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19/03 T-FUN > master trans > Flashcards

master trans Flashcards

don't suck on trans gk

1
Q

nose gear ext.

A

3.5in apx

normal cg

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2
Q

hydraulic fluid levels

A

1.2 gallon full, .8 fill .6 ann. and tone

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3
Q

px of fire bottle

A

600psi @ 70 degree F.

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4
Q

green o2 dic missing means what

A

service the o2 system. ask crew chief

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5
Q

how many sniffle valves

A

5, 2 each wing, 1 gravity refuling door

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6
Q

how long is a bpo good for

A

72 hrs unless flown, then end of duty day

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7
Q

what is the chine on the nose wheel

A

directs flow of water\slush away from engines during high speed ops

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8
Q

nose chord tire limit

A

0

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9
Q

main strut ext.

A

1.1 in min

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10
Q

chord limit mains

A

0 xc, 2 o&b, no red local

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11
Q

tire pix limits

A

125+/- 5 main, 120 +/- 5 nose

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12
Q

how long is a tire px good for

A

6hrs. unless flown-then end of duty day

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13
Q

can a pilot sign a red “X”

A

no

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14
Q

what is a n exceptional release

A

ac safe for flight, its been reviewed

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15
Q

can a pilot sign for an Exceptional RElease

A

yes, for his own flt

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16
Q

can fuel be drop/dripping from sniffle valves

A

can be drops. but not actively dripping

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17
Q

how many static wicks

A

12, dissipate static. none can be missing without og approval. they can be missing if og approves flight to home station

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18
Q

what is the gauge next to the aft access door

A

power brake px gauge. normal 900psi+/- 50 nitrogen

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19
Q

how many emergency lights

A

4

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20
Q

why does the stick shaker activate twice during test.

A

high and low alt stall warnings.

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21
Q

does the aoa indexer effect stall test

A

no

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22
Q

what lights don’t come on during lamp test

A

gnd comm/ eng start (2)/ st dissenguage/ elt/ red gear nose

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23
Q

what does it mean with a blown fire bottle disc

A

consult mx

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24
Q

why does the ac bus shed light con on during the EMER test

A

the 2 inverter is being powered by the emer buss and inverter 1 is offline

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25
Q

how do we test oil qnt

A

press button look for light/ no light check dipstick and fill

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26
Q

when must anti ice be used during ground ops

A

5 degree c or colder visable moisture

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27
Q

which door seal inflates

A

the one attached to the fuselage

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28
Q

what are the wing leading edge scoop and wingtip vent scoops for

A

work togather to add ambient air to the bleed air for anti ice system

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29
Q

what is the wing fuel tank px scoop for

A

used to help keep px on the fuel on the wing fuel as the amount decreeses

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30
Q

max power aloud during ground ops

A

70% n2

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31
Q

min speed for anti skid

A

14kts wheels speed, 37 kts from landing. or 2.5 seconds weight on wheels

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32
Q

min taxi distance

A

150ft normal 300 night ice/snow

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33
Q

when do we need a wing walker

A

less then 25ft

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34
Q

what happens when we discharge hand fire bottle

A

it all goes not multi use

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35
Q

how long do u have to wait for anti skid test

A

4 seconds after moving the switch back to off and applying brakes

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36
Q

during a abort apply brakes no later then

A

critical field length

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37
Q

brake energy limit for landing

A

8.1 mil foot lbs. 4.05 each side

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38
Q

how much brake energy during taxi

A

.5 mil normal. 2 mil down hill

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39
Q

what type of hydro pump does the toner have

A

engine driven variable displacement. 3.9 gpm.

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40
Q

normal hydro px

A

1500psi

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41
Q

should you reset a bus feeder cb

A

no

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42
Q

when do speed brakes auto retract

A

above t/o throttles (about 88%n1) or flaps greater then 10

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43
Q

what happens when you move the master gen switch to emer? how do u power the emer buss

A

only the stby bus will be powered, must move the bat switch to emer.

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44
Q

cross feeding from the left tank turns on what boost pump

A

left

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45
Q

how long does brake heat to fully disapate

A

15min

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46
Q

how long should you wait before approaching a hot brakes situation

A

30 min

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47
Q

hot brakes, should you set the PB?

A

heck no!

