100. Bold Face ENGINE FAILURE TAKEOFF CONTINUED

1. Vr - ROTATE 2. POWER - MAX ALLOWABLE 3. GEAR - UP 4. AIRSPEED - V2 TO ACCEL HEIGHT (400 FT MIN AGL) 5. PROP (INOP ENG) - VERIFY FEATHERED

MC-12 Pilot Closed 30 Jan 17 Flashcards by Jerry Leger

____ is the airspeed which delivers the greatest gain of altitude in the shortest possible time.

A. Maximum climb gradient
B. Best rate of climb
C. Cruise climb
D. Best angle of climb

B. Best rate of climb

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

When extending the landing gear manually,

A. pump the manual gear extension handle until definite resistance (25 - 50 lbs) is felt.
B. pump handle up and down until the three green GEAR DOWN annunciators are illuminated.
C. the GEAR DOWN lights will not illuminate until the LANDING GEAR RELAY circuit breaker is reset.
D. pump unitl resistance is felt, then recycle the LANDING GEAR HANDLE to obtain the three green GEAR DOWN lights.

B. pump handle up and down until the three green GEAR DOWN annunciators are illuminated.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Normal generator voltage is ____ to ____ volts; maximum allowable volt different between generators is ____.

A. 26.5, 29.5, 2.5
B. 27.5, 29.0, 1.0
C. 28.0, 30.0, 2.0
D. 28.0, 30.0, 1.5

B. 27.5, 29.0, 1.0

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Maximum Cabin Pressure Differential

A. 6.1
B. 6.4
C. 6.5
D. 6.6

D. 6.6

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The Maximum Zero Fuel Weight is ____ lbs.

A. 12,000
B. 13,000
C. 14,000
D. 15,000

B. 13,000

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During the low pitch stops and primary governor checks, the propeller RPM should stabilize at ____ RPM.

A. 1150 - 1250
B. 1475 - 1525
C. 1350 - 1450
D. 1520 - 1610

A. 1150 - 1250

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The CABIN ALTITUDE annunciator light will illuminate when

A. cabin pressure altitude reaches 10,000 feet.
B. cabin pressure altitude reaches 12,500 feet
C. cabin differential pressure reaches 4.8 PSI.
D. either B or C occur.

A. cabin pressure altitude reaches 10,000 feet.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in personal injury or loss of life if not carefully followed

A. Warning
B. Caution
C. Note
D. Memo

A. Warning

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Open circuit breakers for essential circuits may be reset in flight

A. three times with a minimum 90 second cooling time between.
B. only once.
C. under no circumstances.
D. twice if there is no sign of damage after resetting the circuit breaker the first time and circuit breaker has time to cool.

B. only once.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

If the DOOR UNLOCKED annunciator illuminates in flight,

A. All Occupants Seated with seat belts securely fastened.
B. reduce pressurization to the lowest practical value (zero preferred)
C. check the airstair door for security by pulling the handle toward the closed position.
D. accomplish A and B above.

D. accomplish A and B above.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Each Main Fuel Tank System can hold up to ____ lbs of fuel.

A. 1273
B. 533
C. 3611
D. 1523

A. 1273

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following limitations apply when continued flight is required with a cracked outer or inner ply of windshield.

A. Continued flight with cracked windshield is limited to 25 flight hours.
B. Crack(s) must not impair visibility
C. Windshield Anti-ice must be operational for flights in icing conditions.
D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Minimum oil pressure at idle is ____ PSI.

A. 60
B. 80
C. 85
D. 90

A. 60

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

All wing icing inspection lights must be operative prior to flight into known or forecast icing conditions at night.

A. True
B. False

A. True

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The first step to take for excessive cabin differential pressure (CABIN DIFF HI)

A. turn bleed air Valves to ENVIR OFF position.
B. place the cabin pressure switch in the DUMP position.
C. select a higher setting on the cabin altitude controller.
D. select a lower setting on the cabin altitude controller.

A. turn bleed air Valves to ENVIR OFF position

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Do not engage the autopilot below ____ after takeoff.

