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MC-130J MQF > MC-130J Pilot Qual MQF > Flashcards

MC-130J Pilot Qual MQF Flashcards

1
Q

1(1). During the EXTERIOR INSPECTION checklist, enter/exit the nose wheel area from the ____________side only. Do not enter/exit from the _________ side of the nose wheel due to the possible hazard of venting liquid oxygen.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-8 Chap: 2A Para: Warning
A. front, back
B. left, right
C. right, left
D. back, front

A

B. left, right

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2
Q

2(2). Peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly from approximately __ to ___ minutes and in the wheel and tire assembly from approximately ____ to _____ minutes after a maximum braking operation.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-14.1 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 1, 5; 20, 30
B. 5, 10; 45, 65
C. 10, 15; 50, 60
D. 1, 10; 10, 20

A

A. 1, 5; 20, 30

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3
Q 
4(4). An overspeed switch automatically shuts down the APU for all of the following except: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-16 Chap: 9 
 	A.  APU RPM above 110 percent 
 	B.  Low oil pressure 
 	C.  Tachometer generator signal loss 
 	D. Fire
A

D. Fire

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4
Q

5(5). A WARNING is a:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward
A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed
B. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed
C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize
D. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency

A

A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed

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5
Q

6(6). A CAUTION is a:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward
A. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed
B. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency
C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed
D. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize

A

C. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed

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6
Q

7(7). A NOTE is a:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: iv Chap: Forward
A. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed
B. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize
C. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed
D. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that can be ignored except in an emergency

A

B. Operating procedure, technique, etc., that is considered essential to emphasize

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7
Q 
8(8). Maximum normal landing weight and associated sink rate are: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-2 Chap: 1 
 	A. 164,000 lbs/300 fpm
 	B.  155,000 lbs/300 fpm 
 	C.  165,000 lbs/300 fpm 
 	D.  155,000 lbs/ 540 fpm
A

A. 164,000 lbs/300 fpm

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8
Q 
9(9). What is the maximum airspeed for 50% flaps? 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1 
 	A. 183 KIAS
 	B.  140 KIAS 
 	C.  165 KIAS 
 	D.  168 KIAS
A

A. 183 KIAS

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9
Q 
10(10). Maximum landing gear and landing light extended speeds are: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1 
 	A.  168 KIAS, 180 KIAS 
 	B. 168 KIAS, 250 KIAS
 	C.  250 KIAS, 250 KIAS 
 	D.  165 KIAS, 165 KIAS
A

B. 168 KIAS, 250 KIAS

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10
Q 
11(11). The airplane should not be operated in conditions of severe turbulence.  However if flight in severe turbulence cannot be avoided, flight should be in the range of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ KIAS above power \_\_\_\_\_\_\_stall flaps up speed for the operating gross weight not to exceed \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ KIAS. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1 
 	A. 65, off, 181
 	B.  65, on, 181 
 	C.  80, off, 181 
 	D.  80, off, 180
A

A. 65, off, 181

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11
Q 
12(12). The maximum tire speed (knots ground speed) for the nose wheel is: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-9 Chap: 1 
 	A.  145 
 	B.  174 
 	C. 139
 	D.  155
A

C. 139

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12
Q

13(13). Turning with the brakes locked on one side is prohibited. While turning the airplane, avoid braking to a stop since damage may result. If use of the above is required during a turn:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-9 Chap: 1
A. all of the above should be performed
B. turn and brake the aircraft in the opposite direction
C. taxi the airplane 6 ft forward to align the gear
D. record it in the airplane forms

A

D. record it in the airplane forms

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13
Q 
14(14). Maximum airspeed with inoperative windscreen anti-ice protection below 10,000 ft MSL is: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-57 Chap: 3
 	A. 187 KIAS
 	B.  168 KIAS 
 	C.  220 KIAS 
 	D.  250 KIAS
A

A. 187 KIAS

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14
Q

15(15). CAUTION: With any flap extension, the maximum maneuver load factor is _______G in symmetrical and _________G in unsymmetrical maneuvers.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-12 Chap: 1 Para: Caution
A. 2.5 / 2.0
B. 2.5 / 1.5
C. 2.0 / 1.5
D. 2.0 / 2.0

A

C. 2.0 / 1.5

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15
Q

16(16). CAUTION: Exceeding the above limits of ___ static feathering cycles and/or feathering commands may cause engine damage. Upon reaching the limit, no further static propeller feathering cycles or feathering commands should be attempted until the engine has been started and run for at least ___ minutes above LSGI. If further aux feather pump usage is necessary before an engine run can be accomplished, the propeller gearbox must be drained.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-13 Chap: 1 Para: Caution
A. 3; 4
B. 4; 6
C. 2; 10
D. 4; 2

A

C. 2; 10

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16
Q 
17(17). What is the APU starter duty cycle? 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1 
 	A.  one minute on and one minute off  
 	B.  4 minutes on and 4 minutes off 
 	C. 1 minute on and 4 minutes off
 	D.  2 minutes on and 2 minutes off
A

C. 1 minute on and 4 minutes off

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17
Q 
18(18). When should the APU start light extinguish? 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1 
 	A.  When EGT is at 100 RPM 
 	B.  At 100%  
 	C.  When the APU has lit off 
 	D. At approximately 50%
A

D. At approximately 50%

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18
Q 
19(19). Inflight use of the APU is limited to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ operation.  Do not attempt to use APU \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ during flight.  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1 
 	A.  bleed air; generator 
 	B.  no; for generator or bleed air 
 	C.  any; below 10,000' 
 	D. AC generator; bleed air
A

D. AC generator; bleed air

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19
Q 
20(20). Takeoff Crosswind/Tailwind Restrictions:  If the crosswind component is above \_\_\_ knots and the wind is not within ±\_\_\_ degrees, hold the brakes and advance the power levers to \_\_\_\_\_ HP. When engines are stable at approximately 2500 HP, release the brakes. When indicated airspeed increases above \_\_\_ knots, move the power levers to TAKEOFF and monitor for within 200 HP of takeoff prediction within 5 seconds.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-47
 	A.  10, +/- 30, 4500HP, 25 
 	B.  20, +/- 45, 2500HP, 45  
 	C.  15, +/- 30, 2500HP, 35
 	D.  15, +/- 45, 2500HP, 35
A

D. 15, +/- 45, 2500HP, 35

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20
Q

21(21). WARNING: Positioning a power lever below the FLT IDLE position while airborne is ____________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-13 Chap: 1 Para: Warning
A. prohibited
B. acceptable
C. acceptable during FCF sorties
D. prohibited unless AFSOC examiners are on board

A

A. prohibited

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21
Q

22(22). Takeoff Crosswind/Tailwind Restrictions. If aircraft is not pointed into the wind +/- 45 degrees and the crosswind component is greater than 15 knots but less than 35 knots:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-47 Chap: 1
A. do not exceed 2000 HP until airplane speed is greater than 35 knots
B. do not exceed 2500 HP until airplane speed is greater than 35 knots
C. do not exceed 2000 HP until airplane speed is greater than 15 knots
D. Takeoff is not permitted

A

B. do not exceed 2500 HP until airplane speed is greater than 35 knots

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22
Q

26(26). CAUTION: Do not exceed ______ in HG of cabin differential pressure to avoid the possibility of structural damage to the aircraft.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-24.2 Chap: 1 Para: Caution
A. 15.2
B. 16.0
C. -1.3
D. 13.7

A

B. 16.0

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23
Q

28(28). Engine power is limited to idle when oil temperature is less than 0 ⁰C, and _____ HP when engine oil temperature is less than 45 ⁰C during ground operation.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-42 Chap: 1 Figure 1-4 Para: Note 7
A. LSGI
B. idle
C. 1000 HP
D. hotel mode

A

C. 1000 HP

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24
Q

29(29). The engine starter duty cycle is:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-42 Chap: 1 Figure 1-4
A. 70 seconds on, 60 seconds off, for 5 cycles, then a 20 minute cooling time is required
B. 60 seconds on, 60 seconds off, 60 seconds on, 5 minutes off, 60 seconds on, then a 30 minute cooling time is required
C. 1 minute on, then a 10 minute cooling time is required
D. The AE2100D3 engine has no starter duty cycle

A

A. 70 seconds on, 60 seconds off, for 5 cycles, then a 20 minute cooling time is required.

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25
Q

30(30). Procedures for engine shutdowns on the ground: For all ACAWS _________ (red master warning light and tone), pull the FIRE handle and then place the ENGINE START switch to STOP.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. messages
B. warnings
C. cautions
D. advisories

A

B. warnings

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26
Q

31(31). Before attempting ground restarts, wait ______seconds after_______ reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent overspeed protection circuit.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 30, NP
B. 45, NG
C. 30, NG
D. 45, NP

A

C. 30, NG

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27
Q 
32(32). Discontinue the start by placing the ENGINE START switch to STOP:  if no indication of engine oil pressure within 15 seconds of NG rotation or ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_(C). Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-4 Chap: 3 
 	A.  NO PRESS 
 	B.  NOT STARTED 
 	C.  SHUTDOWN NOW  
 	D. NO OIL PRESS
A

D. NO OIL PRESS

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28
Q

33(33). Normal hydraulic operating pressure should be indicated ___________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-3 Chap: 2D
A. 30 seconds after START switch is placed to START
B. within 60 seconds after NP is on speed
C. by NP on speed
D. within 30 seconds after NP is on speed

A

D. within 30 seconds after NP is on speed

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29
Q

34(34). Minimum bleed air pressure for sustaining a start is ___ PSI. A momentary drop below___ PSI when the starter valve opens is acceptable.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-2 Chap: 2D
A. 22, 22
B. 20, 20
C. 24, 24
D. 28, 28

