Maternity/Women/Postpartum Flashcards

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1
Q

Naegele’s rule

A

calculation of expectation of date of delivery for pregnant clients:

last menstrual start period minus 3 months + 7 days + 1 year.

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2
Q

How to do a gestational diabetes mellitus screening? What dates do you use?

A

two step process: 1 hour glucose challenge test (GCT) that DOES NOT require fasting beforehand. The 1 hour GCT can be performed any time of day. If serum BG < 140 mg/dl, GDM is unlikely and no need for testing. If >140 mg/dl, client requires 2 or 3 hour glucose toelrance test (GTT) to diagnose GDM. patient ingests a 50 g glucose solution and nurse draws blood 1 hour later.

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3
Q

What is toxoplasmosis?

A

parasitic infection, acquired from infected cat feces or ingestion of undercooked meat or soil-contaminated fruits/veggies. The infection can be trasnferred to the fetus and potentially cause serious fetal harm (malformations, stillbirth, blindness, mental disability_. take precaution by washing produce to decrease exposure risk.

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4
Q

What is leukorrhea?

A

milky, thin white vaginal discharge normal during pregnancy. due to increased progesterone and estrogen. if discharge changes color, becomes malodorous, or causes itching/burning, further investigation is needed.

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5
Q

What hemoglobin levels in pregnancy are considered low?

A

<11 in first or third trimester, <10.5 g/dL in second trimester (risk for anemia)

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6
Q

what drug is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

NSAID in third trimester especially, due to risk of causing premature closure of the ductus arteriosus in the fetus. in 1st and 2nd trimesters, only take NSAId if the benefits outweighs the risks and under the supervision of a healthcare provider.

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7
Q

Is metronidazole safe for use during pregnancy?

A

Yes, it is an anti-infective but expect dark-colored urine as an expected side effect that is not a cause for concern.

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8
Q

What is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy?

A

a liver disorder exclusive to pregnancy. it can manifest with intense, generalized itching but no rash. itching on soles the hands and feet and worsens at night. it increases the risk of intrauterine fetal demise and requires priority assessment by the provider. management includes lab testing for elevated bile levels, fetal surveillance (biophysical profile, nonstress test), meds (ursodeoxycholic acid) and labor induction at 37 weeks gestation. this condition resolves after birth.

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9
Q

What is chloasma?

A

hormonally stimulated increase in pigmentation over the birdge of nose and cheeks that usually appears in second trimester. benign and fades postpartum.

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10
Q

what is PUPP?

A

pruritic urticartial pupules and plaques of pregnancyis a dermatologic condition that causes discomfort but is not harmful to patient. pruritic, raised lesions form within abdominal striae, spare the umbilicus, and may spread to the thighs, arms, legs, and back.

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11
Q

What are the features of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

A

unilateral abdominal pain, hypotension (dizziness, tachycardia), referred shoulder pain. the intra abdominal bleeding can lead to that referred shoulder pain.

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12
Q

What is hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

excessive nausea and vomiting, weight loss, often requiring fluid replacement and antiemetic therapy. the condition is not usually life threatening.

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13
Q

what is hydatifiorm mole?

A

molar pregnancy. It is a type of gestational trophoblastic disease that results from abnormal fertilization. IT causes rapidly growing trophoblastic tissue that is initially benign but may lead to gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN) (e.g. invasive mole, choriocarcinoma). the fetus is replaced by edamatous, cystic chorionic villi. If the trophoblastic tissue continues to grow or metastasize after evacuation of a molar pregnancy, levels of human chorionic gonadotropin will continue to increase. The importance of avoiding pregnancy is important to monitor rising hCG levels, which may indicate malignant GTN. Patients experiencing molar pregnancy should anticipate intermittent, dark brown vaginal discharge until the pregnancy is evacuated.

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14
Q

What is the expected weight gain during pregnancy?

A

weight gain should be 1.1-4.4 lb during first trimester regardless of BMI. If your BMi is normal prepregnancy, the patient should gain 25-35 lb over the course of the pregnancy. Gain 1 lb per week during second and third trimester.

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15
Q

What are signs of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock from ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

A

dizziness, hypotension, tachycardia

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16
Q

What are dietary sources of folic acid?