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48
Q

when you must request clearance into moa

A

when you will be ascending or decending into it. not trans level or direct iter level

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49
Q

what conderations are assumed in told

A 
3 degree approach to 50ft ops height
idle at 50ft 
1.4 seconds from touchdown to taxi att
max breaking with anti skid
rcr 23
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50
Q

how often do we calculate mct

A

every 5k feet

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51
Q

how long does normal gear ext take

A

7 seconds

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52
Q

emer ext takes how long

A

30 seconds

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53
Q

how far must emer gear handle be pulled

A

10 inches

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54
Q

when does ldg warning horn sound

A

gear not down flaps 0 or 10 power below 70% n2. horn can be silenced

gear not down flaps past 10. can not silence horn

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55
Q

speeds for steep turn

A

160, 200, 230

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56
Q

what check must you do before TP stall

A 
YAMS 20/20
yaw damp off
aoa 1.3
mct posted 
speed
below 200 and fl 200
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57
Q

what are restrictions for unusual attitudes

A

5000 agl, start recovery before 130kias, and below 270kias. don’t exceed 45 degrees aob, max pitch 25 nh 20 nl. don’t use over mct

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58
Q

what type of check before entering area and each manuiver

A

Abcde. altimeter, boarder, cruise check, clear, siscrete, established

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59
Q

what is a good lead point for vert s level climb decent

A

10% vvi

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60
Q

what is the normal aim point for 30 flaps vis st in

A

1000 ft

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61
Q

a 500 ft aim point corresponds to TCH of what

A

20 ft

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62
Q

what is desired TCH

A

20-60ft

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63
Q

what is max decent rate

A

600vvi

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64
Q

what is touchdown speed

A

6kias less then apch speed

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65
Q

can we do simulated ep patterns at night

A

yes, wx must be better then 2000/3

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66
Q

min speed for a closed pull up

A

160

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67
Q

min speed for downwind

A

config approach speed

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68
Q

min speed for turns greater then 15

A

vap+10

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69
Q

max angle of bank in traffic patt

A

30 during final turn . 45 everwhere else

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70
Q

can you do practice full stop no flap landings

A

no

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71
Q

min vfr wx

A

1500/3

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72
Q

can the tfun fly multiple patterns in mod icing

A

nope

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73
Q

can the t-1 climb through/ decent severe icing

A

nope

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74
Q

what is the min COF

A

min climb out factor is 2.5

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75
Q

what is hot brakes

A

between 8.1 and 14.8 mil ft lbs

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76
Q

what is landing ground roll out

A

distance covered between td and full stp using normal braking

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77
Q

what is ref speed

A

30flp app speed

78
Q

what is distance to ref zero

A

t/o gdr run + takeoff flare distance
split markers CFL
+to flare

79
Q

what is ref zero

A

the point in space at the end of the takeoff flare distance at which the ac reaches 50ft above the rwy elevation. occur no later then DE of rwy

80
Q

rcr conditions

A

23 dry good
12 wet med
05 icy poor

81
Q

how many lbs are added for an empty seat

A

30lbs

82
Q

how many lbs are added for a occupied seat

A

200

83
Q

max fuel px refueling

A

771 gal 5166 lbs

84
Q

max fuel gravity refueling

A

7398 gal 4951 lbs

85
Q

max fuel imbal t/g0

A

100lbs

86
Q

max fuel imbal ldg

A

300lbs

87
Q

what is responsible for engine fuel flow up to 38%

A

the hmu

88
Q

what is the max trust loss due to efc fail

A

40% depending on alt

89
Q

what is the max spool down due to right engine sync fail

A

1.5%

90
Q

normal itt during start

A

550

91
Q

how many seconds should it take the engine to light off after moving throttle to idle

A

10 sec

92
Q

what does if mean if LF FLTR BYPASS LIGHT

A

> 2.3 +/-.2 PIS DIF. engine is getting unflilterd fuel

93
Q

how many fuel takes in the tfun

A

6, after cab, aft fuse. 2 mids (right to left) 2 wings (tip to base sts )

94
Q

what is in the aft fuselage tank to help prevent fire

A

safty foam

95
Q

what are the boost pumps used for

A

eng start
fuel cross feed
back up for primary jet pmp
helps forward transfer pump

96
Q

in auto mode, the boost pump will operate when

A

Fuel feed line px drops below 5psi
fuel feed chamber drops below 11 gal
engine start is selected
during fuel cross feed

