Master Class Flashcards
What is the GPS box called?
CDU (Control Display Unit)
The FMS (Flight Management System) is the software displayed on the CDU
Severe Turbulence Penetration Speed
280 knots
.76 Mach
Whichever is less
What is the panel called above me?
Forward overhead panel
Aft overhead panel
Minimum Fuel Temperature
-37 C
Unless actual fuel freezing point is known
RUNAWAY STABILIZER
CONTROL COLUMN …. Hold Firmly
AP (IF ENGAGED) … Disengage
AT (IF ENGAGED) …. Disengage
CONTROL COLUMN AND THRUST LEVERS …. Control aircraft pitch attitude and airspeed
MAIN ELECTRIC STAB TRIM …. Reduce control column forces
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~
IF THE RUNAWAY STOPS AFTER AP IS DISENGAGED … Do not re-engage AP or AT
IF THE RUNAWAY CONTINUES AFTER AP IS DISENGAGED …. Stab Trim cutout switches CUTOUT
IF THE RUNAWAY CONTINUES …. Stabilizer Trim Wheel grasp and hold
If the center tank contains more than 1,000 lbs of fuel, the ________________
Main wing tanks must be scheduled to be full
For ground operation, the center tank fuel pump switches must ___________________
Must not be positioned ON unless center tank fuel quantity exceeds 1,000 lbs, except when defueling or transferring fuel
Maximum takeoff and landing altitude
8,400 feet
Maximum engine start EGT
725 C
Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Limits
15 knots
Three ways to get out approach mode
- Change the NAV frequency
- TOGA
- Cycle the F/Ds with the AP off
Ground operation of electric hydraulic pumps requires a minimum of _________ lbs in the respective wing fuel tank
1,675 lbs
Minimum Temperature for takeoff and landing
-54 C
Do not engage the AP below ______ ft AGL on takeoff
1000 ft AGL
Crew Oxygen Bottle Pressure
1850 PSI at 21 C
Refer to cabin refrence table
in the Flight Handbook
With one or both ENG Bleed air switches on, what is the limitation for operating air condition packs?
With either one or both ENG Bleed air switches ON, do not operate air conditioning packs in HIGH for takeoff approach or landing
If you move the FLT DK DOOR switch to DENY it will deactivate the keypad for how long?
5 minutes
Order of dealing with an emergency
- Recall items
- QRC
- QRH
Do not contact maintenance in flight to troubleshoot an issue
How many minutes does passenger oxygen last?
12 minutes
What does the CAB/UTIL switch do?
When positioned ON, the CAB/UTIL switch provides power from the transfer buses to the GALLEY BUSES.
Along with powering the galley buses, it also powers heaters, the door area, drain mast, the lav, the logo light, and water compressor.
Maximum operating speed limit
Vmo / Mmo
or gear/flaps placardings
What does a dim colored blue light mean?
The switch (or valve) is in its proper selected position
What is the Master Caution light for?
Its to alert you of lights only on panels that are out of view
Pushing the Master Caution button will do what?
- Extinguish the MC light
- Resets the MC system for future failures
When are the FWD and AFT over wing exits automatically locked?
The canopy type doors are type III emergency exits and can be opened from the inside or outside. They open upward and outward.
The emergency exits lock when:
- A minimum of 3 of 4 entry service doors are closed with either engine running
AND - The aircraft air/ground logic indicates that the aircraft is in air or both thrust levers are advanced on the ground
Engine Start Switches
must be in the CONT position for:
Takeoff, Landing, Anti-ice operation
Hail, Sleet, Moderate to Heavy Rain
Except for an engine start, the _________ valve must be in the closed position when another source is pressurizing the left bleed air duct
APU Bleed Valve
Maximum Altitude for utilizing Bleed (only) off the APU
17,000 feet
Maximum Altitude for utilizing Bleed and Electrical load from the APU
10,000 feet
Which FMC is primary?
Left
Prior to shutting down the APU, first close the APU Bleed air switch _____ minutes prior
1 minute prior
But the time delay is automatically built in, so not really 🤦🏻
When the APU is selected OFF, has the required time delay been met?
Yes, the required 1 min time delay has been satisfied.
If we lose GPS 1 will we receive a GPS caution light?
No, because there is a GPS 1 and 2 and therefore they are redundant systems
Maximum Altitude to use electrical only from the APU
41,000 feet
What is another name for the entry doors?
L1, R1, L2, R2
Engines must be warmed up for ____ minutes prior to takeoff
3 minutes
Maximum time limit for takeoff thrust
5 minutes
(10 minutes single engine)
If AC power is not available, what FIRE or OVHT detection is not available to test?
Wheel well fire warning and cargo fire detection
What does this switch provide?
It permits selection of loop A or B or both together as detecting loops.
It also acts as a single loop detector. If one of the loops has failed, deselecting it will allow for the other loop to take over sole duty of detecting fire or overheats.
How many engine fire bottles do we have and where are they located?
2
They are located in the upper left hand corner of the main wheel well. They are halon fire extinguishers with a nitrogen pre-charge.
What will the APU do when the APU Fire is detected?
APU will automatically shutdown
What are the indications of an APU fire?
• Fire Warning Bell 🔔
• Both Master Fire Warning Lights
• APU Fire switch handle illuminates red
On the cargo compartment fire test panel, what do the two green EXT lights test?
The green lights illuminate when the fire bottle discharge squib circuit is normal
Does the main wheel well area have fire detection?
Yes, but no fire extinguishing system
What Engine and APU fire protection do we have?
• Engine overheat detection &
• Engine/APU fire detection powered by the battery bus
• Engine/APU fire extinguishing powered by the hot battery bus
What does pulling up on the red engine fire switch do?
CLOSES
•Fuel — Engine fuel SOV, Spar Fuel SOV
•Bleed — Engine bleed air valve
•Hydraulic — Hydraulic SOV
•Generator — Gen control relay & breaker
•Thrust Reverser — disables respective TR
ARMS
•Squib on each bottle (2 total bottles)
•Allows fire switch to be rotated
Which BUS powers the APU fire detection and fire extinguishing?
Battery Bus — APU fire detection
Hot Battery Bus — APU fire extinguishing
Which AC power source is required for main wheel well fire detection?
2 AC Transfer Bus
What components are tested with the OVHT/FIRE protection panel test switch to OVHT/FIRE?
•Fire Warning Bell
•Master Fire Warning Lights
•Master Caution Lights
•OVHT/DET amber annunciation light
• ENG overheat amber lights
•ENG Fire switch handles
•APU Fire switch handle
•Wheel well fire warning lights if AC power is available
What happens when either illuminated MASTER FIRE WARN light is pushed?
•Extinguishes the lights, silences the bell, resets the system for future warnings and also silences the remote APU Fire warning horn in the wheel well
What are the indications of an engine fire?
•Fire Warning horn
•Both red Fire Warning lights
•Related Fire Switch Handle illuminates
•All related ENG OVH alert indications illuminate
Setting the ENG and APU EXT/TEST switch position to ______ tests the APU Fire Bottle _______
•1 or 2
•Circuit continuity
What is in the APU Ground Control Panel in the main wheel well?
•APU Fire Warning Light
•APU Horn Cutout Switch
You can discharge the APU fire bottle here
What does pressing the HORN CUTOUT do on the APU fire panel in the main wheel well?
•Silences the fire warning bell
•Silences the APU fire warning horn
•Causes the APU fire warning light to be solid instead of flashing
If there is an APU fire what occurs in the right wheel well?
•A red flashing warning light
•A loud bell
YOU CAN
•Hit the switch on the panel to cause the red light to go solid and silence the bell
•Pull lever to arm the squib
•Fire the bottle to extinguish the APU fire
What should you remember if you get a wheel well fire light?
It is only fire detection, there is no fire suppression for the wheels except to lower the gear
Which busses power the Engine OVH and Fire Detection and which busses power the Fire Extinguishing?
•Battery Bus — engine OVHT and Fire Detection
•Hot Battery Bus — engine fire extinguishing
What will cause an ENG overheat light or Engine fire handle switch light to extinguish when it’s been illuminated?
Only if the temperature drops below a pre-determined onset temperature will the ENG OVHT or ENG switch lights extinguish.
With the OVHT DET switch selected to “A” during an OVHT/FIRE test, what does an amber FAULT light indication mean?
Fault of the selected side “A” loop
When selecting the test switch to FAULT/INOP what should occur?
•2 Master Caution lights
•OVHT/DET amber on the MC panel
•Both FAULT and APU DET lights illuminate
When the OVHT/DET switch is selected to normal, when will the FAULT amber light illuminate? When will a FAULT light illuminate when the OVHT/DET switch is selected to A or B?
The FAULT light will only illuminate if both loops fail in the normal position.
If A or B is selected, a FAULT light indicates the selected loop has failed.
Where does the 1st bottle of the lower cargo compartment fire suppression dual bottle system discharge and for how long? What about the 2nd bottle?
- 1st bottle discharges into the selected compartment and it initiates a 60min timer.
- 2nd bottle discharges automatically after the timer.
195 minutes total
If you get a DETECTOR FAULT light on the cargo panel, what should you do?
Cycle through loops A and B to see which loop has failed
What does the EXT/TEST switch do for the engines and APU?
It tests the extinguisher continuity when holding the switch to EXT TEST
What does an amber FAULT light illuminating during an OVHT/FIRE test indicate?
A bad loop on the respective engine
When testing the cargo compartment fire panel what must you be aware of if you do not have AC power on the aircraft?
The entire test will not work, but you MAY still discharge a fire extinguisher bottle!
Which bus powers the electric hydraulic pumps?
AC XFR BUS 2 powers system A hydraulic pump
AC XFR Bus 1 powers system B hydraulic pump
On the hydraulic B system, how is fluid provided to the pumps?
- The standpipe goes to the electric pump and the engine driven pump in system B
- There is a port on the bottom of the reservoir which supplies fluid to the PTU
What happens when you position either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD?
• Activates the standby hyd pump
• Closes the flight control shutoff valve
• Opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
• Deactivates the related FLT CTRL low pressure light
• Illuminates STBY RUD on, FLT CTRL annunciator, and master caution
What are all the things that happen when positioning the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM? What does it control?
• Activates the standby electric pump
• Repositions the trailing edge flap bypass valve
• Arms the alternate flaps position switch
• Allows for the standby system to power the leading edge flaps and slats and thrust reversers
LETS - Leading Edge Flaps, Thrust reversers, Slats
What happens when selecting either FLT control switch to STBY RUD?
• Activates the standby electric motor driven hyd pump
• Shuts off the normal hydraulic system pressure to the flight controls
• Opens the standby rudder SOV
• Deactivates related flight control LOW PRESSURE light when the standby rudder SOV opens
• Allows for standby system pressure to power the rudder and thrust reversers
• Illuminates the STBY RUD on, FLT CONT annunciator, and Master Caution lights
When does the PTU operate?
The PTU control valve, when energized to open, provides hydraulic system A pressure to the motor side of the PTU to power the hydraulic B system fluid.
The PTU control valve opens when:
• Airborne
• Flaps extended
• System B EDP hyd pressure drops below 2350 psi
FLT CONTROL
LOW PRESSURE
(amber)
means what?
The respective hydraulic system fluid pressure is low. The light will extinguish during standby hydraulic system operation indicating the standby rudder shutoff valve is full open
If system A hydraulic quantity is indicating 20% full, that could indicate a leak where?
A leak in the engine driven pump or related lines
How is a leak in the standby hydraulic system indicated?
Standby Hyd LOW QUANTITY light (amber) with associated FLT CONT annunciator and MC light
System B reservoir quantity will be decreasing to approximately 72%
What happens if there is a leak in the standby system?
The standby reservoir quantity decreases to zero
If a leak develops in the engine driven pump or related lines, what prevents a total system fluid loss?
A standpipe in the reservoir
When does the “RF” refill indication display in white?
On the ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with the flaps up during taxi in below 76% quantity. The quantity actually displayed will be 75% because it’s below 76%.
How does hydraulic system A provide fluid to its respective engine driven pump and electric motor driven pump?
A standpipe provides fluid from the reservoir to the engine driven pump and at the bottom of the reservoir is a port supplying fluid to the electric motor driven pump
Which hydraulic system provides pressure to run the yaw damper?
HYD B system
Where does the hyd system A electric motor driven pump receive fluid if there is a leak in the system A engine driven pump or it’s related lines?
There should be enough hyd system A fluid remaining for the electric driven pump because the standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss
What does the hydraulic standby system provide?
Hydraulic pressure to specific systems if Hydraulic A and/or B pressure is lost
Will positioning the ALTERNATE FLAPS master switch to ARM cause the “STBY RUD ON” light to illuminate?
No, but it does activate the standby hydraulic pump!
Which hydraulic systems are pressurized by regulated bleed air?
System A and B
System B reservoir pressure also pressurizes the standby system reservoir
What is the access code to enter the flight deck door?
4511
What is the normal differential pressure we would have at 10,000 feet?
Approximately 4.0PSI
“10-4” is the saying
Where are the HGS settings located on the MAX aircraft?
The HGS is located in the CDU
On the MAX aircraft, at the Captain’s takeoff config check, check what before takeoff?
Make sure to check the oil temps are 31C+
then select ENG Mode.
On the MAX, the MAINT light on the first officer ND is _________
Not a problem unless it’s amber
On the MAX, the selector knob “L” and “C” should be kept at what selection?
Keep it at “C”
“L” is for maintenance
On an ETOPS flight without CPDLC, make sure to arrive at fixes within _____ minutes
+/- 3 minutes
If unable to do so, contact oceanic to give updated times
What is the scale underneath the PFD called?
