MAY 2018 E6 SWE BM Flashcards
1
Q
Who is the Headquarters program manager responsible for OIC review board procedures
A
CG 731
2
Q
Where are all CASREPs auto-loaded into for tracking purposes
A
FLEET LOGISTICS SYSTEMS (FLS)
3
Q
Who is the designated manager of the National Supply System
A
General Services Administration (GSA)
4
Q
When should a BMC request to be scheduled for an OIC review board
A
Within one year of advancement to BMC
5
Q
When can a BM1 request to be scheduled for an OIC review board
A
2 years’ time in grade or;
One year of successful service as a designated XPO
6
Q
How long must a member wait to be eligible for recertification as OIC after relief for cause
A
2 YEARS
7
Q
What is the District Review Board Evaluation and Reporting form
A
CG 5113
8
Q
When are District review boards held for OIC
A
April and October
9
Q
Regarding marks, what disqualifies a member from screening for OIC
A
Enlisted evaluation factor average in any category of less than 4 for the previous 2 years or;
Any mark of less than 4 in the last evaluation
10
Q
What certification is required of a candidate screening for OIC Afloat/Ashore
A
DWO Letter; Coxswain letter (excluding punts or skiffs)
11
Q
When can underway commands request to conduct their own Pre-board for OIC candidates
A
When OPTEMPO dictates
12
Q
When is the Pre-board required to provide a list of qualified candidates to the area/district review board
A
NLT 30 days prior to the announced OIC review board date
13
Q
When are pre-board evaluation forms required to be forwarded to the are/district review board
A
NLT two weeks before review board scheduled date
14
Q
Where are requests for assignment as OIC sent
A
Commander (CG PSC-EPM-2) on an E-Resume
15
Q
When should applications for assignment as OIC be sent
A
One year in advance of desired assignment
16
Q
Which legislative authority authorizes CG to pay personnel Special Duty Assignment Pay (SDAP)
A
37 USC 307
17
Q
What is included in Section 1 of the OIC Screening Package
A
Candidates Memo to the Board President
Command recommendation
Pre-board results Memo
Pre-board form CG-5113
18
Q
What is included in Section 2 of the OIC Screening Package
A
Most recent EER
EER Summary
CGBI readiness snapshot
Direct Access physical Characteristics
19
Q
What is included in Section 3 of the OIC Screening Package
A
Summary of career
20
Q
What is included in Section 4 of the OIC Screening Package
A
DA Employee Competency report
DA Test results printout
DA Student training summary
TMT Certification report
21
Q
What is included in Section 5 of the OIC Screening Package
A
Awards
Certificates
Form CG-3307
22
Q
How many Sections are in the OIC Screening package
A
5
23
Q
Which training teams are required on ALL cutters
A
Damage Control Training Team
Engineering Training Team
Navigation and Seamanship Training Team
Force Protection Training Team
24
Q
What is required for OBTT membership
A
Fully PQS qualified for watch station they are to evaluate or train and;
Certified by Commanding Officer
25
What are the positions of the OBTT
Team leader
Evaluator
Safety observers
26
Who of the OBTT is required to record observations on the evaluation form
Each Member of the OBTT
27
Who debriefs the OBTT and crew
Evaluator
28
When are drill debriefs required to be conducted
Immediately following completion of the training scenario
29
What should be covered in a drill debrief
Training team observations (safety concerns, comms problems, material deficiencies)
Requirements met or not met
Lessons learned and recommendations
30
What criteria must outside evaluators meet
Presently assigned as instructors at Navy afloat training commands or;
Presently assigned to area or district training teams or;
Representatives from headquarters or Area program management offices
31
How long must Training organization grade sheets be kept on file
2 years
32
What is required prior to the execution of a training scenario
A thorough brief approved and signed by the Commanding Officer
33
Who gives the brief to the OBTT
Team Leader
34
Where are CART checklists, Drill grade sheets and SEOPS drill sheets kept and maintained
Commandant CG-751 website
35
On what basis are pass/fail grades calculated for OBTT drills
80 percent/20 percent
36
What is the highest achievable score for an approved drill that has been failed twice
80 percent
37
What are the primary locations for recording individual and unit qualifications and training completion
Direct Access and TMT
38
Who shall be included in the Unit Training Board
```
XO
Training Officer
All department heads
ESO (if assigned)
Damage Control Assistant (if assigned)
Corpsman (if assigned)
```
39
Which cutters are not required to have a Unit Training Board
```
WPB
WLI
WLIC
WLR
WYTL
```
40
What is the minimum interval that Unit Training Plans shall be prepared
Monthly
41
In what format shall the Unit Training Plan be prepared
Calendar
42
How long shall Unit Training plans be kept on file
2 years
43
What form number is the Unit Training Plan
CG-5293
44
At what frequency does CGBI refresh its data
Every 24 hours
45