A. 120 KIAS
B. 140 KIAS
C. 400 AGL
D. either A or C

C. 400 AGL

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Bold Face

ENGINE FAILURE TAKEOFF CONTINUED

Vr - ROTATE
POWER - MAX ALLOWABLE
GEAR - UP
AIRSPEED - V2 TO ACCEL HEIGHT (400 FT MIN AGL)
PROP (INOP ENG) - VERIFY FEATHERED

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The maximum takeoff torque, ITT and gas generator (N1) RPM values are ____%, ____ degrees C and ____% N1 respectively.

A. 100, 810, 104
B. 100, 810, 100
C. 100, 750, 100
D. 100, 820, 104

D. 100, 820, 104

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Do not take off if fuel quantity gages indicate in ____ arc or indicate less than ____ lbs of fuel in each wing system.

A. red, 100
B. yellow, 150
C. yellow, 265
D. red, 300

C. yellow, 265

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Air Minimum Control Speed (Vmca) flaps up ____, flaps approach ____ KIAS.

A. 96/94
B. 92/90
C. 98/96
D. 101/98

D. 101/98

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is the Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind Component for a Coupled Approach?

A. 25
B. 28
C. 30
D. 32

D. 32

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

With bleed air set to LOW, approximately ____% N1 is required to maintain the pressurization schedule during descent.

A. 70
B. 62
C. 65
D. 75

D. 75

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

VLE is the abbreviation for ____.

A. Rotation Speed
B. Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed
C. Maximum Landing Gear Operating Speed
D. Take-off Decision Speed

B. Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Use of the starter is limited to ____ seconds ON, ____ minutes OFF, ____ seconds ON, ____ minutes OFF, ____ seconds ON, then ____ minutes OFF.

A. 30, 5, 30, 5, 30, 30
B. 25, 10, 25, 10, 25, 30
C. 30, 5, 30, 10, 30, 15
D. 30, 5, 30, 5, 30, 10

A. 30, 5, 30, 5, 30, 30

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

34. Any movement of the elevator trim wheel while actuating only one of the two electric elevator trim switches denotes a system malfunction. A. True B. False

A. True

38. With bleed air set to NORMAL ____% N1 will maintain the pressurization schedule during descent. A. 55 B. 62 C. 70 D. 83

B. 62

91. It is likely that an unsafe gear indication is due to an unsafe gear and is not a false indication if: A. The inoperative gear down annunciator illuminates when tested. B. The red lights in the handle are illuminated C. The gear warning horn sounds when one or both power levers are retarded below 85% N1. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

23. Do not operate the radar, in any mode other than standby (STBY) or test (TEST) when: A. the antenna scan over personnel within 2 feet of an operating system B. 115-VAC, 400-Hz is applied to the system C. the generator is powering the triple fed bus D. avionics master is turned ON

A. the antenna scan over personnel within 2 feet of an operating system

96. To obtain the best performance with one engine inoperative, the airplane must be banked ____ degrees to ____ degrees into the operating engine while maintaining a constant heading. A. 2, 6 B. 3, 5 C. 4, 6 D. 3, 4

B. 3, 5

70. Utilization of torque values up to 156% A. Is acceptable for 20 seconds during single engine operations, with no adverse implications. B. Is only acceptable as transient, for 20 seconds. C. Will not increase VMC significantly. D. Both A and C.

B. Is only acceptable as transient, for 20 seconds.

35. During the Overspeed Governors and Rudder Boost Check, the propellers should stabilize at ____ N2 RPM. A. 1500 - 1610 B. 1250 +/-50 C. 1700 - 1768 D. 1768 +/-50

A. 1500 - 1610

69. What is the Maximum Demonstrated Tailwind Component for a Coupled Approach? A. 10 B. 12 C. 14 D. 16

C. 14

48. With both engines failed, glide with gear and flaps up, propellers feathered, airspeed ____ KIAS. The zero wind glide distance is ____ NM for each 1000 feet of altitude. A. 135, 2.3 B. 150, 2.5 C. 140, 2.5 D. 160, 3.5

A. 135, 2.3

9. Depressing the Firewall Fuel Shutoff Valve Switch, ____. A. closes the Firewall Fuel Shutoff Valve B. arms the respective fire extinguisher C. closes the respective Bleed Air Shutoff valve D. accomplishes A and B

D. accomplishes A and B

50. If the circuit breaker in a non-essential circuit trips in flight A. attempt to reset the circuit breaker once. B. reset the circuit breaker and leave it reset if loadmeter indications are normal. C. do not reset it. D. activate the BUS SENSE switch to load shed and land as soon as practical.