97
Q

3 types of px relief valves used in the fuel system

A

sniffle valves- allow both fuel and air to be vented
float check valves- allow only air to be vented
px relief valves- provide over px protection durrng single point refueling

98
Q

when will sniffle valves allow air in

A

internal vac greater then .1 to.3 psi

99
Q

when do sniffle valves vent air/fuel over

A

when internal px is >5psi more then ambient px

100
Q

how many check valves are installed In the fuel system

A

13

101
Q

how many flapper valves are installed throughout the wing tank

A

9 in each, 2 in the fuselage tank

102
Q

when does the r or l low fuel px go on

A

less then 5psi +/-.5

103
Q

wg tk ov px

A

greater then 3.5 +/- .5 px

104
Q

if fuel indicator fail what does the gauge do

A

moves off the scale below the zero mark to indicate inop

105
Q

when does the L or R fuel low ann go on

A

lessthe 32 gallons/200 usable fuel

106
Q

when does the l or r fuel feed illuminate

A

less then 11 gal/70lbs

107
Q

when does l or r fuel feed extinguish

A

when the fuel feed chamber has more then 13.5gal

108
Q

what is the cap. of the fuel feed chamber

A

20 gallons

109
Q

L or R xfer press lo means what

A

less then 5+/- .5 psi anf fuel remains in mid tanks

110
Q

max fuel transfer rate

A

1800/lbs per hour

111
Q

when do fuel transfer pumps turn off automatically

A

fuel level in mid tanks reaches slightly above empty AND transfer line px drops below 5 +/- 5 psi

112
Q

what kind of battery does the tfun have

A

24v 40 amper lead acid

113
Q

where is the main bat located

A

the aft fuselage compartment

114
Q

what protects the battery from ground fault

A

batt feeder protection unit

115
Q

what powers the emer bus

A

generators by charging the bat and then through the emer bus power relay

116
Q

what does placing the batt to emer do to the electric system

A

disenguages the battery relay and battery tie in relay in relay from the start bus. the emer bus pwr relay closes, the battery now powers the emer and stby bus.

117
Q

what do the starter/gen require to provide the rated power

A

58% n2

118
Q

what does the gpu do

A

G. ground fault protection
O. over volt protection
R. revers flow protection
E. equalization of the systems loads

119
Q

when is the battery considered to be low

A

less then 22 volts

120
Q

what comprises the standby power sub systems

A

Standby bat power sub system
Ahrs batt sub system
Emergency supply subsystem

121
Q

how long doe the standby bat last

A

apx 30 min load pending

122
Q

what does the stand by buss power

A 
C-Copilots inst lights 
R-rtu 1
U-uhf radio
I-left itt
S-tand by att indicator
E- Efc start
123
Q

what provides ground fault protection

A

the batt protection circuits

124
Q

where is the AHRS bat located

A

avionics rack

about 11min

125
Q

what supplies the charge current to the stand by bat bus

A

emer bus

126
Q

with the inverters in auto, what happens if the no.1 inverter fails

A

the no 2 inverter will automatically power the primary ac bussess and discontinue powering the secondary bus.

127
Q

what happens if you place the inverter selector switch to the NO.1 position

A

forces the no 1 iverter to power the primary bus by bypassing the fault sensing circuit

128
Q

what type of circuit breakers do we have

A

we have push pull type. rocker and toggle

129
Q

what temp is a required for a gpu start

A

5 degrees f

130
Q

what does the hydraulics system supple pressure to

A

flaps
speed brakes
power brakes
landing gear

131
Q

what drives the hydraulic pump

A

the engine associated with the pump

132
Q

how many pumps-are they both required

A

2 and no

133
Q

what would you expect if there is a rupture in the hydraulic line

A

total loss of H px. and use of the hydraulic system

134
Q

what types of pumps do we have

A

variable displacement

135
Q

what is the output of each pump

A

3.9 gpm 0(1500 psi) 3.9 (1400 psi)

136
Q

what is the capacity of the hydro resivour

A

1.2

137
Q

what is normal px in the hydro system

A

1350-1550 (1500 normal)

