MAY 2018 E6 SWE BM Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the Headquarters program manager responsible for OIC review board procedures

A

CG 731

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2
Q

Where are all CASREPs auto-loaded into for tracking purposes

A

FLEET LOGISTICS SYSTEMS (FLS)

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3
Q

Who is the designated manager of the National Supply System

A

General Services Administration (GSA)

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4
Q

When should a BMC request to be scheduled for an OIC review board

A

Within one year of advancement to BMC

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5
Q

When can a BM1 request to be scheduled for an OIC review board

A

2 years’ time in grade or;

One year of successful service as a designated XPO

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6
Q

How long must a member wait to be eligible for recertification as OIC after relief for cause

A

2 YEARS

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7
Q

What is the District Review Board Evaluation and Reporting form

A

CG 5113

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8
Q

When are District review boards held for OIC

A

April and October

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9
Q

Regarding marks, what disqualifies a member from screening for OIC

A

Enlisted evaluation factor average in any category of less than 4 for the previous 2 years or;
Any mark of less than 4 in the last evaluation

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10
Q

What certification is required of a candidate screening for OIC Afloat/Ashore

A
DWO Letter;
 Coxswain letter (excluding punts or skiffs)
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11
Q

When can underway commands request to conduct their own Pre-board for OIC candidates

A

When OPTEMPO dictates

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12
Q

When is the Pre-board required to provide a list of qualified candidates to the area/district review board

A

NLT 30 days prior to the announced OIC review board date

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13
Q

When are pre-board evaluation forms required to be forwarded to the are/district review board

A

NLT two weeks before review board scheduled date

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14
Q

Where are requests for assignment as OIC sent

A

Commander (CG PSC-EPM-2) on an E-Resume

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15
Q

When should applications for assignment as OIC be sent

A

One year in advance of desired assignment

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16
Q

Which legislative authority authorizes CG to pay personnel Special Duty Assignment Pay (SDAP)

A

37 USC 307

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17
Q

What is included in Section 1 of the OIC Screening Package

A

Candidates Memo to the Board President
Command recommendation
Pre-board results Memo
Pre-board form CG-5113

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18
Q

What is included in Section 2 of the OIC Screening Package

A

Most recent EER
EER Summary
CGBI readiness snapshot
Direct Access physical Characteristics

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19
Q

What is included in Section 3 of the OIC Screening Package

A

Summary of career

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20
Q

What is included in Section 4 of the OIC Screening Package

A

DA Employee Competency report
DA Test results printout
DA Student training summary
TMT Certification report

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21
Q

What is included in Section 5 of the OIC Screening Package

A

Awards
Certificates
Form CG-3307

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22
Q

How many Sections are in the OIC Screening package

A

5

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23
Q

Which training teams are required on ALL cutters

A

Damage Control Training Team
Engineering Training Team
Navigation and Seamanship Training Team
Force Protection Training Team

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24
Q

What is required for OBTT membership

A

Fully PQS qualified for watch station they are to evaluate or train and;
Certified by Commanding Officer

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25
Q

What are the positions of the OBTT

A

Team leader
Evaluator
Safety observers

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26
Q

Who of the OBTT is required to record observations on the evaluation form

A

Each Member of the OBTT

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27
Q

Who debriefs the OBTT and crew

A

Evaluator

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28
Q

When are drill debriefs required to be conducted

A

Immediately following completion of the training scenario

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29
Q

What should be covered in a drill debrief

A

Training team observations (safety concerns, comms problems, material deficiencies)
Requirements met or not met
Lessons learned and recommendations

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30
Q

What criteria must outside evaluators meet

A

Presently assigned as instructors at Navy afloat training commands or;
Presently assigned to area or district training teams or;
Representatives from headquarters or Area program management offices

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31
Q

How long must Training organization grade sheets be kept on file

A

2 years

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32
Q

What is required prior to the execution of a training scenario

A

A thorough brief approved and signed by the Commanding Officer

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33
Q

Who gives the brief to the OBTT

A

Team Leader

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34
Q

Where are CART checklists, Drill grade sheets and SEOPS drill sheets kept and maintained

A

Commandant CG-751 website

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35
Q

On what basis are pass/fail grades calculated for OBTT drills

A

80 percent/20 percent

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36
Q

What is the highest achievable score for an approved drill that has been failed twice