A

A. 22, 22

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30
Q

35(35). If a circling approach is required, maintain ___________ until established on final approach.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-3 Chap: 2B
A. 140 knots
B. 150 knots
C. approach speed
D. threshhold speed

A

C. approach speed

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31
Q 
36(36). Starting Engines CAUTION:  On the ground, if fuel has been sprayed into the engine without ignition, motor the engine for at least \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ . 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-2 Caution 
 	A.  1 minute 
 	B. 30 secs
 	C.  20 secs 
 	D.  10 secs
A

B. 30 secs

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32
Q

37(37). Normal starting sequence is _________ , but other sequences may be used. External power equipment may be removed after the first engine is started.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 2, 1, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3, 4
C. None of the above
D. 3, 4, 2, 1

A

D. 3, 4, 2, 1

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33
Q

38(38). Engine (not APU) starter cutout occurs at approximately __________ and the starter light extinguishes. Continuous ignition terminates at approximately 65% NG.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-3 Chap: 2D
A. 65% NP
B. 50% NG
C. 65% NG
D. 72% NG

A

C. 65% NG

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34
Q

39(39). Procedures for engine shutdowns on the ground: For all other engine shutdowns on the ground, including normal shutdowns and shutdowns for ACAWS _____________, place the ENGINE START switch to STOP. Although pulling the FIRE handle on the ground does not damage equipment, it does cycle numerous valves and the auxiliary feather pump..
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. warnings
B. cautions
C. advisories
D. Both B and C

A

D. Both B and C

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35
Q

40(40). The engine ice protection system must be on for taxi and take-off when operating in visible moisture with an ambient temperature of _________ degrees C or less.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-5 Chap: 2B Para: Caution
A. 5
B. 10
C. 8
D. 0

A

B. 10

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36
Q

41(41). At least _____ engines must be set at or above the minimum power setting. (The remaining engines may be set to ________.)
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-6 Chap: 2B Para: Note
A. three; 1000 hp
B. three; flight idle
C. two; flight idle
D. two; 1000 hp

A

C. two; flight idle

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37
Q

42(42). The wing/empennage ice protection system should not be operated in ________ mode except during approach and landing.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-6 Chap: 2B Para: Caution
A. de-Ice
B. auto
C. off
D. anti-Ice

A

D. anti-Ice

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38
Q

43(43). The engines can be safely shutdown from _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-5 Chap: 2D Para: Note
A. normal ground idle, if required
B. all answers are correct
C. normally shifted to max reverse and operated for 2 minutes before shutdown
D. no answers are correct

A

A. normal ground idle, if required

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39
Q

44(44). Before shutdown, the engines are normally shifted to LSGI and operated for ______ before shutdown to more gradually cool engine components and prolong engine life.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-5 Para: Note
A. 1 min
B. 30 secs
C. 2 min
D. 15 secs

A

C. 2 min

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40
Q
  1. For all engine shutdowns in flight, pull the FIRE handle and then turn the engine start switch to STOP. The only exception to this rule is the Crew Action for ____________________ .
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-5 Chap: 2D Para: Note
    A. ENG 1(2,3,or 4) FLAMEOUT (C)
    B. BSTR SYS PRESS HI and UTIL SYS PRESS HI (C)
    C. PROP (1,2,3,or 4) LO PITCH STOP FAIL (W)
    D. A and B
A

D. A and B

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41
Q

46(46). To ensure cross-ship manifold priming is successful, the ___________ indicator shall be observed/monitored during the priming procedure.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-7 Chap: 2D Para: Note
A. FUEL PRESS
B. ACAWS FUEL LOW
C. LOX QTY
D. FUEL TEMP

A

A. FUEL PRESS

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42
Q 
47(47). For approaches when icing conditions have been encountered within approximately 6 minutes of landing, increase approach and threshold speeds for 100% flap landings by \_\_ knots and add any gust factor up to a cumulative total of \_\_ knots.  For 50% flap landings increase approach and threshold speeds by \_\_ knots and do not add a gust factor.  For zero flap landings add \_\_ knots to approach and threshold speeds and do not add a gust factor. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-48 WARNING
 	A. 6, 10, 10, 20
 	B.  6, 10, 15, 20 
 	C.  6, 12, 15, 20 
 	D.  10, 15, 20, 20
A

A. 6, 10, 10, 20

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43
Q

48(48). In icing conditions,
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-6/7 Chap: 2B
A. the landing gear doors may not completely close if the gear are raised after extended down operation.
B. cycle the gear to remove accumulated ice from the landing gear doors, after extended gear down operation in icing conditions.
C. restrict the use of flaps and landing gear to takeoff, approach and landing only.
D. All answers are correct

A

D. All answers are correct

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44
Q

49(49). CAUTION: When the airplane is parked with the fuel tanks more than three-quarters full (6,400 pounds in the outboard and 6,000 pounds in the inboard), all crossfeed valves should be __________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-6 Chap: 2D Para: Caution
A. de-energized by pulling ECB 441
B. switched ON
C. closed
D. open

A

C. closed

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45
Q

50(50). The fuel quantity totalizer _____ any error caused by a degraded or failed fuel quantity indicator.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-6 Chap: 2D Para: Note
A. reflects
B. will not reflect
C. no answer is correct
D. accounts for

A

A. reflects

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46
Q

51(51). Operation in severe icing conditions, including operation in freezing rain/drizzle is _________ and should be avoided.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-4 Chap: 2B
A. allowable
B. allowable provided the ice protect system is functional
C. not recommended
D. no answer is correct

A

C. not recommended

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47
Q
  1. An indication of engine inlet air duct icing in clear air (no visible moisture) would most likely be:
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-8 Chap: 2B
    A. Rising MGT indication for no apparent reason
    B. Engine HP indication falls for no apparent reason
    C. An A/I AIR TEMP LO ACAWS advisory
    D. The ACAWS message indicating continuous ignition
A

A. Rising MGT indication for no apparent reason

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48
Q 
53(53). The left and right auxiliary tanks each have one (\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_) AC-powered transfer pump. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-3 Chap: 8 
 	A. 28 - 40 PSI
 	B.  15 - 20 PSI 
 	C.  30 - 40 PSI 
 	D.  8.5 - 15 PSI
A

A. 28 - 40 PSI

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49
Q

54(54). What temperature would you use cold weather procedures?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-9 Chap: 2B
A. 0 degrees F/-10 degrees C and below
B. 0 degrees C/32 degrees F and below
C. wind chill below 10 degrees F/-12 degrees C
D. 40 degrees F/4 degrees C and below

A

B. 0 degrees C/32 degrees F and below

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50
Q

55(55). The recommended fuel management for approach and full stop landings is:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-9 Chap: 2D
A. crossfeed operation with the cross-ship manifold closed
B. tank-to-engine operation
C. crossfeed operation with transfer switches open
D. crossfeed operation with the cross-ship manifold open

A

B. tank-to-engine operation

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51
Q 
56(56). Low fuel state operations are defined as those operations that result in the airplane landing at the final destination with less than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ lbs of fuel. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 5-17 Chap: 5 
 	A.  4,000 
 	B.  7,000 
 	C.  10,000 
 	D. 6,000
A

D. 6,000

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52
Q

58(58). During APU start or operation, the APU may shut down without an associated ACAWS message. If this occurs:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-16
A. 1 restart may be attempted
B. restart only if using an external power cart
C. no more than 2 restarts may be attempted
D. maintenance is required prior to APU restart

A

D. maintenance is required prior to APU restart

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53
Q

59(59). What is the minimum amount of fuel in the No. 2 tank that will normally allow the APU to start and run without setting the No. 2 engine control to RUN?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-10 Chap: 2D
A. 900 Pounds
B. 2,000 Pounds
C. 1,000 Pounds
D. 2,250 Pounds

A

B. 2,000 Pounds

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54
Q

60(60). Engine Start at Moderately Cold Temperature: Operate the engine in HOTEL mode until engine oil temperature is above ________ degrees C and rising (cold weather operations).
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-13 Chap: 2B Para: Note
A. 0
B. 15
C. 45
D. 60

A

B. 15

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55
Q

61(61). Before the application of de-icing fluid, __________________ .
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-12 Chap: 2B Para: Warning
A. operate the flight deck air conditioning pack
B. shut down the APU and close all doors and hatches
C. pressurize the aircraft to provent de-icing fluid from seeping in aircraft
D. ensure the APU is running

A

B. shut down the APU and close all doors and hatches

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56
Q

62(62). After any full anti-skid braking operation at gross weights above __________ lbs, (aborted takeoffs, engine out/flaps up landing, etc.) ensure adequate brake/tire cooling time prior to further airplane operation. Approximate ground cooling time is ___________ minutes.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-14 Chap: 2D Para: Warning
A. 120,000, 30
B. 130,000, 65
C. 130,000, 15
D. 115,000, 60

A

B. 130,000, 65

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57
Q

63(63). Do not select AUTONAV ___________ show correct present position.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-17 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. until both of the CNI-MUs
B. until either of the CNI-MUs
C. until you confirm your clearance with ground control
D. until cleared by the CSO

A

A. until both of the CNI-MUs

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58
Q

64(64). Oxygen system: Under a continuous breathing condition, the pressure should indicate __________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 16-1 Chap: 16
A. 320-600 psi
B. pressure does not matter as long as the quantity indicates above 5 liters
C. 270-340 psi
D. 300-455 psi

A

C. 270-340 psi

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59
Q

65(65). Hot weather operation is operation in temperatures above ___________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2B-17 Chap: 2B
A. 32 degrees C/90 degrees F
B. 29 degrees C/85 degrees F
C. 38 degrees C/100 degrees F
D. 35 degrees C/95 degrees F

A

D. 35 degrees C/95 degrees F

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60
Q

67(67). Turn off the NESA system if:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-21 Chap: 2D Para: Caution
A. Electrical arcing is observed in any of the panels
B. Any of the panels containing thermistors are not heating
C. Panels are excessively hot to the touch
D. All of the answers are correct