Nav Performance Scale (NPS)
On ETOPS flights for fuel planning purposes enter in the ______________ at cruise altitude and 10,000 feet
Plug in the two ETOPS alternates at cruise altitude and at 10,000 feet under “ALT Airports” for fuel planning at the CP.
Also plug in the WINDS from the Winds Aloft forecast at 10,000 feet to make it more accurate.
For proper trimming of the aircraft, use _________ and as long as the trim is not over ______ units or approximately ____ degrees of bank you are trimmed out enough to avoid the spoiler assist which increases drag
Use HDG SEL
1.6 Units or 10 degrees of bank
For planning purposes, the change in OPT Altitudes change approximately _____ feet every ________ hrs/mins
The OPT altitude changes 1,000 feet approximately every 1hr 15 min
or 100 feet takes about 9 minutes
On ETOPS flights instead of labeling the CP point in the box “CP”, label it _______
Label it the fuel estimate amount remaining at that CP point
How do you enter in a HIWAS area into the legs page to create a box around a thunderstorm area?
- At the end of the legs page enter a fix, then delete it, to create a DISCON
- After the discon, type in fixes from the Hazardous Weather Data section on the release as either LAT/LONG or type it in like the image below
ENGINE FAILURE DRIFTDOWN
procedure notes
When selecting a higher altitude you check OPT altitude and also the temperatures, when should you decide you can go up?
The safest course of action is to wait until the OPT altitude says | 500 feet | below the altitude you’re trying to reach
Example:
For fuel planning purposes, if you feel like you cannot make it into an airport like Juneau, what is the mental math for how much fuel you burn per mileage and altitude for an alternate?
Every +100mi is 1,000 lbs of fuel, so an alternate 200mi away is 2,000lbs of fuel
Every +10,000 feet of altitude is 1,000 lbs of fuel
then add +45min for alternate fuel legality
So, for example, an alternate 200 miles away you wanna fly to at FL200 feet you will need:
4,000 lbs of fuel + 45min alternate fuel
On the MAX, the STAB TRIM switches disconnect both _________ & ________
Either switch disconnects the MAIN electric trim and autopilot trim
What is the speed limit on a high speed taxiway exit?
60 knots
Dispatch Notification Requirements (from the FOM)
+ 100mi deviation from the original course
+/- 4,000 feet off of the planned altitude
+/- 15 minutes for any action delaying the flight
Enroute changes to weather is unforeseen
+ / - 2,000 fuel difference from flight plan
+ / - 5 minutes elapsed time between reporting points
Entering any holding
When is it required by Alaska Airlines to declare an emergency (per the FOM)?
When a main fuel pump pressure is low, can the engine still draw fuel?
Engines can draw fuel from its corresponding main tank through a suction feed line
After the center tank pumps burn off their fuel when will you get LOW PRESSURE lights?
10 seconds after
What is the automatic center tank fuel boost pump shutoff?
In the center tank, 15 seconds after the LOW PRESSURE lights go on, the pumps will automatically shut off
For the fuel pumps, what do the LOW PRESSURE lights mean?
Low pressure at the respective pump
How many fuel pumps do the tanks have?
2 per tank
How accurate is the fuel quantity indication system?
2% inaccurate
Why do we burn center tank fuel before wing tanks?
The fuel pump output pressure is higher from the center tanks
What is the fuel temperature indicator range? What powers the indicator?
-56 C to 56 C
It is powered by the AC Transfer Bus 2
When will we get an fuel IMBAL (amber) light? How long does the IMBAL (amber) remain illuminated?
1,000 lbs indifference for 60 seconds will cause the IMBAL light
It will extinguish at 200 lbs imbalance
When do we get the fuel IMBAL amber light?
When main tank quantities differ by 1,000 for 60 seconds
When do you get a fuel configuration alert?
Center tank fuel quantity is greater than 1,600 lbs
+CTR tank pump switches are positioned OFF and either engine is running
When do you get a FUEL LOW (amber) alert?
Displayed when respective main tank fuel is less than 2,000 lbs for greater than 30 seconds
With how much fuel (low fuel) must you declare an emergency?
With only 30min fuel remaining, you must declare an emergency
What is the indication that the Nitrogen Generator System (NGS) is not operating?
The NGS is there to convert bleed air to nitrogen-enriched air (NEA) to reduce the possibility of fuel vapor ignition in the center tank.
If the system is not operating properly, you will receive an amber “inoperative” light at the NGS panel in the wheel well.
What fuel quantity is in the center tank when it’s full?
Approximately 30,000 lbs
27,000 to 30,522
What fuel quantity are the main tanks when full?
8,500 lbs per side
17,000 lbs in main tanks
What do the center tank fuel scavenge jet pumps do?
With the #1 Main tank fuel pump FWD switch ON they automatically transfer any remaining fuel from the center tank to the main tank #1 if the main tank level drops below 4,500 lbs or less in that main #1 tank. The rate is 220-450 lbs per hr for the remainder of the flight.
What does an ENG VALVE CLOSED (fuel) (bright blue) light indicate? When do you expect to see it?
When the valve is in transit or position disagrees with the engine start lever or fire switch position. Its dim when the valve is closed.
What can suction feed from the #1 main tank? The #2 main tank?
Fuel from the #1 main tank to the left engine and vice-versa
What does a cross feed valve open light (bright blue) indicate?
The valve is in transit or position disagrees with selector position
When do the Engine Fuel SOV and the Spar Fuel SOVs close?
When the Fire Switch is pulled or the Start Lever is CUTOFF
What is the purpose of the cross feed valve?
The cross feed valve is for cross feeding fuel to equalize fuel quantities in the main tanks
Will a LOW PRESSURE (amber) light remain illuminated if a main tank fuel pump switch is placed to OFF ?
It will extinguish with the pump switch off
If normal electrical power is lost which flight deck lighting will still be available via the standby electrical power? 
Standby compass, dome lights, instrument flood lights, selected system information, and warning lights
When may the flight crew use the FLT DK DOOR door lock selector UNLKD position in flight?
The flight crew may never use the FLT DK DOOR lock selector in the UNLKD position to allow access to the flight deck
What is the policy on flight attendant access to the flight deck jumpseat during any phase of flight on a part 91 maintenance and ferry flight?
If assigned FA duties, FAs are required to be at their assigned Cabin jumpseat for taxi takeoff and landing with captains permission 1 FA may occupy a FD Jumpseat during cruise portion of a flight.
Over wing emergency exits unlock when ________ power is lost.
DC power is lost
Where is the potable water system? How many gallons is it? Where are the shut off valves?
A single tank located behind the aft cargo compartment.
40 gallons.
Each galley and below the sink in each lav.
CLEAN/CHECK SENSOR
(amber) light on FA Panel
Emergency exit light switch on the flight attendant panel
What do you want the tailskid to look like during your walk around?
Some green should be visible on the crushed cartridge warning decal and the skid shoe should not have anywhere or scratches in the paint. 
During preflight you notice missing static dischargers. What should you do?
Call Maintenace
When should the navigation beacon and strobe lights illuminated in flight?
At all times
DME updating is defaulted to?
OFF
PFD is always _____ up.
ND is always _____ up.
PFD is always heading up, ND is always track up.
When is the flight recorder active?
When the engines are running
What is the upper yellow band on the speed tape called? What bank does it guarantee protection?
Maximum Maneuvering Speed.
It guarantees protection up to 15 degrees bank within the amber band.
Normal bank can be up to 40 degrees.
Where is minimum maneuvering speed ?
Top of the lower amber band
Where is minimum maneuvering speed?
The top of the lower amber band.
INSTR SWITCH (amber) indicates _____.
Both DUs are getting their information from the same IRS
What are the names of the display screens and what supplies symbols on them?
PFD, ND, Upper Display, Lower Display, ND, PFD
The DEU (Display Electronic Unit) #1 displays information from LADIRU to PFD, ND, and Upper D. DEU #2 to the other side.
If both IRS go to battery power, what happens?
Left IRS will last for 5 min
Right IRS will last for 60 min
Can you have passengers on for defueling operations?
No.
How do the clocks keep their time?
They are coupled to their respective GPS
On the EFIS control panel PLAN mode how do you toggle through fixes?
On the CDU Legs page will be a STEP option to step through the fixes. Required for ETOPS
What is the ADM and what does it do?
The Air Data Module collects pitot probe air data and transmits it to the ADIRU
VSD definition and requirement
Vertical Situation Display
The pilot not flying is required to use the VSD for approaches.
A hollow circle on the VSD is a deceleration point. A solid green dot when you will hit your selected speed.
During the Engine Start the _________ is automatically commanded closed for the engine start.
Engine Bleed Air Valve
Delete
What type of deviation alerting is available from the selected altitude?
+/- 200 feet
We’ll get a tone and altimeter box flashing amber
When will overspeed or underspeed limiting symbols appear in the MCP speed window?
The AFS provides limits for:
• Vmo/Mmo
•Wing/Flap Placards
•Landing Gear Placards
•Minimum Speed
If you push the TO/GA button twice on a dual AP approach prior to touchdown, what N1 thrust is commanded?
The A/T advances to the full go-around N1 limit
If you push the TO/GA once, on a dual AP approach prior to touchdown, what roll mode will be commanded?
Current ground track
Roll mode will be blank on the FMA
After pushing the TO/GA once, on a dual autopilot approach prior to touchdown, what rate of climb will the N1 thrust provide for?
Reduced go-around N1
1,000 to 2,000 FPM rate of climb
When is glideslope capture inhibited?
G/S capture is inhibited prior to LOC capture
What will happen after activating either TO/GA switch above 2,000 feet RA with flaps up and G/S not active?
Nothing
You are on autopilot climbing from 10,000 feet to FL200, in VNAV, with FL200 in the FMC CRZ page and MCP window. If you pass through ALT HOLD, what will the aircraft do?
Automatic level-off occurs at MCP altitude or VNAV altitude whichever is reached first. VNAV constrained altitudes will annunciate VNAV PTH.
After localizer and glideslope capture, doing what will exit the APP mode?
- Changing frequencies
- Cycling flight directors with the AP off
- TO/GA
After engaging LVL CHG for a climb, what does the FMA annunciate for the auto throttle mode?
N1 for a climb
RETARD followed by ARM for descent
Engaging LNAV outside of 3NM from an active route requires what intercept criteria?
•Be on an intercept course of 90 degrees or less
•Intercept route segment is before the active waypoint
The Bank Angle Selector sets maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in which Roll Modes?
HDG SEL & VOR MODES
What triggers cause the MCP IAS/MACH display to automatically and manually switch between indicated speed and Mach #?
What triggers cause the MCP IAS/MACH display to automatically and manually switch between indicated speed and Mach #?
The C/O Switch (changeover) changes the IAS /MACH display. Automatic changeover occurs at approximately FL260.
What is MCP?
AFDS (Automatic Flight Director System)
[ Mode Control Panel ]
While flying an RNP departure passing 10,000 feet you have selected LVL CHG with 250knots in the IAS/MACH window on the MCP, what will be the Pitch Mode FMA?
N1 Mode
When is the MCP IAS/MACH display blank?
-VNAV Mode Engaged
-A/T engaged in FMC SPD Mode
-During a 2 engine AFDS go-around
What does the A/T LIM indication (white) on the upper display unit mean?
The FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 values. The A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the EEC.
When does the A/P disengage light illuminate STEADY RED?
•Stab out of trim below 800 feet RA on a dual channel approach
• ALT ACQ mode inhibited during a go-around if stabilizer not trimmed for single AP operations
•Disengage light test switch held in position 2
•Automatic ground system test fail
What does the STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light indicate?
• Only with the autopilot
• Indicates the autopilot is not trimming the stabilizer properly
What are the required conditions for autopilot engagement ?
•No force is being applied to the control wheel
•The Stab Trim Autopilot cutout switch is at normal
How are the command bars, controlled by the the FCC, determined?
Normally the FCC A drives the Captain’s command bars and the FCC B drives the FO command bars.
With both F/D switches ON, the logic for both pilot’s FD modes is controlled by the master FCC, indicated with a lit up “MA” above the F/D switch.
What is displayed by turning on a flight director?
It displays the command bars if PITCH and ROLL modes are engaged.
Which FMA indicates power has been removed from the auto throttle servos during takeoff?
ARM (white)
When does a rectangle around a FMA appear?
Mode Change
for 10 seconds
What are the three FMA annunciator sections?
autothrottle, roll, pitch
NTSB
Nature of the Emergency
Time to Prepare
Special Instructions
Brace Signal
During an evacuation what is the First Officer’s duty?
The First Officer should ensure the L1 and R1 exits are open prior to departure and bring the ELT if necessary.
What do you call for on the ground with smoke in the cabin?
The Passenger Evacuation QRC
With a possible evacuation on the runway, what steps should the captain take immediately?
Set the parking brake
Stow the speed brake
Set the flaps to full
Where is the primary Flight Deck emergency egress?
Through the L1 and R1
Where should the crew store a fire bag that is keeping a fire contained?
Aft left lav
W
Does LRC (Long Range Cruise) selection factor in winds?
No, it is only ideal for no wind situations. Better is to put 0 into the cost index and achieve a MRC, Max Range Cruise, which accounts for winds.
ECON cruise provides what?
A speed schedule to optimize cost (via a CI) and is optimized for cruise wind conditions. A low cost index is a result of higher fuel costs and results in lower cruise speeds. Speeds are reduced in a tailwind and increased into a headwind.
Max Range Cruise (MRC) is the speed that provides the ________ for a given amount of fuel.
Furthest distance traveled for a given amount of fuel. If you key in a 0 (zero) into the Cost Index you will achieve MRC.
