May 23 Flashcards

1
Q

which step of the citric acid cycle requires thiamine

A

conversion of a-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA by a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (also requires NAD+, both of which are degreased in alcohol intox)

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2
Q

why must you be care when administering glucose to alcoholics

A

they are often thiamine deficient which can then lead to Wernicke encephalopathy due to the increased thiamine demand (acute confusion, opthalmoplegia and ataxia)

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3
Q

which disorder is characterized by a sphingomyelinase deficiency and what are its charateristics

A

Niemann-pick

causes hepatosplenomegaly, neurologic regression (neurodegeneration), and macular cherry-red spots

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4
Q

how do you diagnosis Kawasaki disease?

A

fever for more than 5 days plus 4 of the following:

  1. bilateral non-exudative conjunctival injection
  2. cervical lymphadenopathy
  3. mucositis (erythema of the palatine mucosa, fissured erythematous lips, strawberry tongue)
  4. extremity changes: edema of the hands and feet, erythma of the palms and soles, desquamation of the fingertips
  5. rash: polymorphous usually urticarial on the extremities and spreads to the trunk
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5
Q

what is a serious complication of kawasaki disease

A

coronary artery aneurysm due to coronary artery inflammation

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6
Q

what is the most effective type of drug for hypertriglyceridemia and what is its MOA

A

fibrates - activate PPAR-a which decreases VLDL synthesis

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7
Q

which receptors does NE activate

A

a1- vasoconstriction (Gq)
a2 - decreased NE and insulin secretions (Gi)
B1 - increases cardiac contractility (Gs)

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8
Q

what is the protein defect in familial chylomicronemia syndrome (type 1), what lipoprotein is elevated in the serum and what is the main manifestation

A

lipoprotein lipase and ApoC-II are defective causing increased chylomicrons and causing recurrent acute pancreatitis in childhood

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9
Q

what histopathology is characteristic of a mesothelioma?

A

epithelioid tumor cells with numerous long slender microvilli and abundant tonofilaments

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10
Q

which structures does the 3rd aortic arch give rise to and which nerve is it associated with

A

common carotid artery and prox internal carotid artery and its associated with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

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11
Q

which aortic arch gives rise to the true aortic arch and what else does it form and what nerve is it associated with

A

4th arch also gives rise to the subclavian arteries and is associated with the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve

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12
Q

which aortic arch forms the pulmonary arteries

A

6th (also forms the ductus arteriosus) associated with the recurrent laryngeal branch of the vagus

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13
Q

which electrophoresis method should be used to detect if a gene is being expressed

A

Northern block to detect mRNA

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14
Q

what type of sample is analyzed in a southern blot

A

DNA

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15
Q

what type of sample is analyzed in a western block

A

protein

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16
Q

what type of sample is analyzed in a southwestern block

A

DNA-bound protein

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17
Q

what type of sample is analyzed in a northern blot

A

mRNA

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18
Q

how do you treat a TCA overdose

A

Sodium bicarbonate (works by increasing serum pH and extracellular sodium alleviating fast sodium channel blockade)

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19
Q

how does a TCA overdose present

A

QT-prolongation, mental status change, seizures, prolonged QRS duration, ventricular arrhythmias, and anticholinergic findings

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20
Q

what causes a jejunal/ileum atrisia in utero

A

vascular occlusion in utero (terminal ileum ends up spiraled around an ileocolic vessels causing an “apple-peel” apearence

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21
Q

what test is used to confirm malabsorption

A

stool test with Sudan III stain (identifies unabsorbed fat)

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22
Q

what is diphenoxylate and loperamide used for and what is their MOA

A

its an opioid anti-diarrheal drug, that binds mu opiate receptors in the gut to slow motility

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23
Q

what 3 factors are the best measures of liver function

A

serum albumin levels, bilirubin levels, and prothrombin time These are the best prognostic indicators in pts with cirrhosis. (AST and ALT measure liver injury)

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24
Q

which gastric layer are the parietal cells located

A

in the upper glandular layer (below the epithelium) of the body and fundus

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25
Q

what gastric layer are the chief cells located? and what do they secrete

A

the deep glandular layer - they secrete pepsinogen `

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26
Q

describe how astrocytes are affected by hepatic encephalopathy

A

ammonia in the blood is taken up by the astrocytes and used to turn glutamate into glutamine, that is normally transferred to the neurons which convert it back to glutamate. The excess ammonia increases glutamine synthesis in the astrocyte which increases the intracellular osmolarity causing swelling and impaired glutamine release which decreases the amount of glutamine available to the neurons and disrupts excitatory neurotransmission

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27
Q

if someone drinks pesticides/insecticides what are the common symptoms and what is the treatment