Who is responsible for scheduling District Training Team Visits
District Commander
46
Who is directed to administer the CG's quota allocation process and act as "C" School order-issuing authority
TQC (Training Quota Management Center)
47
Who is responsible for detailed management of Boat Forces particular courses and schools
CG-731 Program manager
48
Who acts as final approving authority for new resident training and general military training requirements
FORCECOM (FC-T) Training Manager
49
Who signs all certification letters for CO/OIC's
Operational Commander
50
Who is responsible for ensuring that all Command Cadre Personnel maintain certification IAW BOAT Manual Volume 1
Operational Commander
51
Who provides support and coordination for functions performed by subordinate units
Sector Commanders
52
Who can provide formal training approved by FORCECOM
"C" Schools and mobile training teams (MTT)
53
What does a submitted ETR without a waiver request in place suggest
Command certifies that all prerequisites have been met
54
When should waiver request be submitted by
NLT 10 days prior to course convening date
55
When are personnel required to attend Underwater Egress Trainer
Within 12 months of assignment to their first Boat Forces Unit
56
What table-formatted administrative tool is used to establish resident training options to Stations and ANTs
Master Training Lists (MTLs)
57
When should requests for Mobile training teams be submitted
60 days prior to desired training date
58
Who is responsible for designating personnel with ETR release authority
XO/XPO
59
Who is responsible for submitting Unit ETRs
Training Petty Officer
60
What is the CG-5293
Unit Training Plan Form
61
Who is responsible for the establishment and monitoring of the trainee boat crew training
Training Petty Officer
62
What is the required system for recording training accomplished, both underway and shore-side
AOPS/TMT
63
What is the CG- 5063
Boat Crew Member Certificate
64
Who is responsible for coordinating and scheduling the orientation and indoctrination of all newly reported personnel
Training Petty Officer
65
What is the minimum number of members required on a cutter oral examination board
2
66
How long can an interim qualification be granted for aboard a cutter
3 months
67
Who establishes overall policy for shipboard qualifications
Commandant CG-751
68
Who ensures that all unit personnel have assigned competencies IAW CG-731
Training Petty Officer
69
In what format shall JQRs be written
Same as PQS
70
What course is required to be completed by the Station OOD
Search Coordination and Execution (SC&E)
71
Who is authorized to sign off Ice Rescuer PQS tasks
Only the Ice Rescue Trainer
72
Who shall chair all Qualification Examination Boards (QEBs)
XO/XPO
73
Who should be excluded from the trainee's evaluation process
Trainee's Mentor/Assigned Trainer
74
How often are boat crewmembers required to pass the physical fitness test
Every six months
75
When is the PT test required
During qualification, recertification, and semiannually
76
When may the XPO process CO approvals in TMT
Only when ACTING AS OIC during the absence of the Unit Commander
77
How long should an interim certification be granted
No longer than 60 days
78
Who can issue a Provisional Interim Certification
Operational Commander
79
In what capacity can an Interim Certification Letter be utilized
During transit to Unit
Initial Training and Familiarization
Engine Break-in Requirements
80
How long can deferred tasks last without command level acknowledgement
60 days
81
Who can grant a permanent task deferment to a Unit
CG-731
82
How long does the OIC have to certify after reporting to Unit
One year
83
What period of time defines Medical situations of a temporary nature which precludes a member from boat operations
Not more than 12 months
84
When shall the IOC acknowledge the AOPS/TMT Crew Proficiency Report
The end of each currency cycle
85
What dates define the currency cycles
01JAN-30JUN and 01JUL-31DEC
86
Which currency requirement remains semiannual for the reserve component
Physical Fitness Test
87
What is the qualification cutoff date that excludes a member from the requirement to meet currency items for that qualification
01April and 01October, respectively
88
What percentage is the Reserve Currency requirement compared to active duty
83% annually
89
What are the annual U/W hours required of a reserve member
66 total, 17 of which shall be at night
90
Who can see the Initial Qualification and Initial Qualification List in TMT
Only those users with the Initial Qual Role
91
When does the Include all crew button in TMT not appear for a competency summary report
If available crewmembers exceed 100 persons
92
Which TMT report allows users to run individual training type reports
Competency Summary report
93
Which TMT report generates a log of task training activities for an individual or entire unit
Training Record Report
94
Which TMT report lists competencies awarded to selected crewmembers, along with date of certification and date of last update
Certifications Report
95
