MATS Flashcards

1
Q

What should you do if you encounter a situation not covered by MATS

A

Exercise best judgement.

Be conservative.

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2
Q

What action shall you take when a pilot declares MINIMUM FUEL?

A

Acknowledge the call
Advise expected delay, if any, or no delay expected
No priority need be provided
If the aircraft will subsequently enter another sector/unit verbally advise next controller. Receiving controller shall acknowledge receipt and advise any anticipated delays and, on first contact, acknowledge MIN FUEL

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3
Q

Under what circumstances is a controller able to modify the vertical and horizontal boundaries of controlled airspace?

A

None (only CAA may modify airspace)

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4
Q

What are a controller’s responsibilities when a pilot reports a TA or RA in uncontrolled airspace?

A

Pass known traffic information

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5
Q

For an outbound Oceanic flight, who is responsible for detecting conflictions and separating it from other flights entering/leaving Oceanic airspace? Why?

A

The last controller handling an outbound flight prior to AA OCS boundary shall be responsible for detecting confliction and providing separation.
OCA probes do not display conflict for aircraft in Domestic airspace.

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6
Q

Unless otherwise co-ordinated, when is an appropriate time for the transferring controller to issue instructions to contact the accepting controller in Radar/non-radar environments?

A

Radar – 15 NM
Non-Radar – 5 minutes
…prior to crossing the transfer of control/RTF contact point and all expected calls have been received from the aircraft

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7
Q

In what airspace are gliders permitted to operate in IMC?

A

In class G or airspace specifically designated by the Director for cloud flying, subject to:
Pilot responsible for obstacle clearance
Glider capable of 2-way communication with ATC when operating in Class G airspace
Pilot is required to contact ATS before entering IMC in Class G airspace to ensure no IFR aircraft in or near the proposed area of cloud flying within 15 minutes
Pilot required to update this information every 15 minutes or vacate cloud

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8
Q

How is radar separation achieved between IFR/VFR aircraft and parachute descents in both controlled and uncontrolled airspace?

A

In Class C&D airspace
IFR flights shall be kept clear of an active PDA or PDS unless visual separation can be applied.
Traffic information shall be passed to known VFR flights in respect to PDA, except that VFR shall be kept clear of an active PDA when a clearance to drop through cloud has been given.
Radar control provided: minimum 3nm radius protection area applied around the drop aircraft
Radar control not provided: traffic kept clear vertically, laterally or visually
Class G airspace
Traffic information to IFR and VFR in accordance with RAC 10

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9
Q

If an aircraft has both Mode A/C and Mode S but it’s ALT is not operating, what alerts (TA/RA) will it generate to an ACAS equipped aircraft?

A

When an aircraft is operating with ALT mode OFF, ACAS will provide a TA but not an RA

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10
Q

May an aircraft without an operable transponder be permitted to enter TM airspace?

A
Under certain conditions:
In an emergency
Transponder failure
Approval sought from all sectors through whose airspace the flight will enter/operate
Specific Approval from GM ATS
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11
Q

What are a controllers responsibilities when a pilot reports an RA?

A

Pass (Essential) Traffic Information
Control instructions shall not be issued to RA aircraft or any others involved with RA
Once RA aircraft has begun a manoeuvre, the controller is not responsible for separation
Traffic avoidance advice may be issued to non-transponder aircraft if necessary
When pilot advises “clear of conflict” and separation is still in jeopardy, the controller shall make every effort to restore separation
Controller’s responsibility for separation resumes once re-established

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12
Q

What is the clearance limit for an aircraft that intends to leave controlled airspace, and for what portion of the flight shall the clearance apply?

A

Clearance limit is the aerodrome of first intended landing
Clearance applies to that portion of flight within controlled airspace
Traffic information shall be provided outside controlled airspace

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13
Q

What ACAS events are required to be reported?

A

TA shall be entered into ATS Log

RA shall be reported (ASI filed) and entered into ATS Log

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14
Q

What figures are entered into the CFL field of a VFR flight plan?

A

In controlled airspace and subject to level restrictions:
The cleared level
In controlled airspace and NOT subject to level restrictions/uncontrolled airspace:
000

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15
Q

What actions/considerations are required when approving an aircraft to operate at a non-standard level?

A

When clearing an aircraft to a non-standard level, the words “NON-STANDARD” shall prefix the level
Prior to reaching the boundary on an ATS sector, verbal approval shall be obtained
Standard levels have priority over non-standard levels.