A

D. All of the answers are correct

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61
Q

68(68). Do not illuminate the landing lights for more than _______ seconds unless sufficient air flow exists from engine operation or taxi.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-71 Chap: 2A Para: Caution
A. 20
B. 10
C. 30
D. 60

A

B. 10

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62
Q

69(69). Do not commence an engine start if MGT is above _________ degrees C. Motor the engine if necessary.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2D Para: Caution
A. 175
B. 100
C. 200
D. 250

A

A. 175

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63
Q

70(70). Before attempting ground restarts, wait _______ secs after NG reaches zero (0) to enable a successful test of the NG independent over-speed protection circuit.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2D Para: Note
A. 20
B. 30
C. 10
D. 60

A

B. 30

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64
Q

71(71). During engine start, if the ENGINE START switch is not held in the START position until the white box appears
around the engine display, it is possible that the offside FADEC will not see the start and will remain in stop mode,
which could result in an engine shutdown if that FADEC is subsequently selected.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-33 Chap: 2
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

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65
Q

72(72). If any of the following ACAWS are displayed, the FADEC will automatically abort the engine start. Discontinue the start by placing the ENGINE START switch to STOP.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-4 Chap: 3
A. All answers are correct
B. ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) FLAMEOUT (C)
C. ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) NO LIGHTOFF (A)
D. ENG 1 (2, 3, or 4) STAGNATED START (A

A

A. All answers are correct

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66
Q

73(73). Select the incorrect response. For coupled autopilot operation the altitude hold mode is automatically disengaged when:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-24 Chap: 2D Para: Note
A. When APPR mode is selected
B. The elevator trim switch or pitch wheel is activated
C. When Vertical Speed (VS), pitch synchronization (SYN), or airspeed (IAS) mode is engaged
D. At glide slope capture in the APPR mode

A

A. When APPR mode is selected

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67
Q

74(74). Which of the following is not an ACAWS condition requiring the FIRE handle to be pulled and the ENGINE START switch to be placed to STOP during an engine start?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-148 Chap: 3
A. ENG 1 (2,3,4) MGT HIGH warning
B. Start VLV 1 (2,3,4) OPEN warning
C. ENG 1 (2,3,4) FIRE warning
D. ENG 1 (2,3,4) FLAMEOUT caution

A

D. ENG 1 (2,3,4) FLAMEOUT caution

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68
Q
  1. CAUTION: If the wing and empennage anti-icing/deicing system test must be repeated, wait at least ____ before repeating test.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-239/2A-37
    A. 15
    B. 10
    C. 5
    D. Not permitted above 70 degrees F (21 degrees C)
A

B. 10

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69
Q

76(76). If there are no obstacles to clear after flaps retraction, and a lower nose attitude is desired, the following climb speed schedule is recommended: _________________________________________, then four engine climb speed above 25,000 feet. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-48 Chap: 2A

A. 180 KIAS to 10,000 feet, 170 KIAS to 15,000 feet, 160 KIAS to 25,000 feet
B. 180 KIAS to 15,000 feet, 170 KIAS to 20,000 feet, 160 KIAS to 30,000 feet
C. 180 KIAS to 10,000 feet, 168 KIAS to 20,000 feet, 155 KIAS to 25,000 feet
D. Vobs to 10,000 feet, L/D Max to 20,000 feet

A

A. 180 KIAS to 10,000 feet, 170 KIAS to 15,000 feet, 160 KIAS to 25,000 feet

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70
Q

77(77). A ____ minute cool down period is required between stick pusher activations to prevent damage to the stick pusher actuator.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-36 Chap: 2A Para: Caution
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 3

A

C. 5

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71
Q

80(80). Turning the ____________ switches on with three or more power levers at FLT IDLE or greater can result in the stick pusher automatically turning off.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-43 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. NESA
B. pitot heat
C. landing light
D. engine anti-ice

A

B. pitot heat

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72
Q

81(81). If predicted climb-out flight path is not required, raise the flaps passing Flaps Up Safety Speed (FUSS, Vobs + ____) but not less than__________ KIAS.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-48 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 30; 130
B. 40; 120
C. 50; 150
D. 25; 135

A

D. 25; 135

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73
Q

82(82). Wing/empennage anti-icing in anti-ice mode should be turned on in sufficient time prior to landing to ensure vertical stab is completely anti-iced. This may take as long as ________ minutes. Failure to do so will cause the X-WIND LIMITED ACAWS message to be displayed when the landing gear are lowered, and the side slip warning system will limit crosswind landing capability if icing is detected.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-57 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 2.5

A

B. 2

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74
Q 
83(83). Any cruise speed up to recommended speed may be utilized in conditions up to and including \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ turbulence. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-7 Chap: 1 
 	A.  severe 
 	B.  light 
 	C. moderate
 	D.  no
A

C. moderate

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75
Q 
84(84). The normal flap setting for landing is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_% 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-59 Chap: 2
 	A. 100
 	B.  50 
 	C.  Zero 
 	D.  25
A

A. 100

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76
Q

85(85). At the first indication of directional control difficulties during four engine reverse thrust, immediately return all power levers to the ________ position until the affected engine can be identified.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-60 Chap: 2A Para: Warning
A. ground idle
B. flight idle
C. Beta range
D. LSGI

A

A. ground idle

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77
Q

86(86). If one BETA indication does not illuminate after the power levers are brought to ground idle and no other associated ACAWS occurs, there is a remote possibility that directional control difficulties will occur as airspeed slows. If necessary for directional control,
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-60 Chap: 2A Para: Warning
A. the engine without BETA should be ignored
B. the engine fire handle should be pulled for the engine without BETA
C. all throttles should be placed in flight idle then back to ground idle
D. do not place any of the power levers into reverse

A

B. the engine fire handle should be pulled for the engine without BETA

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78
Q

87(87). During landing rollout, the pilot monitoring should verbalize “four Bs” (will be less than __________). The pilot should move the power levers to ground idle and complete the landing.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-61 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 145 KTAS
B. 120 KIAS
C. 135 KTAS
D. 115 KIAS

A

A. 145 KTAS

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79
Q

88(88). To preclude excessive side loads on the landing gear, avoid crab angles over ________ degrees during landings.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-62 Chap: 2A Para: Caution
A. 5
B. 3
C. 10
D. 15

A

A. 5

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80
Q

89(89). If a BANK ANGLE or a SIDE SLIP alert occurs during the crosswind approach _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-62 Chap: 2A Para: Warning
A. all answers are correct
B. if the alert continues or the LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER alert occurs, consider discontinuing the approach and executing a go-around
C. reduce bank angle
D. reduce rudder force slightly

A

A. all answers are correct

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81
Q

90(90). When a WINDSHEAR alert occurs during takeoff or approach for landing, immediately execute the WINDSHEAR
Warning Alert Recovery procedure. Whenever a GCAS PULL UP or TAWS PULL UP alert occurs, _________________________________________. Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-71 Chap: 2A Para: Warning
A. immediately execute the GCAS/TAWS PULL UP Alert Recovery procedure
B. press the “go-around” button on the throttles and follow the flight director commands
C. ignore the alert
D. announce, “I have the aircraft”

A

A. immediately execute the GCAS/TAWS PULL UP Alert Recovery procedure

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82
Q

91(91). The engine pump switches are to be left in the ___ position after engine shutdown. If the switch is left in the ____ position, pressure buildup due to the thermal expansion of the hydraulic fluid may cause the ____ .
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-72 Chap: 2A Para: Caution
A. ON; OFF; suction line hydraulic firewall shutoff valve to fail
B. OFF; OFF; hydraulic filler cap to blow
C. ON; ON; hydraulic boost pressure to remain high
D. no answer is correct

A

A. ON; OFF; suction line hydraulic firewall shutoff valve to fail

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83
Q

92(92). To prevent an abnormal shutdown of the EGI, delay turning off AC power for approximately _________seconds or until ECB 499 indicates open.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-73 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 10
B. 35
C. 5
D. 60

A

B. 35

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84
Q

93(93). Due to engine exhaust heat, entry and exit through the paratroop doors with engines running is prohibited in which condition:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-4 Chap: 2D Para: Warning
A. engines in normal ground idle and flaps up
B. engines in low speed ground idle and flaps extended
C. engines in Hotel mode and flaps extended
D. engines in LSGI and flaps up

A

C. engines in Hotel mode and flaps extended

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85
Q 
94(94). The alarm bell signal for ground evacuation is what? 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-3 Chap: 3 
 	A.  2 long rings 
 	B.  6 short rings 
 	C.  3 short rings 
 	D. 1 long sustained ring
A

D. 1 long sustained ring

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86
Q

95(95). WARNING: With _______________ the shutdown engine side, full braking (even if the runway is long) and nose wheel steering will be required to control the weather cocking into the wind as the power levers are moved below FLT IDLE.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-15 Chap: 3 Para: Warning
A. crosswinds from adjacent
B. crosswinds from opposite
C. headwinds from opposite
D. headwinds from adjacent

A

B. crosswinds from opposite

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87
Q

96(96). ___________ autofeather any time the FADEC detects autofeather criteria.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-7 Chap: 3
A. Propeller 1 and 4
B. Propeller 2 and 3
C. Propeller 1 and 4, only below 15,000 ft with a 2 second delay
D. Propeller 1, 2, 3 and 4

A

A. Propeller 1 and 4

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88
Q

97(97). If the autofeather criteria occur below 15,500 feet and all three other engines are running normally,
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-7 Chap: 3
A. an inboard engine autofeathers
B. an inboard engine will windmill at 100% NP to ensure good electrics and hydraulics
C. an inboard engine autofeathers after a two-second delay to give the engine time to recover
D. nothing will happen except for an ACAWS message being generated

