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MC-130J MQF > MC-130J Pilot MSN MQF > Flashcards

MC-130J Pilot MSN MQF Flashcards

1
Q 
1. Who accepts the final authority for accepting a waiver affecting the crew or mission? 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 2.9.5 
 	A.  Squadron Commander 
 	B.  Mission Commander 
 	C. Pilot in command
 	D.  Chief of squadron Stan/Eval
A

C. Pilot in command

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2
Q 
2. Who is responsible for the overall employment of all air assets assigned to a multi-element formation? 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 2.7
 	A.  Pilot in command 
 	B. Air Mission Commander
 	C.  Squadron Commander 
 	D.  Director of Operations
A

B. Air Mission Commander

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3
Q 
3. The owning Maintenance Group (MXG)/CC (or designated official), the senior maintenance officer, or the chief of the AFMC repair team authorizes release, one time flights authorized in the MEL require\_\_\_\_\_\_approval. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 4.5 
 	A.  Wing CC 
 	B.  COMAFSOF 
 	C. Either B or D
 	D.  Operations Group CC
A

C. Either B or D

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4
Q 
5. Oxygen on board for takeoff will be a minimum of \_\_\_\_\_\_ liters. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.21.1
 	A.  20 
 	B.  15 
 	C.  10 
 	D. 5
A

D. 5

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5
Q 
5.. The maximum effort touchdown speed is defined as:  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-2 
 	A. 1.3 x Vs 
 	B. 1.2 x Vs 
 	C. 1.1 x Vs
 	D. 1.05 x Vs
A

C. 1.1 x Vs

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6
Q
  1. Prior to Refusal Speed, any crew member noting a safety of flight condition/malfunction will state ______ and give a brief description of the malfunction.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 6.1 NOTE 1
    A. “Go”
    B. “Stop”
    C. “Reject”
    D. “Abort”
A

C. “Reject”

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7
Q
  1. Fuel will not be jettisoned except in combat, emergency conditions, or rescue missions requiring gross weight reduction.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.25.3
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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8
Q 
8. The maximum effort threshold speed is defined as:  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 9-2 
 	A. 1.35 times power-off stall speed 
 	B. 1.28 times power-off stall speed 
 	C. 1.1 Vs + 5.5 KIAS
 	D. 1.20 times power-off stall speed
A

C. 1.1 Vs + 5.5 KIAS

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9
Q 
9. Suitable airfields are those normally within \_\_\_\_\_\_ NM of flight planned course centerline meeting weather, fuel, and C-130J runway requirements. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 11.3.4 
 	A.  50 
 	B.  150 
 	C. 100
 	D.  200
A

C. 100

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10
Q 
13. If electronic charts are used, \_\_\_\_\_\_, prepared IAW chart requirements, must be immediately available for each crew member using electronic charts. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.5
 	A. backup paper chart
 	B.  additional power source 
 	C.  blank GNC 
 	D.  stick diagram
A

A. backup paper chart

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11
Q 
14. Aeronautical charts do not depict man-made obstacles less than \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet AGL or a change in terrain until it exceeds the chart contour interval. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.5 
 	A.  500 
 	B.  300 
 	C. 200
 	D.  100
A

C. 200

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12
Q
  1. Threat penetration must be pre-planned and is restricted to flat/rolling terrain and coastal penetrations. Limit the time at TP altitude to the duration needed to avoid/negate the threat. Minimum TP altitude is ______ feet AGL.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.8.5
    A. 200
    B. 100
    C. 300
    D. 5
A

B. 100

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13
Q
  1. When performing multiple equipment airdrops across the same DZ, ______airdrop checklists will be accomplished.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.4.5
    A. the 10 minute and subsequent
    B. slowdown and subsequent
    C. the one minute
    D. all
A

D. all

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14
Q
  1. When performing multiple personnel drops across the same DZ, checklists may resume at ______ assuming no airdrop parameters or aircraft configuration changes are made from the previous drop.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.4.5
    A. the 10 minute warning
    B. the 6 minute warning
    C. the two minute advisory
    D. the one minute warning
A

B. the 6 minute warning

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15
Q
  1. Who is the approval authority for Jumpmaster Directed Airdrops?
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.1.9
    A. AFSOC/CC
    B. AFSOC/DO
    C. Group/CC
    D. Squadron/CC
A

C. Group/CC

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16
Q
  1. Prior to the 1- or 2- minute warning, ______when any condition exists that could jeopardize a safe drop.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.11.1
    A. call “no drop”
    B. notify the loadmaster
    C. notify the PIC
    D. wait until the “10 second” call before taking any action
A

C. notify the PIC

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17
Q
  1. After the 1- or 2- minute warning, any crewmember observing a condition that would jeopardize a safe drop will transmit ______on interphone.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.11.2
    A. “no drop”
    B. “standby”
    C. “racetrack”
    D. “red light”
A

A. “no drop”

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18
Q 
18. If after the One Minute Warning, conditions exist that could result in an unsatisfactory drop, a "no drop" will be called. If all checklists are not complete by the CSO's \_\_\_\_\_\_ call, the crew will call a "no drop" and follow the appropriate procedures. 
Ref: TO 1C-130(M)J-1 2A-116 Ch: 2A 
 	A.  "1-minute" warning 
 	B. "10 second" call
 	C.  "green light" call
A

B. “10 second” call

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19
Q
  1. During combination drops, if the computed release point will result in any jumper landing within ______ of any boundary of the DZ, ______.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.15.2
    A. 100 yards, inform the pilot
    B. 150 yards, call a “no drop”
    C. 100 yards, inform the DO
    D. 150 yards, inform the jumpmaster
A

D. 150 yards, inform the jumpmaster

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20
Q
  1. When dropping a door bundle in conjunction with personnel, the ______ will be the first to exit.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.22
    A. Personnel
    B. Bundle
    C. Doesn’t matter
A

B. Bundle

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21
Q
  1. Emergency Safe Altitude (ESA). ESA is an altitude that will provide positive terrain
    clearance during situations that require the exiting of the low-level environment. To compute
    ESA, add ______ feet (______ feet in mountainous terrain) to the highest obstacle or terrain
    feature within ______ nm of route centerline or intended flight path (whichever is greater),
    rounded to the next 100 foot increment.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.2
    A. 500, 1,000, 5
    B. 1,000, 2,000, 5
    C. 100, 1,000, 10
    D. 1,000, 2,000, 10
A

D. 1,000, 2,000, 10

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22
Q
  1. Minimum Safe Altitude provides terrain clearance and limited threat avoidance during situations that require the interruption of low-level operation. To compute MSA for each leg or leg segment, add ______ feet to the elevation of the highest terrain or obstacle with ______ of route centerline or the planned flight path (whichever is greater), and round up to the next ______ foot increment.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.4
    A. 500 ft or 400 ft plus one contour interval, 3, 100
    B. 1,000 ft or 900 ft plus one contour interval, 5, 100
    C. 500 ft or 400 ft plus one contour interval, 10, 100
    D. 2,000 ft or 1,900 ft plus one contour interval, 3, 100
A

A. 500 ft or 400 ft plus one contour interval, 3, 100

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23
Q
  1. Upon hearing “emergency climb”, the CSO will state______, monitor terrain and call “______” when above all critical terrain.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.2
    A. MSA, uncle
    B. ESA, level off
    C. MSA or ESA as appropriate, clear of terrain
    D. MSA or ESA as appropriate, continue
A

C. MSA or ESA as appropriate, clear of terrain

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24
Q 
24. Set radar altimeter to no lower than \_\_\_\_\_\_% below the planned en route altitude. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para 17.9.1 
 	A. 10 
 	B. 20
 	C. 15 
 	D. 30
A

B. 20

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25
Q 
25. Set the radar altimeter no lower than \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet for threat penetration. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.9 
 	A. 100
 	B. 200 
 	C. 90
 	D. 50
A