A

asparagus, turnip/mustard green, fortified breakfast cereal, cooked dried beans, lier, broccoli, spinach, green peas, fresh cooked beets, pasta, rice, tomato juice, oranges, peanut butter. Remember it is a water soluble B vitmin essential for RBC production. you need at MINIMUM 400 MCG a day to decrease the change of neural tube defects.

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17
Q

What is pica?

A

abnormal , compulsive cravings for nonfood items like ice, chalk, clay, dirt and paper. often accompanied with iron deficiency anemia .

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18
Q

Can HSV be transmitted during birth?

A

It can be transmitted to infant in utero, perinatally or postnatally as a result of direct contact with virus particles shed from infected vulva, vagina, cervix or perineum. Neonatal HSV has serious morbidity (permanent neurologic sequelae) and mortality. Immediate antiviral therapy like acyclovir helps reduce the risk of transmission to the newborn

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19
Q

What week is term gestation?

A

usually 39 weeks

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20
Q

What factor places a pregnant client at risk for preterm labor?

A

preterm birth is 37 weeks and 0 days gestation. infection (such as periodontal disease, UTI) is strongly associated with preterm labor, particularly when untreated. infection causes release of inflammatory mediators such as prostaglandins, which are uterotonic (promote contractions) and contribute to cervical softening.

other factors: hx of spontaneous preterm birth in a single pregnancy (**single largest independent risk factor),
previous cervical surgery such as cone biopsy since it weakens cervical support,
tobacco and/or illicit drug, maternal ages <17 or >35, maternal undernutrition, being a non-hispanic black women

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21
Q

What are the issues for infants born with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A

permanent neurodevelopmental abnormalities or dysmorphic facial features:

microcephaly, short palpebral fissures, epicanthal folds, flat midface, smooth philtrum, thin upper lip

the teratogenic risks of alcohol consumption for patients include miscarriage, preterm birth, low birth weight. NO AMOUNT OF ALCOHOL IS SAFE DURING PREGNANCY.

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22
Q

what is the differential diagnoses of antepartum bleeding? (4 cases)

A

normal labor, placental abruption, placenta previa, uterine rupture

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23
Q

What are common clinical features in:

normal labor, placental abruption, placenta previa, and uterine rupture

A

normal labor – intermittent pain with contractions, small amount of blood tinged mucus (bloody show)

placental abruption – sudden-onset vaginal bleeding, abdominal bleeding, hypertonic/tender uterus, tachysystole (frequent uterine contractions)

placenta previa – painless vaginal bleeding, ultrasound finding of placenta covering cervical os

uterine rupture – sudden-onset vaginal bleeding, constant abdominal pain, cessation of uterine contractions, loss of fetal station, fetal deterioration

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24
Q

What is placental abruption?

A

sudden-onset vaginal bleeding, abdominal bleeding, hypertonic/tender uterus, tachysystole (frequent uterine contractions)

occurs when the placenta separates prematurely from uterine wall, causing hemorrhage beneath the placenta. Abruptions are classified as partial, complete, or marginal and may be overt (visible vaginal bleeding) or concealed (bleeding behind placenta). risk factors include abdominal trauma, hypertension, cocaine use, hx of previous abruption, and preterm premature rupture of membranes.

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25
Q

What are lab values to look at during third trimester?

A

hemoglobin >11 g/dl
hematocrit >33%
RBCs 5-6.25 x 10^6/mm^3
platelets 150,000 – 400, 000 / mm^3

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26
Q

What is physiologic anemia of pregnancy?

A

reflected in lower hemoglobin and hematocrit values

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27
Q

what is aortocaval compression syndrome: cause and treatment

A

stablization after trauma: uterine displacement is the first step to address supine hypotension (due to aortocaval compression and decreased venous return to the heart) and promote blood circulation to the fetus. client should be tilted laterally on a backboard to promote venous return and protect client from further potential spinal injury.

manifestations: hypotension, pallor, dizziness. Reassess blood pressures after uterine displacement to identify persistent hyptoension since these symptoms mimic complications of trauma.

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28
Q

what type of birth should a patient have if they are diagnosed with placenta previa?

A

placenta implants near the cervis, and can cause massive blood loss and maternal/fetal compromise during cervical dilation and effacement. the increased risk of hemorrhage means a CESAREAN birth is planned for after 36 weeks gestation and prior to onset of labor.