Which TMT report enables a user to monitor the training requirements of a selected unit
Unit Training Management Report
96
Which TMT report shows the certification status (assigned or certified) of each selected individual in the unit for each competency assigned to that unit
Competency History Report
97
Which TMT report is used to track the progress of unit crewmembers in meeting initial qualification requirements
Initial Qualification Report
98
What color will a crewmember's name be displayed in if they have not been assigned a competency in the Initial Qualification Report
Red
99
Which TMT report is used to show EEO competencies for the Senior Executive Leadership Equal Opportunities Seminar (SELEOS), Supervisors of Civilians, and EEO Counselor competencies
EEO Report
100
Which TMT report captures certain task currencies and other information (such as underway and underway night hours) of all selected members at a unit
Boat Crew Status Report
101
What is the Boat Crew Status Report also referred to as
The White Board Report
102
Which TMT report provides, for selected crewmembers, the date each crewmember successfully completed each LE currency task
LE Status Report
103
Which TMT report provides, for selected crewmembers, currency information to help keep crewmember LE currency requirements up to date
LE Currency Report
104
Which TMT report lists individuals within a unit who have completed (or failed to complete) a specified task
Task/Comp Fulfillment Report
105
Which TMT report is used to display the results of the initial qualification oral examination, particularly comments entered with the exam results
Initial Qualification Oral Exam Report
106
Which TMT report displays the status of assigned drills and exercises
Unit Level Drills and Exercises Report
107
Which TMT report indicates a crewmember's current certification status on small boat platforms, for which the member is assigned one or more competencies
Crew Proficiency Report
108
In a Crew Proficiency Report in TMT, what color denotes a member whose status is Not Certified
Red
109
In a Crew Proficiency Report in TMT, what color denotes a member whose status is Certified
Green
110
In a Crew Proficiency Report in TMT, what color denotes a member whose status is Certified, but now within current period
Yellow
111
What is the angular difference between a compass direction and its corresponding true direction
Compass Error
112
What is the angular difference, measured in degrees, between true and magnetic north, and varies according to geographic location
Variation
113
Where is variation located on a chart
On the inside of the compass rose
114
What is variation caused by
The earth's magnetic field
115
What is defined as the amount of deflection influenced by a vessel and its electronics on the boat
Deviation
116
What causes an error in the compass course that a boat attempts to steer
Deviation
117
What method is used to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass
Swinging Ship
118
When are Deviation Tables required to be updated and approved by the Unit Commander
Annually or:
After yard availability or;
After additions or deletions of equipment or;
After structural alterations that would affect the magnetic characteristics of the boat
119
The deviation table can be Easterly, Westerly, or with no error and is tabulated for every ______ degrees of the compass
15 degrees
120
What is the most commonly used practice to determine deviation
Running a range
121
Man-made ranges have their direction written in what format
Degrees true
122
Where are completed and approved deviation tables posted
Next to the boat's compass
123
When determining deviation by multiple observations from one position, how far apart should the objects be
15 degrees unless there are a minimum of 10 objects/bearings that are evenly separated through the entire 360 degrees
124
When determining deviation by multiple observations from one position, what scale chart should be used
The largest scale available
125
Determined deviations of greater than _____ should not be tolerated
3 degrees
126
When applying compass error, what is defined as going from magnetic direction to true or going from the compass direction to magnetic
Correcting
127
What is the sequence of the procedure for correcting compass direction to true direction
```
Compass course
Deviation
Magnetic course
Variation
True course
C+D=M
M+V=T
```
128
What are the three methods that can be used when swinging ship
Running a range or;
Multiple observations from one position or;
Multiple Ranges
129
What amount of compass deviation warrants a restrictive discrepancy
Greater than 5 degrees
130
What form is the compass deviation table
CG-2596
131
What is the minimum distance that a chosen range must be suitable for steering on with accuracy when checking magnetic compass using multiple ranges
½ mile
132
What are the minimum number of ranges (with reciprocal courses) that must be used when checking magnetic compass using multiple ranges
4
133
Which 2 people must sign the Deviation Table (CG-2596)
Navigator and Commanding Officer