C. 90

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26
Q 
26. \_\_\_\_\_\_ is the approval authority for IMC SCA operations. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, 17.14.3.1
 	A. Sq/CC 				
 	B. Sq/DO 				
 	C. Gp/CC 
 	D. Gp/CC or COMAFSOF
A

D. Gp/CC or COMAFSOF

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27
Q 
27. Minimum aircraft lateral spacing during formation is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ feet, but may be further restricted by the approval authority.
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.17.9 
 	A. 1,000 
 	B. 500
 	C. 1,500 
 	D. 2,000
A

B. 500

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28
Q 
28. Minimum HAAR/TAAR altitude is \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet AGL without a waiver. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.1 
 	A. 1,000 
 	B. 700 
 	C. 300 
 	D. 500
A

D. 500

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29
Q
  1. The minimum runway length for shortfield operation landings is ______.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.19.4.4
    A. ground roll plus 500 feet
    B. landing distance plus 500 feet
    C. ground Roll
    D. ground roll plus the RVR/visibility correction factor
A

A. ground roll plus 500 feet

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30
Q
  1. Upon entering marginal VMC or IMC, the following procedures apply when flying formation:
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.17.12
    A. Wing aircraft immediately initiates a climbing turn as required for its position in the formation and gives “(Call Sign)” then “IMC Break” three times over the primary interplane radio. The lead aircraft responds with call sign, heading, base altitude. Base altitude will be as follows: MSA, if position is within the MSA corridor; or ESA, if not.
    B. All aircraft turn navigation lights to bright and turn transponder modes 1 and 3 to normal (if the threat environment allows).
    C. Lead aircraft uses power as required and climbs straight ahead at a base airspeed of 220 KIAS until reaching base altitude or VMC conditions, whichever occurs first. Upon reaching this altitude, maintain base airspeed of 220 KIAS. If lead is unable to climb at 220 KIAS, the aircraft commander will establish a new base airspeed and inform the formation over interplane frequency.
    D. The #2 aircraft immediately turns right 10 degrees or more (if feasible), sets power as required and climbs at base airspeed minus 20 KIAS to base altitude plus 500 feet or VMC conditions, whichever occurs first. After 30 seconds, resume original heading. Upon reaching altitude, accelerate to base airspeed.
    E. All of the above.
A

E. All of the above.

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31
Q
  1. Use of non-hard surfaced runways or taxiways require ______ approval.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.19.4.1
    A. WG/CC
    B. MAJCOM/A3/DO
    C. GP/CC (COMAFSOF for contingency operations)
    D. SQ/CC or SQ/DO
A

D. SQ/CC or SQ/DO

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32
Q
  1. The primary concern with inoperative fuel boost pumps or quantity indicators is fuel balance and wing loading.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 4.6
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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33
Q 
33. Perform a reset each time the tanker airplane stabilized airspeed changes more than\_\_\_\_\_\_.  This must be done prior to granting receiver clearance to engage the hose. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1,  pg 2A-144 
 	A. 5 KIAS 
 	B. 10 KCAS
 	C. 10 KIAS 
 	D. 15 KIAS
A

B. 10 KCAS

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34
Q
  1. Any crew member seeing a deviation of 200 feet altitude or 10 knots in airspeed, or a potential terrain or obstruction problem, will immediately notify the PF.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.9.1.2
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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35
Q
  1. During NVG operations, on blacked out runways, a go-around point will be identified to all crew members prior to execution.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 6.19.2
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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36
Q
  1. When conducting Drop Zone (DZ)/LZ operations, only the CSO will verify CNI-MU CARP/LZ information with a valid DZ/LZ survey.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 5.8.1.3
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

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37
Q
  1. To conduct NVG/IMC low-level operations as lead or single-ship. The following equipment must be operational:
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1
    A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INU.
    B. One radar altimeter and one INU.
    C. One radar altimeter and one sextant.
    D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode).
A

A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INU.

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38
Q
  1. To conduct day low-level operations as lead or single-ship. The following equipment must be operational:
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1
    A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS.
    B. One radar altimeter and one INU.
    C. One radar altimeter and one sextant.
    D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode).
A

B. One radar altimeter and one INU.

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39
Q
  1. To conduct an NVG SCA the following equipment must be operational:
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1
    A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS.
    B. One radar altimeter and one INU.
    C. One radar altimeter and EO/IR.
    D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode).
A

B. One radar altimeter and one INU.

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40
Q
  1. To conduct an NVG SCA at an AMP-4 airfield, the following equipment must be operational:
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1
    A. One radar altimeter, APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode), and one INS.
    B. One radar altimeter and one INU with either an EO/IR or APN 241 radar.
    C. One radar altimeter and EO/IR.
    D. One radar altimeter and APN-241 radar (Map or Mono-pulse Ground Mode (MGM) mode) and DIGMAP.
A

B. One radar altimeter and one INU with either an EO/IR or APN 241 radar.

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41
Q
  1. To conduct an IMC SCA, the minimum equipment that must be operational is one radar altimeter and either a minimum of FOM 2 on the EGI or one INUand APN 241 radar.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Table 17.1
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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42
Q
  1. Start climb points are determined to identify where along the planned route of flight a climb must be initiated to maintain a specific NVG altitude profile in mountainous terrain. These points are determined by working backwards from the NVG altitude along the planned route of flight using a ______ climb gradient.
    Ref: MC-130J AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Annex C Para: 17.7.6.9
    A. 2000
    B. 1500
    C. 1000
    D. preplanned
A

D. preplanned

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43
Q 
43. The minimum en route NVG Low-Level altitude is \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet AGL. Squadron commanders may restrict crews to \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet AGL in mountainous terrain. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.8.2 
 	A. 100, 300 
 	B. 100, 500 
 	C. 200, 500 
 	D. 300, 500
A

D. 300, 500

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44
Q
  1. Crews may fly low-level in IMC at MSA altitudes. During training, conduct planned IMC routes under instrument flight rules (IFR) on a published or surveyed route unless FLIP or host nation rules define other procedures. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.7.8.4
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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45
Q
  1. You are planning on flying into an OCONUS airfield that does not have any instrument approaches and are likely to use the airfield as a staging base for the next 30 days. You are thinking that creating and submitting an IMC SCA to Gp/CC or COMAFSOF is your quickest and smartest avenue just in case for bad weather. If the IMC SCA is approved, weather minimums will be no lower than ______.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.12.3.1
    A. 500 feet and 1 mile.
    B. 300 feet and 1 mile.
    C. 200 feet and 1/2.
    D. zero, zero
A

C. 200 feet and 1/2.

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46
Q
  1. Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA). To compute MDA for VMC operations, add a minimum of 100 feet to the Touchdown Zone Elevation (TDZE). For approved IMC SCA operations, add a minimum of 200 feet to the TDZE. Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.12.4
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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47
Q
  1. When constructing an SCA, significant obstacles are those within ______ of the desired glideslope.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.13.4.2
    A. 100 feet
    B. 200 feet
    C. 250 feet
    D. 300 feet
A

D. 300 feet

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48
Q
  1. Airdrops may be conducted in ______.
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.16.1.4
    A. IMC and VMC
    B. VMC only
    C. IMC only (Added)
A

A. IMC and VMC

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49
Q
  1. The helo air refueling 70 percent flaps minimum operating speed is defined as?
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4
    A. that speed which is 5 knots above stall warning with power required for level flight
    B. 30 degree angle of bank, power to maintain level flight, 5 knots above stall speed
    C. Speed which is 2 to 4 knots above airframe buffet with power to maintain level flight
    D. None of the above
A

A. that speed which is 5 knots above stall warning with power required for level flight

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50
Q
  1. Pilots will comply with appropriate flight manual procedures upon receipt of a Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS)/TAWS/Enhanced GPWS (EGPWS)/Ground Collision Avoidance System (GCAS) warning. During/VMC flight, terrain warnings need not be followed if the pilot can verify the warning is false by visual contact with the terrain/obstacle.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.23.3.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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51
Q 
51. Do not operate aircraft over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements) or groups of people if the altitude does not ensure at least \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet above the highest obstacle within a \_\_\_\_\_\_ ft radius of the aircraft.  
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 6.2.3.3 
 	A. 1000, 1000 
 	B. 2000, 2000 
 	C. 1500, 2000 
 	D. 1000, 2000
A