A

C. an inboard engine autofeathers after a two-second delay to give the engine time to recover

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89
Q 
98(98). At or above 15,500 feet, or if another engine is shut down, the inboard engine windmills at 100%.  If all four engines flameout, this logic ensures at least one inboard propeller will be at 100% RPM to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-7 Chap: 3 
 	A.  ensure sufficient thrust 
 	B.  cool the MGT below 175 degrees F 
 	C.  no answers are correct 
 	D. supply electric and hydraulic power
A

D. supply electric and hydraulic power

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90
Q

99(99). Failure of the booster hydraulic system causes _________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3
A. the loss of half the force for operating the flight controls
B. the loss of hydraulics for gear extension and retraction
C. the loss of hydraulics for normal brake pressure
D. all the answers are correct

A

A. the loss of half the force for operating the flight controls

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91
Q 
100(100). Failure of the utility hydraulic system will result in loss of the following except: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-24 Chap: 3 
 	A. hydraulic boost for the spoilers
 	B.  normal landing gear extension 
 	C.  normal flap retraction 
 	D.  normal brake supply
A

A. hydraulic boost for the spoilers

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92
Q

101(101). If you have a main landing gear tire failure:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-35 Chap: 3
A. keep the nose gear off the runway as long as possible
B. do not use maximun reverse thrust
C. land on the side of the runway with the bad tire
D. land on the side of the runway with the good tires

A

D. land on the side of the runway with the good tires

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93
Q

102(102). When fuel must be dumped in a controlled environment:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-39 Chap: 3
A. Do not dump fuel less than 5000 ft above the terrain.
B. Ensure the crossfeed valves are closed to prevent emptying the main tanks completely.
C. Do not dump in a circular pattern.
D. All the answers are correct.

A

D. All the answers are correct.

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94
Q

103(103). Flaps System: WARNING: Protection against asymmetrical operation is provided only during ________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-44 Chap: 3
A. normal hydraulic flap operation
B. manual flap operation
C. instrument approaches with the GCAS in normal
D. tactical approaches with the GCAS in tactical

A

A. normal hydraulic flap operation

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95
Q

104(104). Bailout from the crew entrance door is not recommended at air speeds above _____ KIAS or with the landing gear extended.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-91 Chap: 3 Para: Warning
A. 170
B. 250
C. 150
D. 125

A

C. 150

96
Q

105(105). During ditching, when should personnel inflate life vests?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-86 Chap: 3 Para: Warning
A. After aircraft comes to a complete stop
B. After exiting and clear of the escape hatch
C. When treading water becomes too difficult
D. Ditching imminent

A

B. After exiting and clear of the escape hatch

97
Q

106(106). Life raft emergency release handles must be pulled ____ for complete ejection and inflation of liferafts.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-87 Chap: 3 Para: Warning
A. though their full travel
B. at least 3 inches
C. one at a time
D. in numerical sequence

A

A. though their full travel

98
Q

107(107). In the event of either the CREW DOOR OPEN or RAMP OPEN PRESSURIZED ACAWS message is displayed, notify crew and passengers to:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-83 Chap: 3
A. Crew 100% Oxygen
B. breathe deeply and slowly
C. fasten seat belts
D. place their heads between their knees

A

C. fasten seat belts

99
Q

108(108). If inflight evacuation of the aircraft is required and conditions permit, the order of preference for bailout exits is:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-90 Chap: 3
A. Crew entrance door, paratroop doors, and cargo door/ramp
B. Cargo door/ramp, paratroop doors, and crew entrance door
C. Paratroop doors, cargo door/ramp, and crew entrance door
D. Paratroop doors, crew entrance door, cargo door/ramp

A

B. Cargo door/ramp, paratroop doors, and crew entrance door

100
Q

109(109). An asterisk (*) at the end of an ACAWS message indicates that _________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 3-121 Chap: 3
A. you should declare an emergency quickly
B. other associated components may have been affected by the failure
C. the system was not able to conclude exactly what the problem is
D. this problem is not worth investigating any further

A

B. other associated components may have been affected by the failure

101
Q

110(110). Takeoff _____________ with the ATCS FAIL ACAWS Caution illuminated.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 5-23 Chap: 5
A. is not recommended
B. is recommended
C. can be safely accomplished using normal procedures
D. is highly recommended

A

A. is not recommended

102
Q

111(111). During the airstart procedure, allow up to ________ after core comes on speed for onset of propeller rotation.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 5-13 Chap: 5 Para: Note
A. 1 min
B. 2 min
C. 15 secs
D. 30 secs

A

B. 2 min

103
Q

112(112). During the POWER UP checklist, if battery voltage is between _____ and ______, recharge (in airplane) or replace the battery and rerun the battery test.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2A-13 Chap: 2A Para: Note
A. 22VAC, 24VAC
B. 20VDC, 22VDC
C. 22VDC, 24VDC
D. 24VDC, 28VDC

A

C. 22VDC, 24VDC

104
Q 
113(113). Fuel for the APU is routed directly from the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ fuel tank. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-1 Chap: 8 
 	A.  No. 1 
 	B. No. 2
 	C.  No. 4 
 	D.  No. 3
A

B. No. 2

105
Q

114(114). The engine fire handles, when pulled, close the engine fire wall fuel shut off valves and _________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-16 Chap: 8
A. signals the FADECs to open fuel control valve
B. notifies the pilot of the proper circuit breakers to pull to complete the procedure
C. signals the FADECs to shut off the fuel at the fuel control valve
D. simultaneously generates enough thrust on the opposite engine to account for the loss of thrust

A

C. signals the FADECs to shut off the fuel at the fuel control valve

106
Q 
115(115). Two two-position pushbutton fuel transfer switches (TO, FROM) are located on the FUEL MANAGEMENT panel for each tank.  The \_\_\_\_\_ switch (ON/OFF) controls the respective
tank transfer pumps. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-15 Chap: 8 
 	A.  CLSD
 	B.  OPEN
 	C.  TO 
 	D. FROM
A

D. FROM

107
Q 
116(116). Engine start switches are on the ENGINE START control panel.  The \_\_\_\_\_ position of No. 1, 2, 3, and 4 engine start switches control the internal boost pumps for their respective main tanks. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 8-15 Chap: 8 
 	A. RUN
 	B.  START 
 	C.  MOTOR 
 	D.  FROM
A

A. RUN

108
Q 
118(118). The takeoff power performance rating is approximately \_\_\_\_\_ horsepower (HP), at temperatures up to 39.4 degrees Celsius (103 degrees Fahrenheit) at sea level and with no bleed air. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-1 Chap: 9 
 	A. 4700
 	B.  4500 
 	C.  4600 +/- 100 
 	D.  4650 +/- 50
A

A. 4700

109
Q

119(119). Propeller speed (NP) governing is accomplished by __________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-3 Chap: 9
A. varying propeller blade angle and/or engine fuel flow
B. rebooting the aircraft
C. selecting ALT on the FADEC
D. connecting the AFCS and selecting NAV

A

A. varying propeller blade angle and/or engine fuel flow

110
Q

121(121). Select the correct statement regarding the engine:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-2 Chap: 9
A. Airplane electrical power is required at all times for FADEC operation.
B. During engine operation both FADECs are functioning, but only one is in actual control of the engine and propeller.
C. When the power levers are forward of FLT IDLE, the FADEC schedules torque as a function of location of IAS ref-mode panel selection.
D. The propeller speed varies between 50-100% to maintain a certain blade angle.

A

B. During engine operation both FADECs are functioning, but only one is in actual control of the engine and propeller.

111
Q 
122(122). The fire and overheat detection system (F/ODS) monitors for indications of\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-11 Chap: 9 
 	A. fire, overheat, and smoke
 	B.  overheat, fire, electrical shorts 
 	C.  fire, smoke, and fumes 
 	D.  fire, overheat, smoke, and fumes
A

A. fire, overheat, and smoke

112
Q

123(123). ACAWS alerts the crew if the oil cooler augmentation system fails on. If the system fails on, bleed air damage to the oil cooler flap occurs unless the crew ___________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-7 Chap: 9 Para: Caution
A. closes the oil cooler flap to full closed
B. opens the oil cooler flap to full open
C. decides to turn on the bleed air augmentation
D. decides to turn off the bleed air augmentation

A

B. opens the oil cooler flap to full open

113
Q

124(124). When the APU fire handle is pulled, the following occurs:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-13 Chap: 9
A. All answers are correct.
B. Control power to the APU start circuit interrupted.
C. APU Fuel supply shut-off valve is closed.
D. Fire extinguishing system directional flow valve is positioned.

