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BMB504 > MC fra forelæsningerne > Flashcards

MC fra forelæsningerne Flashcards

1
Q

Replication of DNA is semiconservative because:

A) Sequence of both strands is conserved

B) One of the strands of each daughter molecule is newly synthesized while the other is unchanged

C) Each daughter molecule is synthesized from old deoxryibonucleotides

A

B

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2
Q

Genetic code is degenerate because?

A) Not all codons specify an amino acid

B) Most amino acids are encoded by more than one codon

C) Stop codons UAA, UAG and UGA designate chain termination

A

B

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3
Q

The synthesis of RNA from DNA template catalyzed by:

a) RNA polymerase
b) RNA transcriptase
c) RNA ligase

A

A

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4
Q

DNA Polymerase

a) Connects DNA template strands to introns
b) Connects polymers to DNA backbone
c) Catalyses the addition of deoxribonucleotide units to a DNA strand

A

C

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5
Q

Separation of DNA strands during replication is performed by:

a) Specific enzymes, termed polymerase
b) Specific enzymes, termed ligase
c) Specific enzymes, termed helicases

A

C

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6
Q

DNA polymerase needs a primer to start DNA replication. The primer is:

A) Short stretch of DNA (about five nucleotides) that is complementary to one of the template DNA strands

B) Short stretch of RNA (about five nucleotides) that is complementary to one of the template DNA strands

C) Fragments of DNA (approximately 1000 nucleotides) that is complementary to one of the template DNA strands

A

B

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7
Q

Replication of DNA is semiconservative because

A) Sequence of both strands is conserved

B) One of the strands of each daugther molecule is newly synthesized while the other is unchanged

C) Each daugter molecule is synthesised from old deoxyribonucleotides

A

B

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8
Q

Nonhomologous end joining is

a) Means for repairing double strang breaks in DNA that does not depend on ther DNA molecules in the cell
b) Repair of a region of DNA containing a thymine dimer
c) Carried out by photoreactivating enzyme called DNA photolyse

A

A

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9
Q

Proofreading is DNA repair precess which focuses on:

A) Repairing double strand breaks in DNA

B) Removing and replaycing a stretch of whole DNA around the site of damage

C) Removing incorrect bases during DNA synthesis

A

C

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10
Q

Telemerase is:

A) Unique structures at the ends of linear chromosomes

B) Short structure forming the prepriming complex

C) A specialized reverse transcriptase that carries its own template

A

C

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11
Q

Type 1 topoisomease relax supercoiled structures by:

A) Cleavege of one strand of the DNA and rotation it around the other strand

B) Temporary cleavage of DNA double helix directed passage of one DNA double helix throuht another

C) By introducing negative supercoils thruogh coupling to ATP hydrolysis

A

A

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12
Q

Histone tails

A) Participate in regulation of gene expression

B) Phosphorylate RNA polymerase 1

C) Form a homeodomain that binds DNA

A

A

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13
Q

Nucleosome

A) Contains 2000 bp of DNA and 2 copies of four histone proteins H2A, H2B, H3 og H4

B) Is a basic unit of DNA packaging

C) Contains 2000 bp of DNA and 8 copies of four histone proteins H2A, H2B, H3 og H4

A

B

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14
Q

Euchromatin

A) Is densely packed chromatin that is under constant transcription

B) Participates in the active transcription of DNA to mRNA products

C) Consists of nucleosomes that prevent DNA transkription

A

B

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15
Q

Introns begin and end with the nucleotide sequences

A) GU og AG respectively

B) TA and TAA respectively

C) CAAT and CG respectively

A

A

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16
Q

Eukaryotic transcription starts when

A) The RNA polymerase recognizes the promotor sequence upstream of the gene

B) Transpriction factor HF2H binds to the basal transpriptions complec

C) The carboxyterminal domain (CTD) of polymerase 2 becomes phosphorylated

A

C

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17
Q

RNA polymerase 1

A) Is unique because it transcribes only tRNA (poly 3)