For Terrain Clearance, the Zero Net Gradient segment of the flight plan labeled “Terrain Clearance” are zero net gradient segments, along which the aircraft can, with one engine an operative, maintain a net climb gradient of _____ ft above all terrain within _____ statute miles on either side of the flight plan route.
1000 ft above all terrain
5 statute miles on either side of the flight plan route
Segments labeled “mountain drift down,” along which the aircraft can, with one engine in operative, clear all obstacles on the way to an airport where it can land. Its net gradient flight path must clear all terrain by at least ______ ft within _____ statute miles of its driftdown track. 
2,000 ft
5 statue miles
When must you contact dispatch when deviating from the flight plan route?
The PIC is also the __ __ __ .
ISC — inflight security coordinator
Where is the LRBL location on our aircraft?
Version 2 of the Wx Radar is almost on the entire fleet, what does Wx + T mean?
= Weather + Threat
What is the “scary mode” on the Wx Radar?
Core Threat Analysis
With the weather radar at 80NM, we can paint -1 and -2 at -8,000 below our altitude and -16,000 below our altitude. How much must we ADD to this to account for the curvature of the earth?
+6,000 feet
If the probe heat is in Auto, when are the pitot probes heated?
When the first engine is started
What does positioning the ENG Anti-Ice switches ON in flight do?
- Engine bleed air flows through the cowl anti-ice valve for cowl lip anti-ice.
- TAI (green/amber) is displayed above N1 indication on the ED.
- Sets stall warning logic for icing conditions
What does COWL ANTI-ICE (amber) light mean?
Excessive Pressure (greater than 65 PSI)
in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip.
With the Engine Anti-Ice selected ON, what is the difference between a dim blue light and a bright blue light?
DIM — valve is open with the switch ON
BRIGHT — anti-ice valve is in transit or in disagreement with the ENG Anti-ice switch position
What does an amber TAI indication to the left of an N1 display on the Upper Display Unit indicate?
Green TAI — when the switch is ON and the anti-ice valve is open
Amber TAI — when cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position selected by the ENG Anti-ice switch
Which devices (flaps and or slats) are heated by the wing anti-ice system?
The 3 inboard leading edge slats are heated by wing anti-ice (no leading edge flaps)
With the wing anti-ice selected ON, what is the difference between a dim blue and bright blue indication?
DIM — valve is opened with the switch ON
BRIGHT — Wing anti-ice valve is in transit or valve position disagrees with switch position
What causes the wing anti-ice control valves to close during ground operations?
Both valves close if:
- Either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting
- Either temperature sensor senses a duct over temperature
What causes the wing anti-ice control valves to close during takeoff?
When takeoff thrust is set and airborne the thrust lever position sensors and air/ground sensing command the wing anti-ice to off
How is the stall warning logic for icing conditions affected with the WING ANTI-ICE switch on?
— adjusts the stick shaker
—adjusts the minimum maneuvering amber speed bar
These settings remain for the rest of the flight
It does not adjust VREF automatically
The probe heat provides electrical heating for which sensors?
All the probes:
Pitot probe, elev pitot, alpha vane, and temp probe are heated with one engine started and in the auto position.
Cowl anti-ice yellow caution light
Cowl anti-ice duct overpressure
When do you turn on the ENG anti-ice?
— 10C or below down to -40C SAT
— On descent if icing conditions are predicted
Where does the wing anti-ice heat?
Inboard 3 slats
[ OVERHEAT ]
Window light
- Overheat condition
- Sensor malfunction
Which cockpit windows are heated?
Windows #1 and #2
When should we not run the windshield wipers?
On a dry windshield
Describe the rain removal system for the fwd flight deck windows:
There is a permanent rain repellant coating and windshield wipers, which have settings of PARK, INT, LOW, HIGH
What does the INT function on the windshield wiper selector do?
Turns the wiper on with a 7 second interval
Windshield wipers _____________ be operated on a dry windshield.
Should not be operated
The Engine anti-ice system uses ______ and _______ stage bleed air off of the respective engine.
5th and 9th stage bleed air
Runaway Stabilizer
IMMEDIATE ITEMS
With TCAS on ABV, N, or BLW
what are the heights above and below
The RAAS system is a function of the ______ system
GPWS
Explain how PWS works on takeoff
The Predictive Windshear uses Doppler Radar returns automatically after thrust is increased past 53 degrees which will take 12 seconds to accomplish. The PWS is inhibited from 80kts on the takeoff roll until 400 ft AGL, so effectively you will not get PWS on takeoff unless you turn on the Wx Radar. By turning on the Wx Radar on takeoff, the sweep can occur immediately.
The normal anti-skid system provides anti-skid to which wheels and what hyd system provides its pressure?
Hyd system B, to each main wheel
The alternate brake system anti-skid has anti-skid protection where?
The alternate system pressurized by hyd system A has anti-skid protection to each main gear wheel PAIR
Main wing fuel tanks must be scheduled to be full if the center tank contains more than ______ lbs.
1,000 lbs
Allowable lateral fuel imbalance between main tanks 1 and 2
Must be scheduled to be zero
Oxygen flows to passenger masks for how long?
Approximately 12 minutes
There is one PSU (passenger service unit) per row on each side of the aircraft with 4 masks per bottle
How does the flight deck door lock panel work? What selections are there?
Auto: allows entry with door code
UNLKD: immediately unlocks the door
DENY: Deactivates keypad entry for 5 min
How many cargo compartments are there?
Forward cargo compartment: Pits 1 2 and 3
Aft cargo compartment: Pits 4, 5 and 6
Minimum Oil Temp for setting takeoff thrust ?
Boeing 737 MAX only
Verify 31C before setting takeoff thrust
Can the APU Bleed valve be opened during engine start?
Yes but avoid engine power above idle
Center tank fuel pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available in the flight deck to monitor _______.
The center tank
LOW PRESSURE LIGHTS
What are the positions of the strobe lights and when will they operate in Auto?
OFF, AUTO, ON
In Auto the strobe lights will operate while airborne
What supplies power to the AC Standby bus?
AC Transfer Bus 1
Max flap extension altitude
20,000 feet
Will removing all electrical power from the airplane open the FD Door?
It will unlock it
What is the difference between autobrake 1, 2, 3 and MAX?
Deceleration Rates:
4 ft /sec/sec ( autobrake 1 )
5 ft /sec/sec ( autobrake 2 )
7.2 ft /sec/sec ( autobrake 3 )
14 ft /sec/sec ( autobrake max )
What hydraulic system powers the nose wheel steering ?
Hydraulic system A or B —
all based upon the position of the Landing Gear Transfer Valve.
Normally hydraulic system A —
Unless the valve is switched to alternate (hyd b)
What do the supplemental gear position lights (aft overhead) tell me?
It uses a dedicated proximity switch on each gear. When the green position light is extinguished, the respective gear is not down and locked.
The landing gear is down and locked as long as?
As long as ONE GREEN landing gear indicator light ( center panel or overhead panel ) for each gear is illuminated.
What is the normal pressure of the brake accumulator? What system pressurizes the accumulator?
Normal pre charge is 1,000 PSI at 70 F
The accumulator is pressurized by the hydraulic B system
What does the PSEU monitor?
•Takeoff config warnings
•Landing config warnings
•Landing gear
•Air/Ground sensing
What is the PSEU ?
Proximity Switch Electronic Unit
When selected down and the red position light is extinguished, what position are the gear in?
Landing gear is down and locked with the landing gear lever down
How is the gear held in the UP position?
Mechanical uplocks
In the HGS for takeoff, what configuration will allow for the Takeoff Rotation Que in the HGS?
The Aircraft must be within 15 degrees magnetic heading of selected course (aligned with the takeoff runway)
The nose wheel can be turned by ____ degrees by the tiller wheel.
78 degrees in either direction
What do the red position lights on the landing gear indicate?
Landing gear is not down and locked
or
Related landing gear is in disagreement with the landing gear lever position (in transit)
The alternate braking is supplied by hydraulic system _____.
Hydraulic system A
Landing with the autobrake set to RTO results in what level of braking?
No braking.
The “Autobrake Disarm” light will illuminate 2 seconds after landing
The rudder pedals turn the nose wheel how many degrees?
7 degrees either direction
When the access door position switch closes (when the access door is opened) it energizes what? What bus powers it?
Manual Extend Solenoid Valve
Which puts itself in the bypass position to allow for hydraulic system A to still extend the gear, powered by the Battery Bus.
The normal braking system is powered by Hydraulic System ____
Hydraulic system B
B for braking
In the bypass position is the normal landing gear extension available?
The normal gear extension is available if hydraulic system A pressure is available, but gear retraction is disabled in the bypass position.
Hydraulic A fluid was moved to the bypass valve by opening the manual gear extension door to close the access door position switch.
What do the manual gear extension handles do?
Release the respective landing gear mechanical uplocks
What is the name of the switch that prevents gear retraction when the manual gear door is open?
Access Door Position Switch
What is the lever lock override trigger?
Its a trigger in the landing gear lever used to bypass the landing gear lever lock under certain conditions
After landing with autobrakes how can I disarm it?
— Manual braking to match the auto brake pressure
— select OFF
— one thrust lever out of IDLE position for 3+ seconds
— Speedbrake lever is down
How many brake applications are provided by the brake accumulator?
6 brake applications
or
Parking brake for 8hrs
Which braking systems are provided anti-skid?
All of them.
Normal braking to each wheel
Alternate braking to each wheel pair
Accumulator braking to each wheel
How is the gear actuated to the down position ?
Hydraulically via the HYD SYS A then it’s held in the down position with downlocks. It remains pressurized in the down
The OFF position of the landing gear does what?
Removes hydraulic pressure from the landing gear system
Hydraulic power for retraction, extension and nose wheel steering is normally supplied by Hydraulic system _____.
A
Autobrake system is available only with ______
Normal brake system
Both normal and alternate brake systems provide anti-skid features. What are they?
Skid
Locked wheel
Touchdown
Hydroplane protection
If the hydraulic system A pressure is lost, how must I extend the gear?
Manual extension system
What happens if the manual extension access door is not fully closed?
The landing gear retraction is disabled
What position must the landing gear lever be for manual gear extension ?
Any position, it does not matter
When will the landing gear warning cutout switch not silence the gear horn?
— below 200 ft RA
— flaps 15-25 with either thrust lever less than 20% or an engine not running with other lever below 34%
— flaps 25 degrees or more
Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged
Is Prohibited
Manually overriding the Load Alleviation system is ______
Prohibited
When does VNAV Descent Mode go from PTH —> SPD ?
+/- 200 feet off of path
No valid waypoint
or
Overspeed
What does the IFE/PASS SEAT switch control?
The Passenger cabin in-seat power receptacle located at each seat. The power comes from the AC transfer buses to the AMCUs which powers each seat
What does the SOURCE OFF amber light mean?
— No source has been manually selected to power the related XFR bus
or
— the source has been disconnected
If the amber light goes off I will get an ELEC annunciator & MC Lights
Where is the Passenger Oxygen switch? When will the Passenger Oxygen automatically activate?
Maximum Operating Altitude
41,000 feet
If the gear is selected down but you still get the red lights, what should you check first?
That the handle is not pulled out
What is that delay after entering the flight deck door access code ?
60 seconds
— 2 chimes, steady illumination of AUTO UNLK for 40 seconds
— Two chimes sound after 20 seconds
— Chimes sound continuously with a flashing AUTO UNLK light for the final 20 seconds
DOOR UNLOCKS FOR 5 SECONDS
The “normal” green position green lights, when extinguished, means what?
The respective landing gear is not down and locked
Max Landing Gear Extend speed
Max Extend speed is 270 knots (.82 Mach)
Retract speed is 235 knots
Max Extended speed is 320 knots (.82 Mach)
How is the FDAS (Flight Deck Access switch) powered?
Powered by DC Bus #2
to auto lock the door
What are the QRC recall items?
What is the normal hydraulic system pressure?
3,000 PSI
+/- 200 psi
Max is 3,500 psi
What is standby hydraulic system pressure?
2,700 PSI
On the hydraulic indications display on the lower DU what does “RF” mean if it’s displayed?
The quantity has dropped below 76% full and it means “refill”
How are system A and B reservoirs pressurized?
Regulated bleed air
System B reservoir pressure also pressurized the standby system reservoir
The standby hydraulic system automatic operation happens when?
— with flaps extended & airborne or wheel speed greater than 60 knots
— with a loss of system A or B and the respective FLT CONTROL switch “ON”
It will automatically activate the standby hydraulic system
Or if the rudder force fight monitor is activated
Standby HYD Low Quantity light
Illuminates when standby reservoir quantity is less than 50%
What are the ways the standby hydraulic pump is activated?
Manually or Automatically
Manually:
1. FLT CNTRL switches —> STBY RUD ON
2. ALTERNATE FLAPS to ARM
Automatically:
1. Loss of a hydraulic system with flaps extended or rudder force fight monitor activated
What can the standby hydraulic system operate?
•Thrust Reversers
•Rudder
•Leading edge flaps / slats
•Standby yaw damper
The rudder operates with _____ during manual reversion
Standby hydraulic pressure
What hydraulic system powers the flaps?
Hydraulic system B system
What does the overheat (amber) light on the hydraulic panel indicate?
Indicates an overheat in the respective system — an electric hydraulic pump overheat light causes hyd annunciator and master caution lights
The BRAKE PRESS gage shows what?
•System B pressure indicator
•Unless B is lost, then it’s a brake pressure accumulator indicator
•Until 6 brake pressure applications have been made then it’s a nitrogen pre charger indicator
When does the standby hydraulic pump automatically activate?
Loss of system A or B
with flaps extended
or
rudder force flight monitor activates
What is the rudder force fight monitor (FFM)?