A

A. All answers are correct.

114
Q

125(125). Simultaneous activation of two or more FIRE handles may result in misdirecting the fire extinguishing agent and a FIRE EXT FAILURE ACAWS. _________________ redirects the extinguishing agent to that engine.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-13 Chap: 9 Para: Note
A. Doing nothing and waiting for ACAWS
B. Pulling the DITU ECBs 441 and 890
C. Recycling the desired FIRE handle
D. Placing the propeller control switch to FEATHER

A

C. Recycling the desired FIRE handle

115
Q

126(126). The pneumatic systems served by the bleed air system are as follows:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 9-13 Chap: 9
A. All answers are correct
B. Engine Starting and Air Conditioning Systems
C. Cabin Pressurization System
D. Wing and empennage ice protection and deicing boot

A

A. All answers are correct

116
Q

127(127). UTILITY HYDRAULIC SYSTEM: The engine-driven pumps are supplied hydraulic fluid by an ____________ from a reservoir mounted on the left side of the cargo compartment.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11
A. electric utility booster augmentation pump
B. electric suction boost pump
C. electrical conduit flow control valve
D. electric valve

A

B. electric suction boost pump

117
Q

128(128). The engine driven hydraulic pumps are provided with internal control mechanisms to vary output volume with system demand, and to control pressure to maintain approximately ______ PSI.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11
A. 3000
B. 2900
C. 3100
D. 3200

A

A. 3000

118
Q

129(129). Identify the system powered by the Utility hydraulic system:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11
A. Nose landing gear emergency extension
B. Emergency brakes
C. Flaps
D. Ramp and door

A

C. Flaps

119
Q

130(130). The Booster Hydraulic System furnishes hydraulic power to:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11
A. Emergency brakes
B. The remaining portion of the flight control system only
C. Landing gear system
D. Flap system

A

B. The remaining portion of the flight control system only

120
Q

131(131). Identify the system powered by the AUX hydraulic system:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 11-1 Chap: 11
A. Booster hydraulic system services
B. Emergency lowering of the nose gear
C. Nosewheel steering
D. In-flight retraction of the landing gear

A

B. Emergency lowering of the nose gear

121
Q

132(132). The landing gear warning audio is interconnected with the flap system. When the flaps lever is set at approximately ___ percent or more, with refueling pods not attached or with the flaps set at approximately___ percent or more with the refueling pods attached, and with the landing gear not down and locked, the landing gear warning audio will sound. It cannot be silenced until the landing gear is down and locked or the flaps lever is repositioned to less than ____ percent depending on refueling pod attachment.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 12-5 Chap: 12 Para: Note
A. 80, 80, 70 or 80
B. 70, 80, 70 or 80
C. 80, 70, 80 or 90
D. 60, 50, 70 or 80

A

B. 70, 80, 70 or 80

122
Q

133(133). Under normal operation, retraction extension time of both nose and main landing gears is ____ or less.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 13-1 Chap: 13
A. 10 SECONDS
B. 30 SECONDS
C. 39 SECONDS
D. 19 SECONDS

A

D. 19 SECONDS

123
Q

134(134). Two things will cause the landing gear aural warning message when the landing gear is not down and locked: _______________, or _______________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 13-4 Chap: 13
A. retarding an engine power lever to within 5 degrees of the FLT IDLE position below 1,500 feet AGL; extending the flaps more than approximately 70 percent or 80 percent with refueling pods attached
B. retarding all power levers to GND IDLE; advancing all throttles to FLT IDLE position
C. retarding all power levers to FLT IDLE; advancing all throttles to TAKEOFF position
D. retarding all power levers to close to FLT IDLE; setting the flaps to 100%

A

A. retarding an engine power lever to within 5 degrees of the FLT IDLE position below 1,500 feet AGL; extending the flaps more than approximately 70 percent or 80 percent with refueling pods attached

124
Q

135(135). Under high humidity conditions, the ECS (Environmental Control System) may produce small chunks of ice and expel them at high speed from the air conditioning outlets. To avoid possible eye injury, ____________________________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 14-3 Chap: 14 Para: Warning
A. turn on the flight compartment air conditioning only after selecting cargo compartment
B. turn on the cargo compartment air conditioning only
C. do not turn on the air conditioning system
D. do not direct the outlet toward your face

A

D. do not direct the outlet toward your face

125
Q

136(136). As the power levers are advanced above flight idle for takeoff, cabin altitude begins a descent to ______. If all four power levers are retarded before liftoff, cabin altitude ascends at _________ for 20 seconds.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 14-5 Chap: 14
A. 300 feet below field elevation; 500 feet per minute
B. 500 feet below field elevation; 300 feet per minute
C. Mean Sea Level; 500 feet per minute
D. field elevation; 300 feet per minute

A

A. 300 feet below field elevation; 500 feet per minute

126
Q

137(137). In the anti-icing mode, the zone control valves operate the same as the deice mode except the vertical tail zone control valves remain open _____ .
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 15-3 Chap: 15
A. for 60 second intervals
B. for 30 second intervals
C. continuously
D. for 15 second intervals

A

C. continuously

127
Q

138(138). Which of the following Ice Protection systems are not triggered by the ice detectors?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 15-6 Chap: 15
A. WING/EMP
B. Engine
C. Pitot heat
D. Propellers

A

C. Pitot heat

128
Q

139(139). The propeller spinner and blades are equipped with ________________ for anti-icing and deicing.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 15-4 Chap: 15
A. pneumatic boots
B. alcohol dispensers
C. bleed air
D. electrical heating elements

A

D. electrical heating elements

129
Q

140(140). The MC-130J has ____ portable oxygen bottles.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 16-3 Chap: 16
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 5

A

A. 4

130
Q

141(141). Altimeter Setting: The selection of inches of mercury or millibars is made on the ___________ page.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 17-6 Chap: 17
A. CNI-MU, IFF page1/2
B. AMU PFD
C. AMU PREFLIGHT
D. CNI-MU, MC INDEX, TAC PLOT

A

B. AMU PFD

131
Q

142(142). Altitude Alert Set: At one thousand feet prior to the selected altitude (ascending or descending) a voice message of ____________________ will alert the crew to approaching altitude selection.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 17-5 Chap: 17
A. A THOUSAND TO GO
B. APPROACHING ALTITUDE
C. APPROACHING LEVEL-OFF
D. MINIMUMS

A

A. A THOUSAND TO GO

132
Q 
143(143). Inflight, the reference IAS cannot be set \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  With weight on wheels, the reference airspeed is fixed to \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 17-5 : Note 
 	A. below 1.2 Vs; VOBS
 	B.  above 1.2 Vs; Vref 
 	C.  below 1.0 Vs; V2  
 	D.  above 1.0 Vs; Vref
A

A. below 1.2 Vs; VOBS

133
Q

144(144). In the Primary Flight Display or Heads-Up Display, when either autopilot is engaged (pitch and roll axis), the shape of both Climb Dive Markers (CDM) change from a _________ to a __________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18D-12 Chap: 18D Para: Note
A. diamond; circle
B. circle; diamond
C. circle; circle
D. diamond; diamond

A

B. circle; diamond

134
Q

147(147). A white airplane pitch indicator is located above the center of the FPDI (Flight Path Director Indicator). It represents the longitudinal axis of the airplane and moves vertically on the flight path scale. It shows where the ____ of the airplane is pointed. Airplane pitch is displayed on the FPDI by the relationship between the ________ and the ________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18D-42 Chap: 18D
A. wings; wings; tail
B. nose; airplane pitch indicator; CDM (Climb Dive Marker)
C. tail; reference airspeed; reference altitude
D. nose; airspeed; altitude

A

A. Pilots input reference set; Flight director

135
Q

150(150). CNI advisories for the number 1 radios _______ displayed if MC 1 has failed, and CNI advisories for the number 2 radios ________ displayed if MC 2 has failed.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-4 Chap: 18
A. will be; will not be
B. will not be; will be
C. will be; will be
D. will not be; will not be

A

D. will not be; will not be

136
Q

151(151). The Get Home Control (GHC) panel, located on the copilot side console, allows the crew to control either ______ or _______ for emergency or backup operations.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18A-9 Chap: 18A
A. VHF-2; UHF-2
B. VHF-1; UHF-2
C. VHF-1; UHF-1
D. VHF-2; UHF-1

A

C. VHF-1; UHF-1

137
Q

153(153). The cursor functions in one of four modes (_______, ________, __________, and __________). Each mode is designed for a particular operation, by tying the cursor position to a different reference position.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-42 Chap: 18B
A. cursor; map; digi-map; common
B. manual; automatic; computer; reset
C. ON; OFF; STBY; RESET
D. manual; ground; computer; quick

A

D. manual; ground; computer; quick

138
Q

155(155). The computer cursor switch is a snap-action, double-detent trigger switch. Pulling the switch to its first detent and releasing causes the cursor mode to change to__________. Pulling the switch to the second detent and releasing changes the cursor mode to ____________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-46 Chap: 18B
A. quick cursor; computer cursor
B. manual cursor; ground cursor
C. computer cursor; quick cursor
D. ground cursor; manual cursor

A

C. computer cursor; quick cursor

139
Q

156(156). DIGITAL MAP STABILIZATION. Is used to select the digital map stabilization and slew mode. Pressing the digital map stabilization select switch to the left selects ________ stabilization and cursor slewing, pressing down selects _________ stabilization and cursor slewing, and pressing right selects ________ stabilization and map slewing.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-20 Chap: 18B
A. ground; cursor; airplane
B. cursor; ground; airplane
C. airplane; cursor; ground
D. ground; airplane; cursor

A

C. airplane; cursor; ground

140
Q

157(157). The vertical maneuvering resolution advisories issued by TCAS can only be determined and generated against intruder airplanes that report ________ data in their transponder replies to TCAS interrogations. For non-altitude reporting (NAR) airplanes, TCAS generates __________ only.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-28 Chap: 18B
A. altitude; traffic advisories
B. airspeed; resolution advisories
C. mode S; resolution advisories
D. mode S; altitude data

A

A. altitude; traffic advisories

141
Q

158(158). ______ has a higher priority than _______. In case of simultaneous audio alarms, the TCAS system is placed in _________mode during the alert.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-29 Chap: 18B Para: Warning
A. GCAS; TCAS; TA ONLY
B. TCAS; GCAS; TA/RA
C. GCAS; TCAS; STBY
D. TCAS; GCAS; RA ONLY

A

A. GCAS; TCAS; TA ONLY

142
Q

159(159). FARs require pilots to __________ RA instructions when _______, and pilots are mandated to immediately _______ ATC of the maneuver and when they return to the originally assigned altitude.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-29 Chap: 18B Para: Warning
A. disregard; able; notify
B. follow; received; notify
C. disregard; unable; request
D. disregard; received; notify

A

B. follow; received; notify

143
Q

160(160). When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-radar display, the system gives _______ information higher priority.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-31 Chap: 18B Para: Note
A. RWR
B. TCAS
C. Mode S
D. Mode 3