A

80 percent

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37
Q

What are the primary locations for recording individual and unit qualifications and training completion

A

Direct Access and TMT

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38
Q

Who shall be included in the Unit Training Board

A
XO
 Training Officer
 All department heads
 ESO (if assigned)
 Damage Control Assistant (if assigned)
 Corpsman (if assigned)
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39
Q

Which cutters are not required to have a Unit Training Board

A
WPB
 WLI
 WLIC 
 WLR
 WYTL
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40
Q

What is the minimum interval that Unit Training Plans shall be prepared

A

Monthly

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41
Q

In what format shall the Unit Training Plan be prepared

A

Calendar

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42
Q

How long shall Unit Training plans be kept on file

A

2 years

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43
Q

What form number is the Unit Training Plan

A

CG-5293

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44
Q

At what frequency does CGBI refresh its data

A

Every 24 hours

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45
Q

Who is responsible for scheduling District Training Team Visits

A

District Commander

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46
Q

Who is directed to administer the CG’s quota allocation process and act as “C” School order-issuing authority

A

TQC (Training Quota Management Center)

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47
Q

Who is responsible for detailed management of Boat Forces particular courses and schools

A

CG-731 Program manager

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48
Q

Who acts as final approving authority for new resident training and general military training requirements

A

FORCECOM (FC-T) Training Manager

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49
Q

Who signs all certification letters for CO/OIC’s

A

Operational Commander

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50
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring that all Command Cadre Personnel maintain certification IAW BOAT Manual Volume 1

A

Operational Commander

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51
Q

Who provides support and coordination for functions performed by subordinate units

A

Sector Commanders

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52
Q

Who can provide formal training approved by FORCECOM

A

“C” Schools and mobile training teams (MTT)

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53
Q

What does a submitted ETR without a waiver request in place suggest

A

Command certifies that all prerequisites have been met

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54
Q

When should waiver request be submitted by

A

NLT 10 days prior to course convening date

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55
Q

When are personnel required to attend Underwater Egress Trainer

A

Within 12 months of assignment to their first Boat Forces Unit

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56
Q

What table-formatted administrative tool is used to establish resident training options to Stations and ANTs

A

Master Training Lists (MTLs)

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57
Q

When should requests for Mobile training teams be submitted

A

60 days prior to desired training date

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58
Q

Who is responsible for designating personnel with ETR release authority

A

XO/XPO

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59
Q

Who is responsible for submitting Unit ETRs

A

Training Petty Officer

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60
Q

What is the CG-5293

A

Unit Training Plan Form

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61
Q

Who is responsible for the establishment and monitoring of the trainee boat crew training

A

Training Petty Officer

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62
Q

What is the required system for recording training accomplished, both underway and shore-side

A

AOPS/TMT

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63
Q

What is the CG- 5063

A

Boat Crew Member Certificate

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64
Q

Who is responsible for coordinating and scheduling the orientation and indoctrination of all newly reported personnel

A

Training Petty Officer

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65
Q

What is the minimum number of members required on a cutter oral examination board

A

2

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66
Q

How long can an interim qualification be granted for aboard a cutter

A

3 months

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67
Q

Who establishes overall policy for shipboard qualifications

A

Commandant CG-751

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68
Q

Who ensures that all unit personnel have assigned competencies IAW CG-731

A

Training Petty Officer

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69
Q

In what format shall JQRs be written

A

Same as PQS

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70
Q

What course is required to be completed by the Station OOD

A

Search Coordination and Execution (SC&E)

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71
Q

Who is authorized to sign off Ice Rescuer PQS tasks

A

Only the Ice Rescue Trainer

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72
Q

Who shall chair all Qualification Examination Boards (QEBs)

A

XO/XPO

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73
Q

Who should be excluded from the trainee’s evaluation process

A

Trainee’s Mentor/Assigned Trainer

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74
Q

How often are boat crewmembers required to pass the physical fitness test

A

Every six months

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75
Q

When is the PT test required

A

During qualification, recertification, and semiannually

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76
Q

When may the XPO process CO approvals in TMT

A

Only when ACTING AS OIC during the absence of the Unit Commander

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77
Q

How long should an interim certification be granted

A

No longer than 60 days

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78
Q

Who can issue a Provisional Interim Certification

A

Operational Commander

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79
Q

In what capacity can an Interim Certification Letter be utilized

A

During transit to Unit
Initial Training and Familiarization
Engine Break-in Requirements