A

symptoms: garlic breath, vomiting, watery diarrhea, QTc prolongation
tx: Dimercaprol or DMSA (this is arsenic poisoning)

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28
Q

what is the common tumor marker for hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Alpha fetoprotein

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29
Q

what is the common tumor marker for pancreatic carcinoma

A

CA-19.9

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30
Q

what is the common tumor marker for colorectal cancer

A

CEA - Carcinoembryonic antigen

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31
Q

what location of colon cancer is more likely to present as iron deficiency anemia

A

right sided/ ascending colon

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32
Q

which location of colon cancer is more likely to present as obstruction

A

left sided (rectosigmoid)

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33
Q

H. pylori is most commonly found in what part of the stomach and is most likely to cause ulcers where

A

antrum / prepyloric area - ulcers are most likely in the duodenum

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34
Q

what is heparins antidote

A

Protamine (binds heparin to form an inactive complex)

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35
Q

what is schizoaffective disorder

A

major depressive or manic episode concurrent with symptoms of schizophrenia/ Lifetime history of delusions or hallucinations for > 2 weeks in the absence of major depressive or manic episodes. mood symptoms are present for majority of illness, not due to substances or other medical conditions

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36
Q

where are the 3 leads placed in a biventricular pacemaker

A

right atrium, left ventricle, and the atrioventricular groove (stimulates left ventricle)

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37
Q

which symptoms of Graves disease are not seen in other causes of hyperthyroidism

A

infiltrative dermopathy (pretibial myxedema), exophthalmos, periorbital edema, and eye movement limitations

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38
Q

which nerve innervates the deltoid

A

axillary nerve

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39
Q

How does axillary nerve damage occur and typically present

A

typically occurs from shoulder trauma, and presents with sensory loss over the lateral shoulder and weakness on shoulder abduction (due to denervation of the deltoid muscle)

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40
Q

where would a stroke occur to cause pure hemisensory loss

A

ventral posterior thalamus (VPL and VPM)

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41
Q

what are the symptoms and exam findings for fibromyalgia

A

widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, impaired attention and concentration, psychiatric disturbances, symptoms lasting > 3 months.

exam findings: multiple tender pints at characteristic locations, absence of joint or muscle inflammation

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42
Q

what does mullerian inhibiting factor dO

A

causes regression of the paramesonephric (mullerian) ducts that normally give rise to the internal genitalia in the female fetus

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43
Q

what are typical symptoms of Gaucher disease

A

bone pain, abdominal distension due to hepatosplenomegaly, easy bleeding and bruising, pallor and fatigue due to pancytopenia

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44
Q

what is seen on bone marrow aspirate of a pt with Gaucher disease

A

Gaucher cells - lipid laden macrophages that are described as wrinkled tissue paper, or silk (in the liver, bone marrow and lymphatic tissue)

45
Q

what is the main histologic finding in acute allergic contact dermatitis

A

spongiosis

46
Q

a fungus is cultured that appears as a yeast with a germ tube - what is the most likely diagnosis

A

Candida albicans

47
Q

what are symptoms of cyanide poisoning? and what is its antidote

A

reddish skin discoloration, tachypnea, headache, tachycardia, N/V, weakness, confusion

antidote: inhaled amyl nitrite, or hydroxycobalamin, or sodium thiosulfate

48
Q

which blood diseases are pts with down syndrome at a higher risk of developing

A

acute lymphoblastic anemia and acute myelogenous leukemia

49
Q

what 2 enzyme deficiencies can cause hemolytic anemia and jaundice in response to oxidant stressors

A

G6PD deficiency and Glutathione reductase deficiency - G6PD causes a lack of NADPH while Glutathione reductase deficiency causes an inability to use NADPH

50
Q

which HL medication can cause an increase in triglycerides

A

Bile acid-binding resins by increased hepatic production of triglycerides and increased release of VLDL (contain lots of triglycerides)

51
Q

what are the characteristics of thrombi seen in non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis and what disease pathologies is it commonly associated with?

A

platelet-rich thrombi attached to the mitral valve leaflets that can dislodge and embolize

commonly associated with advanced malignancy, chronic inflammatory disorders (SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome) and DIC

52
Q

what nerves provide general sensory innervation to the tongue (ie pain)

A

anterior 2/3 = mandibular branch of trigeminal nerve (V3)
posterior 1/3 = glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
posterior area of the tongue root = vagus nerve

53
Q

what nerve provides taste sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue? the posterior 1/3

A

anterior = chorda typani branch of the facial nerve (VII)
posterior = glossopharyngeal (CN IX)
larynx and upper esophagus - CNX

54
Q

what kind of protein make up gap junctions

A

connextins

55
Q

in the pentose phosphate pathway what enzymes is responsible for the conversion of ribose-5-phosphate to Fructose-6-phosphate? and is it reversible

A

transketolase and transaldolase preform the conversion and it is reversible (part of the nonoxidative branch)

56
Q

what should you give a pt that was exposed to a nuclear accident

A

potassium iodide to prevent development of radiation-induced thyroid carcinoma

57
Q

what nerve can be damaged when a chicken bone gets stuck in the piriform recess? and what does damage to that nerve suppress?