C. do not reset it.

82. VMO is the abbreviation for ____. A. Rotation Speed B. Maximum Flap Extended Speed C. Maximum Operating Limit Speed D. Maximum Landing Gear Extended Speed

C. Maximum Operating Limit Speed

19. The heating elements protect the lift transducer vane and faceplate from ice; however, a buildup of ice on the wing may change or disrupt the airflow and prevent the system from accurately indicating an imminent stall. Remember that the stall speed increases whenever ice accumulates on any airplane. A. True B. False

A. True

41. What is the Maximum Operating Speed (Vmo) Sea Level to 24000 feet? A. 245 B. 260 C. 235 D. 263

A. 245

36. While performing the Autofeather check, the L AFX and R AFX should illuminate at approximately ____% torque. A. 18 B. 20 C. 22 D. 24

C. 22

99. Bold Face TAKEOFF ABORT

1. POWER - GROUND FINE | 2. BRAKES - AS REQUIRED

42. For maximum reverse thrust landings A. the CONDITION LEVERS must be in HIGH IDLE. B. the PROPELLER LEVERS must be FULL FORWARD. C. move the POWER LEVERS to GROUND FINE on short final. D. accomplish both A and B above

D. accomplish both A and B above

92. The ____ provide control of engine power from idle through take-off power. A. Throttles B. Condition Levers C. Power Levers D. Propeller Levers

C. Power Levers

79. In IMC or at night, if the crew experiences GPWS or TAWS+ warning callout, the crew should promptly and smoothly increase pitch towards an initial attitude of ____. A. 10-15 degrees B. 15-20 degrees C. 20-25 degrees D. 25-30 degrees

C. 20-25 degrees

12. The triple fed bus receives power from A. the left generator bus, right generator bus and the center bus. B. the right generator bus, center bus and battery bus. C. the left generator bus, right generator bus and the battery bus. D. the right generator bus, center bus and hot battery bus.

C. the left generator bus, right generator bus and the battery bus.

25. Which of these are true with a FD failure flag on the PFD: A. If coupled to the failed flight director, the autopilot will also disengage. B. This annunciation indicates the flight director has failed. C. Both A and B D. None of the above.

C. Both A and B

8. Failure of the high pressure engine driven fuel pump A. Illuminates the appropriate FUEL PRESS annunciator B. Results in immediate flameout C. Illuminates the FUEL TRANSFER annunciator D. None of the above

B. Results in immediate flameout

77. In flight, what is the first step if the Pilot's PFD goes blank? A. Select #2 AHRS B. Select #1 AHRS C. Select #2 ADC D. Select MFD

D. Select MFD

24. The weather radar A. primary purpose is to detect precipitation and moisture-based turbulence. B. has a MAP Mode used to depict the display colors on the PFD/MFD as accentuated ground features. C. has a turb mode that shows areas of precipitation related turbulence within 50 nautical miles. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

93. Each ____ adjusts the propeller governor, which results in an increase or decrease of propeller rpm. A. Power Lever B. Condition Lever C. Propeller Lever D. Throttle

C. Propeller Lever

90. To minimize ingestion of ground debris, the engine anti-ice system should be ____ for all ground operations. A. OFF B. ON C. Secured D. Removed

B. ON

74. Maximum landing gear operating speed (VLO) extension ____, retraction ____ KIAS for the ER version. A. 174/156 B. 182/164 C. 180/160 D. 184/166

B. 182/164

13. External power carts will be set to 28.0 to 28.4 volts and be capable of generating a minimum of ____ amps momentarily and ____ amps continuously. A. 300, 300 B. 1000, 800 C. 1000, 300 D. 300, 1000