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16
Q

What provisos must be met before approving flights on unevaluated routes?

A

Pilot requests or agrees to controller proposal
Pilot is responsible for navigation unless being vectored
Separation from SUA/GAA provided where necessary
Irrespective of strip posting direct routing/deviation requires co-ordination either verbally or in accordance with LOA/LUO
When under control but pilot navigation, the controller shall monitor the track and advise the pilot any observed deviation greater than 5nm
When direct routing to an RNAV or GNSS fix, the specified fix shall be no later than FAF or Final Approach point
When direct routing for an RNP fix, the specific fix shall be no later than the fix prior to FAF and not on or at the start of a constant radius arc to a fix leg
When direct routing for a a fix on an instrument approach, the aircraft must be able to intercept the VPA or glide path at an altitude that will enable a normal descent

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17
Q

What are the transponder requirements for aircraft operating in controlled airspace?

A

All NZ controlled airspace is designated transponder mandatory.
Below F245 aircraft must operate Mode A/C/S or transmit ADS-B data
At F245 or above aircraft must transmit ADS-B data

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18
Q

What elements of ATC instructions are pilots required to read back? (excluding aerodrome specific readbacks)

A
ATC route clearances
Runway in use
Altimeter settings
SSR codes
Level instructions
Heading instructions
Frequency after frequency change instructions
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19
Q

What does RDR in the remark field of a domestic flight plan indicate, and what restriction does it impose on co-ordination?

A

ROUTE DESCRIPTION REQUIRED
If this appears in the RMK section of the FPL or it is known or suspected that there is a discrepancy then “FPR” may not be used.
Standard route clearances and reporting points shall be used during co-ordination to clearly identify the route

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20
Q

What are the controller’s responsibilities when a pilot reports a TA?

A

Reiterate traffic information
Advise the pilot of measures already in place to ensure separation
Where no traffic information has been passed or separation exists, immediate action shall be taken to provide such

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21
Q

Give the times prior to which a CPL or EST message shall be passed between the following sectors:

A

AREA to AREA – 20 MINUTES

AREA to APPROACH – 15 MINUTES

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22
Q

Following an early release, describe what factors the accepting controller must consider before climbing, descending or turning a released aircraft.

A

Verbal co-ordination is required prior to:
Climbing an arrival
Descending a departure
Instructing an aircraft to hold
…while still in the transferring controller’s airspace

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23
Q

What are the accepting controllers responsibilities with regard to establishing radio communication at the RTF contact point?

A

The accepting controller is responsible for ensuring radio communication is established.
If the aircraft does not establish comms at the RTF contact point, efforts shall be made to establish communication no later than 3 minutes after the anticipated initial contact.

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24
Q

When does an enroute flight require a clearance to leave controlled airspace

A

When it is intended the flight will leave controlled airspace on other than its currently cleared route; or
When the flight will leave controlled airspace via descent.

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25
Q

When an aircraft is making a visual departure on a promulgated route, at what point does the pilot’s responsibility for terrain clearance cease?

A

The pilot is responsible for terrain clearance until the flight reaches MSA for the route.
Once above the first step the pilot may elect to continue visually or climb above enroute distance steps

26
Q

What should you do if you become aware of hazardous weather conditions along a flights intended route?

A

Warn the pilot and offer an alternate route if possible.
If no alternative is available or the pilot elects to continue through the conditions increased separations may be applied

27
Q

If Oceanic is unable to approve a level for an Oceanic flight, what must you do?

A

The Area controller shall hold the flight in domestic airspace until the level can be approved.

28
Q

What procedure shall be followed if an aircraft transmits an incorrect Flight Identification?

A

Incorrect Flight ID will show as a YELLOW ACID in the datablock
The pilot shall be requested to confirm and, if necessary, re-enter the correct information
If symptoms persist:
acknowledge the alert and notify the DM who will file a Defect Incident
If the aircraft is departing the NZ FIR, the controller shall notify the next ATS unit

29
Q

Radar Separation shall only be applied between an aircraft in direct communication with the radar controller except:

A

Where one aircraft is being radar monitored and is in direct communication with another sector, providing that:
The aircraft that is being radar monitored has been, or will be, under control of the affected controller or co-ordination, including transfer of radar ident has taken place
The radar controller is aware is the terms of the clearance
The terms of the clearance are acceptable to the radar controller who will ensure separation is maintained
The aircraft can be released to the radar controller if requested
Voice switch direct access line communication exists with the other unit
Where the preceding aircraft is not ini direct communication with the radar controller provided that RAC6 BETWEEN AIRCRAFT ON APPROACH APPLIES

30
Q

Describe 2 methods of PSR identification

A

Correlation of an RPS with an aircraft reporting it’s position
Correlation of an RPS with an aircraft that has just departed
Transfer of radar ident
Correlation of an RPS with known turn/s by an aircraft

31
Q

When shall SFL alerting be supressed?