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80
Q

How long can deferred tasks last without command level acknowledgement

A

60 days

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81
Q

Who can grant a permanent task deferment to a Unit

A

CG-731

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82
Q

How long does the OIC have to certify after reporting to Unit

A

One year

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83
Q

What period of time defines Medical situations of a temporary nature which precludes a member from boat operations

A

Not more than 12 months

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84
Q

When shall the IOC acknowledge the AOPS/TMT Crew Proficiency Report

A

The end of each currency cycle

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85
Q

What dates define the currency cycles

A

01JAN-30JUN and 01JUL-31DEC

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86
Q

Which currency requirement remains semiannual for the reserve component

A

Physical Fitness Test

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87
Q

What is the qualification cutoff date that excludes a member from the requirement to meet currency items for that qualification

A

01April and 01October, respectively

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88
Q

What percentage is the Reserve Currency requirement compared to active duty

A

83% annually

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89
Q

What are the annual U/W hours required of a reserve member

A

66 total, 17 of which shall be at night

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90
Q

Who can see the Initial Qualification and Initial Qualification List in TMT

A

Only those users with the Initial Qual Role

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91
Q

When does the Include all crew button in TMT not appear for a competency summary report

A

If available crewmembers exceed 100 persons

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92
Q

Which TMT report allows users to run individual training type reports

A

Competency Summary report

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93
Q

Which TMT report generates a log of task training activities for an individual or entire unit

A

Training Record Report

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94
Q

Which TMT report lists competencies awarded to selected crewmembers, along with date of certification and date of last update

A

Certifications Report

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95
Q

Which TMT report enables a user to monitor the training requirements of a selected unit

A

Unit Training Management Report

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96
Q

Which TMT report shows the certification status (assigned or certified) of each selected individual in the unit for each competency assigned to that unit

A

Competency History Report

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97
Q

Which TMT report is used to track the progress of unit crewmembers in meeting initial qualification requirements

A

Initial Qualification Report

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98
Q

What color will a crewmember’s name be displayed in if they have not been assigned a competency in the Initial Qualification Report

A

Red

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99
Q

Which TMT report is used to show EEO competencies for the Senior Executive Leadership Equal Opportunities Seminar (SELEOS), Supervisors of Civilians, and EEO Counselor competencies

A

EEO Report

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100
Q

Which TMT report captures certain task currencies and other information (such as underway and underway night hours) of all selected members at a unit

A

Boat Crew Status Report

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101
Q

What is the Boat Crew Status Report also referred to as

A

The White Board Report

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102
Q

Which TMT report provides, for selected crewmembers, the date each crewmember successfully completed each LE currency task

A

LE Status Report

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103
Q

Which TMT report provides, for selected crewmembers, currency information to help keep crewmember LE currency requirements up to date

A

LE Currency Report

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104
Q

Which TMT report lists individuals within a unit who have completed (or failed to complete) a specified task

A

Task/Comp Fulfillment Report

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105
Q

Which TMT report is used to display the results of the initial qualification oral examination, particularly comments entered with the exam results

A

Initial Qualification Oral Exam Report

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106
Q

Which TMT report displays the status of assigned drills and exercises

A

Unit Level Drills and Exercises Report

107
Q

Which TMT report indicates a crewmember’s current certification status on small boat platforms, for which the member is assigned one or more competencies

A

Crew Proficiency Report

108
Q

In a Crew Proficiency Report in TMT, what color denotes a member whose status is Not Certified

A

Red

109
Q

In a Crew Proficiency Report in TMT, what color denotes a member whose status is Certified

A

Green

110
Q

In a Crew Proficiency Report in TMT, what color denotes a member whose status is Certified, but now within current period

A

Yellow

111
Q

What is the angular difference between a compass direction and its corresponding true direction

A

Compass Error

112
Q

What is the angular difference, measured in degrees, between true and magnetic north, and varies according to geographic location