D. 1000, 2000

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52
Q 
52. Operate no less than \_\_\_\_\_\_ over National Park Service monuments, seashores, lake shores, recreation and scenic riverways US Fish and Wildlife Service refuge; and US Forest Service wilderness and primitive areas, not including SUAs, LATN, and MTRs. Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 6.2.3.4 
 	A. 1500' AGL  
 	B. 2000' AGL			
 	C. 2500' AGL  
 	D. 3000' AGL
A

B. 2000’ AGL

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53
Q 
53. Any occupant, not trained IAW AFI 11-403, limits the time at cabin altitudes between 10,000 ft and 13,000 ft without supplemental oxygen to \_\_\_\_\_\_.  
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.14.2.1.4 
 	A. 30 minutes  
 	B. 1 hour  
 	C. 3 hours 
 	D. 20
A

C. 3 hours

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54
Q 
54. Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 ft MSL.  For unpressurized operations, all persons will use supplemental oxygen while above\_\_\_\_\_\_feet MSL. 
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.14.2.2 
 	A. 10,000 
 	B. 14,000
 	C. 18,000 
 	D. 25,000
A

B. 14,000

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55
Q
  1. Aircrew should preflight NVDs prior to each use to ensure proper operation and optimum night visual enhancement.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, AFSOC sup 2.9.5.1
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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56
Q
  1. What are the basic USAF VFR fixed wing minimums for Class G airspace below 10,000 feet according to AFI 11-202 Vol 3? Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Table 6.1
    A. 1000’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal, visibility 3 SM
    B. 500’ below, 1000’ above, 1000’ horizontal, visibility 5 SM
    C. 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal, visibility 3 SM
    D. 2000’ below, 2000’ above, 1000’ horizontal, visibility 5 SM
A

C. 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontal, visibility 3 SM

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57
Q
  1. Mountainous terrain as defined by 14 CFR §95.11 and adopted by AFFSA is defined as 500 ft surface elevation change over one-half NM distance.
    Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: Attachment 1, Terms
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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58
Q 
58.  Do not fly directly above (within 2,000 feet) thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds. If unable to clear thunderstorms or cumulonimbus clouds by at least 2,000 feet vertically, avoid them by at least \_\_\_\_\_\_ NM for tactical low-level operations.
Ref: AFI11-2MC-130JV3, Para 5.14.3.3
 	A. 2 
 	B. 3 			
 	C. 4 
 	D. 5
A

D. 5

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59
Q 
59. Normally, aircrew will use supplemental oxygen anytime the cabin altitude exceeds\_\_\_\_\_\_ .  
Ref: AFI 11-202, Vol 3 Para: 3.14.1
 	A. 25,000 ft  MSL 
 	B. 18,000 ft  MSL 
 	C. 13,000 ft  MSL 
 	D. 10,000 ft MSL
A

D. 10,000 ft MSL

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60
Q
  1. In the ATC environment, during other than actual combat operations, all aircraft not in a standard formation (standard formation is defined as ______, IAW FAA) will be fully lighted as required by AFI 11-202, Vol 3. And AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.19.15.2
    A. less than 1 mile horizontal separation and as briefed by the formation commander
    B. greater than 2 miles lateral separation and less than 500 feet vertical
    C. less than 1 mile horizontal separation and less than 100 feet vertical
    D. less than 1 mile horizontal separation and less than 500 feet vertical
A

C. less than 1 mile horizontal separation and less than 100 feet vertical

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61
Q 
61. When surface winds are unknown (e.g., blind drops to unmanned DZs), the jumpmaster and army airborne mission commander (if designated) will be advised when drop altitude winds exceed \_\_\_\_\_\_ knots for personnel drops.  
Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 9.3  
 	A. 20 
 	B. 25 
 	C. 30
 	D. 50
A

C. 30

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62
Q
  1. Aircrews will not make airdrops using parachutes for which AFI 11-231 does not list ballistics unless the user provides approved ballistic data or “K” factor.
    Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 9.4
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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63
Q
  1. Minimum usable drop zone time for all airdrops is ______.
    Ref: AFI 11-231, 31 Aug 2005 Para: 3.2.34 NOTE, 4.2.3 NOTE
    A. 2 seconds for personnel, 3 seconds for cargo
    B. 2 seconds for cargo, 3 seconds for personnel
    C. 3 seconds
    D. no minimum specified
A

C. 3 seconds

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64
Q
  1. An overrun is normally not considered part of the usable runway when establishing airfield markings. Do not include overrun distances to calculate the available LZ length required for operations.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.5.11
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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65
Q
  1. The surface wind at the DZ is normally measured using an anemometer or other calibrated wind-measuring device. Wind direction is reported in magnetic degrees and wind speed in knots.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.8.1.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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66
Q
  1. The surface wind limit for AF training bundles (SATB) airdrops is ______ knots.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.3
    A. No limit
    B. 15
    C. 25
    D. 20
A

C. 25

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67
Q 
67. During personnel drops, the surface wind limit for AF MFF and static line personnel water airdrops is \_\_\_\_\_\_ knots.  
Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Table: 2.4 
 	A. 25
 	B. At the discretion of the DZCO  
 	C. 18 
 	D. 22
A

A. 25

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68
Q
  1. During personnel drops the surface wind limit for AF static line airdrops (land) is ______ kts.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 2.4
    A. 25
    B. 13
    C. 22
    D. 18
A

B. 13

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69
Q
  1. Drop clearance to a marked DZ is normally inherent with mission clearance and is confirmed by the aircrew observing the pre-briefed visual DZ markings. Unless radio communications are specifically required, any coordinated markings, other than red smoke, red flares, or red lights indicate a clearance to drop.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.12.1.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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70
Q
  1. When an off DZ airdrop has been confirmed or suspected, the aircrew involved will not attempt another drop for the remainder of the mission. In the case of an off DZ drop involving injury or death to personnel, the mission will be terminated and the aircraft will land as soon as possible.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.21.1.
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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71
Q
  1. USAF aircrews require a DZ survey for training airdrop missions involving ______ personnel and/or equipment.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.22.1.
    A. Air Force
    B. U.S.
    C. DOD
    D. All
A

B. U.S.

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72
Q
  1. DZ/LZ surveys become obsolete ______ years after the date of MAJCOM approval and must be resurveyed prior to use.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 2.23, NOTE
    A. 4
    B. 3
    C. 5
    D. 2
A

C. 5

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73
Q
  1. During peacetime operations, the minimum LZ length required for maximum effort takeoff and landing operation is ______ feet.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: Table 3.1
    A. 3,000
    B. 3,500
    C. 4,000
    D. Ground roll + 500
A

A. 3,000

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74
Q
  1. A ______ foot under run and overrun are required for all LZ operations.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.6.4.
    A. 300
    B. 400
    C. 200
    D. Not applicable to AFSOC aircraft
A

A. 300

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75
Q
  1. The box length when using The Box and One configuration for an AMP-3 LZ is ______ feet.
    Ref: AFI 13-217, 10 May 2007 Para: 3.6.4.3.
    A. 1,000
    B. 500
    C. 2,000
    D. 1,500
A

B. 500

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76
Q 
76. During HAAR, tankers and receivers will begin monitoring designated radio frequencies and will have electronic RV equipment operating no less than \_\_\_\_\_\_ minutes prior to ARCT.  
Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 Table 4-3  
 	A. 5 
 	B. 10
 	C. 30 
 	D. 60
A