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29
Q

What foods should a pregnant client stay away from?

A

unpasteurized, unwashed fruits and veggies, deli meat and hot dogs, raw fish/meat. avoid fish high in mercury like shark, swordfish, king mackerel, tilefish). avoid liver because high amount of vitamin A can be teratogenic.

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30
Q

What are subjective (presumptive) signs of pregnancy?

A

amenorrhea, N/V, urinary frequency, breast tenderness, quickening, excessive fatigue

31
Q

What are objective (probably) signs of pregnancy?

A

uterine and cervical changes (like Goodell sign, Chadwick sign, Hegar sign, uterine enlargement), Braxton Hicks contractions, Ballottement, fetal outline palpation, uterine and funic souffle (sounds made in the uterus), skin pigmentation changes, chloasma, linea nigra, areola darkening, striae darkening, positive pregnancy test

32
Q

What are positive (diagnostic) signs of pregnancy?

A

fetal heartbeat heard with Doppler device, fetal movement palpated by healthcare provider or visible fetal movements, visualization of fetus by use of ultrasound

33
Q

What does the ZIka virus do to pregnant clients’ babies?

A

it is transmitted via mosquitoes, sexual contact, and infected bodily fluids. IT causes viral symptoms (eg. low-grade fever, arthralgias) and has been shown to cause microcephaly, developmental dysfunction, and encephalitis in babies born to Zika-infected women. Avoid Zika-affected areas, proper mosquito precautions and safe sex practices should be utilized..

34
Q

What is a cervical cerclage?

A

A cervical cerclage is placed to prevent preterm delivery, usually in clients with history of second trimester loss or premature. A heavy suture is placed transvaginally or transabdominally to keep the internal cervical os closed. Placement occurs at 12-14 weeks gestation for clients with a history of cervical insufficiency (i.e. painless, premature cervical dilation and miscarriage or preterm delivery) or up to 23 weeks if signs of cervical insufficiency (short cervix) are noted. discharge instructions include activity restriction and recognition of signs of preterm labor and rupture of membranes. it stays in place until 36-37 weeks gestation.

35
Q

What are signs of preterm labor?

A

low back aches, contractions, pelvic pressure

36
Q

Why is long term bed rest contraindicated in pregnancy?

A

risk of deep vein thrombosis

37
Q

What are signs of magnesium toxicity? How do nurses treat it?

A

manifestations:

mild – nausea, flushing, headache, hyporeflexia
moderate – areflexia, hypocalcemia, somnolence
severe – respiratory paralysis, cardiac arrest

treatment: stop mag therapy, give IV calcium gluconate bolus

38
Q

What is IV magnesium sulfate administered for in pregnancy?

A

seizure (eclampsia) prophylaxis in pregnant clients with pre-eclampsia. a loading dose of 4-6 g, followed by maintenance of 1-2g/hr helps achieve therapeutic levels of 4-7 mEq/l. Mag toxicity occurs at >7. it causes central nervous system depression and blocks neuromuscular transmission.

39
Q

What is the earliest sin of magnesium toxicity?

A

absent or decreased deep tendon reflexes. normal findings should be 2+ when grading the DTRs on a 0 to 4+ scale.

40
Q

What are two medications used to lower blood pressure for women with pre-eclampsia?

A

Hydralazine and/or labetalol when >160/110 mmHg

41
Q

What interventions do nurses advise patients to use to help patients avoid morning sickness?

A

eating several small meals during the day (high in protein or carbs and low in fat),
drinking preferably clear, cold, carbonated beverages between –rather than with – meals
having a. high protein snack before bedtime and on awakening
consuming food/drinks with ginger (eg. ginger tea)
consuming foods high in vitamin B6 (nuts, seeds, legumes)

42
Q

What is considered fetal tachycardia?

A

> 160 beats/min for >10 minutes.

43
Q

When does BP increase or decrease for pregnant clients in terms of trimester?

A

steady, slight decrease in BP beginning in 1st trimester. reaching lowest point around 24-32 weeks gestation. In third trimester, BP gradually returns to pre-pregnancy baseline.

44
Q

What is GTPAL?