C. 1000, 300

21. The crew oxygen mask system ____. A. when smoke goggles are installed on the mask, they may be purged of smoke by selecting the EMERGENCY position on the mask until the smoke is purged B. has three modes of operation - NORMAL, 100%, and EMERGENCY C. removable smoke goggles are located in a storage bag on the back of each pilot's seat D. all of the above

B. has three modes of operation - NORMAL, 100%, and EMERGENCY

15. Flashing illumination of the EXT PWR annunciator light indicates that A. battery voltage is insufficient to provide power for a battery start. B. external power has been selected and is powering all aircraft electrical buses. C. an external power plug is connected to the aircraft. D. external power of the proper voltage (28.0-28.5) is connected to the aircraft.

C. an external power plug is connected to the aircraft.

85. Each Auxiliary Fuel tank can hold up to ____ lbs of fuel. A. 533 B. 1523 C. 3611 D. 1273

A. 533

94. The ____ have three positions; FUEL CUTOFF, LOW IDLE and HIGH IDLE. A. Power Levers B. Propeller Levers C. Throttles D. Condition Levers

D. Condition Levers

86. Maximum allowable fuel imbalance between wing fuel systems is ____ lbs. A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400

C. 300

51. If the electrothermal propeller deice ammeter indicates more than 32 amps when using AUTO system A. if the circuit breaker trips, reset it. B. select the manual system. C. turn the propeller deice system OFF. D. continue operation if circuit breaker switch does not trip.

D. continue operation if circuit breaker switch does not trip.

32. The minimum voltage for a battery start is: A. 20 B. 23 C. 24 D. 28

B. 23

31. If no ITT rise is observed within ____ seconds after moving the condition lever to LOW IDLE, move the condition lever to FUEL CUTOFF. Set the IGNITION AND ENGINE START switch to OFF. Allow ____ minutes for fuel to drain and starter to cool, then follow ENGINE CLEARING procedures. A. 10, 3 B. 10, 5 C. 15, 5 D. 15, 2

B. 10, 5

22. The airplane is equipped with a capacitance type fuel quantity indication system. The maximum indication error of ____% full scale may be encountered in the system. A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10

A. 3

95. Miscompare annunciators are displayed in ____, flashing for ____ seconds initially, and then remain illuminated. A. Red, 5 B. Yellow, 10 C. Yellow, 5 D. Red, 10

C. Yellow, 5

98. Bold Face ENGINE FIRE ON THE GROUND

1. CONDITION LEVER - CUTOFF 2. FIREWALL VALVE - CLOSE 3. STARTER - STARTER ONLY 4. EXTINGUISHER (if fire warning persists) - ACTUATE

46. Illumination of the HYD FLUID LOW light indicates that A. normal brakes may not be available. B. a no flap approach will probably be necessary. C. the hydraulic fluid in the power pack is low. D. both A and B are true;

C. the hydraulic fluid in the power pack is low.

14. Starting with environmental bleed air off will provide cooler engine starts. A. True B. False

A. True

11. Each engine generator is rated at: A. 28 amps B. 20 amps C. 300 amps D. 150 amps

C. 300 amps

54. Illumination of the L or R BLEED FAIL annunciator in flight in flight indicates A. a possible rupture of a bleed air line aft of the engine firewall. B. a possible rupture bleed air line forward of the engine firewall. C. loss of bleed air pressure due to a failure of the bleed air modulating valve. D. Either B or C may have occurred.

A. a possible rupture of a bleed air line aft of the engine firewall.

17. Flashing of the FW VALVE annunciator indicates: A. The fire extinguisher is armed. B. The firewall valve is fully closed. C. The firewall fuel shutoff valve has not reached the selected position. D. Cross transfer is disabled.

C. The firewall fuel shutoff valve has not reached the selected position.

63. If cracking occurs in any fuselage side window A. the aircraft may not be dispatched until certain maintenance actions have been performed. B. reset the pressurization controller to achieve 4.0 PSI or less cabin differential pressure. C. no action is required. D. flights must be conducted with the cabin depressurized.