B. 10

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77
Q
  1. During HAAR rendezvous using Emission Option 2 procedures, receivers and tankers will exchange the following:______.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 Table 3I-1
    A. base altitude, base heading
    B. call sign, altitude, Mode 3, altimeter setting
    C. call sign, altimeter setting
    D. call sign, altitude
A

B. call sign, altitude, Mode 3, altimeter setting

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78
Q
  1. Tanker aircrews are responsible for maintaining terrain clearance on track and will recompute track heading and refueling altitude as the terrain and threat dictate.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3-18, para: 3.15B
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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79
Q
  1. HAAR contacts will not be conducted when radio communication capability between the tanker and receiver(s) is lost except during emergency fuel situation or contingency operations.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3-39, para: CAUTION
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

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80
Q
  1. Radio Silent HAAR may be conducted for tactical training and operational missions provided:______
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3-41, para: 3.44
    A. The HAAR pre-rendezvous briefing requirements will be covered in the pre-mission briefing.
    B. Radio equipment on both aircraft must be operative and crews on both aircraft must monitor the same frequency and GUARD
    C. The rendezvous equipment and altimeter setting are all briefed prior to the mission.
    D. All of the above
    E. A and C
A

D. All of the above

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81
Q
  1. Minimum visibility for a visual rendezvous is ______ NM. Minimum visibility for electronic rendezvous is ______ NM.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 4-9, para: 4.5B
    A. 1, 3
    B. 3, 1
    C. 5, 1
    D. 1, 5
A

B. 3, 1

82
Q
  1. For RV Delta (Head-On Offset), the tanker approaches the receiver(s) on the reciprocal of the HAAR track at rendezvous altitude with a ______ to ______ nm lateral offset. The optimum lateral offset is ______ nm.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 4D-1, para: 4.D.2
    A. 3, 10, 5
    B. 2, 5, 3
    C. 1, 3, 2
    D. none of the above
A

B. 2, 5, 3

83
Q
  1. During HAAR within 3 nm of receiver prior to assuming formation lead, if visual contact is not established but electronic contact is maintained, the tanker will maintain current altitude and continue join-up. At 1 nm electronic contact, if visual contact is not established, the tanker will:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: Attachment 1, para: 3.29A
    A. Immediately call “CONTACT LOST”; establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation; turn 45 degrees right of track heading; after 30 sec, maneuver for another rendezvous or proceed as briefed
    B. Turn 45 degrees right of track heading; lower flaps to air refueling configuration (as required); slow to refueling airspeed; call “NO VISUAL CONTACT”; after 30 sec, turn left and resume track heading
    C. Immediately call “CONTACT LOST”; establish a minimum 500 ft vertical separation; turn all lights to bright; slow to refueling airspeed; maintain 1 nm in trail of receiver
    D. None of the above
A

B. Turn 45 degrees right of track heading; lower flaps to air refueling configuration (as required); slow to refueling airspeed; call “NO VISUAL CONTACT”; after 30 sec, turn left and resume track heading

84
Q
  1. During helicopter air refueling, after the tanker assumes formation lead, if the receiver calls “LOST VISUAL CONTACT,” the tanker will respond with:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: Attachment 1, para: 3.29B
    A. “BREAKAWAY” followed by base heading and MSA.
    B. “EXECUTE” followed by base heading and MSA.
    C. “BREAKAWAY” followed by base heading and ESA.
    D. “EXECUTE” followed by base heading and ESA.
A

B. “EXECUTE” followed by base heading and MSA.

85
Q 
85. The speed range for the low speed helicopter drogue is \_\_\_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_\_\_ KIAS (acceleration to 130 KIAS is allowed after engagement). Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 20 Feb 19 page: 7-12,  para: 3B.4.4  
 	A. 90, 140  
 	B. 110, 125  
 	C. 105, 120
 	D. 135, 215
A

C. 105, 120

86
Q
  1. The refueling airspeed range for the high speed drogue is ______ to ______.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 7-12, para: 7.10.3
    A. 150, 230
    B. 185, 250
    C. 170, 200
    D. 210, 275
A

B. 185, 250

87
Q
  1. For KC-135 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ______ PPM.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 20 Feb 19 page: 8-2, para: Appendix 8A Table
    A. 2000
    B. 3000
    C. 3800
    D. 5000
A

C. 3800

88
Q
  1. For KC-10 AAR, with two pumps running, fuel transfer to the MC-130J should be planned at ___ PPM.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 20 Feb 19 page: 8-5, para: Appendix 8A Table
    A. 2000
    B. 3000
    C. 3800
    D. 5000
A

B. 3000

89
Q
  1. The overt anti-collision lights may cause excessive glare during HAAR NVG join-ups.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-27, para: 3.27B
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

90
Q
  1. If both visual and electronic contact are lost after your aircraft is within 3 NM of the receiver.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: Attachment 1, para: 3.29A
    A. Immediately call “ CONTACT LOST”, establish a minimum 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, and after 30 seconds maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed.
    B. Turn right 30 degrees, call “NO VISUAL CONTACT”, climb to MSA
    C. Call “BREAKAWAY” and climb to MSA, give heading and MSA to helicopter
    D. None of the above
A

A. Immediately call “ CONTACT LOST”, establish a minimum 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, and after 30 seconds maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed.

91
Q 
91. The minimum recommended air refueling speed is 105 KIAS for weights up to \_\_\_\_\_\_.  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4 
 	A. 148,000
 	B. 150,000 
 	C. 155,000 
 	D. 130,000
A

A. 148,000

92
Q 
92. The receiver join-up altitude will be at least \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet below the refueling altitude for all receiver low procedures and at least \_\_\_\_\_\_ feet above the refueling altitude for all receiver high procedures. Ingress should be at AAR altitude. 
Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, Para: 17.18.2
A. 100, 500  
 	B. 200, 300
 	C. 300, 200
 	D. 2,000, 3,000
A

C. 300, 200

93
Q
  1. Unless an emergency fuel condition exists, helicopter receiver crews will not attempt probe to drogue contact in a turn at night. Once in contact, turns are permitted. Before initiating a turn at night, the tanker pilot must confirm that the receiver is established in either the observation or refueling position.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-11, para: WARNING
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

94
Q
  1. For EMCON 2-4 HAAR (simultaneous refueling operations), receivers will flash their formation/position lights ______ seconds prior to movement for disconnect. Failure to do so may result in simultaneous disconnects and possible mid-air collisions.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-27, para: 3.26C-2
    A. 1
    B. 2
    C. 5
    D. none
A

C. 5

95
Q
  1. After join-up, the ______ or ______ (if available) will display the strobe for the formation.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-24, para: 4.26B-3
    A. leader, designated representative
    B. tanker, receivers
    C. trailing receiver, spare tanker
    D. none of the above
A

C. trailing receiver, spare tanker

96
Q 
96. The variable-speed drogue operations limits are \_\_\_\_\_\_ Minimum, \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ Retracting, and \_\_\_\_\_\_ Extending/Extended/Engaging.  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 1-8
            A. 105, 200, 210 KIAS
            B. 120, 180, 205 KIAS
            C. 105, 200, 215 KIAS
            D. 105, 250, 250 KIAS
A

A. 105, 200, 210 KIAS

97
Q
  1. During simultaneous or multi-ship air refueling, each receiver must be cleared by the tanker with a green light prior to moving from the observation position to contact.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4l-6, para: Table 4-6 note 3
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

98
Q 
98. If the variable-speed drogue does not fully inflate after it is fully extended, cycle drogue. If drogue fails to fully inflate, and increase or decrease of \_\_\_\_ is authorized, VSD limitations still apply. \_\_\_\_\_ attempts/cycles at each airspeed are authorized. If drogue fails to fully inflate, discontinue use and retract drogue.
            A. 10 KIAS, 4
            B. 15 KIAS, 4
            C. 15 KIAS, 2
            D. 20 KIAS, 2
A

C. 15 KIAS, 2

99
Q
  1. During HAAR with two or more receivers, if the tanker is ready to begin refueling operations….
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 3-14, para: 3.11B1
    A. the receiver on the left side may be cleared for contacts prior to the second element crossing over to the right observation position.
    B. the receiver on the left cannot start refueling until the right receiver is in the observation position.
    C. it is up to the receivers when they start refueling.
A

A. the receiver on the left side may be cleared for contacts prior to the second element crossing over to the right observation position.