134
When shall formal materiel inspections be conducted
During Standardization Assessments
135
What will be included in the Standardization Assessment Report
Materiel discrepancy list
136
When shall materiel inspections of each boat assigned to the unit be conducted by the Unit Commander
Once per month or;
| Per Maintenance Procedure Plans
137
What is a casualty which makes the boat not serviceable
Disabling Casualty
138
When shall a boat status message be provided to the Operational Commander and Sector Engineering Officer
NLT 12 hours after the casualty is discovered
139
If a casualty cannot be repaired within 48 hours, when shall an ALMIS entry or CASREP be made
NLT 24 hours of discovery of the casualty
140
Who is responsible for monitoring the status of repairs to casualties
Operational Commanders
141
What is defined as something that restricts the operations of the boat such that it can perform some activities but not all safely
Restrictive Discrepancy
142
When can a boat with a restrictive discrepancy be operated
Only with a waiver from the operational commander
143
How long is a verbal waiver to operate a boat with a restrictive waiver authorized before it must be followed up with a written waiver
4 hours
144
When are restricted discrepancies required to be reported to the Operational Commander
Within 1 hour
145
What is a discrepancy that degrades the effectiveness of the boat to perform one or more missions
Major discrepancy
146
How often is the Operational Commander required to receive reports as to the status of a major discrepancy
Monthly
147
What type of discrepancy does not affect the operational readiness of the boat but keeps it from meeting the standardization criteria established for that boat
Minor Discrepancy
148
At what level are the statuses of minor discrepancies monitored
Unit level
149
What readiness rating for a boat means that it has no disabling casualties or restrictive discrepancies
Bravo
150
What readiness rating for a boat means that is has one or more restrictive discrepancies with waivers
Bravo (Restricted)
151
What readiness rating for a boat means that it has one or more disabling casualties or the boat has restrictive discrepancies without waivers
Charlie
152
Which discrepancy is the initial maintenance record in EAL that must be corrected or deferred within 24 hours
(O) Open Discrepancy
153
What will happen in EAL when an open discrepancy is left open for longer than 24 hours
It will be marked with a red exclamation mark
154
What in EAL is a non-disabling discrepancy that requires parts that are not immediately available
(PP) Parts Pending
155
Who is required to authorize all deferred maintenance in EAL
Engineering Officer
156
What is a discrepancy in EAL that has been deferred until a more convenient or appropriate time and could not be corrected within the 24 corrective action requirement
(CF) Carried Forward
157
What is a discrepancy in EAL that has been deferred until a planned depot availability period because it could not be corrected within the 24 hour corrective action requirement
(CFD) Carried Forward Depot
158
When can a discrepancy in EAL be marked Carried Forward-Depot
When it is a non-disabling casualty
159
In EAL, what signifies an asset's operational capability to meet all assigned missions from an engineering standpoint
Asset Status
160
In EAL, what signifies whether an asset is safe to operate and is in compliance with safe to sail policies contained in Cutter Safe-To-Sail Minimum Critical Equipment
Asset Condition
161
Who has the authority to issue operational waivers
Operational Commander
162
Who is responsible for engineering waivers
SFLC Product Lines
163
Who shall ensure the waiver is recorded in EAL as part of the asset's maintenance history
Engineering Officer
164
Waivers for restrictive or disabling casualties documented in EAL are equivalent to what
Official Written Waiver
165
Who established Cutter Safe-To-Sail Minimum Critical Equipment
CG-751
166
What is a Fully Mission Capable (FMC) asset indicated by in EAL
Upward pointing green triangle
167
What is a Partially Mission Capable (PMC) asset indicated by in EAL
Sideward pointing yellow triangle
168
What is a Not Mission Capable Maintenance (NMCM) asset indicated by in EAL
Downward pointing red triangle
169
What is a Not Mission Capable Supply (NMCS) asset indicated by in EAL
Downward pointing red triangle
170
What is used to indicate an asset condition with at least one disabling discrepancy pending resolution
Down Arrow
171
What is used to indicate an asset condition with all disabling discrepancies resolved and that the asset is safe to operate
Up Arrow
172
What is an example of Not Mission Capable Lay-up (NMCL)
Winterization
173
Who is primarily responsible for addressing equipment casualties requiring depot level assistance within Small Boat Product Line (SBPL)
Engineering Branch
174
In cases of casualties requiring emergency haul-outs, who takes the lead for planning and execution of repairs
Post Depot Maintenance Branch (PDM)
175
Who is only authorized to provide casualty support to funded boats