A

A. RWR

144
Q

161(161). When TCAS commands a corrective resolution advisory, sufficient time exists to perform a smooth vertical maneuver to avoid the conflict. TCAS expects ________ crew reaction time to RA, requiring approximately _____.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-30 Chap: 18B Para: Note
A. five seconds; 0.25G
B. three seconds; -1G
C. five seconds; -1G
D. ten seconds; 0.25G

A

A. five seconds; 0.25G

145
Q

162(162). The radar altimeters may break track or give erroneous readings at radar altitudes above ________, possibly resulting in a TCAS FAULT or a GCAS alert. If this occurs, both pilots should ________________using the AMU.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-32 Chap: 18B Para: Note
A. 10,000 feet AGL; select in Hg for the altimeter
B. 20,000 feet AGL; select millibars for the altimeter
C. 10,000 feet AGL; select the same radar altimeter source
D. 20,000 feet AGL; select the same radar altimeter source

A

C. 10,000 feet AGL; select the same radar altimeter source

146
Q

164(164). TCAS: The target symbol for an RA (resolution advisory) is a _________ with a data tag. The target symbol for a TA (traffic advisory) is a _________ with a data tag.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-30 Chap: 18B
A. yellow -filled circle; red-filled square
B. colored circle; colored square
C. red-filled square; yellow-filled circle
D. polka-dotted hexagon; striped pentagon

A

C. red-filled square; yellow-filled circle

147
Q

165(165). How many scratch pads does the CNBP page access and in what order?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 2D-67 Chap: 2D
A. Three - The CNBP, the pilot’s CNI-MU and the copilot’s CNI-MU
B. One - the CNBP
C. Two - The CNBP and the pilot’s CNI-MU
D. Three - The CNBP, the copilot’s CNI-MU and the pilot’s CNI-MU

A

D. Three - The CNBP, the copilot’s CNI-MU and the pilot’s CNI-MU

148
Q

166(166). It is imperative to follow resolution advisories (RA) to obtain the airplane separation computed by TCAS. Two TCAS equipped airplanes ___________ their resolution advisories using a mode S transponder data link.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-29 Chap: 18B Para: Warning
A. cannot coordinate
B. all answers are correct
C. will coordinate
D. no answer is correct

A

C. will coordinate

149
Q

167(167). It is _____ for the TCAS system to issue resolution advisory commands _____.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-29 Chap: 18B Para: Warning
A. not possible / outside of the aircraft performance envelope
B. possible / because the system takes into account aircraft limitations (such as engine out, ramp open, etc.)
C. possible / outside of the aircraft performance envelope
D. no answer is correct

A

C. possible / outside of the aircraft performance envelope

150
Q

168(168). If the engine status display is not selected on any HDD and an ACAWS warning or caution occurs, _______________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18D-2 Chap: 18 Para: Note
A. the engine status display automatically displayed (pops up) on HDD 2
B. the ACAWS will appear on system status page
C. you will hear the warning or caution, and the system will do nothing else
D. you must check the overflow page for further instructions

A

A. the engine status display automatically displayed (pops up) on HDD 2

151
Q

169(169). If more than one ACAWS message occurs simultaneously, the message associated with each is displayed when the alert occurs. Aural alerts associated with ACAWS messages are _________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-16 Chap: 18
A. sounded simultaneously, quite a nice harmony
B. are deleted from the computer’s memory
C. always available if the pilot selects the ACAWS Overflow page
D. queued incrementally and presented in sequence

A

D. queued incrementally and presented in sequence

152
Q

170(170). TCAS: The symbol for a traffic advisory (TA) is a __________ with a data tag.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-33 Chap: 18B
A. a solid red square
B. a filled white diamond
C. a solid yellow circle
D. a solid red circle

A

C. a solid yellow circle

153
Q

172(172). Windshear hazard is processed and displayed for up to ______ of range coverage.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-36 Chap: 18B
A. 3 NM
B. 5 NM
C. 10 NM
D. 20 NM

A

B. 5 NM

154
Q

173(173). Weather (WX) Mode of the LPCR: Excessive precipitation (>50 mm/hr) is depicted as _______ on the LPCR display when WX mode is selected.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-35 Chap: 18B
A. red
B. magenta
C. black
D. blue

A

B. magenta

155
Q

174(174). Turbulence is depicted as __________ in the weather radar mode.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-35 Chap: 18B
A. red
B. white
C. yellow
D. cyan

A

B. white

156
Q

175(175). LPCR: The weather mode includes an auto-tilt feature to reduce pilot workload. During auto-tilt, the radar automatically calculates an antenna tilt position that allows the radar beam to remain ________ at a distance equal to the selected range scale.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18B-35 Chap: 18B
A. just below the terrain
B. at the same altitude as the aircraft
C. just above the terrain
D. at 1000’ below the aircraft’s altitude

A

C. just above the terrain

157
Q

176(176). Normal bleed includes pressurization, air conditioning packs, and cargo compartment underfloor heating. All bleed includes the above plus ___________________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 2-1 Chap: 2
A. engine, wing, and empennage ice protection
B. propeller ice protection
C. additional bleed air for super pressurizing
D. flight deck under compartment heating

A

A. engine, wing, and empennage ice protection

158
Q

177(177). The ALL BLEED charts must be used for performance computations if _____________ .
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-6 Chap: 3
A. propeller ice protection is on
B. engine ice protection is on
C. engine and wing/empennage ice protection is on
D. if underfloor heat is on

A

C. engine and wing/empennage ice protection is on

159
Q

178(178). A DRY runway condition (ICAO Good) corresponds to a RCR of _________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3
A. 25
B. 23
C. 12
D. 05

A

B. 23

160
Q

179(179). A WET runway condition (ICAO Medium) corresponds to a RCR of __________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3
A. 15
B. 10
C. 12
D. 23

A

C. 12

161
Q

180(180). An ICY runway condition (ICAO Poor) corresponds to a RCR of _________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-8 Chap: 3
A. 05
B. 12
C. 23
D. 02

A

A. 05

162
Q

181(181). Application of winds to takeoff and landing: For takeoff, with gusts, always increase _____________ by the full gust increment not to exceed 10 knots.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-9 Chap: 3
A. rotation speed only
B. obstacle clearance speed only
C. obstacle clearance speed only
D. rotation speed and obstacle clearance speed

A

D. rotation speed and obstacle clearance speed

163
Q

184(184). Crosswind Chart: When the value for the rotation speed falls within the caution area, the rotation speed ______________ until the recommended area of the chart is reached, or until the airpseed has been increased by ______________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-9 Chap: 3
A. shall not be increased; no amount
B. shall be decreased; a minimum of 5 knots
C. will not be changed; calculated
D. shall be increased; a maximum of 10 knots

A

D. shall be increased; a maximum of 10 knots

164
Q

185(185). If critical field length is longer than the runway available, for normal operation, the takeoff gross weight should be _________ until ___________ is equal to or less than ______________.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-3 Chap: 3 Para: Note
A. reduced; critical field length; runway available
B. increased; corrected runway available; runway available
C. increased; runway available; critical field length
D. maintained; runway available; runway available

A

A. reduced; critical field length; runway available

165
Q

186(186). __________ is based on runway available and is defined as the maximum speed to which the airplane can accelerate with engines at maximum power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available, with two-engines (symmetrical power) in reverse, one engine in ground idle, one propeller feathered, and maximum anti-skid braking.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-12 Chap: 3
A. Ground minimum control speed
B. Brake energy limit speed
C. Refusal Speed
D. Critical engine failure speed

A

C. Refusal Speed

166
Q

187(187). One-Engine-Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speeds: One of the conditions that determine air minimum control speed is: Number ___ engine failed with the propeller autofeathered (referred to as the critical engine).
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-17 Chap: 3
A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3

A

B. 1

167
Q

188(188). Bank angle has a powerful influence on the air minimum control speeds. The importance of maintaining bank _________ the failed engine is illustrated in the 1-1.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-19 Chap: 3
A. towards
B. in level flight without regard for
C. away from
D. for a few seconds towards

A

C. away from

168
Q

189(189). Ground Minimum Control Speeds are based on the following conditions and restrictions: ________ failed with the propeller auto-feathered, ________ takeoff power on all remaining engines, ATCS operating, maximum rudder deflection limited by 150 pounds of rudder pedal force or maximum rudder control surface deflection, flaps set at 50 percent, _________ takeoff weight, no nosewheel steering required, and maximum lateral deviation from initial runway track of 30 feet.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-17 Chap: 3
A. No. 4 engine; minimum; maximum
B. No. 1 engine; minimum; maximum
C. No. 4 engine; maximum; minimum
D. No. 1 engine; maximum; minimum

A

D. No. 1 engine; maximum; minimum

169
Q

190(190). All the following conditions determine one-engine-inoperative air minimum control speeds except:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-19 Chap: 3
A. Maximum rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force or maximum rudder control surface deflection.
B. Minimum flying weight.
C. A bank angle greater or equal to 5 degrees towards the failed engine.
D. No. 1 engine failed with the propeller auto-feathered.