100
Q
  1. Fuel transfer rates for TAAR are normally______ pounds per minute, however, they are dependent on the tanker configuration. The specific National Annex should be consulted to determine the actual fuel transfer rate.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, November 2013 page: 4-2, para: 4.2A
    A. 500
    B. 500-1000
    C. 750-1000
    D. 3800
A

B. 500-1000

101
Q
  1. During tanker formation air refueling, one flash given to the spare tanker indicates that the tanker giving the signal is unable to refuel.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 4l-6, para: Table 4-5
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

102
Q
  1. During TAAR, at the ARCP, the receivers will be no more than______ minute(s) early to on-time and tankers will be on-time to no more than______ minute(s) late.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 4-10, para: 4-6B
    A. 1/1
    B. 2/2
    C. 3/3
    D. 4/4
A

A. 1/1

103
Q
  1. During HAAR, prior to the tanker assuming formation lead, if the tanker is within 1 nm of the receiver(s) and loses visual contact, it will immediately:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: ATT 1, para: 3,29.A2
    A. Establish a minimum of 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, after 30 sec maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed
    B. Turn 45 degrees right of track heading, lower flaps to air refueling configuration (as required), slow to refueling airspeed, call: “NO VISUAL CONTACT,” after 30 sec turn left and resume track heading
    C. Maintain electronic contact and a position 1 to 2 nm behind receivers until visual contact is re-established
    D. Both B and C
A

A. Establish a minimum of 500 ft vertical seperation (if able or conditions permit), turn 45 degrees right of track heading, after 30 sec maneuver for another RV or proceed as briefed

104
Q
  1. The planned geographic point over which the receiver(s) arrive in the observation/astern position with respect to the assigned tanker is defined as the:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 1A-4, para: Annex 1A
    A. Contact Point
    B. AR Control Point (ARCP)
    C. RV Initial Point (RVIP)
    D. RV Point
A

B. AR Control Point (ARCP)

105
Q
  1. An abrupt reduction of power at the 70 percent flap minimum operational speed (power off stall speed) may result in immediate stall with NO stall warning.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 7-4
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

106
Q
  1. During AAR, if an overrun is detected, the receiver:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 2-4, para: 2.4
    A. ensure positive vertical seperation of at least 1000 ft below the tanker(s).
    B. decelerate, maintain AAR heading and assigned altitude.
    C. call “Callsign, Execute Overrun.”
    D. all of the above.
A

D. all of the above.

107
Q
  1. ______ will be used as the standard rendezvous and air refueling procedures.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-11, para: 7.9
    A. Emission Option 1
    B. Emission Option 2
    C. Emission Option 3
    D. Special Operations procedures
A

B. Emission Option 2

108
Q
  1. A receiver call to “Toboggan” is a request for the tanker to:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 1A-16, para: Annex 1A
    A. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is between 300 and 500 ft per min and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.
    B. Start a shallow 500 fpm climb to MSA
    C. Allow for additional fuel off load
    D. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed (500 FPM rate of descent unless otherwise requested)
A

A. Start a slow descent maintaining air refueling airspeed. The rate of descent is between 300 and 500 ft per min and this should be used unless tanker or receiver requests otherwise.

109
Q
  1. An operational ______ is the minimum electronic equipment required to complete an electronic rendezvous.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3-7, para: 3.5B
    A. Equipment with the ability to determine receiver range (e.g. A/A TACAN).
    B. FLIR
    C. UHF radio
    D. None of the above
A

A. Equipment with the ability to determine receiver range (e.g. A/A TACAN).

110
Q
  1. [MFLMETO-Non adjusted] If an engine failure occurs after rotation speed, do not attempt a maximum effort liftoff. Reduce pitch attitude and increase airspeed as much as possible, obtaining air minimum control speed if possible, before a liftoff is attempted.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-26
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

111
Q
  1. Receivers will use the brevity code word “TEXACO” to request an on-call HAAR. Tanker aircrews, after examining the terrain on track will compute and relay ______, ______ and ______ to receivers.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3-18, para: 3.15A
    A. refueling altitude, MSA, time status
    B. refueling altitude, MSA, ESA
    C. rendezvous altitude, MSA, time status
    D. rendezvous altitude, MSA, time status
A

A. refueling altitude, MSA, time status

112
Q
  1. EMCON 3 (comm out) HAAR may NOT be conducted for tactical training.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3-41, para: 3.44
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

113
Q
  1. While performing simultaneous air refueling, receivers will FLASH formation/position lights ______ seconds prior to movement for disconnect to preclude simultaneous disconnects and midair collisions.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3l-5, para: Table 3l-4
    A. Five (5)
    B. Seven (7)
    C. Ten (10)
    D. Three (3)
A

A. Five (5)

114
Q
  1. The 4-engine maximum effort climb-out flight path is based on 4-engine acceleration to lift off at the maximum effort takeoff speed and acceleration to the ______ speed at or prior to the 50 foot obstacle height. Landing gear retraction is initiated ______ seconds after lift off.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-29
    A. maximum effort obstacle clearance, 3
    B. maximum effort obstacle clearance, 5
    C. obstacle clearance speed, 3
    D. obstacle clearance speed, 5
A

A. maximum effort obstacle clearance, 3

115
Q
  1. While conducting HAAR, the receiver flashes the tanker multiple white signals. This is a signal for the tanker to:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3l-5, para: Table 3l-4
    A. Pass the receiver additional fuel
    B. Execute a toboggan maneuver
    C. Reset the reel response
    D. Breakaway
A

A. Pass the receiver additional fuel

116
Q
  1. During HAAR, the light signal for “BREAKAWAY” is (multiple colour):
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3l-4, para: Table 3l-4
    A. Tanker or receiver flashes multiple red lights
    B. Tanker flashes multiple red lights and/or all pod status lights flashing
    C. Receiver flashes multiple white lights
    D. Receiver flashes one white light
A

B. Tanker flashes multiple red lights and/or all pod status lights flashing

117
Q
  1. Once a receiver has crossed over, an additional green flash is required before contact on the new side.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3l-5, para: Table 3l-4
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

118
Q
  1. Before initiating a turn at night during HAAR, the tanker pilot must confirm the receiver is established in ______.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-11, para: WARNING
    A. in precontact position
    B. in observation position
    C. in refueling position
    D. Either B or C
A

D. Either B or C

119
Q
  1. Fuel will continue to flow as long as the receiver maintains the hose extension between ______ and ______ feet (assuming normal operations and the tanker system is set to start pumping fuel automatically).
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-2, para: 7.5.3
    A. 81, 93
    B. 20, 80
    C. 56, 81
    D. 76, 93
A

B. 20, 80

120
Q
  1. The response reset switch must never be actuated with the receiver engaged, as this should cause loss of all response capability.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-13, para: CAUTION
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

121
Q
  1. ______ are responsible for maintaining terrain clearance on track and will recompute track heading and refuelling altitude as the terrain or threat dictate.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-18, para: 3.15B
    A. Tanker aircrews
    B. Reciever Aircrews
    C. Both A & B
    D. None of the above
A

A. Tanker aircrews

122
Q
  1. Tankers should limit bank angle to 30 degrees in the air refueling configuration to prevent tanker stall. However, if terrain or weather is not a factor, bank angle should be limited to ______ degrees.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-12, para: WARNING
    A. 10
    B. 20
    C. 15
    D. 25
A

C. 15

123
Q
  1. The drogue may become slightly less stable at refueling speeds below ______ knots; however, satisfactory refueling operations can be conducted between MOS and 130 knots.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 SRD, 23 December 2015 page: 7-6, para: NOTE
    A. 100
    B. 105
    C. 110
    D. 115
A