A

Variation

113
Q

Where is variation located on a chart

A

On the inside of the compass rose

114
Q

What is variation caused by

A

The earth’s magnetic field

115
Q

What is defined as the amount of deflection influenced by a vessel and its electronics on the boat

A

Deviation

116
Q

What causes an error in the compass course that a boat attempts to steer

A

Deviation

117
Q

What method is used to determine the deviation of a magnetic compass

A

Swinging Ship

118
Q

When are Deviation Tables required to be updated and approved by the Unit Commander

A

Annually or:
After yard availability or;
After additions or deletions of equipment or;
After structural alterations that would affect the magnetic characteristics of the boat

119
Q

The deviation table can be Easterly, Westerly, or with no error and is tabulated for every ______ degrees of the compass

A

15 degrees

120
Q

What is the most commonly used practice to determine deviation

A

Running a range

121
Q

Man-made ranges have their direction written in what format

A

Degrees true

122
Q

Where are completed and approved deviation tables posted

A

Next to the boat’s compass

123
Q

When determining deviation by multiple observations from one position, how far apart should the objects be

A

15 degrees unless there are a minimum of 10 objects/bearings that are evenly separated through the entire 360 degrees

124
Q

When determining deviation by multiple observations from one position, what scale chart should be used

A

The largest scale available

125
Q

Determined deviations of greater than _____ should not be tolerated

A

3 degrees

126
Q

When applying compass error, what is defined as going from magnetic direction to true or going from the compass direction to magnetic

A

Correcting

127
Q

What is the sequence of the procedure for correcting compass direction to true direction

A
Compass course
Deviation 
Magnetic course 
Variation
True course 
C+D=M
M+V=T
128
Q

What are the three methods that can be used when swinging ship

A

Running a range or;
Multiple observations from one position or;
Multiple Ranges

129
Q

What amount of compass deviation warrants a restrictive discrepancy

A

Greater than 5 degrees

130
Q

What form is the compass deviation table

A

CG-2596

131
Q

What is the minimum distance that a chosen range must be suitable for steering on with accuracy when checking magnetic compass using multiple ranges

A

½ mile

132
Q

What are the minimum number of ranges (with reciprocal courses) that must be used when checking magnetic compass using multiple ranges

A

4

133
Q

Which 2 people must sign the Deviation Table (CG-2596)

A

Navigator and Commanding Officer

134
Q

When shall formal materiel inspections be conducted

A

During Standardization Assessments

135
Q

What will be included in the Standardization Assessment Report

A

Materiel discrepancy list

136
Q

When shall materiel inspections of each boat assigned to the unit be conducted by the Unit Commander

A

Once per month or;

Per Maintenance Procedure Plans

137
Q

What is a casualty which makes the boat not serviceable

A

Disabling Casualty

138
Q

When shall a boat status message be provided to the Operational Commander and Sector Engineering Officer

A

NLT 12 hours after the casualty is discovered

139
Q

If a casualty cannot be repaired within 48 hours, when shall an ALMIS entry or CASREP be made

A

NLT 24 hours of discovery of the casualty

140
Q

Who is responsible for monitoring the status of repairs to casualties

A

Operational Commanders

141
Q

What is defined as something that restricts the operations of the boat such that it can perform some activities but not all safely

A

Restrictive Discrepancy

142
Q

When can a boat with a restrictive discrepancy be operated

A

Only with a waiver from the operational commander

143
Q

How long is a verbal waiver to operate a boat with a restrictive waiver authorized before it must be followed up with a written waiver

A

4 hours

144
Q

When are restricted discrepancies required to be reported to the Operational Commander

A

Within 1 hour

145
Q

What is a discrepancy that degrades the effectiveness of the boat to perform one or more missions

A

Major discrepancy

146
Q

How often is the Operational Commander required to receive reports as to the status of a major discrepancy

A

Monthly

147
Q

What type of discrepancy does not affect the operational readiness of the boat but keeps it from meeting the standardization criteria established for that boat

A

Minor Discrepancy

148
Q

At what level are the statuses of minor discrepancies monitored

A

Unit level

149
Q

What readiness rating for a boat means that it has no disabling casualties or restrictive discrepancies

A

Bravo

150
Q

What readiness rating for a boat means that is has one or more restrictive discrepancies with waivers

A

Bravo (Restricted)

