expressed.
B. They can be upregulated in response to a viral infection. 
C. They detect PAMPs.
D. They change affinity over time.
A

D. They change affinity over time.

37
Q 
37. What is a Jennerian vaccine?
 A. A killed virus vaccine
B. A subunit virus vaccine
C. A live virus vaccine
D. A recombinant protein virus vaccine
A

C. A live virus vaccine

38
Q
  1. Why are viruses excellent candidates for gene therapy vectors?
    A. They are designed to introduce foreign nucleic acids into cells.
    B. They can have strict cell tropism.
    C. They protect nucleic acids in the extracellular space.
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

39
Q 
39. How do NK cells limit virus infections?
A. Kill virus infected cells
B. Phagocytose infected cells
C. Phagocytose extracellular viruses
D. All of the above
A

A. Kill virus infected cells

40
Q
  1. What type of T cell recognizes antigens presented on MHC class II?

A. CD4+ T cell
B. CD8+ T cell
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B

A

A. CD4+ T cell

41
Q
  1. What surface molecule presents cytoplasmic antigens?

A. TCR
B. BCR
C. MHC class I
D. MHC class II

A

C. MHC class I

42
Q
  1. Which of the following statements is NOT True regarding an influenza virion releasing from a host cell?

a. Neuraminidase is an enzyme that cleaves the linkage between sialic acid and glycoproteins on host cells
b. Hemagglutinin binds to sialic acid, stimulating the release of the influenza virion
c. Oseltamivir, a Neuraminidase inhibitor, can be used to prevent a virion from releasing and infecting neighbouring cells
d. Viral replication will halt if a virion is unable to detach from a host cell
e. None of the above

A

B. Hemagglutinin binds to sialic acid, stimulating the release of the influenza virion

Virology (6 decks)

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