B. 105

124
Q
  1. Due to distraction and the difficulty of maintaining lateral separation, two receivers will not disconnect or fly in the astern position simultaneously.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-15, para: WARNING
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

125
Q
  1. When calling a breakaway over the radio [interphone or refueling frequency], the proper terminology is:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-37, para: 3.32
    A. “Tanker Call sign and hose assignment pertaining to the receiver required to breakaway, Breakaway, Breakaway, Breakaway”
    B. “Tanker Call sign and hose assignment pertaining to the receiver required to breakaway, Breakaway”
    C. “Receiver Call sign, Breakaway, Breakaway, Breakaway”
    D. “Receiver Call sign, Breakaway”
A

A. “Tanker Call sign and hose assignment pertaining to the receiver required to breakaway, Breakaway, Breakaway, Breakaway”

126
Q
  1. During a “Breakaway” call during HAAR, the tanker will turn on the lower anti-collision light (if refuelling un-aided).
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-37, para: 3.32
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

127
Q
  1. A small amount of fuel spray from the nozzle and receptacle during fuel transfer requires immediate termination of air refueling operations due to the possibility of fire.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-37, para: 3.31C
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

128
Q
  1. During reduced receiver flight performance (HAAR), the tanker will:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-37, para: 3.33
    A. perform a receiver high RV.
    B. Execute the join-up to place the receiver on the side of the tanker with the intended refueling hose.
    C. establish refueling airspeed and set refueling hoses prior to reaching the receivers abeam position.
    D. All of the above
A

D. All of the above

129
Q
  1. During reduced receiver flight performance (HAAR), refueling airspeed will be
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-38, para: 3.33C
    A. the tanker minimum speed
    B. the receiver airspeed
    C. 105 KIAS
    D. the higher of A or B
A

D. the higher of A or B

130
Q
  1. Rendezvous Altitude is defined as______
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 3-9, para: 3.6
    A. It is based on AAR altitude and should be 500 ft above or below AAR altitude depending on the type of join-up.
    B. It is based on AAR altitude and will be 500 ft above or below AAR altitude depending on the type of join-up.
    C. A reference altitude at which the lowest aircraft of a tanker formation will fly.
    D. A helicopter altitude that ensures tanker/receiver altitude separation during the join up.
A

A. It is based on AAR altitude and should be 500 ft above or below AAR altitude depending on the type of join-up.

131
Q 
131. Where receiver national limitations permit, aircraft with a basic airborne intercept radar (i.e., target search available but lock capability not available) may climb to \_\_\_\_\_\_ ft below base AAR altitude, maintain this level and close to \_\_\_\_\_\_ nm. Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 2-2, para: 2.2D
	A. 500, ½ 
 	B. 1000 / 1
 	C. 1500 / 3 
 	D. 700 / ½
A

A. 500, ½

132
Q 
132. [Adjusted MFLMETO] If an engine failure occurs after refusal speed, then accelerate to \_\_\_\_\_\_ speed and rotate toward the target pitch attitude. Once airborne, adjust pitch attitude to accelerate to obstacle clearance speed while maintaining a climb.  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1 3-26   
 	A. 3-Engine Minimum Unstick 
 	B. Vmca 
 	C. Rotation
 	D. Takeoff
A

C. Rotation

133
Q
  1. For a RV Golf procedure, the tankers and receiver(s) navigate independently to arrive at the RVIP at:
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 2G-1, para: 2.G.2A
    A. on time to 1 minute late
    B. a designated RVCT
    C. 3 min prior to the RVCT
    D. on time to 1 minute early
A

B. a designated RVCT

134
Q
  1. Boom nozzle position during AAR procedures shall be monitored closely prior to contact and following disconnect as receptacle to propeller line distance is only ______ feet.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 20 Feb 19 page: 8-46, para: CAUTION
    A. 10
    B. 15.5
    C. 13.5
    D. None of the above
A

B. 15.5

135
Q
  1. The subtle inaccuracies of unverified survey points and chart printing combined with position round off errors and physical over flight limitations can easily introduce navigation errors of 500 yards or more (in regards to manual position update). Even an unkeyed GPS receiver used for position updates is generally more accurate than a crew-entered update.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4; Pg 9-72
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

136
Q
  1. Cargo to be offloaded using Method “C” procedures must meet the below criteria:
    Ref: AFMAN 11-2MC-130JV3, para A4.2.3.4.
    A. One 463L pallet will be offloaded at a time.
    B. Cargo may be rigged for airdrop/CDS
    C. Pallets are limited to 90’’ vertical height and 8,500 pounds.
    D. Both A and C
A

D. Both A and C

137
Q
  1. When inputting IPRA parameters, runway alignment should be referenced to true north. A runway alignment referenced to magnetic or grid north may prevent optimum DA/FD performance.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg 11-71
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

138
Q 
138. When the airplane is between the TP and DZ ESC waypoints, the CNI-MS switches to a sensitive steering mode (approach gains) and reports the crosstrack error in \_\_\_\_\_\_ instead of miles.  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, Pg 12-61
 	A. Feet  
 	B. Meters  
 	C. Yards 
 	D. Other
A

C. Yards

139
Q 
139. When building an IPRA, the IAF should be located so that the course change from the IAF to the IF is less than \_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees (\_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees or less is recommended).  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-4, pg 11-71  
 	A. 45, 30 
 	B. 60, 30 
 	C. 90, 45 
 	D. 120, 60
A

D. 120, 60

140
Q 
140. Max recommended gross weight for max effort landings is: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 1-2
 	A. 130,000lbs 
 	B. 142,000lbs
 	C. 164,000lbs 
 	D. 175,000lbs
A

B. 142,000lbs

141
Q
  1. Maximum Main tank limit, with AR pods is 28,000lbs. This limit may be lower based on Zero Fuel Weight.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 1-3, pg 1-42
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

142
Q 
142. The airplane must remain stationary during LAIRCM warmup/cool down cycle, which will normally occur in about \_\_\_\_\_\_, but may take up to \_\_\_\_\_\_.
Ref: 1C-130(M)J-1 18C-58.6
	A. 2 minutes, 20 minutes
	B. 5 minutes, 17 minutes
	C. 1 minute, 5 minutes
	D. 5 seconds, 17 seconds
A

B. 5 minutes, 17 minutes

143
Q 
143. During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the LPCR is OFF.  When the false signal is generated, the RWR ignores emitter signals that it should indentify.  When threat conditions dictate limiting airplane emissions, ensure the LPCR is in\_\_\_\_\_\_mode and not transmitting. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-85 
 	A. Weather 
 	B. Windshear 
 	C. Standby
A

C. Standby

144
Q 
144. Do not fire the LTM at areas where people or animals are present within: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2D-83
 	A. 500 feet 
 	B. 1,000 feet
 	C. 1,500 feet 
 	D. 2,000 feet
A

B. 1,000 feet

145
Q
  1. To prevent blindness to personnel near the airplane, ensure that the LTM is not selected or armed.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2D-83
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

146
Q
  1. During tactical operations, the Infiltration/Exfiltration checklist takes the place of the normal Approach, Before and After Landing, Before Takeoff, Lineup, and After Takeoff Checklists.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-89
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

147
Q
  1. For HAAR/TAAR, during a random rendezvous, the tanker will be established at refueling altitude at least ______ NM from the receivers.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 3H-1, para: 3.H.1
    A. 1/2
    B. 3
    C. 1
    D. 5
A

D. 5

148
Q 
148. A cabin altitude check will be accomplished at a cabin altitude of:  
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, Pg 2A-113
 	A. 10,000 
 	B. 13,000 
 	C. 15,000 
 	D. 17,999 
 	E. A and C
A