If either Hydraulic system input rod or control rod is jammed or failed, in 5 seconds, the FFM turns on standby hydraulic through the PCU. The standby hyd system will power the rudder.
Will a leak in the system B affect the operation of the standby hydraulic system?
No
What is the PIN to enter the FD Door? When does the door open?
4511 Enter
The door is unlocked for 5 seconds after a 60 second delay
What does the LOCK FAIL or AUTO UNLK amber light mean when illuminated?
•LOCK FAIL — when the flight deck door lock selector is in AUTO and the door lock has failed or the FDAS is off
•AUTO UNLK — when the correct emergency access code is entered the auto unlk flashes and a continuous chime sounds before the timer expires and the door unlocks.
What are the QRC recall items?
ACRS
• Smoke, Fire, or Fumes
• Runaway Stabilizer
• Cabin Altitude Warning or Rapid D
• Airspeed Unreliable
• On the ground the APU powers ____ buses
•In the air with the APU gen, it sheds the _______ buses
•All buses
•All galley and utility buses
What does the ELEC amber light on the DC power panel mean?
A fault in the DC power system or standby power (which is inhibited in flight)
What will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU?
- APU FIRE
- Any 3 of the APU lights cause an automatic shutdown
On takeoff above 80 knots (up to 400 feet) the _______ is inhibited of your 6 pack of engine instrument cautions
Flashing
In flight, what does the ENG start switch in FLT provide with the Engine Start lever in IDLE?
Both igniters
Which hydraulic system is the alternate landing gear extension on?
Hydraulic system A
“alternate “
What is the purpose of the PTU?
To provide hydraulic system B fluid for
AUTOSLATS & LEADING EDGE DEVICES
in the event of a hyd system B engine driven pump pressure drop
Where is the heat exchanger for hydraulic system A or B?
System A is located in the main fuel tank #1
System B in the main fuel tank #2
What does the overheat (amber) light on the hydraulic panel indicate?
Overheat is detected in the system
Where are the heat exchangers for hydraulic systems A&B ?
A: Main Fuel Tank #1
B: Main Fuel Tank #2
Min fuel for extended ground operation of electric motor driven pump is 1,675 lbs in the related tank
Placing the FLT CONTROL switch into STBY RUD does what?
•Manually activates the standby hydraulic pump
• STBY RUD ON amber light m
•Extinguish low pressure light on associated hydraulic system
•Master Caution & FLT CONT annunciator LOW PRESS light
•Momentary during standby pump activated flickers on and off
Where are the hydraulic system’s fluid reservoirs located?
Main wheel well area
What does the SYS switch do?
Located on the Engine Display Control Panel it displays the hydraulic indications (quantity and pressure)
- The quantity displays 0-106%
- Refill (RF) indication displays when hydraulic quantity is below 76%
Where are the hydraulic fluid reservoirs located?
Each hydraulic system has a fluid reservoir located in the main wheel well area
What is the purpose of the PTU?
The PTU provides sufficient hydraulic pressure to provide normal rates of operation for the autoslats and leading edge devices if hydraulic system B engine driven pump output pressure drops below a specified value
What is an ELEC amber caution on the DC power panel?
A fault in the DC power system or standby power (inhibited in flight)
What are the 3 hydraulic systems?
A, B, and Standby
They power the autopilot, flight controls, landing gear and thrust reversers.
What does the START VALVE OPEN steady amber light indicate?
The respective engine start valve is open and air is supplied to the starter
What may be used if no other bleed source is available for engine start?
A pneumatic bottle which is 500 PSI and 6,500 to 7,500 cubic feet providing 60 seconds of motoring after an aborted start and two engine starts
What should the ENG VALVE CLOSED lights (blue) and SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights (blue) indicate during a normal preflight with power on and engines not running?
On preflight the lights will be dim blue because they are closed, not in transit, and not open
What does the “reverse video” displayed on the engine vibration readout indicate?
The digital readout is displayed as reverse video when vibrational scalar units exceed 4.0
What causes the ENG FAIL Alert (amber) on the EGT indicator?
50% N2 and engine start lever is in IDLE
What mode is active with the thrust mode display indicating RTO (green)?
RTO (reduced takeoff)
Other thrust mode display modes are:
R-CLB — reduced climb
TO — takeoff
TO B — takeoff bump thrust
CLB — climb
CRZ — cruise
G/A — Go around
CON — continuous
In normal mode, what does the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) use to calculate N1 thrust ratings?
In normal mode, the EEC uses sensed flight conditions and bleed air demand to calculate N1 thrust ratings
On the ground, after engine shutdown, what does a red box on the N2 digital readout indicate?
An inflight excedance has occurred
What are the possible modes with the EEC switch both ON (white) and ALTN (amber) displays illuminated?
•Soft alternate control mode
or
•Hard alternate control mode
The ON will extinguish after HARD is manually selected via the QRH
EEC Hard Alternate Mode
vs
Normal Mode Thrust
Hard alternate mode thrust is always equal to or greater than normal thrust for the same lever position
What are the engine panel REVERSER lights for?
They illuminate AMBER when reversers are stowing
When would we get an ENG FAIL?
Only when N2 is below 50%
When are EEC Alternate modes necessary?
When the EEC does not receive valid total air pressure data from both ADIRUs
Bus Transfer in AUTO position
Switch between AC power sources automatically
What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Valve?
To supply sufficient hydraulic B fluid via landing gear transfer valve automatically to the hydraulic A side to be able to retract the gear
If a switch has been switched to ON but it stays bright blue, what is its condition?
The valve is stuck closed or in transit
In cruise flight what is a good mental math for how much fuel we burn in flight?
100 lbs a minute
So 6,000 lbs an hour
Explain the EEC switch soft and hard ALTN
The ALTN (amber) turns on when the ECC:
•Has automatically switched to soft alternate control mode (on light remains visible)
•Has been selected manually to HARD alternate control mode… the ON light extinguishes. But you can select HARD alternate by retardation of thrust lever to idle, ON will remain visible on the EEC switch
REVERSER (amber) light
Located on the aft overhead
When the thrust reverser is commanded to stow and extinguishes 10 seconds later when the isolation valve closes.
If 12 seconds have passed with the reverser light on, a Master Caution and ENG annunciator will illuminate
What does the thrust mode display indicating A/T LIM (white) mean?
It indicates the FMC is not providing the A/T system with N1 limit values. The A/T is using a degraded N1 thrust limit from the related EEC.
What is required for selection of Reverse Thrust?
Reverse thrust cannot be selected unless the related forward thrust lever is at IDLE
When is thrust reverser operation available?
• Either radio altimeter senses less than 100 feet altitude
or
• When the air/ground safety sensor is in the ground mode
What does the ignition select switch in the IGN R position select?
The right igniter plug receives power from the standby bus
What does a steady START VALVE OPEN (amber) light indicate?
A steady start valve open alert indicates the respective engine start valve is open and air is supplied to the starter
What removes an ENG FAIL amber alert?
The alert remains until the engine:
•recovers
•start lever moved to cutoff
or
•fire switch is pulled
Bank angle selector sets max bank angle for?
HDG and VOR
In normal operations how is the AC Electrical system “set up?”
What are all the sources of AC Power?
•Two engine driven generators
•One APU
•External Power
Where is the Engine Bleed Air obtained by?
5th (normal) and 9th (high stage) compressor stages
What system regulates the temp of engine bleed air?
Precooler system (RADAS?)
What does the BLEED TRIP OFF (amber) light indicate?
The bleed trip sensors have automatically closed the Engine Bleed Air Valve with excessively high engine bleed air temp or high pressures
What will the TRIP RESET switch do?
When pressed it will reset the bleed trip condition if the exceedance no longer exists. The valve will automatically re-open with a successful reset
How does the isolation valve operate with its switch in AUTO?
Engine bleed air and air conditioning pack switch positions are used for positioning the isolation valve. The Isolation valve will be closed when:
• Both Engine Bleed Air switches are ON
• Both Packs are in Auto/or on High
How is the isolation valve controlled — AC or DC?
AC Motor-driven valve
Isolation valve in AUTO, the logic is?
Automatically opens when any switch is turned OFF
What precautions apply with the APU Bleed valve when an Engine Bleed Valve is opened?
At IDLE thrust…
The dual bleed light will illuminate if ENG 1 Bleed On + APU Bleed Open
or
Eng 2 Bleed On with isolation valve opened +APU Bleed Open
When does the DUAL BLEED (amber) light illuminate?
Eng 1 bleed ON + APU bleed opened
Eng 2 bleed ON + Isolation valve + APU bleed opened
What does the WING-BODY OVERHEAT (amber) light indicate?
Indicates an overheat has been detected
A single pack in high flow mode is capable of maintaining pressurization and acceptable temps throughout the aircraft up to what altitude?
41,000 feet
Which valve pneumatically modulates to control airflow into the respective air conditioning pack based on air conditioning demands?
Pack Valves
What are the pack valves?
Flow control and shutoff valves
In flight, how will a PSEU fault be indicated?
Only by recalling the annunciator panel and it will display on the PSEU light on the aft overhead panel after landing
When does RTO braking automatically begin during a rejected takeoff?
If takeoff rejected after reaching 90 knots max braking is automatically applied. Thrust levers must be at idle.
Potable water system pressurization
• Bleed Air from
Engines, APU or Electric air compressor
• Air compressor powered by main bus #1
AC XFR BUS 1 —> AC MAIN BUS 1
Does system A or B pressure loss alone cause the operation of the standby hydraulic system?
No.
Automatic operation occurs when:
- Flaps extended
- Airborne or wheel speed >60kts
- And a loss of system A or B with respective FLT CONT switch on
What does the NOSE WHEEL STEERING guarded switch do when switching it from NORM to ALT?
Norm (guarded) : System A powers the Nosewheel steering
The switch operates the Landing Gear Transfer Valve
ALT : System B powers the nose wheel steering
What happens when a spinning tire with loose tread impacts the frangible fitting in the wheel well?
The frangible fitting valve opens and relieves hydraulic pressure from the retraction line.
The respective landing gear stops retracting and free falls back to the down position
If the Landing Gear Lever is positioned from UP to OFF with no delay, what may occur?
The landing gear unlocks may not have had sufficient time to fully engage, resulting in the landing gear coming back out of the wheel well with a loss of hydraulic pressure
How is the nosewheel tire rotation dropped after gear retraction?
Snubbers
How is the AC Standby Bus powered with a loss of AC power?
Through the DC System via the static inverter
Autobrake pressure is reduced as other controls, such as thrust levers and spoilers contribute so it can maintain selected __________.
Deceleration Rate
What stops rotation of the main landing gear wheels after retraction?
Alternate brakes
What does the BUS TRANS switch do?
In the AUTO guarded position it allows for the BTBs to operate automatically to maintain power to the AC transfer buses.
Example: IDG 1 will provide power for AC Transfer Bus 2 with a failure of IDG 2
Can you power one transfer bus with the APU and the other with an IDG?
Yes
How many TRUs do we have?
3
Does the taxi light extinguish automatically with gear retraction?
No
What are the APU load limitations at 10K, 17K and 41K?
Up to 10K — Bleed and Elec load
Up to 17K — Bleed only
41K — Electrical only
Max oper alt is 41K
Do not use speed brakes with more than flaps ______ ?
Do not use speed brakes with more than flaps 10 extended.
Avoid using speed brakes between flaps 1-10 as well, LOL
ENGINE START switches must be in the FLT position for?
Operation in severe turbulence
If the PAX masks drop, what indications should we expect?
PASS OXY ON (amber) light and MC light
Maximum APU operating altitude
41,000 feet
Starts not recommend above 25,000 feet
After starting the APU how long must we wait before applying APU BLEED air?
2 minutes
Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended
Prohibited
Max Operating Speeds
Placarded
What is the indication if a FMC has failed?
Amber VTK flag on the right side of the ND of the respective side that has failed
What is this panel called?
System Annunciator Panel
Is there a flashlight in the FD?
No
What kind of winglets do we have?
Either:
• no winglets
• blended winglets
• split scimitar winglets
• advanced technology winglets (737-9 MAX)
What type of HGS do we have?
HGS-4000
Head up guidance system providing CAT III approaches via HGS Control Panel
What does the FLIGHT DECK ACCESS SYSTEM switch do?
Turns off the FDAS to allow for manual operation
Boeing 800 SFP
Stands for what?
Short field performance for takeoff
its configured for shorter fields with leading edge devices
ENG Start switches must be in the ____ position for:
Takeoff & Landing
Anti-ice operation
Operation in hail, sleet, moderate to heavy rain
CONT
In the event of a system failure of the FDAS (Flight Deck Access System) a manual deadbolt lock and FDAS switch are installed to allow _________ control.
Manual
For ground and flight operations, the corresponding center tank fuel pump switch must be positioned OFF when the ______ light illuminates
LOW PRESSURE light
Reverse Thrust limitation
Intentional selection of reverse thrust is prohibited in flight
What compartment is behind me in the cockpit?
First Officer Compartment
What is another name for the service doors?
R1 (fwd)
R2 (aft)
ENGINE START switches must be in the _______ position for operating in severe turbulence
FLT
What protection does the flight deck door have?
• Bulletproof / viewpoint bulletproof
• Decompression panel can blow out
• Electronic auto locking
• FDAS (flight deck access system)
• Deadbolt locking mechanism upper left corner with three options:
1. unlocked
2. locked key operable
3. locked key inoperable
Boeing 9MAX Engine type
LEAP 1B
28K
(69 inch fan)
(Required a 8-inch extension on landing)
In flight, do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the… ?