151
Q

What readiness rating for a boat means that it has one or more disabling casualties or the boat has restrictive discrepancies without waivers

A

Charlie

152
Q

Which discrepancy is the initial maintenance record in EAL that must be corrected or deferred within 24 hours

A

(O) Open Discrepancy

153
Q

What will happen in EAL when an open discrepancy is left open for longer than 24 hours

A

It will be marked with a red exclamation mark

154
Q

What in EAL is a non-disabling discrepancy that requires parts that are not immediately available

A

(PP) Parts Pending

155
Q

Who is required to authorize all deferred maintenance in EAL

A

Engineering Officer

156
Q

What is a discrepancy in EAL that has been deferred until a more convenient or appropriate time and could not be corrected within the 24 corrective action requirement

A

(CF) Carried Forward

157
Q

What is a discrepancy in EAL that has been deferred until a planned depot availability period because it could not be corrected within the 24 hour corrective action requirement

A

(CFD) Carried Forward Depot

158
Q

When can a discrepancy in EAL be marked Carried Forward-Depot

A

When it is a non-disabling casualty

159
Q

In EAL, what signifies an asset’s operational capability to meet all assigned missions from an engineering standpoint

A

Asset Status

160
Q

In EAL, what signifies whether an asset is safe to operate and is in compliance with safe to sail policies contained in Cutter Safe-To-Sail Minimum Critical Equipment

A

Asset Condition

161
Q

Who has the authority to issue operational waivers

A

Operational Commander

162
Q

Who is responsible for engineering waivers

A

SFLC Product Lines

163
Q

Who shall ensure the waiver is recorded in EAL as part of the asset’s maintenance history

A

Engineering Officer

164
Q

Waivers for restrictive or disabling casualties documented in EAL are equivalent to what

A

Official Written Waiver

165
Q

Who established Cutter Safe-To-Sail Minimum Critical Equipment

A

CG-751

166
Q

What is a Fully Mission Capable (FMC) asset indicated by in EAL

A

Upward pointing green triangle

167
Q

What is a Partially Mission Capable (PMC) asset indicated by in EAL

A

Sideward pointing yellow triangle

168
Q

What is a Not Mission Capable Maintenance (NMCM) asset indicated by in EAL

A

Downward pointing red triangle

169
Q

What is a Not Mission Capable Supply (NMCS) asset indicated by in EAL

A

Downward pointing red triangle

170
Q

What is used to indicate an asset condition with at least one disabling discrepancy pending resolution

A

Down Arrow

171
Q

What is used to indicate an asset condition with all disabling discrepancies resolved and that the asset is safe to operate

A

Up Arrow

172
Q

What is an example of Not Mission Capable Lay-up (NMCL)

A

Winterization

173
Q

Who is primarily responsible for addressing equipment casualties requiring depot level assistance within Small Boat Product Line (SBPL)

A

Engineering Branch

174
Q

In cases of casualties requiring emergency haul-outs, who takes the lead for planning and execution of repairs

A

Post Depot Maintenance Branch (PDM)

175
Q

Who is only authorized to provide casualty support to funded boats

A

Small Boat Product Line (SBPL)

176
Q

In the event of fire, flooding, collision, allusion, grounding, or traffic accidents, SBPL will fund all repairs, regardless of cost, using what

A

AFC-45 Funding (Naval Funding)

177
Q

What program shall modernized assets use to document all equipment casualties

A

ALMIS EAL

178
Q

When an asset is not operationally available, it is classified as what

A

NMCS or;
NMCD or;
NMCM

179
Q

An asset that has partial mission capability is classified as what

A

PMC

180
Q

When an asset is placed in a NMC or PMC status, what must be included in the description

A

Work, parts, etc. needed to return the asset to FMC

181
Q

Who is the only individual authorized to change the status of an asset

A

Sector Engineering Officer

182
Q

When an asset is down due to a lack of parts, it is classified as what

A

NMCS

183
Q

What classification indicates that an asset is down awaiting completion of maintenance

A

NMCM

184
Q

What classification indicates that an asset is down due to depot maintenance

A

NMCD

185
Q

What classification indicates that an asset is capable of getting underway and performing all missions

A

FMC

186
Q

What classification is used for an asset which has one or more degraded mission capabilities that do not preclude an asset from getting underway