A

internal laryngeal nerve, damage suppresses the cough reflex

58
Q

what are characteristics of silicosis

A

calcification of the rim of hilar nodes and birefringent silica particles surrounded by fibrous tissue

59
Q

what 2 things can occur due to failure of obliteration of the processus vaginalis ?

A

it causes a persisten connection between the scrotum and peritoneal cavity through the inguinal canal. a small opening leads to a hydrocele and a larger one allows for formation of an indirect inguinal hernia

60
Q

what are characteristics of an indirect inguinal hernia

A

pass through the deep inguinal ring and are covered with internal spermatic fascia and are lateral to the inferior epigastric blood vessels

61
Q

what drug can help restore fertility in a pt with PCOS

A

clomiphene - an estrogen receptor modulator that decreases negative feedback inhibition on the hypothalamus by circulating estrogen thereby increasing gonadotropin production

62
Q

what do thin curvilinear areas of lucency that parallel the lumen on abdominal xray indicate

A

pneumotosis intestinalis (air in the bowel wall)

63
Q

describe the findings in necrotizing enterocolitis

A

pneumatosis intestinalis, abdominal distention and bloody stools seen in infants especially if preterm

64
Q

what causes necrotizing enterocolitis

A

bacteria in the bowel proliferate excessively due to compromised immune clearance. impaired mucosal barrier function allows the bacteria to invade the bowel wall causing inflammation and ischemic necrosis of the terminal ileum and colon which can lead to gangrene and intramural gas collections

65
Q

why is using beta blockers in a diabetic concerning

A

non-selective b-blockers can exacerbate hypoglycemia and mask its adrenergic symptoms

66
Q

when should a chi-square test be used

A

when there are 2 groups based on exposure status and each of the groups have 2 possible outcomes (2x2 table)

67
Q

describe the gross and histologic appearance of a pilocytic astrocytoma

A

(common brain tumor in children) appears as cystic with a tumor nodule protruding from the wall. on histology there are pylocytic astrocytes and rosenthal fibers.

has a good prognosis, commonly located in the cerebellum

68
Q

describe the appearance of a medulloblastoma

A

a solid mass, always located in the cerebellum usually in the vermis. Composed of sheets of small blue cells with hyperchromatic nuclei. (malignant, poor prognosis)

69
Q

what type of breast cancer often presents with peau d’orange and what causes this type of cancer

A

inflammatory breast cancer presents with skin texture changes and edema. Due to obstructing lymphatic drainage

70
Q

what are the aPTT, PT, and TT and what do they measure

A

aPTT = activated partial thromboplastin time (intrinsic pathway)

PT = prothrombin time (extrinsic pathway)

TT = thrombin time (thrombin/IIa activity)

71
Q

describe the common symptoms in multiple myeloma

A

CRAB - bone pain, fatigue, anemia, kidney disease, hypercalcemia

72
Q

how do proteasome inhibitors such as bortexomib (boronic acid-containing dipeptide) work, and what can they be used to treat?

A

they block proteasomes which leads to accumulation of toxic intracellular proteins and an increase in proapoptotic proteins. effective in multiple myeloma

73
Q

what does c-myc do

A

nuclear phosphoprotein that functions as a transcription activator controlling cell proliferation, differentiation and apoptosis

74
Q

what is the translocation seen in Burkitt lymphoma

A

t(8:14) leads to c-myc overexpression

75
Q

what does a lymphocyte that is infected with EBV look like

A

abundant pale blue cytoplasm with a basophilic rim that is often indented by surrounding RBCs

76
Q

what causes porphyria cutanea tarda and how does it present

A

due to an enzyme deficiency in the late steps of porphyrin synthesis (uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase deficiency). It causes photosensitivity that causes blister formation, edema, pruritus, pain, erythema

77
Q

what affect of opiods does not reduce with tolerance

A

constipation

78
Q

what cell type secretes elastase into the alveoli

A

alveolar macrophages and infiltrating neutrophils

79
Q

what are the symptoms of congenital hypothyroidism

A

lethargy, hoarse cry, poor feeding, constipation, jaundice, dry skin, large fontanelles, non-pitting edema, umbilical hernia, protruding tongue.

baby will be normal initially due to maternal T4 then will develop symptoms

80
Q

what equation can be used to find t1/2 from clearance and volume of distribution

A

t1/2= (0.7 x Vd)/CL

81
Q

what co-factor is required for transamination reactions and what do these reactions produce

A

co-factor = Pyridoxine (B6)
reactions take an amino acid and an a-keto acid and turn the a-keto acid into an amino acid by transfer of the amino group

82
Q

describe symptoms of a femoral neuropathy

A

weakness in the quadriceps muscle group causing difficulty with stairs and knee-buckling,
the patellar reflex is often diminished
and loss of sensory over the anterior and medial thigh and medial leg.