A

G – times a woman has been pregnant, regardless of outcome
T – number of pregnancies delivered at 37 w 0 d gestation and beyond
P – pregnancies delivered from 20 w 0d and beyond
A – pregnancies ending before 20wk; can be spontaneous miscarriage or induced abortions
L – current living children

the shorthand is for gravida (includes current pregnancy), term, preterm, abortion, living

45
Q

How to treat constipation during pregnancy?

A

high fiber diet, 10-12 cups of fluids daily, moderate intensity exercise, bulk forming fiber supplements like psylium, methylcellulose, wheat dextrin

46
Q

What is constipation in pregnancy sometimes caused by?

A

increased progesterone levels and iron supplementation

47
Q

What is a precipitous birth? what are interventions to use when this occurs?

A

when infant is born <3 hours after onset of contractions. keep newbron dry and skin-to-skin with mother to promote warmth. prevent cold stress that leads to newborn respiratory distress or hypoglycemia.

48
Q

Why do we do a fundal massage post brith?

A

after explusion of placenta to increase uterine tone and decrease bleeding

49
Q

If an infant has an infection due to Candida Albicans, what are the manifestations

A

oral candidasis (thrush) manifestations are white patches on the oral mucosa, palate, and tongue. patches are nonremovable and tend to bleed when touched. thrush is linked to ABX therapy or poor caregiver hand hygiene. the infection is usually self limiting but tx with a fungicide (nystatin) may hasten recovery.

50
Q

What is erythema toxicum neonatarum?

A

firm, white or yellow papules or pustules surrounded by erythema. the idiopathic rash, which closely resembles flea bites, appears in the first few days after birth and resolves within 5-7 days. there are no additional systemic effects and the rash requires no treatment.

51
Q

What are epstein pearls?

A

small, white cysts found on hard palate of newborns. they are considered common and disappear a few weeks after birth.

52
Q

What is a nursing intervention for newborn anencephaly?

A

give the newborn to parents in warm blanket. it is a severe newborn neural tube defect resulting in little or no brain tissue or skull formation. these newborns are born stillborn and any alive are not compatible with life. emotional support for the family is the priority.

53
Q

if the newborn heart rate is below 100/min, what interventions should be done?

A

Place newborn in warmer in sniffing position. stimulate newborn for 30s. positive pressure ventilation should be started when HR i s less than 100/min. effective PPV will result in return of spontaneous respirations or rising heart rate. start chest compressions if PPV is not improving HR after 30s.

54
Q

what are indications of preccamplsia?

A

new onset high BP >140/90 after 20 wks gestation, development of proteinuria with HTN, and manifestations of headache, visual disturbances, and facial edema.

55
Q

Testing vaginal secretions with a pH strip can differentiate between amniotic fluid (alkaline) and vaginal fluids (acidic). A bluish color (ph7) suggests rupture of membranes. What can cause a false positie?

A

presence of blood or semen in the body. client history of sex should alert the nurse about false positives due to semen in vagina.

56
Q

What should a nurse do if a pregnant client is indicated for a rubella titer as nonimmune?

A

administer measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine immediately postpartum. it is a live vaccine that is contraindicated in pregnancy because infection can be teratogenic for a fetus. The fetal effects of congenital rubella syndrome include congenital cataracts, deafness, hearts defects (patent ductus arteriosus) and cerebral palsy..

57
Q

in pregnancy, a pt with genital herpes and having an active herpes infection or prodromal symptoms (pain, burning, tingling on genitals), requires what kind of intervention?

A

a ceserean birth to prevent transmission to fetus.

58
Q

Why is supplemental formula feeding avoided when ineffective breastfeeding is present?

A

interferes with mother ability to breastfeed exclusively. only use fomrula after full assesment and other techniques like expression by hand are unsuccessful.

59
Q

What intervention do you include for lactational mastitis?

A

apply warm compresses to breast, increase oral fluid intake, take ibuprofen as needed for pain. Continue breastfeeding to ensure adequate milk drainage.

60
Q

What are manifestations of lactational mastitis?

A

muscle aches, fever, breast pain and inflammation like warmth, redness, edema.

61
Q

If a prolapsed cord is present in a laboring client, what should the nurse do?

A

manually elevate the cord, leave the hand in place and call for help. a knee-chest position is optimal

62
Q

What is necrotizing enterocolitis? what interventions should the nurse do?