Flight Detent
The LOCK FAIL (amber) on the cockpit door panel
- Door lock has failed
- FDAS is OFF (switch is selected OFF)
What do you need for LNAV engagement?
- Be within 3 miles of a valid course
- Valid TO waypoint
- Within 90 degrees
AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE
recall items
Autopilot, Autothrottles, F/D switches OFF
Then set pitch attitude and thrust:
Flaps Extended: 10 degrees & 80%
Flaps Up: 4 degrees & 75%
How does the Speed Trim System work?
With the AP not engaged:
- Airborne for more than 10 seconds
- A need for trim but no trim is input in 5 seconds
- The airplane will trim itself via the speed trim system after taking a snapshot of the speed change it wants to correct
This system operates on FCC A unless it is failed
For single channel operation during approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below?
50 feet AGL
CABIN ALTITUDE WARNING
or RAPID DECOMPRESSION
- Oxygen Masks & Regulators … ON, 100%
- Crew Communications … Establish
SMOKE FIRE or FUMES in the passenger cabin or flight deck
- Oxygen Masks & Regulators … ON, 100%
- Smoke Goggles … ON
What doors does the aircraft have?
Two passenger entry doors, L1 and R1
Two service doors, L2 and R2
Two cargo doors
also, a center electrical and electronic equipment access door (E/E) which are aft of the nose gear and an equipment access door
For a manually flown HGS III approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below?
500 feet AGL
When do you engage the second autopilot on a CAT III autoland approach?
Only after the APP Mode is armed
How many ways do we have to fly a CAT III approach and what are the RA minimums?
- Hybrid (autopilot flown, HGS monitored) down to 30 ft RA
- Autopilot CAT III, no HGS down to 50 ft
- Handflown HGS CAT III, down to 50 ft
For a CAT III approach what are the callouts made at the FAF and 500 feet by the pilot monitoring (the FO) ?
At the FAF, I say “FAF, altitude checks, no flags, AIII” Capt: AIII
At 500 feet, I say “500 feet above the field, Flare Armed, AIII, Rollout Armed” Capt: AIII
If there is no rollout armed on an auto-land, I would say, “No Rollout” instead and going around is optional IF THE RVR has not degraded below minimums on the approach chart, unless you didn’t have an RVR facility (all are required and all are controlling for HGS rollout)
FOR THE MAX9 ONLY
If there is a QTAW question after landing at a hot or high altitude airport in the MAX, what do you write in the maintenance logbook to check before continuing?
They need to check the tire pressure after 48min of being on the ground to make sure we don’t blow a tire plug for our next flight. The write up is to check tire pressures.
What is a quick way to tell the outside air temperature at cruise?
Read the first two numbers of the airspeed and the TAT and add them together.
Example: 260 knots and -20 TAT
= -46 C
How do you calculate WHEN you can do a step climb higher?
Put in desired altitude + 1,500 into the STEP on the ECON CRUZ page
Engine start switches must be in the CONT position for?
Takeoff, Landing, anti-ice operation, operation in hail, sleet, moderate to heavy rain
Following a loss of both generators, which DC Busses are powered?
4 buses
Battery Bus
DC Standby Bus
Hot Battery Bus
Switched Hot Battery Bus
Same in air and on the ground
TR UNIT (amber) light
If any TR1, TR2, or TR3 unit fails.
When does the BAT DISCHARGE amber light illuminate?
When excessive battery discharge is detected in the main or aux battery
What does the Generator Drive Disconnect switch do?
It disconnects the IDG from the gearbox with the engine start lever in IDLE
Which Bus is always connected to the battery?
Hot Battery Bus
Is the BAT DISCHARGE light ever inhibited?
Yes, during a battery start of the APU, the ELEC annunciator is also inhibited
If the TR2 or TR3 fails (not both), how would you know?
Only in a recall
How will two fully charged batteries provide standby power?
60 minutes
What does the APU Gen power? (Which buses?)
Both AC Transfer Busses
on the ground or in flight
What sources power TRU 1, 2, and 3? Is there any automatic switching?
AC Transfer Bus 1 —> TRU 1
AC Transfer Bus 2 —> TRU 2,3
TRU 3 can be powered by AC Transfer Bus 1 automatically via a relay too
How is oil cooling achieved for the IDG?
Air/ Oil cooler located at the rear portion of the fan duct AND a fuel/oil cooler
What are the 3 power systems?
AC, DC, and Standby power
What consists of the IDG?
A generator and a constant speed drive
Where is the external AC power receptacle?
Near the nose gear wheel well on the lower right side of the fuselage
When does the Cross Bus Tie Relay automatically open to isolate DC BUS 1 from DC BUS 2?
At glideslope intercept on an ILS approach
It is to prevent a single failure from affecting both navigation receivers, the flight control computers isolate the DC Busses
What are the 5 sources of electrical power on standby power?
- Hot battery bus
- Switchable hot battery bus
- DC battery bus
- AC standby bus
- DC standby bus
SPCU definition and what does it do?
Standby Power Control Unit
It uses the battery and standby power switch positions to control relays in the DC power distribution system
How do the recirculation fans operate with both RECIRC FAN switches in AUTO with both pack switches in AUTO?
The 2 recirculation fans (left & right) in the Air Conditioning Distribution Compartment operate.
Which cargo compartment does the EQUIPMENT COOLING ducting go to warm it?
It goes to the FWD Cargo only
What temperatures are the range for the temp selectors (for cabin and cockpit temps)?
65F to 85F for the cockpit and cabin temperature selectors
For normal operation, the controller calculates the correct pack outlet temp for the zone with the lowest ______.
Temp setting
What controls the temp of conditioned air from an external air source?
Nothing
What are the main AC power buses?
XFR BUS 1, 2
When does the OFF SCHEDULE DESCENT (Amber) light illuminates?
If you begin a descent without reaching the preset cruise altitude. The controller programs the cabin to land at the departure elevation without further pilot inputs.
How is the pressurization controlled with the cabin pressurization mode selector in MAN?
MAN mode
•Separate DC Motor
•Powered by Battery Bus
•you drive the outflow valve manually open or closed to achieve the desired altitudes
What are the basic principles of operation for the 737 electrical system?
- There is no paralleling of the AC power sources
- The source of AC power being connected to a transfer bus automatically disconnects an existing source
IDG Drive lights mean what?
The IDG is not supplying power
“Drive electricity to the generator”
What does the stick shaker consist of?
Two eccentric weight motors, one on each control column
What is SMYD?
Stall Management
Yaw Damper Computer
When is the outflow valve position indicator operational?
In all pressurization modes
(Auto, Alternate, Manual)
What two warnings use the same aural tone (intermittent horn) when activated?
•Cabin Altitude
•Takeoff Config
What is the purpose of the overboard exhaust valve (OEV)?
- Controls quantity of equipment cooling exhaust air flowing overboard
- Smoke removal
What provides an equipment cooling alert if an over temp occurs on the ground?
If overtemp occurs on the ground alerting is provided through the crew call horn in the nose wheel well
What temperatures are commanded by positioning all zone temp selectors to OFF?
Left Pack — 75 degrees
Right Pack — 65 degrees
What happens with a failure of the primary flight deck zone temp control?
The flight deck zone controller is a dual channel system so nothing happens. You can recall it on the annunciator.
Packs produce temp to satisfy which zones?
Both packs are controlled to provide the pack outlet temperature that matches the zone with the lowest temperature setting
What does the trim air switch control?
Trim air pressure regulator
and
Shut off valve (trim air valve)
On the stall warning test, what does pressing #1 and #2 buttons do?
A self test on the respective SMYD computers 1 and 2 occurs, it also shakes the control columns
How do you position the pack switches when using external conditioned air?
Packs OFF
APU GEN
OFF BUS
( blue light )
APU is available
but not powering a load
If you’re in flight and the APU is the only source of electrical power which buses are shed?
All galley and main busses are shed automatically
How does the light function?
GRD POWER
AVAILABLE
blue /light blue
When illuminated it indicates the external power cord is connected to the aircraft and the power is available.
 switching it on disconnects the previous connected power source and the external power connection to both transfer buses by opening and closing the external power breaker
Transfer Bus Off
Amber light
The respective transfer bus is not powered (ELEC annunciator and MC lights illuminate)
Do not deploy speedbrakes in-flight below?
1,000 feet
Engines must be cooled for a minimum of _____ minutes after landing?
3
Transient fuel imbalance must not exceed _________ lbs. for taxi, takeoff, flight or landing.
1,000 lbs
MC light occurs after 60 seconds for this condition
Describe the automatic generator online feature
For takeoff with APU GEN power the automatic generator online feature will automatically connect the engine generators to their respective transfer bus.
What kind of stab trim is provided?
- Autopilot trim
-Control wheel stab trim switches
-Stab trim wheels (manual operation)
At what air speed are both hydraulic A and B system pressures reduced to the main rudder PCU?
137 knots
When does a pack automatically switch to high airflow?
As a mental note, if the crosswind component is in the ____ KT range, look up the limitations
30s
For single channel operation during approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below:
50 feet AGL
Where is the table for the Crew Oxygen Requirements located?
( Required if oxygen bottle pressure is less than 1,000psi )
Flight Handbook —> Supplemental —> Airplane General
What is our maximum gust velocity for takeoff and landing?
20 knots (advisory only)
Minimum ground time after landing for quick turns?
NG — 67 min
MAX — 48 min
after block-in
CHECK WHEEL THERMAL PLUGS to ensure they have not melted. For the MAX we must have a maintenance write up to check ALL tires.
During night operations, landing lights must not be ____ for takeoff and landing below ____ feet
Must not be pulsing for takeoff and landing below 500 feet
Severe Turbulence Penetration Speed
.76 / 280 KIAS
How many static dischargers on the NG aircraft?
14 static dischargers, maximum of 2 dischargers may be missing
When must the flight deck door access system check be accomplished?
Once each day
How long is the delay time for the flight deck access door?
60 seconds
Minimum bleed air duct pressure on the ground with engine power at idle, air conditioning packs in AUTO, and engine anti-ice off is _____ PSI
15 PSI
Maximum bleed air duct pressure
60 PSI
Report any bleed air duct pressure differentials exceeding _____ PSI to maintenance
20 psi
Takeoff is not permitted with cold-soaked fuel frost in excess of _____ inch in thickness on the lower wing surfaces
1/8 inch
For single channel operation during approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below _____ feet AGL
Below 50 feet AGL
For a manually flown HGS AIII flown approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below _____ feet AGL
500 feet AGL
Use of aileron trim with autopilot engaged
PROHIBITED
Who can we contact via SATCOM?
Medlink, Company, SFO Radio in the event of an HF failure, emergency comms with ATC
How do we make a call to Medlink?
- Go to the SAT menu in the CPU
- Select a call to Medlink
- Select SAT on the HF/SAT button
- Speak on SAT 1 or SAT 2 and to patch to the FAs make sure to select that on the radio panel on the aft overhead panel
Do not operate the HF radios during ______.
Refueling
When must the broadband wifi antenna be muted?
During aircraft deicing, under bridges, or in hanger
Maximum oil temp before setting takeoff thrust (MAX only)
31 C
After turning on the APU, how long must we wait to utilize the APU bleed air?
2 minutes
Maximum flap extension altitude
20,000 feet
Can we hold with flaps extended?
No
Do not deploy the speed brakes in flight below ________ ft
1,000 feet
Do not deploy the speed brake with more than flaps _____ selected
Flaps 10
Manually overriding the _____ _______ ________ is not authorized
Load Alleviation System
The maximum allowable in flight differ between Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations is _____ feet
200 feet
Transient fuel imbalance must not exceed ______ lbs for taxi, takeoff, flight or landing
1,000 lbs
At what fuel quantity are the main tanks full?
Approximately 8,500 lbs each
Center tank fuel pumps must not be on unless personnel are available in the flight deck to monitor ________________
Low Pressure Lights
Defueling or transferring fuel from a tank that has a fuel quantity less than _______ lbs with passengers on board is prohibited
2000 lbs
Ground operation of electric hydraulic pump requires minimum _____ lbs in respective fuel tank
1675 lbs
Where do the air recirculation fans draw air from?
Left fan — from the air conditioning distribution compartment
Right — cabin air through floor grills on each side passenger cabin
DRIVE
amber light means what?
The respective IDG has low oil pressure due to any number of factors. Its not “driving” power and you get an ELEC annunciator and MC light.
Which flap settings have load relief?
Flaps 10 through 40
Do not use ____ when adjusting the rudder pedals, as damage to the flex shaft mechanism may occur.
Excessive force
Can a decoupled IDG be reconnected?
Yes but only on the ground by maintenance
The SMYD computers provide outputs for all stall warnings, to include:
• Stick shaker
• Signals to the pitch limit indicator & airspeed displays
• the GPWS windshear detection and alert
What does an AUTO SLAT fail annunciator mean?
Positioning the YAW DAMPER switch to “ON” does what?
Causes the main yaw damper to engage the main rudder PCU if the B FLT CONTROL switch is in the ON position
What would cause the LE FLAPS Transit light (amber) to illuminate?
• Any LE device in transit
• or if it’s not in the programmed position, uncommanded motion, alternate flap extension until devices are fully extended and TE flaps reach 15 degrees
During landing when do the ground spoilers deploy?
Weight on wheels
The EEC provides exceedance protection for what parameters in normal mode?
The EEC provides N1 and N2 redline protection in both normal and alternate modes.
What air sources can be used to start an engine in flight?
Windmilling
Crossbleed
What does an engine control amber light mean?
The Engine Control amber light illuminates when the EEC detects faults in the Engine Control system that are not dispatch-able
Engine Type
CFM 56-7B27
What are the start lever positions?
Cutoff and IDLE
What causes the ENG FAIL alert (amber) on the EGT indicator?