83
Q

how does methadone help treat opioid addiction

A

it is a potent, long-acting opioid agonist with good bioavailability which allows it to suppress withdrawal symptoms and cravings

84
Q

how does buprenphine help treat opioid addiction

A

it is a partial agonist

85
Q

how can you differentiate the cause of an elevated alkaline phosphatase

A

alk phos mainly comes from the bone and liver. by measuring gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase (GGTP) you can differentiate between the 2. GGTP will be high in liver damage but not bone

86
Q

what is st johns worts affect on cyp 450 enzymes

A

it induces

87
Q

what is opsoclonus-myoclonus

A

its a paraneoplastic syndrome seen in neuroblastomas (most common extra-cranial neoplasm in children, develops in the adrenal medula) that consists of non-rhythmic conjugate eye movements associated with myoclonus

88
Q

what are the rotator cuff muscles and what is their function?

A

supraspinatus - abduction (most commonly injured)
infraspinatus - external rotation
teres minor - adduction and external rotation
subscapularis - adduction and internal rotation

89
Q

what is the function of Kinesin

A

its a microtubule associated, ATP powered motor protein that facilitates anteriorgrade transport of neurotransmitter-containing secretory vesicles down axons to synaptic terminals

90
Q

what does vitamin A overuse cause

A

intracranial hypertension, skin changes, and hepatosplenomegaly

91
Q

what are the classic triad of symptoms in ataxia telangiectasia and what causes the disorder

A

cerebellar ataxia, telangiectasias and increased risk of sinopulmonary infections

due to a defect in the ATM gene that plays a role in DNA break repair

92
Q

what does the radial nerve innervated

A

all of the extensor muscles of the upper limb below the shoulder and skin of the posterior arm, forearm and dorsal lateral hand

93
Q

what drug can treat NMS (neuroleptic malignant syndrome) and what is its MOA

A

Dantrolene - inhibits calcium ion release from the SR of skeletal muscles to reduce muscle rigidity/contraction by antagonizing the ryanodine receptors

94
Q

how would a ureter obstruction present

A

flank pain radiating to the groin with a ballotable flank mass within a week after pelvic surgery

95
Q

what is the function of snRNPs

A

they are essential to splicosomes which remove introms from pre-mRNA to form mature mRNA.

in lupus the anti-smith antibody is directed against snRNPs

96
Q

what muscle is the most important in preforming the Valsalva maneuver

A

rectus abdominis

97
Q

which nerve innervates the flexers of the forearm

A

the musculocutaneous nerve

98
Q

what muscles and sensory areas does the musculocutaneous nerve innervate

A

biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis (flexes and adducts) and sensory information from the lateral forearm

99
Q

progressive onset of heart failure after a recent viral infection is likely do to what

A

viral myocarditis causing dilated cardiomyopathy

100
Q

which dopamine pathway is responsible for prolactin suppression

A

tuberloinfundibular

101
Q

which dopaminergic pathway is responsible for cognition and behavior

A

the mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways

102
Q

which dopaminergic pathway regulates coordination of voluntary movements

A

the nigrostriatal pathway

103
Q

muddy brown cast are seen in what type of kidney pathology

A

Acute tubular necrosis (most often due to ischemia, has normal BUN/Cr, but both are elevated)

104
Q

what areas of the kidneys are most affected by ATN

A

the straight portion of the proximal tubule and the thick ascending limb of Henle’s loop are particularly susceptible to hypoxia due to increased oxygen from ATP consuming transport of ions

105
Q

what are the adverse effects of ganciclovir

A

neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia and impaired renal function

106
Q

what malignancies is dermatomyositis associated with

A

lung, colorectal and ovarian

107
Q

what does a BRAC mutation cause

A

impaired DNA repair

108
Q

describe the steps a tumor uses to penetrate the basement membrane

A
  1. detach from cells around them by down regulating E-cadherins
  2. adhere to the BM via increased laminin
  3. invade via increased proteolytic enzymes (metalloproteinases, cathepsin D protease)