A

C. A bank angle greater or equal to 5 degrees towards the failed engine.

170
Q

191(191). Two-Engine Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed: Directional control is most critical with the No. __ and No. __ engines inoperative.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-21 Chap: 3
A. 1; 2
B. 1; 4
C. 2; 3
D. 3; 4

A

A. 1; 2

171
Q

192(192). Two-Engine Inoperative Air Minimum Control Speed: Vmca2 speeds presented in the -1-1 represent engines No. 1 and No. 2 failed, with the No. 2 propeller __________ and the No. 1 propeller _________. This is the critical configuration for two engines inoperative.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-21 Chap: 3
A. windmilling; auto-feathered
B. windmilling; windmilling
C. auto-feathered; auto-feathered
D. either feathered or windmilling; either feathered or windmilling

A

D. either feathered or windmilling; either feathered or windmilling

172
Q

193(193). For normal operations, planning a takeoff and climb-out over an obstacle should be done on the basis of _________ performance to allow for engine failure.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 3-29 Chap: 3 Para: Note
A. 2-engine
B. 3-engine
C. 4-engine
D. ATC required climb gradients

A

B. 3-engine

173
Q

194(194). Cruise ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb capability at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-1 Chap: 4
A. 200
B. 100
C. 300
D. 500

A

C. 300

174
Q

195(195). Service ceiling is the altitude at which the maximum rate of climb at maximum continuous power and best climb speed is _________ fpm.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 4-2 Chap: 4
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 500

A

A. 100

175
Q

199(199). According to TO 1C-130J-1-1, basic assumptions for the landing distance charts include: a ______ allowance for distance traveled during transition from touchdown to taxi attitude, and _________ braking (brakes at ambient temperature) and power selection achieved upon reaching taxi attitude.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 Pg: 9-4 Chap: 9
A. 3-second; slight pressure
B. 1-second; maximum anti-skid
C. 1-second; slight pressure
D. 3-second; maximum anti-skid

A

B. 1-second; maximum anti-skid

176
Q

200(200). AUTONAV causes an automatic __________ alignment and requires only a one-button push to align the EGIs, select all available sensors, and choose the best navigation source by setting the AUTO/MAN LSK to AUTO.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 6-5 Chap: 6
A. gyrocompass
B. stored heading
C. inflight alignment
D. best-available true heading

A

A. gyrocompass

177
Q
  1. When executing a reverse taxi, Do not taxi within 25 feet of an obstacle nor stop less than 25
    feet from an obstruction, except when using wing walkers.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 6.21.4
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

178
Q

202(202). Critical fuel decisions ___________ on the information provided by the CNI-SP calculations alone. Performance manual charts should be cross-checked before proceeding on a fuel critical course of action.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-33 Chap: 7 Para: Caution
A. should be predicted
B. should not be predicted
C. should be made
D. must be made

A

B. should not be predicted

179
Q

203(203). Performance data (time and fuel estimates) may disappear from the PERF INIT and LEGS pages if a delay of more than approximately _________ occurs between flight plan activation and takeoff.
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg: 7-33 Chap: 7 Para: Note
A. 45 minutes
B. 3 hours
C. 2 hours
D. 15 minutes

A

A. 45 minutes

180
Q

204(204). Which of the following is not a mandatory advisory call?
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Tables 6.1 through Table 6.4
A. 1,000 feet above landing
B. “Minimums” at MDA
C. 100 feet above decision height (DH)
D. Transition altitude

A

A. 1,000 feet above landing

181
Q
  1. Crew members occupying the Pilot (P) and CP positions will have seat belts fastened from engine start through shutdown
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 6.7
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

182
Q

206(206). Any crewmember seeing a deviation of 200 feet altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the pilot flying.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 6.11.1.2
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

183
Q

207(207). For takeoff and landing operations, the minimum runway and taxiway width is 60 feet and 30 feet, respectively.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Table 6.8 / FCIF 2016-009
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

184
Q 
208(208). Carry a  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ on all flights. 
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 5.2.7. 
 	A.  headset 
 	B.  helmet and an oxygen mask 
 	C.  operable flashlight 
 	D. all of the above
A

D. all of the above

185
Q

209(209). Flight Crew Information File (FCIF). Review FCIF, volume 1 before ____________________. Update the FCIF currency record with the latest FCIF item number, date, and crewmember’s initials or as specified.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 5.5.
A. all missions
B. stepping to fly only
C. the end of your birth month
D. bothering Stan Eval with a question

A

A. all missions

186
Q

210(210). Review AFTO Form 781 before _________ or ___________.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 5.16
A. approaching the aircraft; entering the aircraft
B. unloading cargo; loading cargo
C. applying power to the aircraft; operating aircraft systems
D. takeoff; landing, whichever comes first

A

C. applying power to the aircraft; operating aircraft systems

187
Q

212(212). Except for takeoff and landing, on overwater flights LPUs will be sized and available at the crewmember’s station and worn whenever below 2,000 feet over water.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 6 Para: 5.21.4
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

188
Q 
213(213). Oxygen on board for takeoff will be a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_ liters.  On missions with passengers, carry passenger oxygen kits (POKs) if flight above \_\_\_\_\_ is anticipated. 
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 5.21.2 
 	A.  5 / 18,000 feet 
 	B.  10 / 18,000 feet 
 	C.  10 / FL 250 
 	D. 5 / FL 250
A

D. 5 / FL 250

189
Q

214(214). A flight may proceed on 3 engines to its destination if _________________.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 5.27.2.
A. 2-engine capability exists
B. favorable operating conditions prevail both en route and at the point of intended landing
C. a suitable alternate airfield is available at all times
D. all of the above

A

D. all of the above

190
Q

215(215). Simulated EPs are ____________ with passengers on board.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 9.4.4.
A. allowed (with OG/CC approval)
B. prohibited
C. prohibited, unless such personnel are required for mission accomplishment, such as FCFs and test missions
D. sometimes allowed

A

C. prohibited, unless such personnel are required for mission accomplishment, such as FCFs and test missions

191
Q 
216(216). Initiate simulated engine-out go-around at not lower than \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.  Initiate simulated engine-out missed approach no lower than the minimum altitude for the approach. 
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 9.5.7. 
 	A.  100 feet AGL 
 	B. 200 feet AGL
 	C.  300 feet AGL 
 	D.  circling minimums
A

B. 200 feet AGL

192
Q

218(218). No flap landings comply with following:
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 9.5.5.
A. maximum gross weight of 120,000 pounds
B. crosswind component within the recommended zone
C. day/night VMC only
D. both A and B

A

D. both A and B

193
Q 
219(219). The minimum runway length for 50% touch and go landings is  \_\_\_\_\_\_ Feet. 
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3 Para: 9.6.5.
 	A.  6,000 
 	B. 5,000
 	C.  7,000 
 	D.  4,200
A

B. 5,000

194
Q 
221(221). Aircrew members will not fly: If any alcohol is consumed within \_\_\_ hours prior to takeoff (or assuming aircraft control for UAS) or if impaired by alcohol or any other intoxicating substance, to include the effects or after-effects.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.7.1.2 
 	A. 12
 	B.  10 	
 	C.  8	 
 	D.  16
A

A. 12

195
Q 
222(222). Pilots must designate an alternate airfield when the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) at the  (ETA +/- 1 hour) for the first point of intended landing (or each point of intended landing on a stopover flight plan) does not permit a VFR descent from the MIA and is less than \_\_\_\_feet ceilings and visibility of \_\_\_\_ . 
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 4.15.3.1.1
 	A.  3000   /  3 SM 
 	B. 2000   /  3 SM
 	C.  3000   /  3 NM 
 	D.  1500   /  3 NM
A

B. 2000 / 3 SM

196
Q

223(223). Flight Duty Period ends when engines are shut down after the final flight of the completed mission.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Pg: 14 Chap: 2 Para: 2.2.1
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

197
Q

224(224). Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performing any duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the Flight Duty Period begins. This time must include an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.1
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

198
Q

225(225). The guidance found in AFMAN 11-217 is both technique and procedurally oriented. Instruction depicted in bold italics is considered procedure.
Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Vol 1, Pg. 1
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

199
Q 
198. \_\_\_\_\_ is a navigation specification based on area navigation that does not include the requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Para: 5.4.1
 	A. RNP
 	B.  RNAV
	C. MNPS
	D. All of the above
A

B. RNAV

200
Q
  1. Maximum continuous EGT is _________. If EGT exceeds _______________, the APU OVRTEMP (C) ACAWS alerts the crew to reduce APU loading. If RPM exceeds _______, the APU automatically shuts down and the APU SHUTDOWN OVRSPD (A) ACAWS alerts the crew that an APU overspeed has occurred.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 1-14 Chap: 1
    A. 370 °C / 500 °F for less than 8 seconds / 50%
    B. 680 °C / 710 °C for longer than 3 seconds / 100%
    C. 680 °F / 710 °F for less than 3 seconds / 100%
    D. 1010 °C / 970 °C for less than 3 seconds / 92.5%
A

B. 680 °C / 710 °C for longer than 3 seconds / 100%

201
Q
  1. The CNI-MS supports worldwide operations in oceanic, enroute, and terminal areas which require RNAV capabilities, except ________.
    Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 page 18B-3
    A. MNPS
    B. RNAV Departure Procedures (DP and SID) and Arrival Procedures (STAR)
    C. BRNAV
    D. All RNAV approaches and SIDs/STARs/DPs which require RNP
A

D. All RNAV approaches and SIDs/STARs/DPs which require RNP

202
Q 
239(239). Aircraft maximum waiverable gross weight is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pounds. 
Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130J V3, Para. 6.1
 	A.  192,000 
 	B. 175,000
 	C.  164,000 
 	D.  155,000
A

B. 175,000

203
Q 
208. Aircraft maximum gross weight is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pounds (without a waiver).
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130J V3, Para. 6.1
 	A.  192,000 
 	B.  175,000 
 	C. 164,000
 	D.  155,000
A

C. 164,000

204
Q 
241(241). Any route on which the position of the aircraft can be accurately determined by the overhead crossing of a radio aid (Non-directional Beacon (NDB), VOR, TACAN), the intersection of at least two radio aid radials (VOR, TACAN), or one radial (VOR, TACAN) and one DME at least once each hour is a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130J V3, Para. 11.1.1.2
 	A.  Category I (CAT II) Route.  
 	B. Category II (CAT II) Route. 
 	C.  Category III (CAT III) Route.  
 	D.  NAT track.
A

B. Category II (CAT II) Route.

205
Q
  1. Per AFMAN 11-2MC-130J V3 guidance: Declare “Emergency Fuel” when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than _______ lbs. Declare “Minimum Fuel” to ATC when it is determined that the aircraft will land with less than ______ .
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130J V3, Para. 12.4.9, 12.4.10
    A. 4000, 4000 plus the required reserve
    B. 3,000, 3,000 plus the required reserve
    C. 3,000, 6000
    D. 3,000, calculated Recovery Fuel
A