A

PMC

187
Q

Non-modernized assets receive casualty support from SBPL Engineering Branch for all CASREPs over what amount

A

$500

188
Q

Who must consider the sources of supply in an order of priority established by FAR 8.002

A

Contracting Officer (KO)

189
Q

Available sources of supply are categorized into what three broad groups and what priority for each

A

Required Gov’t Sources
Required Commercial Sources
Open-market Sources

190
Q

What administration is the manager of the federal excess property system

A

General Services Administration (GSA)

191
Q

What are the two primary sources for excess property used by the Coast Guard

A

Defense Reutilization and Marketing Office (DRMO) and;

General Services Administration (GSA)

192
Q

Which manual provides policy and procedures in obtaining excess property from Coast Guard, GSA, and DRMO sources

A

Property Management Manual COMDTINST M4500.5

193
Q

What is the trade name for the Federal Prison Industries (FPI)

A

UNICOR

194
Q

When are purchases from UNICOR not mandatory

A

$3000 or less

195
Q

What are the two central non-profit agencies under AbilityOne

A

National Industries for the Blind (NIB) and;

NISH

196
Q

What system was created and designed to eliminate duplication of acquisition and supply functions between the General Services Administration and other federal agencies

A

National Supply System

197
Q

Which term identifies the various government managed supply systems

A

Wholesale Supply Source

198
Q

Which character preceding the stock number of an item in the NSN index of the GSA supply catalog guide identifies that item as being managed by the Defense Logistics Agency (DLA)

A

“R”

199
Q

What items are authorized for the Coast Guard on Prime Vendor Contracts

A

Subsistence and Medical Supplies

200
Q

What is GSA’s only Single-Award Schedule (SAS)

A

JWOD (AbilityOne)

201
Q

What is used to accomplish interagency acquisitions for the Coast Guard

A

Military Interdepartmental Purchase Request (MIPR)

202
Q

What form is used for Military Interdepartmental Purchase Requests (MIPRs)

A

DD Form 448

203
Q

What act authorizes agencies to enter into mutual agreements to obtain supplies or services by interagency acquisition

A

The Economy Act

204
Q

What is the mandatory source for printing requirements

A

Government Printing Office (GPO)

205
Q

What is the micro-purchase threshold

A

$3,500

206
Q

What is the Simplified acquisition threshold

A

$100,000

207
Q

What administration establishes small business size standards on an industry-by-industry basis

A

Small Business Administration (SBA)

208
Q

What program was created to provide Federal contracting assistance for qualified small business concerns located in historically underutilized business zones

A

HUBZone

209
Q

What is the easiest method to buy supplies and services

A

Purchase Card (P-Card)

210
Q

What is required for purchases above the $3500 micro-purchase threshold

A

Simplified Acquisition Summary Form (DHS 700-16)

211
Q

What describes purchases made from commercial sources when all mandatory sources have been excluded

A

Open-Market Purchases

212
Q

How often is the Purchase cardholder required to complete DHS Purchase Card refresher training

A

Every 2 years

213
Q

When is the Approving official required to certify the purchase card statement in the Purchase Card Application

A

Within 14 days of the statement date (26th of each month)

214
Q

What form is the Purchase Card Log

A

CG Form 5623

215
Q

When must a copy of the carrier’s freight bill be included in an order

A

If freight cost exceeds $100

216
Q

Purchase Card Statements shall be retained for how long

A

3 years

217
Q

Purchase card disputes must be file with the bank within how many days of the date of the Purchase Card Statement

A

60 days

218
Q

What is the least preferred method of procurement

A

Standard Form (SF) 44

219
Q

Which funds are used for Operating and Maintenance

A

30 Funds

220
Q

Which funds are used for Training

A

56 Funds

221
Q

Which funds are used for Naval Engineering

A

45 Funds

222
Q

Which funds are used for civil engineering

A

43 Funds

223
Q

Who is responsible for maintaining current records for accountable property, ensuring authorized use and proper care of the property, and reporting directly to the Accountable Property Officer (APO)

A

Property Custodian (PC)

224
Q

Who is responsible for the proper use, care and protection of government property entrusted to their custody and reporting directly to the property custodian is advised when property is moved

A

Individual Users

225
Q

What is defined as any item that must be accounted for in the CG financial system of record