D. flights must be conducted with the cabin depressurized.

47. If an engine should fail while operating below Vmca (minimum single engine control speed), you should immediately A. disconnect the autopilot. B. increase power to maximum continuous on the operating engine. C. reduce power on the operating engine as required to maintain directional control. D. feather the propeller on the affected engine.

C. reduce power on the operating engine as required to maintain directional control.

10. Do not use reverse thrust with one engine inoperative. A. True B. False

A. True

55. After an emergency landing gear extension has been made (All Three Green Gear Down indicators illuminated), A. stow the alternate extension handle. B. continue to pump the gear down to ensure there is still pressure on the system. C. pull the landing gear relay circuit breaker. D. all of the above steps.

A. stow the alternate extension handle.

44. During engine shutdown, if sustained combustion is observed after the Condition Levers are moved to FUEL CUTOFF, PROCEED IMMEDIATELY TO THE: A. FIRE WALL FUEL VALVES - CLOSED. B. STARTERS SWITCH to START (for 20 seconds). C. Engine Clearing procedures. D. Prop Levers - Full Forward.

C. Engine Clearing procedures.

33. Never connect an external power source to the aircraft unless a battery indicating a charge of at least ____ volts is installed in the aircraft. A. 20 B. 23 C. 26 D. 27.5

A. 20

62. If it has been determined that a crack has developed in the windshield, A. altitude MAINTAIN 25,000 FT OR LESS, IF POSSIBLE. B. reset pressurization controller to achieve 2.0 to 4.6 PSI cabin differential pressure. C. Before Landing, DEPRESSURIZE CABIN PRIOR TO TOUCHDOWN. D. all of the above.

D. all of the above.

39. Regarding the engine anti-ice system, A. both the MAIN and STANDBY ACTUATORs must be operational on each engine before takeoff. B. either the MAIN or STANDBY ACTUATOR must be operational on each engine before flights onto known or forecast icing. C. either the MAIN or STANDBY ACTUATOR must be operational on each engine before takeoff. D. both the MAIN and STANDBY ACTUATORs must be operational on each engine before flights into known or forecast icing.

C. either the MAIN or STANDBY ACTUATOR must be operational on each engine before takeoff.

27. During a Balked Landing, the gear should be retracted prior to retracting the flaps from DOWN to APPROACH. A. True B. False

B. False

29. Total oil capacity per engine is ____ quarts, drain and refill quantity approx ____ quarts and oil quantity operating range is MAX to ____ quarts LOW on dipstick. A. 16, 13, 6 B. 14, 11, 4 C. 15, 12, 5 D. 15, 10, 5

B. 14, 11, 4

81. A yellow FD flag displayed in either the pilot's or copilot's PFD indicates ____. A. the autopilot is coupled for the approach B. a mismatch between the pilot's and copilot's flight director data C. Pilot's or Copilot's navigation source disagree D. Both B and C are correct

D. Both B and C are correct

57. The maximum airspeed for landing gear manual extension is ____ KIAS. A. 152 B. 164 C. 182 D. 202

C. 182

71. Maximum ITT during engine start is A. 1000 degrees time limited to 5 seconds. B. 3400 degrees. C. 810 degrees if RPM is increasing. D. 900 degrees time limited to 10 seconds.

A. 1000 degrees time limited to 5 seconds.

20. Which statement(s) regarding the oxygen system is/are true? A. A push/pull handle (PULL ON SYSTEM READY) located on the left side of the pedestal arms of the oxygen system. B. The passenger oxygen system can be manually activated by pulling the (PASSENGER MANUAL DROP OUT) push/pull handle located on the right side of the pedestal. C. The lanyard pin at the top of the oxygen mask hose must be pulled out in order for the oxygen to flow from the mask. D. All of the above.