Small Boat Product Line (SBPL)
176
In the event of fire, flooding, collision, allusion, grounding, or traffic accidents, SBPL will fund all repairs, regardless of cost, using what
AFC-45 Funding (Naval Funding)
177
What program shall modernized assets use to document all equipment casualties
ALMIS EAL
178
When an asset is not operationally available, it is classified as what
NMCS or;
NMCD or;
NMCM
179
An asset that has partial mission capability is classified as what
PMC
180
When an asset is placed in a NMC or PMC status, what must be included in the description
Work, parts, etc. needed to return the asset to FMC
181
Who is the only individual authorized to change the status of an asset
Sector Engineering Officer
182
When an asset is down due to a lack of parts, it is classified as what
NMCS
183
What classification indicates that an asset is down awaiting completion of maintenance
NMCM
184
What classification indicates that an asset is down due to depot maintenance
NMCD
185
What classification indicates that an asset is capable of getting underway and performing all missions
FMC
186
What classification is used for an asset which has one or more degraded mission capabilities that do not preclude an asset from getting underway
PMC
187
Non-modernized assets receive casualty support from SBPL Engineering Branch for all CASREPs over what amount
$500
188
Who must consider the sources of supply in an order of priority established by FAR 8.002
Contracting Officer (KO)
189
Available sources of supply are categorized into what three broad groups and what priority for each
Required Gov't Sources
Required Commercial Sources
Open-market Sources
190
What administration is the manager of the federal excess property system
General Services Administration (GSA)
191
What are the two primary sources for excess property used by the Coast Guard
Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) and;
| General Services Administration (GSA)
192
Which manual provides policy and procedures in obtaining excess property from Coast Guard, GSA, and DRMO sources
Property Management Manual COMDTINST M4500.5
193
What is the trade name for the Federal Prison Industries (FPI)
UNICOR
194
When are purchases from UNICOR not mandatory
$3000 or less
195
What are the two central non-profit agencies under AbilityOne
National Industries for the Blind (NIB) and;
| NISH
196
What system was created and designed to eliminate duplication of acquisition and supply functions between the General Services Administration and other federal agencies
National Supply System
197
Which term identifies the various government managed supply systems
Wholesale Supply Source
198
Which character preceding the stock number of an item in the NSN index of the GSA supply catalog guide identifies that item as being managed by the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)
"R"
199
What items are authorized for the Coast Guard on Prime Vendor Contracts
Subsistence and Medical Supplies
200
What is GSA's only Single-Award Schedule (SAS)
JWOD (AbilityOne)
201
What is used to accomplish interagency acquisitions for the Coast Guard
Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR)
202
What form is used for Military Interdepartmental Purchase Requests (MIPRs)
DD Form 448
203
What act authorizes agencies to enter into mutual agreements to obtain supplies or services by interagency acquisition
The Economy Act
204
What is the mandatory source for printing requirements
Government Printing Office (GPO)
205
What is the micro-purchase threshold
$3,500
206
What is the Simplified acquisition threshold
$100,000
207
What administration establishes small business size standards on an industry-by-industry basis
Small Business Administration (SBA)
208
What program was created to provide Federal contracting assistance for qualified small business concerns located in historically underutilized business zones
HUBZone
209
What is the easiest method to buy supplies and services
Purchase Card (P-Card)
210
What is required for purchases above the $3500 micro-purchase threshold
Simplified Acquisition Summary Form (DHS 700-16)
211
What describes purchases made from commercial sources when all mandatory sources have been excluded
Open-Market Purchases
212
How often is the Purchase cardholder required to complete DHS Purchase Card refresher training
Every 2 years
213
When is the Approving official required to certify the purchase card statement in the Purchase Card Application
Within 14 days of the statement date (26th of each month)
214
What form is the Purchase Card Log
CG Form 5623
215
When must a copy of the carrier's freight bill be included in an order
If freight cost exceeds $100
216
Purchase Card Statements shall be retained for how long
3 years
217
Purchase card disputes must be file with the bank within how many days of the date of the Purchase Card Statement
60 days
218
What is the least preferred method of procurement
Standard Form (SF) 44
219
Which funds are used for Operating and Maintenance
30 Funds
220
Which funds are used for Training