A

For flights cleared for an instrument approach
For flights leaving controlled airspace by descent
For flights leaving controlled airspace
For flights transferred to a procedural approach early (after co-ordination)
For individual flights when it has been established that the SFL information being transmitted is incorrect
For flights transferred to aerodrome control on a visual approach

32
Q

Describe the use of ModeC derived level information when Skyline is operating in Bypass Mode

A

When operating in bypass, Mode C derived level information of aircraft below the transition level shall not be used when the QNH indicated in the QNH list for the area in which the bypass sensor is located differs by 3hPa from that on which the aircraft is operating.

33
Q
In an aircrafts FPL, what do the following RVSM status indicators mean?
RVA
RVN
RVP
RVS
A

RVA – RVSM APPROVED
RVN – NON-RVSM (NOT APPROVED OR CAPABLE)
RVP – RVSM PRIORITY (NON-RVSM STATE AIRCRAFT)
RVS – RVSM SUSPENDED (DUE EQUIP FAILURE/WX)

34
Q

Describe the methods of SSR/MLAT identification

A

Recognition of an aircraft ID in a datablock
Recognition of an assigned code, the setting of which has been verified
Transfer of radar ident
Observation of compliance with an instruction to set a specific code
Observation of compliance with an instruction to squawk ID

35
Q

What does the phraseology NO SPEED RESTRICTIONS mean? Under what conditions shall this advice be passed?

A

“No speed restrictions” shall be used when advising an aircraft that there is no requirement to comply with the following ATC speed requirements:
Max 250kt below 10,000 within 30nm of AA, WN, CH; and
ATC speed requirements on STAR charts; and
Speed requirements on an instrument approach

36
Q

Give 4 methods for the transfer of radar identification

A

Point out function
Physically pointing to an RPS
Notification of a discreet squawk code
Designation of RPS by reference to a geographical point/reporting point/navaid (must be shown on both radar displays)along with heading or track
Instruction to the aircraft to squawk a specific code and observation by the accepting controller
Instruction to the aircraft to squawk ident and observation by the accepting controller

37
Q

Give 2 examples of how position information can be passed to a pilot

A

As a well known geographic position
Magnetic track and distance to a significant point or navaid
Compass bearing and distance to a known position
Position relative to the centreline of an ATS route/final approach track (for aircraft being vectored onto approach)
Distance from touchdown (for aircraft on final approach

38
Q

How close to the edge of an adjacent radar sector boundary may aircraft be vectored?

A

5nm

39
Q

Should a pilot be informed with radar identification is lost/regained?

A

YES

40
Q

Explain why Mode C derived level information cannot be used in the transition layer

A

RDP changes the level prefix in the datablock according to the QNH set for the AREA QNH Zone in which the aircraft is flying. This change is irrespective of whether the aircraft is climbing or descending.
At standard QNH 1013.2 the change occurs at F141
When an aircraft is climbing or descending in the transition layer, the altitude shown in the datablock is not necessarily that shown in the altimeter and reported by the pilot

41
Q

Describe the procedure to be followed in the event that a controller observes a discrepancy in the displayed Mode C derived level information in excess of the requirements…

A

The pilot shall be instructed to CHECK ALTIMETER SETTING and CONFIRM LEVEL
If the discrepancy persists the pilot shall be instructed to STOP SQUAWKING CHARLIE, WRONG INDICATION
All appropriate sectors/units shall be informed

42
Q

Which radar sector shall verify the Mode C derived level information and how is this achieved?

A

The first radar sector shall verify Mode C level information after departure, on entry into radar coverage or on initial contact by comparison with a pilot report
The tolerance values shall be +/- 200ft

43
Q

What phrase is used to verbally transfer radar identification?