D. All of the above.

6. In the event of a primary boost pump failure (low pressure), ____. A. the engine will flame out B. the respective red FUEL PRES LO annunciator will illuminate C. the FUEL TRANSFER annunciator will illuminate D. All of the above

B. the respective red FUEL PRES LO annunciator will illuminate

101. Bold Face ENGINE FIRE/FAILURE IN FLIGHT

1. CONDITION LEVER - CUTOFF 2. PROP - FEATHER 3. FIREWALL VALVE - CLOSE 4. EXTINGUISHER (if fire warning persists) - ACTUATE

43. The propellers should be moved out of REVERSE at approximately ____ knots to minimize propeller blade erosion. A. 20 B. 40 C. 60 D. 80

B. 40

2. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which may result in damage to equipment if not carefully followed is the definition of a A. Warning B. Caution C. Note D. Memo

B. Caution

72. The minimum and maximum gas generator (N1) RPM figures are ____% and ____%. A. 55, 100 B. 62, 104 C. 60, 101 D. 72, 100

B. 62, 104

59. The recommended procedure for the EMERGENCY DESCENT is A. Power levers-idle; prop levers-full forward; flaps-approach (below 202); landing gear-down (below 182); airspeed-164 maximum. B. Power levers-idle; Prop levers-full forward; flaps-approach (below 202); landing gear-down (below 182); airspeed 182 maximum. C. Neither A or B is acceptable. D. Either A or B is acceptable.

B. Power levers-idle; Prop levers-full forward; flaps-approach (below 202); landing gear-down (below 182); airspeed 182 maximum.

67. The oil pressure limits for engine starting are ____ PSI. A. 0-200 B. 60-90 C. 90-135 D. There are no starting oil pressure limits.

A. 0-200

60. The recommended spin recovery technique is to A. apply full aileron against the spin and advance the power to maximum continuous to break the stall. B. Control Column - FULL FORWARD, AILERONS NEUTRAL; Full Rudder OPPOSITE DIRECTION OF SPIN; Power Levers IDLE; Rudder - NEUTRALIZE WHEN ROTATION STOPS; Execute a smooth pull out. C. apply full rudder opposite the spin, aileron neutral, and control column slightly aft of neutral until rotation stops. D. apply full rudder opposite the spin and advance the power to maximum continuous to break the stall.

B. Control Column - FULL FORWARD, AILERONS NEUTRAL; Full Rudder OPPOSITE DIRECTION OF SPIN; Power Levers IDLE; Rudder - NEUTRALIZE WHEN ROTATION STOPS; Execute a smooth pull out.

30. Minimum battery voltage for external power start is ____ volts. A. 20 B. 22 C. 23 D. 24

A. 20

18. What is the Maximum Demonstrated Crosswind Component? A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30

B. 20

58. If for any reason the green GEAR DOWN indicators do not illuminate while completing the Landing Gear Manual Extension checklist A. stow the emergency extension lever. B. continue pumping until maximum resistance is felt. Do not stow the handle. C. when conditions permit, prior to and after landing, continue pumping to maintain hydraulic pressure until the gear can be mechanically secured. D. B & C above

D. B & C above

78. In flight, what torque value should not be exceeded if a yellow Low Oil Pressure indication (60-90 PSI) is observed? A. 75% B. 60% C. 62% D. 100%

C. 62%

7. Operation with the fuel pressure light illuminated is limited to ____ between overhaul, or replacement, of the high pressure engine driven fuel pump. A. 10 hours B. 15 hours C. 20 hours D. 25 hours

A. 10 hours

76. Do not retard the failed engine power lever until the autofeather system has completely stopped propeller rotation. A. True B. False

A. True

3. Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which are considered essential to emphasize is a definition of a A. Warning B. Caution C. Note D. Memo

C. Note

26. Unrestrained propellers may windmill. Prolonged windmilling at zero oil pressures can results in ____ damage. A. propeller governor B. bearing C. counterweight D. spinner

B. bearing

4. ____ is the airspeed which delivers the greatest gain of altitude in the shortest possible horizontal distance with gear and flaps up. A. Best rate of climb B. Best angle of climb C. Maximum climb rate D. Climb gradient

B. Best angle of climb

97. The single engine rudder forces may exceed ____ lbs. A. 80 B. 100 C. 150 D. 200

C. 150

73. The maximum flap extension/extended speed (Vfe) approach ____, full down ____ KIAS. A. 200/155 B. 202/158 C. 204/161 D. 206/164

B. 202/158