Maternity Flashcards
A woman at 38 weeks’ gestation comes to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following statements, if made by the client, suggests to the nurse placenta previa as the cause of the bleeding?
1. "I feel fine, but the bleeding scares me." 2. "I've been more nauseated during the past few weeks." 3. "The bleeding started after I carried four bags of groceries." 4. "I've been having severe abdominal cramps."
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: All answers are assessments. Think about what each phrase is describing and how it relates to a placenta previa.
(1) correct—placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding
(2) nausea not a symptom of placenta previa
(3) bleeding is not necessarily related to activity
(4) pain not characteristic of placenta previa
The nurse administers terbutaline (Brethine) to a client in labor. Prior to administration of the medication, the nurse assesses the client’s pulse to be 144. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST?
1. Withhold the medication. 2. Decrease the dose by half. 3. Administer the medication. 4. Wait 15 minutes, and then recheck the rate.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Is this a situation that requires validation? No. Determine the outcome of each answer choice.
(1) correct—maternal tachycardia is a side effect of Brethine; other maternal side effects include nervousness, tremors, headache, and possible pulmonary edema; fetal side effects include tachycardia and hypoglycemia; Brethine is usually preferred over ritodrine (Yutopar) because it has minimal effects on blood pressure
(2) should never change a prescribed dosage of medication
(3) should not be given with a high pulse rate
(4) assessment; maternal tachycardia is a side effect of Brethine; medication should be withheld
Which of the following is a correctly stated nursing diagnosis for a client with an abruptio placentae?
1. Infection related to obstetrical trauma. 2. Potential for fetal injury related to abruptio placentae. 3. Potential alteration in tissue perfusion related to depletion of fibrinogen. 4. Fluid volume deficit related to bleeding.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Think about each answer choice.
(1) inaccurate for the situation
(2) incorrectly stated
(3) incorrectly stated
(4) correct—abruptio placentae is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta leading to hemorrhage; fluid volume deficit is a major nursing concern with these clients
A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) is at 39 weeks’ gestation. The client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. The client’s vital signs are BP 127/72; pulse 72 bpm; cervix is 4 cm dilated; FHT 124 bpm; moderate contractions are 4 minutes apart. The nurse should anticipate the need for which of the following?
1. Prepare to administer IV Pitocin to the client. 2. A reduction in the amount of pain medication administered. 3. Check the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes. 4. Prepare an isolette for the infant.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does the assessment make sense? No. Determine the outcome of each intervention.
(1) uterine contractions not affected by MS
(2) correct—less pain medication is required because of overall decrease in pain perception due to MS
(3) no reason to assess this frequently
(4) baby’s outcome not affected by MS
The nurse cares for clients in the antepartal clinic. A client at 34 weeks’ gestation comes to the clinic for treatment of a sprained ankle. The nurse should question which of the following orders?
1. ASA (aspirin) 650 mg PO q4h prn for pain. 2. Return to the clinic in 2 weeks. 3. Apply ice to sprain for 20 minutes qh for 24 hours. 4. Teach client three-gait crutch walking.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired?
(1) correct—aspirin can cause fetal hemorrhage; do not use during pregnancy
(2) routine follow-up
(3) treat sprain with rest and elevation of affected part; intermittent ice compresses for 24 hours
(4) appropriate gait if client unable to bear weight
Which of the following nursing actions is important for safe administration of oxytocin?
1. Assess respirations and urine output. 2. Administer oxytocin parenterally as the primary IV. 3. Have calcium gluconate available as an antidote. 4. Palpate the uterus frequently.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Is there an appropriate assessment? Yes.
(1) assessment; pertinent to the care of a client receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia
(2) implementation; oxytocin is always given via an infusion pump and is never allowed to be the primary IV
(3) implementation; pertinent to the care of a client receiving magnesium sulfate for pre-eclampsia
(4) correct—assessment; oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract, which necessitates frequent assessment of the uterus; prolonged tetanic contraction can lead to a ruptured uterus
The nurse observes late deceleration of the fetal heart rate while the client is receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) IV to stimulate labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST?
1. Discontinue the infusion. 2. Turn client to the left side. 3. Change the fluids to Ringers lactate. 4. Increase the IV flow rate.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired?
(1) correct—will decrease contractions and thus possibly remove uterine pressure to the fetus, which is possibly cause of deceleration
(2) may help the deceleration, but is not a priority
(3) will have no influence on the fetal heart rate
(4) will have no influence on the fetal heart rate
The nurse cares for an 8-lb, 8-oz newborn. The infant’s history indicates the mother was given magnesium sulfate IV 4 g in 250 mL D5W several hours before delivery. The nurse is MOST concerned if which of the following was observed?
1. Temperature 97.6°F (36.5°C). 2. Apical pulse 140 bpm. 3. Respirations 18/min. 4. BP 80/50.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: “MOST concerned” indicates a complication.
(1) normal temperature 98.6°F (37.0°C), magnesium sulfate does not affect temperature
(2) normal pulse 120-140 bpm, magnesium sulfate does not affect cardiac system of infant
(3) correct—magnesium sulfate can cause slowing of respirations and hyporeflexia; normal respirations 30-60/min
(4) normal BP 60/40-80/50, magnesium sulfate does not affect BP
The lab reports a lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 3:1 for a client who has been on bedrest 48 hours in an unsuccessful attempt to arrest premature labor at 33 weeks’ gestation. Based on this result, the nurse anticipates which of the following?