ENG FAIL amber alert is displayed in amber on the EGT when the respective engine is operating at a condition below sustainable idle (50% N2) and the Engine Start Lever is in the IDLE position
EEC definition
Electronic Engine Control
It controls and monitors engine parameters
In the event of a jammed control column, what allows for the control column to be physically separated?
Override Mechanism
When is the MACH TRIM system automatically activated?
Mach .615
The flight control computers use Mach information from the ADIRU to compute a MACH TRIM actuator position
What does the FEEL DIFF pressure (Amber) light indicate?
Indicates excessive differential hydraulic pressure within the elevator fuel computer. The flight control annunciator and master caution lights illuminate.
Which hydraulic system does the elevator feel and centering unit use?
Either hydraulic A or B pressure, whichever is higher
The elevators are powered hydraulically, how is the stabilizer powered?
Electronically
-Main electric trim
-Autopilot trim
-Manual trim
If the ailerons or spoilers are jammed, what should be done?
Apply force to identify which system, ailerons or spoilers, is usable and which control wheel, the captains or first officers, can provide role control.
If the ailerons or spoilers are jammed what is the difference to who can provide roll control?
Aileron’s jammed
— aileron transfer mechanism activated and the first officer can control roll through the spoilers. The opposite side controls are in operative.
Spoiler’s jammed
— aileron transfer mechanism activated and the captain can control roll through the ailerons. The opposite side controls are in operative.
What do the spoiler A or B switches control?
The spoiler switches control the respective hydraulic system SPOILER SOV.
This is a maintenance function only.
During a turn, when is the spoiler deflection initiated?
More than approximately 10 degrees bank
How many flight spoilers are installed on each wing?
4
During manual reversion what operates each flight control?
Loss of both hydraulic A and B.
The Ailerons and Elevators are mechanical.
The Rudder is operated by the hydraulic system.
( There is no mechanical operation of the rudder )
What will also happen if the B FLT CONTROL switch is placed into STBY RUD?
The yaw damper switch will release to the OFF position and the Yaw Damper (Amber) light will illuminate.
What does placing the FLIGHT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD do?
— Activates the standby rudder system
— Opens the standby rudder SOV
— Extinguishes the LOW PRESS light
What happens when a FLT CONTROL switch is placed to OFF?
The flight control SOV closes, isolating the hydraulic system pressure from the flight controls. The FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE and FLT CONT annunciator & MC Caution lights illuminate.
What valve do the FLT CONTROL A and B switches control?
Respective flight control shutoff valve
When is the FLT CONTROL LOW PRESSURE light deactivated?
When the associated FLT CONTROL switch is positioned to STBY RUD
What does the flight control low pressure light indicate?
Low pressure on the hydraulic A or B system to the flight controls or elevator feel computer. You would get a FLT CONT annunciator and MC light.
How are the ground spoilers powered?
Hydraulic A only.
Manual reversion (loss of A & B) renders all of the spoiler panels inoperative.
What hydraulic system powers the flight spoilers?
Hydraulic A & B
In the event of a hydraulic B failure, how can the TE flaps be powered?
Electric motor.
The LEDs can be powered by the standby hydraulic system
Under certain high angle of attack conditions what powers the leading edge devices?
The PTU
What are the LEDs? How are they normally powered?
Leading edge flaps
Leading edge slats
Powered by the hydraulic B system
During takeoff when does the rudder automatically become aerodynamically effective?
40 to 60 knots
How is yaw control powered?
A single rudder
How is pitch controlled?
— 2 elevators
— moveable horizontal stabilizer
How is roll control provided?
2 ailerons
8 flight spoilers
What does illumination of a zone temp amber light indicate?
A FWD or AFT zone temp failure and the supply duct overheat and associated trim air modulating valve closes.
How is Yaw control accomplished?
Hydraulically powered rudder and a digital yaw damper system.
The stall warning TEST system is _____ while airborne
Inhibited
How long must the APU be on before using bleed air?
2 minutes
When do you get EGT Redline protection from the EECs?
Only during engine start
Aborted engine start requirements
Accomplish the aborted engine start procedure for:
•no n2 rotation after start switch selected to GRD
•no n1 rotation before start lever is set to idle
•no increase in EGT within 15 seconds after start lever is set to IDLE
•no (or very little) increase in n1 or n2 after EGT indication
•EGT approaching limit
•no oil pressure indication when engine at idle
Define N1
LOW PRESSURE COMPRESSOR (LPC)
• single fan and three stage booster
• 24 wide chord titanium fan blades
• splitter fairing divides air into engine core and fan duct ( 5.6 to 1.0 )
• at takeoff, 80% thrust bypasses airflow
• core air goes through a three stage booster to compress air, VBVs unload and discharge booster air
• after passing booster section, compressed air moves to high pressure chamber
Define N2
High Pressure Compressor (HPC)
• 9 stage compressor increases pressure from the LPC
• 4 stages of the VSVs (variable stator vanes)
• Transient bleed valve (TBV) controls the quantity of the high pressure compressor (HPC) 9th stage that goes into the LPT (Low Pressure Turbine)
• 5th and 9th stages of the HPC for bleed air system and anti-ice
• after passing the HPC, airflows to the compressor
The generator DRIVE light indicates?
- IDG Failure
- Engine Shutdown
- IDG autodecoupled due to high oil temp
When the start lever is positioned to CUTOFF:
The spar fuel SOV and the Engine fuel SOV is closed. The ignition system is also de-energized.
When the start lever is positioned to IDLE:
The ignition system is energized via the EEC
— the spar fuel SOV is opened
— the engine fuel SOV is opened
Which lights will accompany an automatic APU shutdown?
Fault (Amber)
Overspeed (Amber)
Low Oil Pressure (Amber)
or APU FIRE handle illuminates (red)
What does an Amber REV indicate? A green REV?
The TR is in transit = Amber
The TR is deployed and the TR lever can be raised to detent #2
Reverse thrust lever is blocked at reverse idle position until related thrust reverser is more than _______ % deployed?
60 %
For what conditions does the EEC provide abnormal start protection? (on the ground)
• hot starts
• engine stalls
• egt limits
• wet starts
What does the ignition select switch in the IGN R position select?
From where does it receive power?
The EEC arms the igniter plug selected (IGN R). The left igniter plug receives power from the associated AC XFR bus and the right side igniter plug receives power from the AC standby bus.
In this case, the right side igniter is used to start both engines.
What is the spar fuel shut off valve and where is it located?
The spire fuel shut off valve is located in the wing leading edge near the engine pylon for the respective engine. It is electrically controlled motor operated valve commanded open when the engine fire switch is down and seated and the start levers are in idle. It allows fuel to the inlet side of the engine fuel pump.
When does the spar fuel shut off valve automatically close?
The valve closes when either of the start levers are position to cut off or the engine fire switch is pulled up (activated). 
What does an illuminated ‘FILTER BYPASS’ light in (amber) indicate?
The main fuel filter bypass is impending due to a contaminated filter. Before the fuel bypass occurs the EEC generates a signal for the light to illuminate. It causes of fuel annunciator and master caution light.
LOW OIL PRESSURE (Amber) alert
• On the upper display appears when oil pressure is below red line.
• Low oil pressure alert and all remaining amber boxes for the engine flash for 10 seconds then remain steady after that until the condition is corrected.
• Flashing is inhibited during takeoff under 80 knots to 400 feet RA or 30 seconds after reaching 80 knots. 
• Inhibited during landing below 200 feet RA until 30 seconds after takeoff.
Where would you get an ENG FAIL annunciation?
• On the respective N2 EGT digital monitor
• you get a master caution and and Eng on the right side annunciator
• with the engine start lever in the idle position
How do you activate the standby yaw damper? 
—Loss of hydraulic A or B
— Both FLT CONTROL switches to STBY RUD
— yaw damper switch back on
What does the rudder trim control switch do?
Electrically repositions the rudder feel. and centering unit which is just the rudder in the desired direction.
What does a speed brake do not arm light indicate?
ABNORMAL CONDITION
or test inputs to the automatic speed brake system
It will illuminate on landing rollout with the speed brakes deployed and loss of wheel spin up during aircraft deceleration
Which fuel pump should be turned on before the APU start?
Aft left
What does an illuminated SPEED TRIM FAIL (amber) light during a master caution recall indicate?
-Failure of a single FCC Channel
-Failure of the Speed Trim function
What is the purpose of the STAB TRIM switches on the aft electronic panel?
Main electric trim or autopilot stab trim inputs to be disconnected from the stab trim motor.
How does activating the stabilizer trim switch on the control wheel affect autoflight?
Disengages as the auto pilot
What does an illuminated “feel diff press” amber light indicate?
Indicates excessive differential pressure within the elevator fuel computer
Aileron trim is ________ with autopilot engaged.
Prohibited.
Because the input aileron trim will not move the control wheel, so you could be terribly out of trim when you disengage the autopilot.
What happens when a single aileron trim switch is pressed?
Nothing
Which are the roll control surfaces and how are they powered?
— hydraulically powered
— cable driven system connects two control wheels
Ailerons and Flight Spoilers control roll
What system operates the takeoff config warning system?
PSEU
Proximity Switch Electronics Unit
The alternate flap switch after being pressed down once momentarily to extend the LEDs now controls what?
The electric motor to extend the trailing edge flaps or retract the trailing edge flaps
For the alternate flaps what does momentarily flipping the switch to down do?
Fully extends the LEDs
( via hydraulic standby system and cannot be retracted again )
Maximum speed for alternate flap extension of the LEDs
230 knots
Alternate flap extension is accomplished how?
If the hydraulic B system fails…
• Trailing edge flaps can be operated electrically (electric motor)
• Leading edge flaps can be fully extended using the standby hydraulic system
What is flap load relief?
A function of the PSEU, if air speed is too high for the selected flaps setting the flap load relief retracts the trailing edge flaps to the next lower position automatically.
What monitors the position of the wing leading edge flaps/slats and trailing edge flaps for conditions such as asymmetry, skew, and uncommanded motion?
FSEU
Flap / Slat Electronics Unit
How are the autoslats normally powered?
Hydraulic B system
The alternate source is the PTU
What is the purpose of the autoslats
The autoslats system Is designed to enhance aircraft stall characteristics at high angle of attack or takeoff approach or landing. With trailing edge flaps selected from 1 to 25 and the leading edge slats extended at high angles of attack they will go into the full extent position.
When the flap lever is moved from the UP position to the 1, 2, 5, 10, 15 or 25 position, where do the leading edge flaps and slats extend?
- leading edge flaps —> full extend position
- Slats —> extend position
The order is reversed for flap retraction
Where are the flap gates located?
Flaps 1 and Flaps 15
Max Flap Extension Altitude
20,000 feet
What are normal landing flaps positions?
Flaps 15, 30 and 40
Flaps 15 only for non-normal landing configurations
What are the FLAP lever detents?
Up, 1, 2, 5, 10, 15, 25, 30 and 40
Which hydraulic system normally drives the TEFs?
Hydraulic B
Alternate flaps are electrically driven with an electric motor, torque tubes and jack screws
What does amber mean on the leading edge decides annunciator panel?
The related leading edge device is in transit
Moving the SPEED BRAKE lever behind the flight detent causes _______ and is __________ in flight.
Buffeting and is prohibited in flight
In flight, using the speed brake causes which spoilers to extend?
Only the flight spoilers
On the ground when the speed brake lever is positioned to the up position, which spoilers extend?
All flight and ground spoilers extend
The speedbrakes consist of ________ and ______ .
Flight spoilers and ground spoilers
The standby yaw damper operates under which hydraulic system?
Standby hydraulic system
The QRH will have you re-engage the yaw damper switch
What hydraulic system does the main yaw damper require?
Hydraulic B system
What is the gear pin for?
Its installed if pushback or towing will be accomplished, otherwise it should be removed. If installed, it will keep the gear from retracting.
What are these?
Snubbers
Where is the oxygen pressure relief (green) disk?
Forward left of the fuselage
What is the name of this opening and what are we checking for?
Overboard Exhaust Valve Port
If exhaust airflow is flowing then we know AC power is applied to the aircraft.
Is there anything we should check for in the cargo compartments?
Smoke detector sensors (in ceiling) are undamaged.
What is this?
Ram Air Deflector Door
Ram Air Inlet
What are these?
Fuel Measuring sticks
What is this?
Fuel Tank Vent
(Red) Pressure Relief valve
For wings with winglets how many trailing edge static wicks should we have?
2 trailing edge wicks
What are these?
Overwing emergency exits and UPPER anti collision light
Where is the HF?
In the vertical stabilizer
What is this in the wheel well?
Frangible fitting
What is the danger of the the HYD A or B reservoirs being overfilled?
What is this?
Outflow valve
(Verify no loose blankets are visible)
What is this?
Negative pressure relief valve
What is this?
APU air inlet
What are these?
Elevator feel probes (left and right)
How many static wicks on the vertical stabilizer and rudder?
1 tip and 3 trailing edge wicks
(4 total)
How many static wicks on the horizontal stabilizer?
1 tip & 2 trailing edge wicks per side
(6 total)
What is this?
APU ACCESS DOOR
What should we check for in the left main wheel well?
The fire extinguisher bottle pressure, verifying the pressure is adequate per bottle placard or Engine Fire extinguisher bottle pressure temp curve in the supplemental procedures section
What kind of thrust reverser does the Boeing have?
Cascade thrust reverser
Do not engage the autopilot below _______ feet AGL
1,000 feet AGL
For single channel operation during approach the autopilot shall not remain engaged below ____ feet AGL.
50 feet AGL
For manually flown AIII approach, the autopilot shall not remain engaged below _____ feet AGL.