E. A and C

149
Q 
149. From the \_\_\_\_\_\_call, parachutist will be mobile/standing in the cargo compartment.  Unless situation dictates otherwise (e.g., combat), avoid abrupt maneuvering of the airplane to reduce the injury potential to personnel in the cargo compartment. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-114 
 	A. 10 minute warning 
 	B. 6 minute advisory
 	C. 30 seconds to slowdown 
 	D. 1 minute warning
A

B. 6 minute advisory

150
Q
  1. Do not set the COMPUTER DROP switch out of the AUTO position until the CNI scratch pad is manually cleared of all messages and erroneous GREEN LIGHT indications are confirmed not to have occurred on the CNI, HUD, or HDDs.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-116
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

151
Q
  1. For HAAR/TAAR the primary A/R frequency will be set no later than ______ minutes prior to the ARCT.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 4l-3, para: Table 4-3
    A. 15
    B. 45
    C. 30
    D. 10
A

D. 10

152
Q
  1. If a parachutist is towed after exit from a paratroop door, avoid turning the airplane away of the towed parachutist as this often causes parachutist to swing violently and increase the possibility of injury.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 Para: AIRDROP EMERGENCY OPERATIONS, pg 2A-118
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

153
Q 
153. Although 100 percent flaps selection provides an improved airflow for a towed parachutist, under certain conditions the gear down, 100 percent flaps configuration may reduce airplane performance.  The AC should consider: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1 pg 2A-118
 	A. Density altitude 
 	B. Airplane Weight 
 	C. Position in formation 
 	D. All of the above
 	E.  None of the above
A

D. All of the above

154
Q
  1. The PF will monitor and ensure that the ramp and door OPEN light on the ADS panel remains illuminated for the entire drop. Failure of the light to illuminate or remain illuminated is considered a NO DROP condition.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-115
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

155
Q
  1. If all checklists are not completed by the CSO’s “ten seconds” call, the crew will call a “no drop” and follow the appropriate procedures.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-116
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

156
Q
  1. With multiple 28-foot extraction parachutes deployed outside the airplane, maximum thrust may be needed to stay aloft or to control the descent. The drag produced by the extraction parachutes should decrease if airspeed is allowed to bleed off. This reduction in drag could permit level flight or reduce the rate of descent should level flight not be possible. Reduce power to achieve this airspeed change and do not slow below VS carat +20.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-118.1
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

157
Q 
157. Do not transmit on\_\_\_\_\_\_ during Air Refueling operations due to the risk of static discharge.  This restriction to the use of\_\_\_\_\_\_ shall be adhered to at any time a receiver is in contact or attempting to contact the drogue. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-143
 	A. UHF, UHF 
 	B. VHF, VHF 
 	C. HF, HF
 	D. UHF, HF
A

C. HF, HF

158
Q 
158. During aerial refueling any fuel delivered to the AR pods at pressures greater than\_\_\_\_\_\_PSI from the pod fuel pumps will flow back into the respective outboard fuel tank through the AR pod venture-pressure reducer vent line.  It is possible to exceed the maximum allowable fuel weights listed in Section 1. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-144 
 	A. 30 PSI 
 	B. 40 PSI 
 	C. 50 PSI
 	D. 60 PSI
A

C. 50 PSI

159
Q
  1. [AAR] The receiver will proceed down track from the RVIP/RV at ______ KIAS, and the tanker
    will overtake the receiver at ______ KIAS.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 8-14, para: 8E.9.2.1.11
    A. 210, 275
    B. 215, 265
    C. 215, 275
    D. 210, 265
A

C. 215, 275

160
Q 
160. Minimum airspeed for the Reel response test should be \_\_\_\_\_\_ for the high-speed drogue and\_\_\_\_\_\_ for the low-speed drogue (maximum for the low-speed drogue). 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-145 
 	A. 120 KIAS, 200 KIAS 
 	B. 180 KCAS, 120 KIAS 
 	C. 180 KCAS, 110 KCAS 
 	D. 200 KCAS, 120 KCAS
A

D. 200 KCAS, 120 KCAS

161
Q
  1. The AAR Tanker visual signal that indicates “Tanker Ready for Contact” is______.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 2Q - 3, para: Table 2Q-3
    A. boom stowed (fully retracted)
    B. boom in trail (fully retracted)
    C. boom in trail (fully extended)
    D. boom extended in trail.
A

D. boom extended in trail.

162
Q
  1. In the event of an AR Pod Fire, refer to Wing Fire emergency procedures.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-150
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

163
Q
  1. Once the GUILLOTINE switch is placed to CUT, do not move switch back to normal/OFF until maintenance has been performed on the reel. The pod remains enabled until the GUILLOTINE switch is placed back to normal/OFF.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-155
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

164
Q
  1. Use of an AR pod or hose when a fuel leak is observed may result in a broken hose and/or an AR pod/wing fire. Any time fuel is observed originating from an AR pod:
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-157
    A. Discontinue use
    B. Report discrepancy
    C. Ensure that no further refueling from the affected pod occurs
    D. All of the above
    E. None of the above
A

D. All of the above

165
Q
  1. The location of the FLCVs in the outboard main tanks allow these tanks to be overfilled in flight if AR pods are installed. To avoid overfilling tanks 1 and 4 in flight, use the preset fuel quantity function.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-163
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

166
Q
  1. In-flight, when transferring fuel into a main fuel tank with an inoperative boost pump and the fuel tank is near full capacity, movement of the airplane could result in fuel siphoning through the fuel vent system. Should this occur, stop the fuel transfer and lower the level in that tank to where the fuel venting stops.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-165
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

167
Q
  1. To eliminate the potential fire hazards, the radar will not be turned off during Air to Air Refueling.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-165
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

168
Q
  1. The Underfloor heat switch may be turned back on during any phase of the Post Air Refueling checklist.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 2A-169
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

169
Q 
169. During a controlled tension brute force disconnect, the receiver pilot will maintain contact altitude and \_\_\_\_\_\_ reduce power to establish a positive separation rate. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1,pg 2A-174
 	A. Rapidly 	
 	B. Quickly 
 	C. Gradually
 	D. Carefully
A

C. Gradually

170
Q
  1. During line rupture the pilot will ensure that the copilot has closed the nacelle shutoff valves prior to placing the aircraft in a nose-up attitude and prior to clearing the loadmaster to open the cargo ramp.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-175
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

171
Q 
171. Extend or retract the lowspeed drogue at a maximum speed of \_\_\_\_\_\_KIAS, and the high-speed drogue at a maximum of \_\_\_\_\_\_KIAS. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, pg 8-4
 	A. 130/185 
 	B. 130/250 
 	C. 120/250
 	D. 120/185
A

C. 120/250

172
Q
  1. During AAR, the astern position is approximately______ feet behind and slightly below the tanker boom nozzle where the receiver stabilizes before being cleared to the contact position.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2 November 2013 page: 1A-4, para: ANNEX 1A
    A. 10
    B. 25
    C. 50
    D. 100
A

C. 50

173
Q 
173. The red pod status light is energized whenever the hydraulic pressure switch detects a pressure of \_\_\_\_\_\_ PSI or less.  Power for the light is only supplied when the pod MASTER POWER LSK is \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-7 
 	A. 1,000/ON 
 	B. 2,000/ON 
 	C. 1,700/ON
 	D. 1,700/OFF
A

C. 1,700/ON

174
Q
  1. Duplicate controls between the CNI-MU REFUEL CONTROL page and the REFUEL CONTROL panels follow the last input override rule. The Last control initiated determines the state of the system.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-9
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

175
Q
  1. Pylon chaff dispenser (if installed) will be disabled when flaps are set greater than 15%.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 12-5
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

176
Q 
176. In BIU backup mode operations, assume defensive systems are \_\_\_\_\_\_ and review the mission profile. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18-18 
 	A. Functional 
 	B. Non-functional
 	C. Operating 
 	D. None of the above
A

B. Non-functional

177
Q
  1. TAWS video display color Low Density Yellow indicates a terrain separation of:
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18B-20
    A. More than 2,000 feet above current altitude
    B. Between 1,000 and 2,000 feet above current altitude
    C. Between 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below and 1,000 feet above current altitude
    D. Between 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) and 1,000 feet below current altitude
A