A

Mandatory Accountable Personal Property

226
Q

What is defined as any item that requires a high degree of protection and control due to its high-risk nature or its inherent attractiveness

A

Sensitive Personal Property

227
Q

What is defined as property that has a normal life expectancy of more than two years, has continuing use as a self-contained unit, is not consumed in use, does not lose its identity when put to use, or does not ordinarily become a non-serviceable component of other property

A

General Purpose Property

228
Q

When must CG property be tagged for accountability and control purposes

A

At the time of receipt

229
Q

What validates the existence of the asset, as well as the completeness and accuracy of the personal property records and the financial accounts

A

Physical Inventory

230
Q

What type of inventory compares the personal property records to the physical assets identified

A

Record to Floor Inventory

231
Q

What type of inventory compares all physical assets to the personal property records

A

Floor to Record Inventory

232
Q

How often must physical inventory of all personal property be conducted

A

Annually

233
Q

What items are not eligible for Exchange/Sale

A
Weapons
 Nuclear Ordinance
 Fire Control Equipment
 Rescue and Safety Equipment
 Hand Tools
234
Q

What form is used for Exchange/Sale

A

CG-4502

235
Q

What form is used for Year End Reports for Personal Property

A

Web Form CG-6048

236
Q

What form must be completed for all transfers taking place within the CG and any DOD agency

A

DD-1149

237
Q

What report form is used for Report of Excess Personal Property

A

CG-4501

238
Q

Prior to personal property permanently leaving the CG’s control, what must be removed

A

Agency-affiliated markings

239
Q

What process shall be used to dispose of property that has been identified as either lost, stolen, damaged or destroyed

A

Report of Survey

240
Q

What is required to be released for lost, stolen, damaged and destroyed property with a permanently assigned serial number

A

A Coast Guard Official Message

241
Q

When are units required to report lost property

A

Within 24 hours of discovery

242
Q

What form is used for Report of Survey

A

CG-5269

243
Q

Who is responsible for initiating the Report of Survey within 3 days of reported loss

A

Property Custodian (PC)

244
Q

Who can serve as the Survey Officer on a Report of Survey

A

Accountable Property Officer (APO) or anybody E-7 or above

245
Q

How long does the Survey Officer have to assemble Board of Survey members

A

7 days

246
Q

In what time frame must the Survey Officer ensure the Report of Survey is completed

A

60 days

247
Q

After researching all aspects of the loss, how long do Board of Survey Members have to provide their findings to the Survey Officer

A

20 Days

248
Q

Upon receipt of the Report of Survey, how long does the OIC have to take action such as training to prevent such incidents in the future

A

5 days

249
Q

How long does the Final Approving Authority have to sign and date the Report of Survey upon receipt

A

15 Days

250
Q

In how many total days must the Report of Excess Personal Property be completed

A

30 Days

251
Q

What form is used for Report of Abandonment/Destruction Personal Property

A

CG-5598

252
Q

What must be completed for all transfers taking place outside of the CG and any DOD agency

A

Transfer Order Excess Personal Property, Form SF-122

253
Q

What is the method of destruction for U.S and Foreign Ensigns, CG Colors and ensigns, union jacks and commissioning pennants

A

Must be burned

254
Q

All mandatory and sensitive personal property shall be recorded and tracked in what

A

Oracle FAM

255
Q

Property on borrow from another entity shall be entered into Oracle FAM at what value

A

$2

256
Q

All personal property shall be entered into Oracle FAM if it is owned by the CG with an acquisition cost of what

A

$5,000 or more

257
Q

How often must the Accountable Property Manager (APO) review the unit’s report in Oracle FAM to ensure changes have been entered correctly and that the report reflects the most recent changes

A

Monthly

258
Q

How often shall the Property Custodian (PC) request new reports from the Accountable Property Manager (APO)

A

Annually

259
Q

How often must FINCEN ensure that Oracle FAM system files and records are backed up electronically

A

Daily

260
Q

What is the estimated useful life of Vessels/barges over 65’

A

15-74 years

261
Q

What is the estimated useful life of Standard Boats

A

5-30 years

262
Q

What is the estimated useful life of Non-Standard Boats

A

5 years

263
Q

What is the estimated useful life of aircraft

A

20-35 years