500 feet AGL
What happens at Glideslope intercept in the electrical system?
The Cross Bus Tie Relay automatically opens to isolate DC BUS 1 from DC BUS 2
For a Windshear on takeoff, the takeoff data that was sent for will include a ROTATE speed, how does that work?
If the windshear occurs prior to V1, abort the takeoff.
If the Windshear doesn’t occur at all, say V1, then VR then Rotate (using the handwritten Windshear Rotation speed given by the takeoff data)
If Windshear DOES occur past V1, Rotate past VR whenever it occurs even if it’s prior to the Rotate speed.
At what weather conditions can an FO takeoff?
Above 1/4 SM or 1,600 RVR
What is the callout for a First Officer to keep the Captian on the runway during a low visibility takeoff or landing?
CENTERLINE, STEER LEFT /RIGHT
When is a takeoff alternate required?
Category I
Landing minimums at the field
When must the captain make that takeoff in low visibility operations?
1/4 SM or 1,600 RVR or below
When must we use low visibility operations for taxi?
1200 RVR (or below) or restricted visibility which includes dense fog or heavy precipitation requires compliance with taxi low visibility operations
When is HGS required for a low visibility takeoff?
Below 500 feet RVR
(Remember that Captains must takeoff at 1/4 SM or 1600 RVR)
For low visibility takeoffs where should we check to see the airport minimum requirements?
The Jeppesen charts typically the back of the 10 nine lists the specific runway takeoff RVR lighting and visual aids required for departure. If we don’t have the visible aids we cannot depart. SEE OUR OPS SPECS BELOW 👇
For an HGS takeoff (which is required below 500 feet RVR) what guidance do we have?
The HGS takeoff briefing card in the PRCs
For an HGS takeoff what frequency is used to help the captain maintain the centerline? What callouts should the first officer make if the Captain is not maintaining the centerline?
The takeoff runway localizer frequency.

What are the callouts for an aborted takeoff?
ABORT, I’VE GOT IT
AP DISENGAGE & THRUST LEVERS TO IDLE
SPEEDBRAKE LEVER FULL
THRUST REVERSERS DEPLOY
During a rejected takeoff what else should the first officer note?
Brakes on Speed during an aborted takeoff
What are the normal callouts on a VNAV PATH approach?
No 500 foot call on a VNAV approach
ILS approach callouts
What are the only items we ABORT for after 80 knots and prior to V1? 
• Takeoff configuration warning
• Fire or fire warning
• Engine Failure
• Predictive Windshear
• If the aircraft is unsafe or unable to fly
If windshear is encountered prior to VR what considerations should we note?
Request windshear takeoff performance data via ACARS or dispatch
If predictive windshear warning activates during the takeoff roll prior to V1 what should we do?
Abort the takeoff
“ABORT, I’VE GOT IT”
What is the windshear escape maneuver?
On takeoff rotate at a normal rate to 15 degrees pitch, then perform the WINDSHEAR ESCAPE MANEUVER.
WINDSHEAR ESCAPE MANEUVER
Turn off the auto pilot and the autothrottle
Hit TOGA
Follow the flight Director TOGA pitch guidance
Thrust levers to Full
Wings level and speedbreaks stowed
During the windshear escape maneuver what should the pilot monitoring be doing?
Ensuring maximum thrust and verify that all required actions have been completed for the windshear escape maneuver.
Make vertical speed and radio altimeter callouts.
V1 Cut callouts and sequence
500 feet verify ____
At engine out acceleration height “VNAV” (or Bug UP, N1) and being acceleration to clean up
After takeoff checklist complete, engage VNAV if not already and call for
“Set Maximum Continuous Thrust”
and
“What’s the problem?”
Then call for the correct QRC or QRH checklist
Engine fire, failure, severe damage on takeoff profile
ENGAGE VNAV at the Engine Out Acceleration Height
What is the engine fire QRC checklist called?
Engine fire, severe damage or separation QRC
What is the engine failure QRH checklist called?
Engine failure or shutdown QRH
Single engine missed approach profile
On a single engine go-around,  when must we limit our bank angle?
Limit the bank and go to 15° anytime the airspeed is below the top of the lower amber band
What are the callouts for a single engine missed approach?
What guidance do we have for PRM approaches?
PRM approach review card PRC
If unreliable airspeed occurs on takeoff what pitch should we pitch to?
15° pitch

What is a derived decision altitude?
DDA = MDA + 50 ft
The “Most Definitely Add” portion of the MDA minimums
What are the callouts for an HGS AIII approach?
What should we be aware of?
Landing configuration
(ALSO go-around)
What is the maximum operating speed limit?
Vmo / Mmo and gear/ flap placards
For the first activation of the TOGA switch the autothrottle commands what type of go around? Subsequent activation of TOGA commands what type of go around?
When is the stab out of trim amber light armed and illuminated?
When does the speed trim system operate and what is it for?
The speed trim system provides speed trim for speed stability during specific flight regimes including high AOA stall protection DURING MANUAL flight operations (AP OFF).
Low airspeeds. Low gross weight.
Aft CG. High Thrust.
The speed trim returns the aircraft to a trimmed speed by commanding the stabilizer in a direction opposite the speed change. The speed trim operates most frequently during takeoff, climb, and go-around.
What does increasing the deflection of flight spoilers on the ground do to the Aircraft?
Reduces lift, increased aircraft to ground pressure, and increases drag
The outboard an inboard DUs present what information?
DC FAIL (on IRS panel)
What are some of the indications for a right FMC failure?
What is the purpose of the PTU?
Standby Hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light
What is this panel called?
Audio Control Panel
What is this panel called?
Radio Tuning Panel
What are the 3 types of audio control panels?
What are these called on the ACP?
Below the transmitter selector switches are the… ?
Receiver switches
What is this switch and what are the positions for?
Filter Switch
“V” for Navaid “VOICE” audio
“R” for station identifier RANGE audio
“B” for both
What is this switch and what is it for?
The ALT /NORM switch allows for operation of the ACP in a degraded mode due to a failure of a [Remote Electronics Unit] and could be switched to ALT after running a QRC checklist called the MODE CONTROL PANEL LOCKUP.
When in ‘ALT’ mode, the ACP is inoperative and each crewmember can only communicate on one radio each.
What are the differences between the NON-ETOPS with SATCOM, ETOPS with HF, and ETOPS with SATCOM audio control panels?
The middle receiver switches
In “ALT” mode on the ACP, which radio is assigned to each pilot in the degraded mode?
CAPT — VHF 1
FO — VHF 2
OBSRVR — VHF 1
In ALT mode on the ACP (the ACP is degraded and each pilot is directly connected to a VHF radio) — what else on the panel still works?
Mask and boom mics are usable
What does this switch do on the radio tuning panel?
Turns off the Radio Tuning Panel
What is this light for?
Offside tuning light.
The radio normally associated with this RTP is being tuned by another panel.
On an ETOPS RTP (Radio Tuning Panel) what does the AM switch control?
What is HF “AM” or “USB”
Amplitude Modulation
Upper Side Band (normal HF mode)
The HF wave that you are transmitting will be modulated to a lower frequency (a longer wavelength) on modulation mode “AM” but there are better highly efficient forms of AM that are more modern (like Single Sideband — SSB). We are defaulted to using the USB, when the AM switch is not selected.
Where are the VHF and HF antennas located on the aircraft?
When you transmit on the HF on the ground, ensure that personnel stay a minimum of ______ feet from the vertical stabilizer when the HF system transmits.
Ensure personnel stay 10 feet away from the vertical stabilizer
(better yet — don’t use HF on the ground)
___________ the HF radio when the aircraft is being fueled or defueled
DO NOT KEY
The Service Interphone switch turns on the external jacks ON or OFF
How does the ACARS transmit data?
It will use VHF, SAT, then HF — in that order.
How do we contact Medlink, then pass the Medlink transmission over to the Flight Attendant headsets?
SATCOM is the primary method to contact Medlink.
Once speaking with Medlink on the SAT selected radio [ by selecting SAT 1 or 2 on the HF panel and SAT 1 or 2 on the RCP and Medlink on the SAT Menu in the CDU ]
you can then have the flight attendants speak with Medlink by correct selection of the ACP panel on the Aft Overhead because the flight attendant headset jacks ARE TIED DIRECTLY TO THE FD OBSERVER ACP. So set their volume up on the 3rd ACP in the flight deck and select the correct “SAT” frequency (or whichever frequency you’re speaking to Medlink on) for them on that ACP. If the flight attendants are connected to the headset jack they will be able to transmit and hear through that ACP
When is the CVR powered?
Anytime we have AC power on the aircraft
(Specifically Transfer Bus #2)
Where is the CVR located?
Aft baggage compartment, aft of the cargo door
Is there a MASK — BOOM switch on the ACP in the Boeing 9MAX?
No
Where are the Medlink Jacks for the flight attendants in the cabin located? Where are the headsets located?
What type of engines do we have?
Are there any differences between L and R CFM engines?
No, they are identical
On the CFM 56-7B
Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump location
On the CFM 56-7B
The IDG (integrated line generator),
Generator and Constant speed drive combined into one unit called an IDG.
On the CFM 56-7B
Starter
On the CFM 56-7B
Starter Valve
(Hose ducting from the APU or ground air)
On the CFM 56-7B
HMU (Hydro Mechanical Unit)
The HMU regulates the amount of fuel delivered to the engine as required during engine operation
On the CFM 56-7B
Fuel main line
from the fuel pumps in the main wing tanks
On the CFM 56-7B
Spark plugs
When CONT on the igniters you get continuous spark
On the CFM 56-7B
Oil tank
(accessed by oil service door on the cowl)
On the CFM 56-7B
Igniter boxes
(2 of them per engine)
On the CFM 56-7B
Engine Anti-ice Duct
(goes to the inlet cowl to heat the lip)
On the CFM 56-7B
Engine Anti-ice valve
On the LEAP -1B28
Accessory Gearbox
The Starter is on the very bottom of the accessory gearbox and will start spinning the accessory gearbox when starting the engine, which in turn starts the N2 rotation, and drives accessories on the accessory gearbox. The starter is at the very bottom of the accessory gearbox.
On the LEAP -1B28
Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump
( on the accessory gearbox )
On the LEAP -1B28
IDG
( on the accessory gearbox )
On the LEAP -1B28
Manual Start Valve
On the LEAP -1B28
Engine Driven Fuel pump
it’s off the accessory gearbox too
On the LEAP -1B28
Fuel filter
On the LEAP -1B28
Fuel Metering
On the LEAP -1B28
Split Control Unit
Takes fuel and moves it into the fuel nozzles
On the LEAP -1B28
Valves that bring colder air to shrink the casing around some of the turbine blades, which improves efficiency. As the engine speed is increased or decrease the valves modulate the air for best efficiency. The tubes on the outside and the inside are where the air goes to shrink or expand the casing around the blades.
On the LEAP -1B28
Temperature Probes (EGT)
There are several and it takes an average EGT of all of them
On the LEAP -1B28
Fire Loops
( Red Engine Fire handles )
On the LEAP -1B28
Transient Bleed Valve?
It uses fuel and electronics to open and close valves that keep the air pressures EVEN inside the compressor, if it relieves air it dumps it into the exhaust to keep the pressures even. This also protects against internal compressor stalls.
Very Important!
On the LEAP -1B28
PRSOV (?)
Bleed Switch ON or OFF moves this valve
On the LEAP -1B28
High stage valve
Introduces higher stage compression air for more bleed air to the PACKS in case of low power settings
On the LEAP -1B28
Fan frame area LOUVERS
The IDG and Engine Oil are cooled off the louvers like a radiator
On the LEAP -1B28
Oil tank
On the LEAP -1B28
Engine computers (EEC)
Channel A and Channel B
On the Leap 1B28
Engine anti-ice valve
On the Leap 1B28
Engine Anti-ice ducting
What does LEAP stand for?
In relation to the CFM-56 engines, how are the LEAP-1B28 engines mounted?
Mounted higher on the wings and further forward
How high has the nose gear been raised up on the Boeing MAX for clearance because of the Leap 1B28 engines?
8 inches
What kind of idle speed does the LEAP 1B28 have that the CFM 56 doesn’t have?
Icing Idle
On the MAX what do the Fuel Flow engine alert lights mean?
The predicted FMC fuel flow rate and the actual engine fuel flow rate do not match for 5 consecutive minutes
The thrust reversers on the MAX have extra reverser lights, what are they for?
•Reverser Limited
•Reverser Command
•Reverser Air /Ground
• Reverse thrust light — reverser will not deploy
• Reverser command — the reverser lever is not stowed in flight
• Reverser Air /Ground — the air ground logic for the reverser has failed
When does the reverse video show up on the engine instruments?
Does the EEC have engine flameout protection?
At what N2 % does the starter normally cutout?
Approximately 56%
If you were to get an engine fire while taxiing to the runway or at the gate, what checklist should you call for?
Engine Fire on the Ground QRH
Wait for how long after APU GEN OFF (blue) extinguishes before positioning BAT to OFF?
2 min (NG)
3 min (MAX)
What is EFAH?
Where do you find ACCEL height, what does it mean and when do you use it?
• T/O Performance Data
• If we have a single engine on takeoff the EOAH (ACCEL) is the speed at which the AFDS is signaled to begin the acceleration phase. In the example it’s 673 AFE. You set this in the TAKEOFF PAGE 2 page.
• The EOAA (Engine Out Acceleration Altitude) is the MSL altitude you set in the BARO that is literally the MSL altitude of the ACCEL HT.
When the aircraft reaches ACCEL HT, accelerate to clean maneuvering speed.
What is TORA?