1. Administration of ritodrine hydrochloride (Yutopar). 2. Initiation of an oxytocin (Pitocin) drip. 3. Delivery of the infant by cesarean section. 4. Continuation of bedrest until otherwise indicated.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Determine the significance of each answer choice and how it relates to the L/S ratio.
(1) no longer necessary, as the results indicate sufficient lung maturity for safe delivery
(2) although the lungs are mature enough for safe delivery, client would either be allowed to progress naturally to a vaginal delivery or would be sectioned, but not induced
(3) correct—because the lungs are adequately mature, there is no need to attempt to postpone labor; delivery by cesarean section is generally preferred for preterm infants
(4) is no longer necessary with adequately mature lungs
for a client in her third trimester of pregnancy. The nurse is MOST concerned by which of the following assessments?
1. The client complains of epigastric pain. 2. The client complains of shortness of breath. 3. The client states she has increased rectal pressure. 4. The client has gained of 33 pounds during her pregnancy.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Think about the cause of each symptom and how it relates to pregnancy.
(1) correct—is usually indicative of an impending convulsion
(2) expected observation
(3) expected observation
(4) is important to address, but is not as high a priority as answer choice 1
Prior to a caesarean section delivery, a client is treated for abruptio placenta. The nurse cares for the woman during the postpartum period. Which of the following symptoms is suggestive of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
1. The client's vital signs are: BP 90/58, temperature 101.0°F (38.3°C), pulse 112/min, respirations 18/min. 2. The client’s laboratory results are Hgb 13 g/dL, HCT 40%, WBC 7,000/ mm3. 3. The client is nauseated, lethargic, and has vomited three times. 4. There is oozing blood from the venipuncture site and abdominal incision.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Determine how each answer choice relates to DIC.
(1) may indicate hemorrhage or sepsis
(2) results normal, DIC would be reflected in clotting studies (PT, PTT)
(3) nonspecific, could be related to anesthesia or pain medication
(4) correct—DIC is an acquired clotting disorder from overstimulation, prolonged oozing from sites of minor trauma first symptom
A 20-year-old primipara attends a class for women who plan to breast feed. To prepare for breast feeding, the nurse should encourage the women to do which of the following?
1. Apply moisturizer to the breasts every day after bathing. 2. Expose the breasts to air every day for 20 minutes. 3. Wash breasts with water and rub with a towel every day. 4. Massage the breasts to increase circulation twice daily.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired?
(1) use of creams not recommended, could cause breast tissues to become tender, sebaceous glands keep skin pliable
(2) doesn’t prepare breasts for feeding
(3) correct—prepares nipples for stretching action of sucking during breast feeding, soap avoided to prevent drying
(4) could cause breast tissues to become tender
The nurse makes rounds on the postpartum unit. The nurse notes that a client’s uterus is relaxed. The nurse should take which of the following actions?
1. Put the infant to the woman's breast. 2. Encourage the woman to drink warm oral fluids. 3. Check the woman's pulse and respirations. 4. Continue to monitor the firmness of the uterus.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require validation? No. Determine the outcome of each implementation.
(1) correct—implementation, causes natural surge of oxytocin that results in contraction of uterus
(2) implementation, has no effect on contraction of uterus
(3) assessment, not best action, situation does not suggest that patient is in shock
(4) assessment, needs manual massage or release of natural oxytocin to contract uterus
The nurse enters the room of a 17-year-old mother breast feeding her 6-lb, 7-oz infant girl. Which of the following observations, if made by the nurse, BEST indicates that mother-infant bonding is taking place successfully?
1. The mother is looking into her infant's eyes as she feeds her. 2. The mother and infant are laying side-by-side in the bed. 3. The mother appears to be relaxed and is reading a book on childcare. 4. The mother interrupts feeding the infant to talk to her roommate.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Determine how each answer choice relates to bonding.
(1) correct—shows bonding behavior of eye-to-eye contact, proceeds to touching and holding
(2) shows distance between mother and infant
(3) doesn’t involve communication between mother and infant
(4) shows distance between mother and infant
The nurse reviews histories in the prenatal clinic. The nurse identifies which of the following pregnant women is MOST likely to have an Rh-incompatibility problem?
1. An Rh-positive woman pregnant for the third time who conceived with an Rh-negative man. The woman has never received RhoGAM. 2. An Rh-negative woman who conceived with an Rh-positive man. The woman has Rh antibodies. 3. An Rh-positive woman who previously aborted a fetus at 12 weeks’ gestation and did not receive RhoGAM. The woman currently conceived with an Rh-positive man. 4. An Rh-negative woman who never received RhoGAM. The woman currently conceived with an Rh-negative man.
Show/hide explanation
Strategy: Think about each answer choice.
(1) incompatibility only seen with Rh-negative woman
(2) correct—Rh-positive dominant, fetus will be Rh-positive, Rh antibodies from the mother will break down fetus’s blood cells
(3) incompatibility only seen with Rh-negative woman
(4) infant would be Rh-negative like parents, so there would be no incompatibility