A

RADAR IDENT (callsign)
SQUAWKING (SSR code)
POSITION (position and level)

44
Q

Can an APL be converted to a full Flight Plan

A

No

45
Q

What Meteorological information is required to be passed to flights being provided with an ATC services?

A

SIGMET
SPECIS
AMD TAF
Any signification information received from other pilots
Take-off and landing reports when not on ATIS

46
Q

How is failure of AIDC messaging recognised in Skyline, and what implications does it have?

A

A blinking of the datablock co-ord indication and/or an appropriate message on the CWP Attention Window means:
No further automatic processing of data across the FDP boundary will occur for that particular flight
Verbal/manual co-ordination must occur

47
Q

Detail the procedures to be followed in the event that a pilot of a civilian aircraft reports changing from IFR to VFR and intends vacating controlled airspace

A

Acknowledge the call:
[callsign]IFR FLIGHT CANCELLED AT [time]
*this is not a termination of the flight plan, rather a change in flight rules of an active plan. A SARTIME shall be requested.
If vacating controlled airspace, complete an IFR-VFR SAR conversion and advise pilot of FIO available on appropriate frequency

48
Q

Detail the procedure to be followed when a military flight cancels IFR and proceeds VFR, but indicates that it may later proceed IFR again

A

Mil flights will indicate HILO in the RMK field of the FPL
In accordance with LOA, ATS approach units shall advise or co-ordinate when the flight is proceeding VFR
When the flight is no longer subject to control, amend the CFL to 077
Leave the FPL to process normally
(should an IFR clearance be requested again, co-ordinate as required and amend the CFL to the cleared level)

49
Q

What does XX in the DEST field of an APL indicate

A

XX = no billing processing will occur

50
Q

What conditions must be met before permitting an aircraft to ‘MAINTAIN TERRAIN CLEARANCE VISUALLY”?

A

IFR flights arriving or departing under radar control
In VMC by day only
On pilot request

51
Q

What actions shall be taken on receipt of a STCA alert?

A
Identify the conflict
Assess conflict information
Carry out actions as necessary to:
ensure separation is maintained
regain separation (provide Essential Traffic Information)
provide radar traffic information
52
Q

Using Mode C derived level information, how do you determined that an aircraft has reached a level?

A

When an elapsed time of 15 seconds since the Mode C derived level indicates that it is within 200ft of the cleared level

53
Q

Using Mode C derived level information, how do you determine than an aircraft has vacated a level?

A

Mode C derived level indicates a change of 300ft or more in the anticipated direction from it’s previous assigned level

54
Q

How close to the edge of controlled airspace may and aircraft be vectored?

A

2nm to the edge of a CTR or CTR sector (unless co-ordinated)

5nm from an adjacent radar sector (unless co-ordinated or agreed in LOA/LUO)

55
Q

In which of the following bypass modes is STCA available?

A

RDP no
FDP yes
DUAL no

56
Q

How many minutes may elapse before alerting action must be taken if an IFR aircraft fails to report following EOBT supplied by the pilot for take-off from an unattended aerodrome?

A

Fails to report within 30 minutes after EOBT

Fails to report withing 15 minutes after advising readiness for take-off

57
Q

What is SARTIME and which sectors have responsibility for it’s function?

A

SARTIME is the time at which Search and Rescue action is initiated when a SARTIME is not amended, or a VFR flight plan, for which a SARTIME has been nominated, is not terminated.

58
Q

What is SARTIME and which sectors have responsibility for it’s function?

A

The sector/unit responsible for providing service in airspace within which the aircraft is operating
In the event of communication failure:
the airspace within which the aircraft was operating when the last communication was received; or
the airspace the aircraft was about to enter if the last communication was at or near the boundary
The airspace within which the destination AD is located if the aircraft is NORDO or not required to make reports

59
Q

At what stage should you commence initial checks to confirm the operational status of an aircraft once you recognise a possible irregularity in the flight?

A

Immediately

60
Q

Who is responsible for notifying the RCC following the declaration of an emergency phase?

A

The senior ATS person on duty at the unit; or

CHDM

61
Q

If an IFR flight fails to report when communication should have been received, or when attempts to establish communication with the aircraft have been unsuccessful, how many minutes may elapse before alerting action must be taken?

A

15 minutes

62
Q

If an IFR aircraft fails to arrive at the destination aerodrome, how many minutes may elapse after the ETA before alerting action must be taken?

A

15 minutes