Takeoff Run Available
Declared length of the runway for takeoff
What is TODA?
Takeoff Distance Available
Including flight up to 35 feet with single engine or dual engine
What is ASDA?
What is LDA?
Landing Distance Available
ACARS and TPR distances are declared distances
Where is the EVAS located?
What should you do before discharging the halon fire extinguisher?
How long does the PBE last?
What’s the primary use of the crash axe?
Are FAMs required to show us identification in the flight deck?
No.
What does RON mean?
What color are lead-off or lead-on lights to pilots entering the runway or exiting the runway?
On the SMGCS chart, what colors are the lights indicating runway holding positions?
What does SA mean on an approach chart?
For takeoff performance, at what windspeed difference does our data become invalid?
How do you find QTAW?
Quick turn around weight?
For airports that are high elevation, hot conditions or tailwinds (or overweight landing) the QTAW is found by running ACARS ldg data for a DRY RUNWAY to find the data. It will not show up with a code.
When entering a CODE 5,4,3,2,1 into the LDG DATA for a different than dry runway to get factored landing data, what MUST you also select to make the data accurate?
To make the proper autobrake selection (in this case AB-MAX) or select whichever autobrake you are looking to use.
What does the Bleed Trip OFF (Amber light) indicate?
What do the Engine Bleed Air Switches do when positioned ON?
What code do we use to connect to CPDLC in the continental 48 states?
KUSA
What code do we use to connect to CPDLC in Alaska?
PAZA
What code do we use to connect to CPDLC in Belize?
KUSA
What code do we use to connect to CPDLC in Canada?
Find it on the Jepp Chart
What code do we use to connect to CPDLC in Costa Rica?
MHCC
What code do we use to connect to CPDLC in Hawaii?
KZAK
What code do we use to connect to CPDLC in Mexico?
KUSA
On takeoff, what must be briefed if fog rolls in and RVR reduces?
The HGS takeoff briefing card, the 10-9A for airport minimum requirements for takeoff, and the PRC Departure Weather References card for low visibility takeoff requirements.
For example: a takeoff on RWY 16L in SEA we can takeoff at 300 RVR with both the 10-9A and the lowest on the PRC card.
What is the difference between a GSC and an ISC?
GSC : screening passengers, airplane services, ground support for in flight emergency responses, security of airport operations and baggage and cargo. Communicating all pertinent security information to the ISC (Captain).
ISC: Security briefing prior to pushback, reports any security incident with an irregularity report, determines and responds appropriately to passenger cabin security threat levels, the final authority on how to deal with incidents on board the aircraft, selects proper transponder code 7500 or 7700 in an emergency.
For the Exterior Preflight Inspection, what are the two allowable frost exceptions?
- Thin Hoarfrost on upper surfaces of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear. Hoarfrost may be an indication that frost exists on critical surfaces though, which is unacceptable.
- Cold soaked fuel frost. On the upper wing surface within painted CSFF area. OAT above 4 C, no visible moisture.
On the lower wing it must be less than 1/8 inch and in the vicinity of the fuel tanks
At what time should we do a secondary ice inspection if it’s necessary and when is it required?
An ice check by the deicing crew or a secondary ice inspection by the crew is done 15 min Prior to Push.
It is required if frost is found on the underside of the wing or if any icing was on the aircraft or icing conditions exist.
How do I know who’s doing the Ice Check / Secondary Ice Inspection? Is it me or the deice crew?
The 10-7 states on the DEICE page if an Ice Check is not provided.
What are the Secondary Ice Inspection procedures?
What color is Type I deicing fluid?
Orange
What color is type IV deicing fluid?
Green
In general, what are the takeoff power performance settings for each variant, B700, 800, 900, 900ER, and 9MAX?
Which aircraft type has BUMP thrust? What rating does it go to? When should we use BUMP performance thrust?
The 737-800W and 737-800W-SFP has thrust bump to 27K
What constitutes a “stable approach?”
If you upload a DCL change enroute on your flight plan, remember to do what?
Re-upload your runway, SID and transition because it drops them all
Is it required for pilots to crosscheck with each other the flight plan route?
Both pilots check the route independently and all the fixes/altitudes on the departure procedure from the legs page.
After the clearance has been received both pilots re-verify the route.
Who checks the FMC/RTE page and who reads the clearance/flight plan route?
What does the Trim Air switch do?
CONT CAB Zone Temp Amber light
FWD or AFT zone temp Amber light
FWD or AFT ZONE TEMP amber light
What is acceptable frost on the Wings?
What is the EQUIPT COOLING SUPPLY switch for?
What is the EQUIPT COOLING EXHAUST switch for?
What do the OFF lights mean on the EQUIPT COOLING SUPPLY / EXHAUST switch panel?
What does the Ram Air do for the A/C system?
How does the mix manifold work in the A/C system?
For the takeoff performance PTOW source material, what must we compare it with?
Performance PTOW vs equal to or greater than release TOW
Where is a place on the FMC to check your takeoff weight numbers vs planned?
Takeoff Ref Page
The left side number (actual TOW) needs to be below or match the right side number (what TO data you have loaded).
What does the FC number mean?
Fuel Capacity
What does TFBURN mean?
Thousand Fuel Burn
If you take on an extra thousand lbs of fuel it will cost you this amount
If VNAV is not being used what is the preferred method for altitude changes?
If VNAV is not being used then LVL CHG for altitude changes > 3K feet. V/S preferred for alt changes < $3K feet.
For a non-ILS approach flown, what altitude do we set on the MCP
TDZE should be used, if available.
First activation of TO/GA switch, A/T commands what level of thrust upon go-around?
Reduced.
Subsequent activation commands what level of thrust upon go-around?
Maximum
When is minimum speed reversion not available?
Mode control panel lockup
What does a flashing “A” mean next to the speed in the speed window, if it appears?
The speed you have selected is below Vmvr so the commanded speed cannot be reached.
What does a flashing “8” on the IAS/MACH speed window mean before the speed?
What part of the cockpit door is bulletproof?
Both the door and the viewing window
Is the cockpit door bulletproof?
Yes the door and the viewing window
What is a defensive tactic from the FOM to use to help create a barrier to thwart a Flight Deck intruder?
Assume a Level 4 Hijack or attempted hijack in progress
Threat level 1
How many passengers does a typical life raft hold and how many life rafts do we have?
56 passengers per life raft which can be exceeded to 84 passengers
In a water evacuation in the 737, are the rear doors available for use?
No.
How many life rafts are on the ETOPs 800 and 900 series aircraft ?
4 liferafts that must be taken to each available door / window
Raft 1 to L1 door
Raft 2 to R1 door
Raft 3 to window aircraft left
Raft 4 to window aircraft right
Do non-ETOP aircraft have rafts?
What is the raft configuration for the 9MAX aircraft?
Once removing the rafts from the airplane and assigning each of them to an emergency exit, do we attach them to the plane? How do they inflate?
What are the upper wing surface requirements for icing?
•CSFF not beyond the painted lines
•Fuel temp -16 or higher
•OAT 4 or higher
•No visible moisture
What are the CPDLC frequencies you need to log into in different locations?
At what altitude and what conditions is the critical point calculated on an ETOPs flight?
10,000 feet
Single Engine with forecast winds
On an ETOPs flight or any flight over the Pacific and you’ve lost general position to your flight plan, what phraseology should be used to ATC?
ATC must be contacted immediately and use the phraseology, “Position Doubtful”
What devices are permitted per the FOM to carry as a crewmember?
•one laptop
•one company ipad
Per the FAA, does the +15 min that is added to the end of the FDP calculated as a part of crewmember rest?
No.
If you have a dual FMC failure in ETOPs airspace, what procedures do you use to maintain course?
- Maintain current track using HDG SEL referencing the magnetic track on ND
- After waypoint passage, refrence and match the flight plan magnetic course for initial track
- Plot position every 15 minutes and report the degraded navigation with ATC
How long is an ETOPS pre-departure check good for?
4 hours after proposed departure time
What are the deviation procedures for ETOPs airspace?
•5 mi contingency offset
•30 degree plus bank required
•after flying the offset, descend or climb by 500 feet from assigned altitude
•In parallel airways courses descend below FL290
•Sqwak 7700
What is the CPDLC login policy for Alaska? Belize? Canada? Costa Rica? Hawaii? Mexico?
Alaska = PAZA
Belize = KUSA
Canada = see jepps
Costa Rica = MHCC
Hawaii = KZAK
Mexico = KUSA
If ATC COMM terminated message is received, what is recommended?
Re-submit a login KUSA
Who do you contact about dangerous goods?
What something important to remember about transport of Dry Ice?
Do nonETOPS aircraft have life rafts?
What are the First Officer duties after ditching?
What is the Captain’s responsibility after ditching?
How do we apply wind additives?
When do you determine and brief the LTP?
When is landing prohibited?
When is MAX breaking required?
What is unique about the spoiler / speedbrake system in the MAX?
What do you do if the Takeoff Config Warning goes off during takeoff?
Main electric stab trim has two speeds, what are they and when?
What is the speed brake usage with flaps limitation?
Speedbrake altitude limitation
Describe the alternate flap position switch and its purpose
When the alternate flaps master switch is positioned to ARM from its guarded off position, what happens?
What do the engine cowl flaps look like opened and closed?
Severe Turbulence
Penetration Procedure (per FH)
What is a good memory tool for the windshear recovery procedure? 
Click, click, click, slam, slam
Click — AP off
Click — AT off
Click — TOGA button
Slam — power forward to detent
Slam — speedbrake forward
Above FL250, what is our holding speed?
If all 3 generators are inoperative and you’re on standby power only, what buses/batteries power the system?
The AUX battery / Battery
powers the Battery Bus, Switched Hot Battery bus, DC Standby Bus, and Hot Battery Bus which powers the inverter
If you’re at the gate and the APU is running, what happens if you turn the BAT switch off?
If the aircraft is a RON, under what conditions should we leave the aircraft WITH THE APU RUNNING / BAT ON?
In Chicago and possibly in other locations for aircraft heating
Does the MAX9 have the circuit breakers on the center pedestal like the NG?
No
Is there a cross connection between the Capt and FO pitot probes?
Is there a cross connection between the Capt and FO pitot probes?
What’s the difference between EXTRA fuel and DELAY fuel?
Extra means fuel for delayed taxi.
Delay means fuel for in air delays.
How can you create a BINGO fuel reminder in the plane?
On the PERF INIT page the reserve fuel is the sum of the reserve + alternate fuel
Consider increasing this fuel to reflect the amount of BINGO fuel needed to reach your alternate (land with 5.5 lbs or so), which will then give you an alert when you reach this fuel
How are the Engine Bleed switches powered?
DC-controlled, pressure operated, bleed air valves.
If the APU is shut down what automatically closes?
APU Bleed Air Valve
What electrical power does the duct pressure indicator require to operate?
AC Power
What differential pressure should the duct pressure differentials not exceed?
20 PSI between the two of them
Is the bleed air isolation valve AC or DC motor operated?
AC motor
Does the DUAL BLEED amber light illuminate?
When the dual bleed amber light is illuminated what is required of us?
Thrust must be limited to idle
Bleed Air Diagram
What psi is the 5th stage bleed air regulated to?
What psi is the 9th stage bleed air regulated to?
During normal cruise power settings what does the engine bleed air valve regulate duct pressure to?
When does the high stage valve operate?
Automatically when duct pressure drops below 32PSI
What does the trip reset button do?
What does the PACK amber light indicate?
What do the PACK switches control?
Canada only uses CPDLC at and above ______.
FL290
What should you do if you suspect that your aircraft is experiencing CPDLC block list behavior?
- Verify VHF3 is in DATA.
- Logon to KUSA, a “Failed Logon” msg immediately likely indicates blocklist.
- Wait 25 min before trying again.
- If unable to get a successful login, make a logbook write up “CPDLC INOP, suspect Blocked List”
How will you know if the jet in on a CPDLC Blocked List?
If after departure, typically around 10,000-15,000 feet you get an “END SERVICE” message or get this message enroute.
What is “Alpha Pump”?
For Non-ILS approach procedures, what are the preferred roll and pitch modes?
When can you set MCP Altitude to Field Elevation on a VNAV approach?
- LNAV/VNAV Engaged.
- Cleared for the Approach.
- Altitude Constraints verified.
Is there a 500 ft callout on a VNAV approach?
No. No 500 ft callout!
Which AUTOBRAKE selection makes since to use?
Autobrake 3 or MAX
Autobrake 2 is not being used when at the first reverse thrust detent because your AB2 deceleration rate is being matched and it disengages itself
What is XTRA fuel used for?
Delays prior to departure
What is DLY fuel used for?
Enroute delays
For a VNAV Path Approach, remember what exists as a reference?
The VNAV Path Review Card
VNAV Path Approaches can be flown to what minima?
- GP intercept and FAF are co-located.
- No LOC step-down altitudes after the FAF penetrate the glide path.
What is one way to get better airflow with extended ground times?
What is another anti-ice limitation just for the MAX?
Name 4 SE Alaska Airports
Can airport personnel issue braking action reports?
No
A contaminated runway is defined as:
how long do we wait until turning off the battery?
how long do we wait until turning off the battery?
What is the Maximum Operating Limit?
(Operating Speeds)
Observe Vmo/Mmo & Gear /Flap Placards
What is the Maximum Operating Limit?
(Operating Speeds)
Observe Vmo/Mmo & Gear /Flap Placards
With either one or both engine BLEED air switches ON, do not operate air conditioning packs in HIGH for _________
takeoff, approach or landing
except during climb and cruise below -40C SAT
except during climb and cruise below -40C SAT
Low Airspeed
Low Gross Wt
Aft CG
High Thrust