A

conditions occurs primariily in preterm infants secondary to GI and immunologic immaturity. Enteric feeding introduces bacteria, which can result in inflammation and ischemic necrosis of the intestine. The disease progress results in the bowel being congested and gangrenous with gas collections forming inside the bowel wall. Nurses should measure the abdominal girth daily to note any worsening gas-associating swelling of the infant. the infant is NPO and received NG suction to decompress stomach and intestines. Parenteral hydration and nutrition and IV abx is given. Remember that rectal temp should be avoided due to risk of perforation of the colon. Place infant supine.

63
Q

At what gestational age do you find downy hair of lanugo on infants?

A

preterm newborns. it disappears around 36 weeks gestation.

64
Q

At what gestational age do you find creases on the sole of the foot of the fetus?

A

multiple creases or peeling is expected in a full or post term newborn (i.e.40wk+). a single crease is shown at 28 wks.

65
Q

What inerventions should the nurse expect in preterm labor?

A

administering Im antenatal glucocorticoids like dexamethasone, betamethasone) to stimulate fetla lung maturation and promote surfactant development, administer ABx to prevent infection in the newborn if preterm birth occurs,
initiatating IV magnesium sulfate infusion for fetal neuroprotection if at <32 wks gestation,
giving tocolytic medications (e.g. nifedipine, indomethacin
monitor pertinent lab results, including cultures for vaginal or UTI and group b streptococcus,
be on continuous fetal monitoring to assess for increasing frequency and duration of contractions and to evaluate fetal tolerance of labor

66
Q

what is the indirect Coombs test?

A

An Rh-negative mother exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood will cause the mother to develop antibodies to Rh antigen (Rh sensitization), placing current fetus and future pregnancies at risk for complications like hemolytic anemia. An indirect Coombs test is performed to screen for Rh sensitization any time hemorrhage secondary to placental abruption is suspected (e.g. maternal trauma like in a motor vehicle accident that causes fetomaternal hemorrhage in a separated mother and baby supply mechanism that already exists). the Rh immune globulin RhoGAM is administere to Rh-negative client at 28 weeks gestation and within 72hr postpartum to prevent development of permanent Rh antibodies. RhoGAM is not effective once sensitization occurs.

67
Q

What are priority labs for pregnancies when disseminated intravascular coagulation is a risk for patients who have placental abruption and intrauterine fetal demise?

A

DIC can progress QUICKLY. Thromboplastin from the retained dead fetus activated the clotting cascade, followed by consumption of clotting factors and platelets that leads quickly to life-threatening eternal and internal bleeding. Baseline lab tests that are a priority are coagulation studies, platelets, fibrinogen. These clots and bleeding are sudden and life-threatening.

68
Q

Why do we not administer Iv narcotic in labor?

A

it can cross the placenta and cause neonatal respiratory depression when administered close to birth. they are generally not administered in second stage of labor.

69
Q

What are signs of placental abruption? What should the nurse do?

A

dark red vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, rigid uterus, abnormal fetal HR patterns, uterine tachysystole. immediately report to the provider because emergency C-section is common if the patient condition deteriorates.

70
Q

What is HELLP syndrome?

A

elevated liver enzymes are a severe feature of preeclampsia caused by impaired liver perfusion (end organ damage) and part of diagnostic criteria for HELLP syndrome (hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets). HELLP requires prompt action because the definitive treatment is giving birth.

71
Q

Why is ptosis concerning in an assessment finding of a neonate?

A

it is drooping of the eyelid below the level of the pupil, which could indicate the paralysis of the occulmotor nerve. At time of birth, there should be no cranial nerve abnormalities

72
Q

What are nitrazine pH tests for?

A

used to detect leaking amniotic fluid, most often if premature (prelabor) rupture of membranes is suspected.

73
Q

What do late decelerations mean? What interventions are important?

A

they are evidence of impaired fetal oxygenation. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion, changing maternal positions, administering oxygen, and giving an IV fluid bolus are essential interventions.

74
Q

what are important things in infant CPR?

A

checking brachial pulse no longer than 10 seconds, single rescuers should perform CPR at 30:2 compression-to-breath ratio, and when two rescuers are involved, the ratio is 15:@. Chest compressions should be done at depth equal to 1/3 of the anterior-posterior diameter (4cm) and allow for recoil between compressions.