B) Transcribes ribosomal RNA (rRNA) genes arranged in tandem repeats

C) Binds TATA like box sequence in promotor region (poly 2) = m-RNA

A

B

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18
Q

Bacteria regulate their gene expression

A) In responce to change in their growth enviroment

B) Sothat they do not exhaust the nutrients in their growth media

C) Because otherwise there would not be sufficient space in the cell

A

A

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19
Q

Helix-turn-helix motifs are commonly found in

A) DNA binding proteins

B) Autoinducers

C) RNA polymerases

A

A

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20
Q

An operin usally consists of

A) Promoter and terminator sequences

B) Activator, inhibitors and structual genes

C) Promoter, operator and structual genes

A

C

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21
Q

A promotor region

A) Lowers the energy necessary to separate the DNA-RNA hybrid

B) Is necessary for RNA polymerase transcriptional elongation

C) Increases the binding efficiency of the RNA polymerase og the DNA duplex

A

C

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22
Q

Transcription termination signals can be found:

A) In the transcribed regions of the DNA

B) In the GC-rich palindromes

C) In antibiotics like rifampicin

A

A

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23
Q

The transcription bubble contains

A) About 17 watson-Crick paired DNA bases

B) A DNA-RNA hybrid

C) The ρ-complex

A

B

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24
Q

Human genome contains

A) Approximately 3.234 bases in the genome

B) Approximately 20.000-25.000 human protein coding genes

C) Appriximatly 100.00 human protein coding genes

A

B

25
Q

Southern blotting technique is used to determine

A) If a particular bases sequence is present in a given DNA sample

B) If a particular bases sequence is present in a given RNA sample (nord)

C) If a particular bases sequence is present in a given protein sample (vest)

A

A

26
Q

Bacterial plasmids can be used for

A) De novo synthesis of RNA (de novo = de første)

B) Insertion and replication of DNA fragments

C) Creation of mobile genetic elements

A

B

27
Q

Complementary DNA is
(complementary = suppleredne, alternativ, synonym)
A) DNA complementary to an mRNA sequence

B) DNA created from complementarye introns and exons

C) DNA creating using ribosomal RNA as template (Sker aldrig!)

A

A

28
Q

Sanger dideoxy DNA sequencing method is based on

A) Adding os synthetic DNA linker to the DNA fragment

B) Controlled termination of replication by implemenration of ddNTP´s

C) High temperature stabile DNA plymerase

A

B

29
Q

restriction enzymes cleave both strands of the duplex DNA at characteristic place which is
(tænkt symmetrisk cut!)

A) Restriction digest DNA fragments

B) Fingerprint of a DNA molecule

C) Specific palindromic sequences of four to eight.

A

C

30
Q

Sequence alignments are made

A) Based on evolutionaery trees

B) To calculate penalties for sequence gaps

C) To detect homologous proteins

A

C

31
Q

Both nucleic acid and protein sequences can ve compared to detect homology. Which one would have smaller likelihood of random agreement:

A) Alignments of 6 nucleic acids

B) Alignments of 6 amino acids

C) Both are equally good

A

B

32
Q

The term orthologs refer to:
A) Proteins that are present within one species (often differ in their fuctions)

B) Proteins that have similar sequence

C) Proteins that are present within different species and have similar or identical functions

A

C

33
Q

miRNA ´s guide the argonaute protein to

A) Remove pre-miRNA hairpin

B) Associate with target RNA

C) Eject the passenger miRNA

A

B

34
Q

miRNA (micro RNA) are

A) Exons processed with debranching enzyme

B) Fragments of randomly transcribed RNA

C) Transcribed from their own genes or lariats opened by debranching enzyme

A

C

35
Q

When the intracellular iron-levels are low.
(transferrin = proteiner som fungerer som opbevaring af jern)

A) The cell transcribes more transferrin mRNA

B) The cell translates less transferrin mRNA

C) The cell degrades more transferrin mRNA

A

B

36
Q

Di-sulphide bonds

A. stabilise alpha helix structure of proteins

B. are not present in intrinsically unstructured proteins

C. are formed by oxidation of a pair of cysteine residues

A

C

37
Q

The polypeptide alpha-helix

A. is formed by connecting adjacent polypeptide strands

B. is fully extended polypeptide structure stabilized by hydrogen bonding between polypeptide strands

C. is a coiled structure stabilized by hydrogen bonds between the NH and CO groups of the main chain

A

C

38
Q

The peptide bond is in trans configuration when

A. two alpha-carbon atoms are on opposite sides of the peptide bond

B. two alpha-carbon atoms are on the same side of the peptide bond

C. the alpha-carbon are on the same side with nitrogen atom

A

A

39
Q

Hydrophobic effect is:

A. the three-dimensional structures of water-soluble proteins

B. peptide-bond formation in water soluble proteins

C. the tendency of hydrophobic molecules to associate with one another in water solution

A

C

40
Q

Four classes of amino acids include

A. hydrophobic, zwitterions, charged and linear

B. positively charged, negatively charged, hydrophobic, and polar

C. linear, branched, basic and acidic

A

B

41
Q

Protein secondary structure is

A. is formed by long-range interactions between amino acids

B. functional protein structure composed of several distinct polypeptide chains

C. three-dimensional structure formed by hydrogen bonds between amino acids near one another

A

C

42
Q

Initiation factor 2 (IF2)

A. binds to 16S rRNA

B. assists in formation of translation initiation complex

C. helps to recruit fMet-tRNAf to the ribosomal A site

A

B

43
Q

All nascent polypeptides recognised by the ‘signal recognition particle’

A. will be packed into trans-Golgi transport vesicles

B. will be synthesised directly into the endoplasmic reticulum

C. are destined to become membrane-soluble proteins

A

B

44
Q

The function of the Elongation Factor Tu is to

A. keep the 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits separate until the mRNA and tRNA are bound

B. catalyse the formation of the peptide bond

C. improve the accuracy of protein synthesis

A

C

45
Q

Initiation of translation starts when:

A. the mRNA binds to the CCUCC sequence on the 16S rRNA

B. tRNA carrying methionine attaches to the small ribosomal subunit

C. the 50S subunit binds forming the complete ribosome

A

B

46
Q

Wobble at the third base of the codon allows the tRNA

A. synthase to load the tRNA faster

B. to recognise several codons

C. to recognise the degenerate anticodons

A

B

47
Q

tRNA synthase

A. charges tRNA with amino acids in a two-step reaction

B. recognizes only one amino acid and its specific mRNA

C. has both activation and editing sites

A

C

48
Q

The isoelectric point of a protein is when it has:

A. the least number of charges

B. no net charge

C. the highest number of charges

A

B

49
Q

When amino acids cannot get recycled, their carbon skeleton is

A. excreted directly

B. converted to urea and then excreted

C. returned to the metabolic pathways

A

C

50
Q

What typically marks a protein for degradation

A. Phosphorylation

B. Ubiquitination

C. Oxidation

A

B

51
Q

Prothrombin is kept in its inactive form by

A. Vitamin K

B. Kringle domains

C. Fibrinogen

A

B

indeholder kringle men har behov for vitamin K, for at kunne omdanne fibrinogen!!

52
Q

Proteolytic cleavage activation of proteins is used when

A. the biochemical process is irreversible

B. the protein is destined to be immediately degraded

C. to indicate that the protein should have a rapid turnover

A

A

53
Q

When phosphatases dephosphorylate a protein they produce:

A. ADP

B. inorganic phosphate

C. orthophosphate

A

A

54
Q

Peptide ionisation occurs:

A. during electrospray process

B. inside mass spectrometer

C during trypsin digestion

A

A

55
Q

In proteomics experiments trypsin is used to

A. crystallise proteins

B. fragment peptides into y and b ions

C. cut proteins into peptides

A

C

56
Q

Protein mass spectrometry is used to

A. measure magnetic resonance

B. identify products of cell metabolism

C determine sequence of peptides

A

C

57
Q

Cellular proteome is:
A. defined solely by DNA sequence of genes

B. stable at different stages of human development

C. complex and dynamic

A

C

58
Q

Reverse phase chromatography separates proteins according to:

A. protein charge

B. molecular size of protein

C. hydrophobic interactions

A

C

59
Q

X-ray crystallography allows to study

A. protein sequences

B. protein structure at atomic resolution

C. protein structure in kinetic reactions

A

B

BMB504 (3 decks)

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