D. 3,000, calculated Recovery Fuel

206
Q
  1. Recovery fuel should be set in the CNI-MU on the PERF INIT WEIGHT page under FIXED.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130J V3, Table 12.1
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

207
Q

245(245). Each aircrew member is individually responsible to ensure that he or she obtains sufficient rest during crew rest periods.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.1.1
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

208
Q

246(246). PEDs used to facilitate execution of the mission (e.g. portable electronic flight bags, 151 portable Global Positioning System (GPS) units) will only be used as authorized by the MAJCOM.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para 3.9.4.2
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

209
Q

247(247). Do not fly within 72 hours if donating blood, plasma, or bone marrow.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.7.1.7
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

210
Q 
216. (AFSOC) VFR Climb Performance. Fixed-wing aircraft departing VFR will ensure they can meet  \_\_\_\_\_  and clear applicable obstacles to the appropriate VFR cruise altitude or minimum IFR altitude. Multi-engine aircraft will ensure they can meet this requirement with one engine inoperative.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para 5.3
	A.  152 ft/nm
 	B. 200 ft/min
 	C.  200 ft/nm
 	D.  250 ft/min
A

B. 200 ft/min

211
Q 
250(250). Controlled cockpit rest is restricted to non-critical phases of flight between cruise and \_\_\_ prior to planned descent. A rest period shall be limited to a maximum of \_\_\_.  
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 2.8.2
 	A.  1 hour, 1 hour  
 	B.  30 minutes, 30 minutes  
 	C.  1 hour, 30 minutes  
 	D. 1 hour, 45 minutes
A

D. 1 hour, 45 minutes

212
Q 
251(251). Avoid thunderstorms and cumulonimbus clouds (CB) by \_\_\_ NM at FL 230 and above  
Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130J V3, Para. 5.14.3.1
 	A.  5 
 	B.  10 
 	C.  15 
 	D. 20
A

D. 20

213
Q
  1. An alternate is required when the worst weather at destination, to include TEMPO conditions, at the ETA +/- 1 hour is less than a ceiling and visibility of ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Pg: 92, Attachment 2
    A. 3000 / 3 SM
    B. 2000 / 3 SM
    C. 3000 / 3 NM
    D. 1500 / 3 NM
A

B. 2000 / 3 SM

214
Q 
253(253). In the National Airspace System (NAS), do not exceed \_\_\_\_ KIAS at or below 2,500 feet AGL within 4 NMs of the primary airport of a Class C or Class D airspace area unless authorized/required by ATC, or required to maintain the minimum safe maneuvering airspeed specified in the aircraft T.O.  
Ref: AFI 11-202V3,  para 6.3.2.1 
 	A.  180 
 	B. 200
 	C.  500 
 	D.  250
A

B. 200

215
Q

254(254). Do not exceed 250 KIAS below 10,000 ft MSL within the National Airspace System (NAS) unless ____.
Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 6.3.2.3
A. within restricted areas or Military Operating Areas (MOAs)
B. within DoD/FAA instrument/visual routes or unpublished joint MAJCOM- and FAA-designated areas or routes
C. on MAJCOM-approved large exercises or short-term special missions with appropriate coordination
D. the aircraft T.O. requires or recommends a higher speed in order to maintain safe maneuverability
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

216
Q 
255(255). Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least \_\_\_ ft. above the departure end of the runway elevation, at a safe airspeed, and past the end of the runway. (Does not apply to closed patterns)  
Ref: AFI 11-202V3, Para 7.14 
 	A.  300 
 	B. 400
 	C.  500 
 	D.  600
A

B. 400

217
Q 
256(256). Selecting an Alternate. The worst alternate forecast weather conditions for ETA 1 hour, to include TEMPO conditions (except those caused by thunderstorms, rain,or snow showers), will meet or exceed: A ceiling of \_\_\_\_\_ ft., or 500 ft. above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher; and a visibility of \_\_ SM or 1 SM above the lowest compatible minimum, whichever is higher.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 para 4.15.3.4.1.
 	A.  3000   /  3 SM 
 	B. 1000   /  2 SM
 	C.  3000   /  3 NM 
 	D.  1500   /  3 NM
A

B. 1000 / 2 SM

218
Q
  1. A final approach may be as much as 30 degrees off of the runway centerline and still be considered a straight-in approach.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-217, Para: 17.12.6.3
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

219
Q
  1. When is the aircraft considered “established on course”?
    Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Para: 17.18
    A. Upon commencing the lead turn
    B. Within half-full-scale deflection or +/- 5 degrees of the required bearing for NDB
    C. Within full-scale deflection for LOC (NAS only)
    D. B & C
    E. All of the above
A

D. B & C

220
Q

260(260). The use of the term “Radar Contact” by a controller means the aircraft has been identified on radar, ____________ terrain and obstruction clearance responsibility has transferred to the controller.
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.29
A. but does not mean that
B. which means that

A

A. but does not mean that

221
Q
  1. Full flight instrumentation for a CAT II ILS includes an operational HUD in
    the PF position, a HUD or PFD at the Pilot Monitoring (PM) position, and meeting the
    flight manual CAT II ILS criteria.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.27.1.2
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

222
Q

262(262). CAT II ILS Procedures. Decision Height (DH) is based on radar altitude. Minimum
HAT is ___ feet. Minimum Runway Visual Range (RVR) is _____. Maximum crosswind
limitation is 10 knots. Crosswind of __ knots may be used for training approaches (requires
weather of 200 – 1/2 or greater).
Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.29.3
A. 200, 1,000, 10
B. 100, 1,000, 15
C. 100, 1,200, 15
D. None of the above

A

C. 100, 1,200, 15

223
Q

263(263). The HUD alone is not sufficient for NDB approaches. A head-down display, which depicts a bearing pointer tuned to the NDB, must be used in conjunction with the HUD throughout the approach.
Ref: AFI 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.29.4
A. True
B. False

A

A. True

224
Q
  1. Do not continue a CAT II ILS if the weather is reported to be below CAT II minimums.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.28.1
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

225
Q

269(269). Pressing the AUTONAV on the power up page initiates:
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg. 6-5
A. Selects correct Navigation Data Base, INU GC alignment, selects TACANs
B. All navigation radios turned ON
C. INU GC alignment, align EGIs, selects all available navigation sensors, navigation source set to AUTO
D. INU BATH alignment, aligns EGIs, selects all available navigation sensors, navigation source set to MANUAL

A

C. INU GC alignment, align EGIs, selects all available navigation sensors, navigation source set to AUTO

226
Q 
271(271). There are(is) \_\_\_\_EGI systems on the aircraft.  Each EGI consists of a \_\_\_\_\_\_ & \_\_\_\_\_\_.  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg. 9-70
 	A.  1, SCNS, INS  
 	B. 2, INS, GPS 
 	C.  3, GPS, DVS 
 	D.  None of the above
A

B. 2, INS, GPS

227
Q

274(274). Which of the following occurs when the MSTR AV ON function on the POWER UP page is initially selected?
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg. 6-2
A. COMM and NAV radios are powered up (except HF radios).
B. SATCOM is turned on.
C. INS alignment is initiated.
D. All the above.

A

A. COMM and NAV radios are powered up (except HF radios).

228
Q 
275(275). A VNAV profile on the LEGS page using an altitude suffix of "C" defines:   
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4 Pg. 7-22
 	A.  Fixed Start of Climb (SOC) 
 	B.  Fixed Bottom of Descent (BOD) 
 	C.  Fixed Top of Descent (TOD) 
 	D. A or B
A

D. A or B

229
Q
  1. To avoid fuel freezing, fuel temperature should not be lower than 6 °F (3.3 °C) above the freeze point defined in Figure 1-5. The fuel temperature should be considered to be equal to the _____.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg. 1-15 (CAUTION)
    A. Outside Air Temperature (OAT)
    B. Static Air Temperature (SAT)
    C. Total Air Temperature (TAT)
    D. Stagnation Temperature (ST)
A

C. Total Air Temperature (TAT)

230
Q 
202. The standard IFR departure climb gradient is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Para: 12.5
 	A. 152’/NM
 	B. 200’/NM
	C. 250’/NM
	D. 48’/NM
A

B. 200’/NM

231
Q 
203. The standard ICAO/NATO IFR DER crossing restriction is \_\_\_\_\_\_
Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Table: 12.1
A.	0’
B.	16’
C.	35’
D.	48’
A

B. 16’

232
Q
  1. (FAA) The departure climb gradient begins 0 feet above the DER elevation under current US TERPS criteria; however, many procedures under the older U.S. TERPS criteria still have an unpublished DER crossing restriction of 35 feet.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Para 12.5.1
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

233
Q
  1. Do not descend below localizer minimums if the aircraft is more than _____ or ______ the glideslope.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-217 Chap: 18 Para: 18.8.9
    A. full scale below or half scale above
    B. half scale below or full scale above
    C. one half dot below or 2 dots above
    D. one half dot below or 1 dot above
A

B. half scale below or full scale above

234
Q
  1. If flammable fumes are present or suspected, electrical equipment not required to carry out the FIRE/SMOKE/FUMES ELIMINATION checklist should not be turned on or off.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg. 3-79(WARNING)
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

235
Q
  1. The BIUs act as backup bus controllers in the event both mission computers become disabled. BIU back-up mode provides the functions necessary to __________ and to make a ______________, even on __________ power.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Pg: 18-18 Chap: 18
    A. fly the airplane; safe landing; battery only
    B. ditch the airplane; safe parachute landing; no electrical
    C. use both mission computers; reboot inflight; APU
    D. abandon the aircraft; safe exit from the aircraft; battery only
A

A. fly the airplane; safe landing; battery only

MC-130J MQF (2 decks)

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