56 Funds
221
Which funds are used for Naval Engineering
45 Funds
222
Which funds are used for civil engineering
43 Funds
223
Who is responsible for maintaining current records for accountable property, ensuring authorized use and proper care of the property, and reporting directly to the Accountable Property Officer (APO)
Property Custodian (PC)
224
Who is responsible for the proper use, care and protection of government property entrusted to their custody and reporting directly to the property custodian is advised when property is moved
Individual Users
225
What is defined as any item that must be accounted for in the CG financial system of record
Mandatory Accountable Personal Property
226
What is defined as any item that requires a high degree of protection and control due to its high-risk nature or its inherent attractiveness
Sensitive Personal Property
227
What is defined as property that has a normal life expectancy of more than two years, has continuing use as a self-contained unit, is not consumed in use, does not lose its identity when put to use, or does not ordinarily become a non-serviceable component of other property
General Purpose Property
228
When must CG property be tagged for accountability and control purposes
At the time of receipt
229
What validates the existence of the asset, as well as the completeness and accuracy of the personal property records and the financial accounts
Physical Inventory
230
What type of inventory compares the personal property records to the physical assets identified
Record to Floor Inventory
231
What type of inventory compares all physical assets to the personal property records
Floor to Record Inventory
232
How often must physical inventory of all personal property be conducted
Annually
233
What items are not eligible for Exchange/Sale
```
Weapons
Nuclear Ordinance
Fire Control Equipment
Rescue and Safety Equipment
Hand Tools
```
234
What form is used for Exchange/Sale
CG-4502
235
What form is used for Year End Reports for Personal Property
Web Form CG-6048
236
What form must be completed for all transfers taking place within the CG and any DOD agency
DD-1149
237
What report form is used for Report of Excess Personal Property
CG-4501
238
Prior to personal property permanently leaving the CG's control, what must be removed
Agency-affiliated markings
239
What process shall be used to dispose of property that has been identified as either lost, stolen, damaged or destroyed
Report of Survey
240
What is required to be released for lost, stolen, damaged and destroyed property with a permanently assigned serial number
A Coast Guard Official Message
241
When are units required to report lost property
Within 24 hours of discovery
242
What form is used for Report of Survey
CG-5269
243
Who is responsible for initiating the Report of Survey within 3 days of reported loss
Property Custodian (PC)
244
Who can serve as the Survey Officer on a Report of Survey
Accountable Property Officer (APO) or anybody E-7 or above
245
How long does the Survey Officer have to assemble Board of Survey members
7 days
246
In what time frame must the Survey Officer ensure the Report of Survey is completed
60 days
247
After researching all aspects of the loss, how long do Board of Survey Members have to provide their findings to the Survey Officer
20 Days
248
Upon receipt of the Report of Survey, how long does the OIC have to take action such as training to prevent such incidents in the future
5 days
249
How long does the Final Approving Authority have to sign and date the Report of Survey upon receipt
15 Days
250
In how many total days must the Report of Excess Personal Property be completed
30 Days
251
What form is used for Report of Abandonment/Destruction Personal Property
CG-5598
252
What must be completed for all transfers taking place outside of the CG and any DOD agency
Transfer Order Excess Personal Property, Form SF-122
253
What is the method of destruction for U.S and Foreign Ensigns, CG Colors and ensigns, union jacks and commissioning pennants
Must be burned
254
All mandatory and sensitive personal property shall be recorded and tracked in what
Oracle FAM
255
Property on borrow from another entity shall be entered into Oracle FAM at what value
$2
256
All personal property shall be entered into Oracle FAM if it is owned by the CG with an acquisition cost of what
$5,000 or more
257
How often must the Accountable Property Manager (APO) review the unit's report in Oracle FAM to ensure changes have been entered correctly and that the report reflects the most recent changes
Monthly
258
How often shall the Property Custodian (PC) request new reports from the Accountable Property Manager (APO)
Annually
259
How often must FINCEN ensure that Oracle FAM system files and records are backed up electronically
Daily
260
What is the estimated useful life of Vessels/barges over 65'
15-74 years
261
What is the estimated useful life of Standard Boats
5-30 years
262
What is the estimated useful life of Non-Standard Boats
5 years
263
What is the estimated useful life of aircraft
20-35 years