138
Q

when does the hydro px over px valve auto open

A

1650psi

139
Q

when do you have to auto relieve the hydro px

A

1850 flip the switch and it will dump the px

140
Q

when does the hydro l r pmp press low light illuminate

A

below 750 psi

141
Q

when does they HYD Level Lo ann come on

A

.6 gals

142
Q

how many filters are there in the hydro system

A
  1. one for each pump one on the return line and one air filter
143
Q

what is max rudder pedal deflection of the nose wheel

A

25 degrees either side of center

144
Q

what is the max caster of the nose wheel with rudder pedals and differential braking

A

up to 45 degrees

145
Q

who controls the breaking

A

who ever is putting the most force

146
Q

what are the 3 types of braking

A

manual, power, anti skid

147
Q

can manual braking be relied on for braking from high energy states

A

nope

148
Q

what is the nitrogen accumulator charged to

A

900 +/- 50psi

149
Q

what does the n2 accumulator do

A

stabilizes the hydraulic px drurring flucts of the hydraulic system

150
Q

how much nitrogen is available for emergency braking

A

7-10 applications 7-9 if used to close the main door

151
Q

when would the flap asym ann illuminate

A

greater then 7 degree main flap asym

152
Q

other then the announcator what else does the flap asym do..

A

it kills electrical power to the main flaps

153
Q

when will the speed brake auto retract

A

88% n1 or flaps beyond 10

154
Q

if you fail to set the proper aoa what could this cause

A

erroneous on speed indications

155
Q

how long can the standby bat attitude indicator work and how accurate is it after total electrical power

A

+/- 6 degrees for 9 min

156
Q

what can cause tail pipe fire

A

excess fuel being introduced into the tail pipe section prior to ignition

157
Q

is anti skid available during emer braking

A

nope

158
Q

what is the most likely cause of steering loss

A

torque link safety pin not installed

159
Q

what is the primary concern during emer gd egress

A

safety

160
Q

what is the chart performance chart based on in terms of braking

A

max braking

161
Q

what is max braking

A

immediately depress the toe brakes in one smooth continuous application and do not release them

162
Q

what should you do if tire failure occurs prior to s1

A

abort the t/o

163
Q

what should you do with flaps if you have a tire fail after s1

A

stay configured

164
Q

what speed will you maintain if you fly single engine autopilot coupled approach

A

vapp + 5

165
Q

what is the source of power for an air start

A

the battery

166
Q

what is the min and max speed for an airstart

A

100 and 250 kts

167
Q

what is the envelope for a windmilling start

A

200-250kts and requires at least 8% n2

168
Q

can the auto pilot be enguaged with the pitch trim in the emer position

A

nope

169
Q

how long does it take the bleed air to purge the system of smoke

A

apx 20 seconds

170
Q

what is the absolute px regulator setting for the cabin px

A

12,500 +/- 1500

171
Q

what alt is required to preform a controllability check

A

more then 8000agl but less than 20k

172
Q

what airspeed must you never decrease below during a controllability check

A

any airspeed where full control deflection is required

173
Q

how much should you add to computed 30flap ldg distance with 0 hydro px

A

90%

174
Q

what approach speed is required for ice accumulation of apx 1.5 inches

A

vap+35

175
Q

whats max air speed

A

330 or .78 mach

176
Q

normal o2 px

A

1600-1850psi

177
Q

min max fuel temp

A

-40c to 50c

178
Q

normal n2 px

A

1350-1650psi

179
Q

normal hydraulic system px

A

1350-1550 psi

180
Q

what are the acceleration limits flaps up

A

-1.0 to 3.2

181
Q

acceleration limits flaps extened

A

0 to 2.0

182
Q

how many ft lbs of brake energy cause brake failure

A

14.8

183
Q

when do the thermal fuse plugs on the brakes release

A

8.1 million ft lbs

184
Q

min max voltage of gpu

A

28v/28.5v

185
Q

when must windshield heat be used

A

above fl 180

186
Q

when are you alound to use wing heat during ground ops

A

before t/0 test and landing rollout

187
Q

min max ambient enroute temp

A

-65 to 35 degrees c

188
Q

yaw damper must be used

A

above fl 280

189
Q

what is the definition of a restricted low appch

A

no lower then 500ft agl or as directed

190
Q

when is the cruise check not required

A

when the enroute is to a aux field is apx 15 min

191
Q

what is the roll out lead point for turns of 30 degrees AOB

A

5 degrees

192
Q

what is the roll out for lead points of 45 degrees AOB

A

10 degrees

19/03 T-FUN (4 decks)

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