C. Between 500 feet (250 feet with gear down) below and 1,000 feet above current altitude

178
Q 
178. The skin paint display is an offset radar presentation shown in monochrome.  SP is available in range scales up to \_\_\_\_\_\_ in all sector sizes up to+/- \_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees and expands on the full channel. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18B-20
 	A. 10 NM, 60 
 	B. 20 NM, 60
 	C. 30 NM, 90 
 	D. 30 NM, 60
A

B. 20 NM, 60

179
Q 
179. The AN/ALE-47 countermeasures dispenser system requires a \_\_\_\_\_\_ warm-up. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-2 
 	A. 10 second 
 	B. 5 second
 	C. 15 second 
 	D. 30 second
A

B. 5 second

180
Q
  1. CMDS STBY may be overridden by utilizing the jettison function.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-2
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

181
Q 
181. \_\_\_\_\_\_ mode ensures CMDS dispensing in the event of a major failure which disables the programmer. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1,  18C-3
 	A. STBY 
 	B. AUTO 
 	C. BYP
 	D. ON
A

C. BYP

182
Q 
182. The RWR components are \_\_\_\_\_\_ one C/D band antenna, four DF receivers, one C/D band receiver/power supply, one analysis processor, one superheterodyne receiver, and one superheterodyne receiver controller: 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-21
 	A. Two E/J band antennas 
 	B. Three E/J band antennas 
 	C. Four E/J band antennas
 	D. Five E/J band antennas
A

C. Four E/J band antennas

183
Q 
183. When RWR and TCAS overlays are displayed simultaneously on a single NAV-radar display, the system gives \_\_\_\_\_ information higher priority.  This prioritization leads to delays of over \_\_\_\_\_\_ seconds ins in the update of TCAS symbol color and shape. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-22
 	A. RWR, 8
 	B. TCAS, 4 
 	C. RWR, 4 
 	D. TCAS, 8
A

A. RWR, 8

184
Q 
184. During RWR operation, an anomaly generates a false blanking signal if the LPCR is OFF.  When threat conditions dictate limiting emissions, ensure the LPCR is in \_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18C-22
 	A. Operate, transmitting 
 	B. Operate, not transmitting 
 	C. Standby mode, not transmitting
 	D. Standby mode, transmitting
A

C. Standby mode, not transmitting

185
Q
  1. For a correlated launch, a triangle shaped outline is displayed at the end of the azimuth line.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-25
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

186
Q
  1. For an uncorrelated launch, a barbed circle (a circle with four lines, one at each corner) shaped outline is displayed at the end of the azimuth line.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-25
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

187
Q
  1. The uncorrelated launch takes priority over the correlated launch.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-25
    A. True
    B. False
A

B. False

188
Q 
188. The AN/AAR-47 cue is a \_\_\_\_\_\_ outline symbol displayed at te end of a short line(shorter than the line of the AN/ALR-56M cue) extending from the waterline symbol to represent the quadrant of the threat. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 18D-25
 	A. Square 
 	B. Circle 
 	C. Triangle
 	D. Barbed circle
A

C. Triangle

189
Q 
189. A dump system is provided to dump all fuel overboard except approximately \_\_\_\_\_\_ pounds in each main tank, 0 pounds in each auxiliary tank, and 0 pounds in each external tank (if installed). 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 3-38 
 	A. 1450 
 	B. 1520
 	C. 1770 
 	D. 2180
A

B. 1520

190
Q
  1. The crossfeed valves must be closed to prevent all of the fuel in the main tanks from being dumped overboard.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 3-39
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

191
Q 
191. The AR pods green light operates in parallel with the GRN pod status indicator on the CNI-MU POD CTRL pages. The green light illuminates when fuel flow reaches \_\_\_\_\_\_ GPM. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-7 
 	A. 30 
 	B. 50
 	C. 70 
 	D. 90
A

B. 50

192
Q 
192. To avoid possible loss or damage to receiver airplanes, do not select \_\_\_\_\_\_ while the receiver airplane is in contact with or close to a partially trailed hose. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2A-144 
 	A. Rewind 
 	B. Trail 
 	C. RESP RESET
 	D. Breakaway
A

C. RESP RESET

193
Q 
193. During aerial refueling any fuel delivered to the AR pods at pressures greater than 50 PSI from the pod fuel pumps will flow back into the respective outboard fuel tank through theAR pod venturi-pressure reducer vent line. It is possible to exceed the maximum allowable \_\_\_\_\_\_ listed in Section 1. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1,  2A-144
 	A. Fuel Weights
 	B. weight limitations 
 	C. Aerial Refueling limitations 
 	D. recommended loading
A

A. Fuel Weights

194
Q 
194. Transferring fuel during taxi or in flight into a nearly full main tank when its \_\_\_\_\_\_ is not operating is prohibited because it can result in rapid and continuous venting of fuel. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 5-14 
 	A. Boost Pump
 	B. FLCV 
 	C. Transfer Pump 
 	D. Both A and B
A

A. Boost Pump

195
Q
  1. The value displayed on the total quantity indicator does not include the fuel quantity for tanks that have a failed indicating system.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 8-18
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

196
Q 
196. On the AN/ARC-231, the default sound level on initial power up is 23, which can/will damage the ICS system if not lowered prior totransmitting/receiving. The sound level preset should be changed to \_\_\_\_\_\_ before transmitting so as not to damage ICS system. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1, 2D-40 
 	A. 5/6 
 	B. 9/10 
 	C. 11/12
 	D. 17/18
A

C. 11/12

197
Q
  1. If an engine failure occurs immediately after rotation speed, immediate action is required to lower the nose to control airspeed. If below VMCA, the opposite outboard power lever may have to be reduced below the ATCS scheduled HP.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-26
    A. True
    B. False
A

A. True

198
Q
  1. Brake energy limit speed is defined as the maximum speed at which maximum anti-skid braking can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brake system. It is calculated using ______.
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-14
    A. 1 Eng Feathered, 3 Engines in ground idle
    B. Two engines in reverse
    C. Four in reverse
    D. None of the above
A

B. Two engines in reverse

199
Q 
199. Adjusted maximum effort rotation speed is scheduled to ensure that liftoff speed is greater than the \_\_\_\_\_\_ and the three engine minimum liftoff speed. 
Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-16 
 	A. air minimum control speed
 	B. Vmcg 
 	C. 2-Eng Vmca 
 	D. Touchdown speed
A

A. air minimum control speed

200
Q
  1. Minimum Field Length for Maximum Effort Take-Off is defined as that length of runway which is required to accelerate to decision (refusal) speed, experience an engine failure, and stop or
    Ref: T.O. 1C-130(M)J-1-1, 3-26
    A. continue to accelerate to Vmca in the remaining runway.
    B. continue acceleration to maximum effort takeoff speed (1.05MU4, 4-engine minimum unstuck speed) in the remaining runway.
    C. continue the takeoff with the asymmetric power reduced.
    D. continue the takeoff and liftoff on 3-engines with adequate stall margin.
A

B. continue acceleration to maximum effort takeoff speed (1.05MU4, 4-engine minimum unstuck speed) in the remaining runway.

201
Q
  1. During HAAR, the tanker flashes the receiver one amber light. This is a signal for the receiver to (multiple colour):
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, 20 Feb 19 page: 3l-4, para: Table 3l-4
    A. Go to observation position
    B. Prepare to turn
    C. Breakaway
    D. Crossover
A

B. Prepare to turn

202
Q
  1. The refueling airspeed range for the high speed drogue is ______ to ______.
    Ref: ATP-3.3.4.2, April 2019 page: 235, para: 4.2C
    A. 150, 230
    B. 185, 250
    C. 170, 200
    D. 210, 275
A

B. 185, 250

MC-130J MQF (2 decks)

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